General Studies Test – 3

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1.       With reference to the Rim of the Pacific Exercise (RIMPAC), consider the following statements.

1.       It is the world’s largest international maritime exercise.

2.       Only Pacific Ocean littoral countries participate in this exercise.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)     1 only 4

(b)     2 only

(c)     Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

2.       Which of the following laws are the legacies of British rule in India?

1.       Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code

2.       Section 124-A of the Indian Penal Code

3.       Armed Forces Special Power Act

4.       Section 499 and 500 of the Indian Penal

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)     1 and 3 only

(b)     2 and 4 only

(c)     1, 2 and 4 only

(d)     2 and 3 only

3.       Which of the following were the reasons for French decline in India?

1.       French army was no match for British army

2.       French monarchy had no stakes in the French company

3.       French were engaged in continental expansion in Europe

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)     1 and 2 only

(b)     2 and 3 only

(c)     1 only

(d)     All of these

4.       Consider the following with reference to “Coral reefs”.

1.       Coral reefs are symbiotic association of coral polyps and algae.

2.       Muddy waters are more suitable for the growth of coral reefs.

3.       Coral reefs are equivalent to marine of tropical rain forest.

4.       Lakshadweep islands are of coral origin.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a)     1 and 4 only

(b)     1,3 and 4 only

(c)     2 and 3 only

(d)     1,2,3 and 4

5.       With reference to the Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI), which of the following statements is/are not correct?

1.       BCSBI defines the benchmarks for banking services in India.

2.       It oversees the Scheme of Banking Ombudsman.

3.       It is a statutory body under the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)     1 only

(b)     1 and 2 only

(c)     2 and 3 only

(d)     1, 2 and 3

6.       Which one of the following statements about the provisions of the Constitution of India is correct?

(a)     Minorities can establish and administer educational institutions of their choice

(b)     Only linguistic, ethnic and religious minorities find mention under Article 30

(c)     Every religious denomination has unfettered right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.

(d)     An educational institution established by a religious minority loses its minority status on receiving financial aid from the Government.

7.       The Peshwa accepted the Subsidiary Alliance with the British via which among the following treaties?

(a)     Treaty of Purandhar

(b)     Treaty of Bassein

(c)     Treaty of Salbai

(d)     Treaty of Surji Arjunagaon

8.       Consider the following statements in the context of Peruvian current.

1.       It is cold current

2.       It is responsible for fishing productivity in Peruvian coast.

3.       It cases dryness in Atacama Desert. Which of the statements given above is / are correct

(a)     1 and 2 only

(b)     2 and 3 only

(c)     1 and 3 Only

(d)     1, 2 and 3

9. Match the Following

(a)           (b)           (c)          (d)

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 1 2 3 4

(c) 3 1 2 4

(d) 2 4 1 3

(a)     (b)     (c)     (d)

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 1 2 3 4

(c) 3 1 2 4

(d) 2 4 1 3

10.     With reference to the fish production in India, consider the following statements.

1.       In terms of fish production, the inland fisheries sector contributes more than that of the marine sector.

2.       India’s marine fisheries production is more in Gujarat as compared to other States.

3.       In India is the second largest fish producing country in the World. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)     1 and 2 only

(b)     2 and 3 only

(c)     1, 2 and 3 only

(d)     None of the above statements are correct

11.     With reference to the Asia Pacific Trade Agreement (APTA), consider the following statements.

1.       It is an initiative under the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UN ESCAP) for trade expansion among developing country members of the Asia Pacific Region.

2.       India and Pakistan are among the founding members of this Preferential Trade Agreement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)     Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

12.     Which among the following is correct with regards to the Constituent assembly of India?

(a)     Constituent assembly was democratically elected by the people of India.

(b)     The representatives of each community were elected by the members of that community itself.

(c)     Each province/princely states were allocated seats based on their geographical area.

(d)     Mahatma Gandhi was a member of the constituent assembly until he was assassinated in 1948.

13.     Who among the following signed the Treaty of Bassein in 1802 with the British East India Company?

(a)     Baji Rao II

(b)     Baji Rao I

(c)     Sultan Bahadur

(d)     None of the above

14.     Which of the following is not correct in the context of “Wildfires”?

(a)     These are controlled blazes fuelled by weather, wind, and dry underbrush etc.

(b)     They return nutrients to the soil

(c)     They act as a disinfectant.

(d)     They allow sunlight to reach the forest floor, enabling a new generation of seedlings to grow.

15.     In which of the following states, the indigenous beliefs “Donyi-Polo” and “Rangfra” are practiced?

(a)     Arunachal Pradesh

(b)     Mizoram

(c)     Manipur

(d)     Assam

16.     Which of the following functions were performed by the Constituent Assembly of India?

1.       Enactment of the ordinary laws

2.       Adoption of National Flag and National Anthem.

3.       Election of the First President of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)     1 and 2 only

(b)     1 and 3 only

(c)     2 and 3 only

(d)     1, 2 and 3

17.     In the tenure of which Governor-General an attempt was made for the first time to codify Hindu and Muslim customary laws?

(a)     Lord Cornwallis

(b)     Warren Hastings

(c)     William Bentinck

(d)     Charles Metcalfe

18.     Which of the following factors is / are responsible for tides formation?

1.       Earth’s gravitational pull

2.       Moon’s gravitational pull

3.       Sun’s gravitational pull

4.       Centrifugal force due to earth’s rotation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a)     2 and 3 only

(b)     1,2 and 3 only

(c)     2,3 and 4 only

(d)     1,2,3 and 4

19.     Consider the following statements regarding the Aral Sea

1.       The Aral Sea was an endorheic lake

2.       It lies between Kazakhstan (Aktobe and Kyzylorda Regions) in the north and Uzbekistan (Karakalpakstan autonomous region) in the south.

Which of the above given statements are incorrect?

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)     Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

20.     Consider the following statements about the Lokpal in India.

1.       The institution of Lokpal was first recommended by the first Administrative Reforms Commission.

2.       Under the Lokpal Act (2013), Jurisdiction of Lokpal includes Prime Minister, Ministers, and Members of Parliament.

3. As per the Lokpal Act of 2013, Lokpal can take Suo Motu actions against any public servant.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 and 3 only

(c)     1 and 2 only

(d)     1 and 3 only

21.     With reference to the recently launched “cVIGIL” mobile App, consider the following statements.

1.       The App enables the employees of public sector undertakings to report any instances of corruption in their organization.

2.       The application was launched by the department of personnel and training. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)     Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

22.     Consider the following statements about the “Preamble” of the Indian Constitution

1.       It has been amended only once since its inception.

2.       It is not a part of the constitution.

3. It is justifiable in nature

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)     1 only

(b)     1 and 2 only

(c)     2 and 3 only

(d)     1, 2 and 3

23.     Which among the following was the first municipal corporation set up in India in the year 1687?

(a)     Madras Municipal Corporation

(b)     Bombay Municipal Corporation

(c)     Delhi Municipal Corporation

(d)     None of the above

24.     Which of the following statements is / are correct?

1.       Britain has no climate, only weather.

2.       Egypt has no weather, only climate. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 Only

(c)     Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

25.     With reference to the SAARC development fund (SDF), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.       SDF was setup by the World Bank to accelerate economic growth, social progress and poverty alleviation in the SAARC region.

2.       The headquarters of the SDF is located at the Thimpu, Bhutan. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)     Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

1.A ,2.C ,3.B ,4.B ,5.C ,6.A ,7.B ,8.A ,9.B ,10.C ,11.A ,12.B ,13.A ,14.A ,15.A ,16.D ,17.B ,18.C ,19.D ,20.C ,21.D ,22.A ,23.A ,24.C ,25.B

Rajasthan GK – Test 3

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Daily Practice Multiple Choice Question Answer for RPSC, RAS, RSMSSB, Lecturer, SI and all other competitive exams of Rajasthan.

1. Which article of constitution mentioned “Appointment of Chief Minister”?

1. Article 154

2. Article 161

3. Article 164

4. Article 158

2. Which of the following statement is false about the Chief Minister?

1.  There is no special provision for appointment and election of Chief Minister in the constitution

2.  Article 154 states that the Governor will appoint the Chief Minister

3.  The Governor is free to appoint any person as Chief Minister

4.  There is no such system in the Constitution that the Chief Minister should prove a majority before his appointment

3. What is the minimum age to be appointed as the Chief Minister of a state?

1.  25 years

2.  30 years

3.  35 years

4.  18 years

4. Which of the following post is hold by the Chief Minister?

1.  Chairman of the State Planning Board

2.  Member of National Development Council

3.  Chief Spokesperson of the State Government

4.  All of the above

5. Which of the following is not matched correctly?

1.  Article 167: Duties of the Chief Minister

2.  Article 163: sworn in of the Chief Minister

3.  Article 164: Provisions related to State Ministers

4.  Article 166:  Operations by the State Government

6. Who determines the salary and allowances of the Chief Minister?

1.  Governor

2.  State Legislature

3.  President

4.  Parliament

7. Which of the following statements is false?

1.  Chief Minister’s tenure is not fixed (with some conditions)

2.  If the Chief Minister resigns from his post then the entire Council of Ministers has to resign

3.  The Governor is the President of the Inter-state Council

4.  The collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers is to the State Legislature

8. Which of the following power is not enjoyed by the Chief Minister?

1.  The Governor appoints ministers only to those people who are recommended by the Chief Minister

2.  Chief Minister shifts all the ministers’ departments

3.  Chief Minister can ask the governor to disassociate the Legislative assembly

4.  Chief Minister appoints judges of the state’s high court

9. The State Council is responsible to whom?

1.   to the Governor

2.   to the Legislative Assembly

3.   to the Legislative Council

4.  to the State Legislature

10. Who provide oath to other ministers of the state other than the Chief Minister?

1.   Chief Minister

2.   Speaker of the assembly

3.   Chief Justice of the High Court

4.   Governor

11. The Advocate General of the State is responsible to whom?

1.   Governor

2.   Chief Minister

3.   Speaker of the Assembly

4.   None of these

12. Udaipur, South-eastern margin of Pali & Dungarpur districts are part of which Aravali Region?

1. North-Eastern Aravalli Range             2. Central Aravalli Range

3. Southern Aravalli Range                     4. None of the above

13. According to GSHAP data, the state of Rajasthan falls in a region of which seismic hazard?

1. High seismic zone     2.Moderate seismic zone

3. High to Moderate     4. Moderate to High

14. Rajasthan has divided into different climatic regions, the climatic regions of Rajasthan are based on which of the following parameter?

1. Climatic Regions of Rajasthan based on Rainfall Intensity.

2. Koeppen’s Classification

3. Thornthwaite’s classification

4. All of the above

15. Consider the following statements and choose the right answer:

1.         Rainfall less than 10 cm in extreme west parts of regions and rest areas record less than 20 cm rainfall.

2.         The average temperature during summer is recorded more than 34degree C and during winters it ranges in between 12 DegC to 16DegC.

3.         The region includes Jaisalmer district, Barmer, Jodhpur, western parts of Bikaner and southern parts of Ganganagar district.

1. Semi-Arid Region          2. Arid Region

3. Sub-Humid                            4. Humid Region

16. Alwar, Jaipur, Dausa, Ajmer, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Pali, Jalore and Sirohi districts are included in which of the following category?

1.         Semi-Arid Region         2. Arid Region

3. Sub-Humid                             4. Humid Region

17. Consider the following features and identify the wildlife sanctuary:

1. This Sanctuary is situated in the Banaskantha district in Gujarat at the Gujarat-Rajasthan border.

2. The complete area between Mount Abu and Jessore wildlife sanctuary is home to them.

3. Apart from sloth bear, other fauna reported in the sanctuary are leopard, sambar, blue bull, wild boar, porcupine, and a variety of birds.

1. Mount Abu Wildlife Sanctuary

2. Jessore Wildlife Sanctuary

3.  Daroji bear sanctuary

4. Rajasthan Wildlife Sanctuary

18. Sloth Bear is found in which of the following place?

1. Sawai Madhopur   2 -Alwar

3. Mount Abu                       4- Udaipur

19. Great Indian Bustard is not found in which of the following states of India?

1. Gujarat                            2. Tamil Nadu

3.  Karnataka                     4. Andhra Pradesh

5. Rajasthan                       6. Maharashtra

20. Mahaseer fish is found only in which lake of Rajasthan?

1. Anasagar Lake Ajmer                  2- Fateh Sagar Udaipur

3. Lake Badi Udaipur                      4- Sambhar Lake

21. Find the incorrect matched:

1. Bisalpur Conservation Reserve        Tonk

2. Jodbeed Gadhwala Reserve                         Sirohi

3.  Sundhamata Conservation Reserve      Jodhpur

4.  Gudha Vishnoiyan Reserve                      Jalore

22. Parbati River flows in which of the following districts?

1. Sawai Madhopur             2 Tonk

3. Dholpur                            4.Karauli

1. 1,2,3,4

2. 1, 2, 3

3. 1, 3

4. 1, 3, 4

23.  Berach River is not flow through which of the following District?

1. Udaipur                       2. Chittorgarh

3. Rajsamand                  4- Bhilwara

24. Gogelav and Rotu Conservation Reserve are located in which district of Rajasthan?

1. Udaipur                        2. Jaipur

3. Nagaur                          4. Sariska

25. Find out the incorrect match:

Wildlife Sanctuary                           District

1. Kesarbagh WLS                             Dholpur

2. Phulwari ki Nal WLS                   Udaipur, Pali

3. Ramgarh Vishdhari WLS                      Barmer

4. Sitamata WLS                                         Pratapgarh

26. Which among the following is largest wildlife sanctuary as per their area?

1.  Kailadevi WLS                            2- Kumbhalgarh WLS

3. Phulwari ki Nal WLS                   4. Todgarh Raoli WLS

27. Match the following:

National Park                             District

1.         Ranthambore NP              A. Bharatpur

2.         Keoladeo Ghana NP               B. Alwar

3.         Sariska NP                                C.  Jaisalmer, Barmer

4.         DesertNP                                D. Sawai Madhopur

1.1-A 2-B 3- C 4-D

2. 1-B 2-C 3-D 4-A

3. 1-C 2-D 3-A 4-B

4. 1-D 2-A 3- B 4-C

28. White Rumped Vulture Found in which places of Rajasthan?

1. Udaipur                                       2. Kota

3. All Rajasthan                                4. Mount Abu

29. Which of the following is matching incorrect?

District                           Mascot

1. Bikaner                     Sand grouse

2. Nagaur                       Rajhans

3. Pratapgarh                  wolf

4. Bhilwara                   Peacock

5.  Bundi                         Golden Pheasant

30. Consider the following statement and choose the right answer:

1. These forests which are most abundant in central India, as in Madhya Pradesh, parts of Gujarat and Maharashtra, are found in Sirohi district of Rajasthan.

2. These forests have semi-evergreen and some evergreen species of trees.

3. The vegetation consists of many plants which are similar to Himalayas.

4. They are well represented between 700 to 800 m altitudes.

1. Tropical Dry Deciduous (Dhol) Forests

2. Bamboo Forests

3. Sub-Tropical Forests

4. Tropical Rain Forests

31.  Method of Abolition or Creation of a State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) mentioned in which article of Indian constitution?

1. Article 168

2. Article 169

3. Article 176

4. Article 179

Answer:

  1. 3
  2. 2
  3. 1
  4. 4
  5. 2
  6. 2
  7. 3
  8. 4
  9. 2
  10. 4
  11. 1
  12. 3
  13. 4
  14. 4
  15. 2
  16. 3
  17. 2
  18. 3
  19. 2
  20. 3
  21. 2
  22. 3
  23. 3
  24. 3
  25. 4
  26. 3
  27. 4
  28. 3
  29. 3
  30. 3
  31. 3

General Studies Practice Test-2

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Civil Services Preliminary and State PSC Exams daily Practice MCQ

1. in the first ever India’s inter-state relocation, a tiger was shifted between which two states?

(a)        Uttarakhand & Madhya Pradesh

(b)       Madhya Pradesh & Uttar Pradesh

(c)        Madhya Pradesh & Odisha

(d)       Gujarat & Maharashtra                         

2. Which of the following agencies come under the definition of “State” mentioned in the Article 12 of the Indian constitution?

1.         Local bodies

2.         Public sector banks

3.         National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)

4.         Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)        1 and 2 only

(b)       1, 2 and 4 only

(c)        1, 2 and 3 only

(d)       1, 2, 3 and 4

3. Which of the following Indian province was annexed on account of alleged misgovernance?

(a)        Awadh

(b)       Satara

(c)        Jhansi

(d)       Mysore

4. Which of the following is / are examples of mechanical weathering

(a)        Lichens and mosses

(b)       Exfoliation

(c)        Frost Action

(d)       Abrasion

5. Consider the following

1. Mediterranean Sea separates Africa from Asia

2. Red Sea separates Africa from Europe.

3. Mozambique Channel lies to the East of Mozambique.

Which of the above given statements is/are incorrect?

(a)        1 and 2 only

(b)       2 and 3 only

(c)        1 only

(d)       2 only

6. Ministry of health and Family welfare has banned the domestic companies to produce which hormone/chemical effective from 1st July to prevent its misuse?

(a)        Oxytocin

(b)       Serotonin

(c)        Insulin

(d)       Adrenaline

7. RIMPAC naval military exercise of 26 countries started recently in Hawaii. Which Indian naval stealth frigate ship is participating in the exercise?

(a)        INS Sahyadri

(b)       INS Comorta

(c)        INS Vikramaditya

(d)       INS Viraat

8. The ideals of Liberty, equality and fraternity in our constitution were inspired from the

(a)        American revolution

(b)       English revolution

(c)        Russian revolution

(d)       French revolution

9. Consider the following statements about Lord William Bentinck.

1. Bentinck was the first Governor-General of India.

2. He was thought to be a reform oriented person.

3. He brought a law against Sati Pratha.

Which of the statements given above is/are are correct?

(a)        1 and 2 only

(b)       2 and 3 only

(c)        3 only

(d)       1, 2 and 3

10.       Which one of the following statements is not correct with reference to “summer solstice”?

(a)        It Signifies winter season in southern hemisphere

(b)       International day of Yoga coincides with it

(c)        Perihelion falls during the month of summer solstice.

(d)       Antarctic Circle receives no sunlight during summer solstice.

11.       Which Indian National Park has become the largest host for the endangered Salt Water (Estuarine) Crocodile?

(a)        Bhitarkanika

(b)       Sunderbans

(c)        Papikonda

(d)       Periyar

12.       With regards to Fundamental rights which of the statement is not correct?

(a)        These are enforceable only against State not against private individual

(b)       Their application is limited in cases of armed forces and the times of emergency.

(c)        Some of the provisions of Fundamental rights have to be enforced by a separate law

(d)       They are neither Sacrosanct nor permanent in nature.

13.       Which of the following statements are correct?

1.         Vasco Da Gama was welcomed by Zamorin king at Muziris port.

2.         Thomas Roe visited the court of Aurangzeb to get permission to trade in India.

Select the correct answer using the Codes give below

(a)        1 only

(b)       2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)       Neither 1 nor 2

14.       Which of the following planet(s) has / have westward rotation in our solar system?

(a)        Uranus Only

(b)       Venus and Earth

(c)        Venus and Uranus

(d)       Mars and Saturn

15.       Consider the following

1.         Strait of Gibraltar separates Europe from Africa

2.         Strait of Babel Mandel connects Red sea with Gulf of Aden

Which of the following statement (s) is/are true?

(a)        1 and 2 only

(b)       1 only

(c)        2 only

(d)       None

16.       ”Project Sashakt” often seen in news is related to which of the following

(a)        Reforms in Priority Sector Lending

(b)       A 5-point plan to fight NPAs in the banks

(c)        To bring changes in GST Tax Slabs

(d)       None of the above

17.       Consider the following statements with regard to “Global Innovation Index”

1.         The Global Innovation Index (GII) is a biannual ranking of countries by their capacity for, and success in, innovation.

2.         It is jointly released by Cornell University, INSEAD, and the World Intellectual Property Organization

3.         The index was started in 2007 by INSEAD and World Business

Which of the following statements are incorrect?

(a)        1 only

(b)       1 and 2 only

(c)        1 and 3 only

(d)       None of the above

18.       Consider the following statements

1.         An ordinary right generally imposes a corresponding duty on another individual and state in some cases but a fundamental right is a right which an individual possess against the state.

2.         Our constitution guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of both fundamental rights as well as legal rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)        1 only

(b)       2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)       Neither 1 nor 2

19.       The play “Neel Darpan” is associated with the Indigo Revolt (1858) of Bengal. Who wrote this play?

(a)        Ishwar Chandra Gupta

(b)       Deen Bandhu Mitra

(c)        Bhanu Bandopadhyay

(d)       Rajshekhar Basu

20.       Which of the following faults could generate Tsunami waves?

1.         Dip Slip Fault

2.         Strike Slip Fault

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)        1 Only

(b)       2 Only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)       Neither 1 nor 2

21.       Recently which nation has agreed to reduce tariffs on its imports of Indian medicines?

(a)        US

(b)       Japan

(c)        China

(d)       Germany

22.       Consider the following statements with regards to Child employment in India

1.         Indian Constitution prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 with no exceptions.

2.         The children between 14 and 18 are permitted to work in Non Hazardous Industries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)        1 only

(b)       2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)       Neither 1 nor 2

23.       Which of the following crops were introduced by the Portuguese in India?

1.         Sugarcane

2.         Maize

3.         Tomato

4.         Potato Codes

(a)        1 and 2 only

(b)       2, 3 and 4 only

(c)        2 and 3 only

(d)       1, 2, 3 and 4

24.       “They are generally known as thunderstorm clouds, can grow up to 10 km in height looks anvil – like in shaped and are associated with heavy rain, snow, hail, lighting and tornadoes”. Which of the following type of cloud is best described by the given above statement?

(a)        Cirrocumulus

(b)       Cirrostratus

(c)        Nimbostratus

(d)       Cumulonimbus

25.       Which one of the following African countries is not land-locked?

(a)        Benin

(b)       Chad

(c)        Lesotho

(d)       Mali

26.       The term, “one country, two systems”, seen in the news recently, in the context of affairs of which of the following country?

(a)        Israel

(b)       China

(c)        United Kingdom

(d)       Srilanka

27.       With reference to the Rim of the Pacific Exercise (RIMPAC), consider the following statements.

1.         It is the world’s largest international maritime exercise.

2.         Only Pacific Ocean littoral countries participate in this exercise.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)        1 only

(b)       2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)       Neither 1 nor 2

Answer Key:

1.         C

2.         A

3.         A

4.         C

5.         A

6.         A

7.         A

8.         D

9.         D

10.       C

11.       A

12.       A

13.       D

14.       C

15.       A

16.       B

17.       A

18.       A

19.       B

20.       A

21.       C

22.       B

23.       B

24.       D

25.       A

26.       B

27.       A

UPSC IAS EXAMS BOOK/NOTESRPSC RAS/RTS EXAMS BOOK/NOTES

Physical Geography of India Study Notes for IAS Prelims Exam

RPSC RAS Mains Exam GS Paper-I Study Notes

Modern History of India Study Notes With MCQ

RPSC RAS Mains Exam GS Paper-2 Study Notes

2000 Solved MCQ for IAS Preliminary Exam 2019:GS Paper-I

Polity and Administration of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 10 Practice Solved Paper

Art Culture and Heritage of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Study Notes with MCQ

History of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes

Indian Polity Test Series for IAS Prelims 2019

Geography of Rajasthan Study notes with MCQ

IAS Prelims 2019: Art and Culture Revision Notes

Polity & Administration of Rajasthan Solved Practice Question

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Revision Notes: Environment and Ecology

RAS Mains Exam Economy Solved Questions

Geography of India Question Bank

Geography of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes- Hindi

Indian Polity Question Bank eBook

Geography of Rajasthan Solved Question for RPSC RAS Mains Exam

History Of India Practice Question Bank

RPSC RAS Mains Art and Culture Practice Solved Question

UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 GS Paper Solved Test 1-5

RPSC RAS Mains Exam Practice Solved Test-1

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper Test 6-10

RAS Mains Exam Practice Solved Test-2

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Practice Test-1

RPSC RAS Mains Exam Practice Solved Test-3

Rajasthan GK – Test 2

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Daily Practice Multiple Choice Question Answer for RPSC, RAS, RSMSSB, Lecturer, SI and all other competitive exams of Rajasthan.

1.         In which of the following states Aravalli Range extends in India:

1.         Rajasthan                   2.  Haryana

3.         Delhi                          4. Punjab

5.         Gujarat

Choose the correct pair.

1.         1,2,3,4

2.         2,3,4,5

3.         1,2,3,5

4.         1,2,4,5

2. Consider the following statement and choose the right answer:

1. It is India’s oldest fold mountains.

2. The north end of it continues as secluded hills and rocky ridges into Haryana

3. It is the source of the Mithari, Luni, and Jawai River.

1. North-Eastern Aravalli Range

2. Central Aravalli Range

3. Southern Aravalli Range

4. Aravali Range

3. Luni Basin, Shekhawati Region, Nagaur Upland, and Ghaggar Plain are considered in which region/plain?

1.  Semi-Arid Basin               2. Sandy Arid Plain

3. Mewar Rocky region       4 The Sambhar Basin

4. Chambal Basin, Banas Basin and Mahi Basin are the example of which plain?

1. Eastern Plain                     2. Western Plain

3. Northern Plain                  4. Southern Plain

5. States in which Thar Desert is not extends in India?

1. Rajasthan                     2. Haryana

3. Punjab                        4.  Gujarat

5. Madhya Pradesh

6. Special Industrial Complexes are being built up in Rajasthan to meet the necessities of industries. Match the following pairs correctly.

1. Hosiery Chopanki                                A. Bhiwadi

2. Gems & Jewellery and Gem Park      B. Bikaner

3. Ceramics Khara                                   C. Jaipur

4. Dimensional Stone                              D. Chittorgarh

1. 1-A 2-B 3-C 4-D

2. 1-B 2-A 3-D 4-C

3. 1-A 2-C 3-B 4-D

4. 1-C 2-D 3-A 4-B

7. Arrange the following peaks of Aravali as per their height in descending order:

1. Kamalnath           2. Bhairach

3. Taragarh                       4. Khoh

1. 1-2-3-4

2. 2-3-1-4

3. 3-4-1-2

4. 1-4-3-2

8. Consider the following statements and choose the right answer:

1.         Stretches from Delhi to isolated hills of Alwar & Jaipur.

2.         Average elevation of 300-670 meters.

3.         To North & East it merges with Ganga-Yamuna Plains.

1. Shekhawati hills               2. Marwar Hills

3. Alwar Hills                                  4. Girwa hills

9.  Malkhet, Khetri Group of hills, Torawati Hills & Alwar hills is part of which Aravali range?

1.  North-Eastern Aravalli Range

2. Central Aravalli Range

3. Southern Aravalli Range

4. All of the above

10. Consider the following statements and choose the right answer:

1. Includes districts of Ajmer, south-western Tonk and Jaipur.

2. It Surround on North by Alwar Hills

3. It Surround on East by Karauli table-land South by Banas plains.

4. West by Sambhar basin

1. North-Eastern Aravalli Range             2. Central Aravalli Range

3. Southern Aravalli Range                     4. None of the above

11. Who became the first women governor of Rajasthan?

1. Smt. Vijya Laxmi

2. Smt. Pratibha Patil      

3. Smt. Sudha Srivastava

4. None of the above

12. Which is the state game of Rajasthan?

1. Basketball

2. Kabbadi

3. Hockey

4. Football

13. Rajasthan Revenue Board Headquarter is located at which place?

1. Jaipur

2. Jodhpur

3. Ajmer

4. Kota

14. Which is not a part of Rajasthan Union?       

1. Banswara

2. Bundi

3. Kishangarh

4. Bharatpur

15. Matsya Union merged in Greater Rajasthan and became which of the following?

1. United State of Rajasthan

2. Greater Rajasthan

3. United State of Greater Rajasthan

4. United Rajasthan

16. Who was appointed as the Deputy Head of Rajasthan Union?

1. Bhim singh

2. Manikya Lal Verma

3. Heeralal Shastri

4. Bhadursingh

17. Who said the statement while signing the accession documents, “I am signing on my death warrant”.

1. Banswara State Maharawal, Chandra Veer Singh

2. The ruler of Jodhpur, Hanwant Singh

3. The Maharana Bhupal Singh of Udaipur

4. None of the above

18.  Which of the following appointed by Governor of Rajasthan?

1. Advocate general of state.

2. State election commissioner

3.  Chairman & members of RPSC.

4. All the above

19. Who wrote Upmiti Bharva Prancha Katha?

1. Sidhha Rishi                                 2- Vigrah Raj

3. Somdeva                                        4. Kumbha

20. Who wrote drama named Harkaili?

1. Sidhha Rishi                                  2- Vigrah Raj Chauhan

3. Kumbha                                         4. Somdeva

21. Who wrote Prithvi Raaj Vijay?

1. Kumbha                 2. Somdeva

3. Jayanak                  4. Sidhha Rishi

22. Who wrote treatise of Jai Deva’s Geet Govinda and a book on musicology – Sangeet Raj?

1. Kumbha                 2. Jayanak

3. Sanga                      4. Somdeva

23. Bharatvarsh war Bahubali Ghor written by

1. Vijrasen Suri                        2- Asig

3. Shalibhadra Suri                 4.Hemraj

24. Bharateshwar Bahubali raas authored by?

1. Vijrasen Suri              2- Asig

3. Shalibhadra Suri   4.Hemraj

25. Jiyadarya Raas by

1. Vijrasen Suri                      2- Asig

3. Shalibhadra Suri              4.Hemraj

26. Padmavati Chaupai by

1. Vijhana                               2.  Jinprabha Suri

3. Shalibhadra Suri              4.Hemraj

27. Stulibhadra Phag written by

1. Vijhana                               2.  Jinprabha Suri

3. Shalibhadra Suri               4.Hemraj

28. Who wrote Gyan Manjari?

1. Vijhana                               2.  Jinprabha Suri

3. Shalibhadra Suri              4.Hemraj

Answer:

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 1
  4. 1
  5. 5
  6. 3
  7. 4
  8. 3
  9. 1
  10. 2
  11. 2
  12. 1
  13. 3
  14. 4
  15. 1
  16. 4
  17. 1
  18. 4
  19. 1
  20. 2
  21. 3
  22. 1
  23. 1
  24. 3
  25. 2
  26. 4
  27. 2
  28. 1

UPSC Prelims 2019 Question Topics – 100 Areas from which UPSC Framed Questions

From which areas did UPSC frame questions for this year IAS exam?

UPSC Prelims 2019 Question Topics – 100 Areas from which UPSC Framed Questions This Year

UPSC Prelims 2019 Question Topics – 100 Areas

  1. Jagirdar and Zamindar – Mughal Rule – Medieval India.
  2. Land reforms in independent India – India since Independence.
  3. Global Competitiveness Report – Current Affairs/General Awareness.
  4. Charter Act of 1813 – Modern India.
  5. Swadeshi Movement – Freedom Struggle – Modern India.
  6. Movement/Organization Leader – Freedom Struggle – Modern India.
  7. Harappan site – Ancient India.
  8. Ashoka Sculpture inscriptions – Ancient India.
  9. Mahayana Buddhism – Ancient India/Culture.
  10. Gupta period forced labour (Vishti) – Ancient India.
  11. Kalyaana Mandapas – Medieval India/Culture.
  12. Delhi Sultanate – Medieval India.
  13. Saints and Contemporaries – Medieval India/Culture.
  14. Mahatma Gandhi and British Colonial Rule – Freedom Struggle – Modern India.
  15. Person: Position – Freedom Struggle – Modern India.
  16. Mian Tansen – Medieval India/Culture.
  17. Mughal Emperors Portrait – Medieval India/Culture.
  18. National Park in the temperate alpine zone – Geography.
  19. Atal Innovation Mission – Current Affairs/Schemes.
  20.  21st June – Summer Solstice – Geography.
  21. ‘New World’ vs ‘Old World’ Plants – History.
  22. Animals Found in India – Biodiversity.
  23. Famous place River – Geography.
  24. Poverty lines – Geography.
  25. Cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into the stratosphere – Global Warming – Climate Change.
  26. Pyrolysis and plasma gasification – Waste to Energy – Science and Technology/General Awareness.
  27. Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve – Geography/Environment.
  28. Species/Herbivores/Viviparous – Biodiversity.
  29. Wildlife naturally found – Biodiversity.
  30. Microbeads – Environment/General Awareness.
  31. Importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) – Biodiversity/General Awareness.
  32. Satellite images/remote sensing data – Science and Technology.
  33. Percentage of forest covers to the total area of State – Geography.
  34. Deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ – Climate change/General Awareness.
  35. Burning of crop/biomass residue – Environment.
  36. Sea Bordering country – Maps – Geography
  37. The largest exporter of rice in the world – Geography
  38. Glacier River – Geography
  39. Methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos – Current Affairs/General Awareness
  40. Ramsar Convention – Wetlands – Environment
  41. Gases released into the environment – Environment
  42. Places known as Aliyar, Isa pur and Kangsabati – Geography
  43. Hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) – Current Affairs/General Awareness
  44. Dewdrops – cloudy night – Geography
  45. Constitutional Amendments/Judgments – Indian Polity
  46. Impeachment of a Judge of the Supreme Court of India – Indian Polity
  47. Ninth Schedule – Indian Polity
  48. CoaI sector – Economy/General Awareness
  49. Office of Profit – Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 – Indian Polity
  50. Tribal land – Schedule of the Constitution of India – Indian Indian Polity.
  51. Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India – Indian Indian Polity/General Awareness.
  52. Constitutional powers under Article 142 – Indian Indian Polity
  53. Legislative Assembly of a State in India – Indian Indian Polity
  54. United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) -Current Affairs/General Awareness
  55. Minor Forest Produce – Indian Forest Act, 1927 and Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest
    Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 – Environment/Current Affairs
  56. Article of the Constitution of India – Right to marry – Indian Indian Polity
  57. Indian Patents Act – Patenting process in India – Science and Technology/Current Affairs
  58. The Environment Protection Act, 1986 – Environment.
  59. Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 – Current Affairs/General Awareness
  60. Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018 – Current Affairs/General Awareness
  61. Services Area Approach – Indian Economy
  62. Minor minerals in India – Indian Economy
  63. India’s external debt – Indian Economy
  64. Assets of a commercial bank in India – Indian Economy
  65. The risk of a currency crisis – Indian Economy/Current Affairs
  66. Governor – Sarkaria Commission – Indian Polity
  67. Foreign portfolio  investors – Participatory Note – Indian Economy/Current Affairs
  68. Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 – Environment/General Awareness
  69. Review of independent regulators – Indian Polity
  70. India’s Five-Year Plans – Indian Economy
  71. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) – Current Affairs
  72. Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks – Indian Economy
  73. Chairmen of public sector banks – Bank Boards Bureau – Indian Economy
  74. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) – Indian Economy
  75. Differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution) – Science and Technology/General Awareness
  76. Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 – Current Affairs
  77. World Bank’s “Ease of Doing Business Index” – Current Affairs/General Awareness
  78. ‘Extended producer responsibility’ – E-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 – Current Affairs
  79. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India – Indian Economy
  80. Social capital – Indian Polity/General Awareness
  81. Constitution of India – Amendment – High court – Indian Polity
  82. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) – Economics.
  83. Cultivation of Kharif crop in India – Geography
  84. The highest imports in terms of value – Economics/Geography
  85. Definition of liberty – Indian Polity/General Awareness
  86. The slide of the Indian rupee – Economics/Current Affairs
  87. Storage of Payment System Data or data diktat – Current Affairs
  88. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) – Current Affairs
  89. Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field – Current Affairs
  90. Money Multiplier Economics
  91. Digital technologies for entertainment – Augmented Reality vs Virtual Reality – Science and Technology
  92. Denisovan – Science and Technology
  93. Recent developments in science – chromosome/DNA – Science and Technology
  94. Digital signature – Science and Technology
  95. Wearable technology – Science and Technology
  96. ‘RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology – Science and Technology
  97. The Merger of giant ‘blackholes’ – gravitational waves – Science and Technology
  98. Multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens – Science and Technology
  99. Cas9 protein – Science and Technology
  100. Hepatitis B vs HIV – Science and Technology

These are just question areas; not actual questions!

The above mentioned are the question topics or areas. If you need to go through the actual questions, refer the link – IAS PRELIMS ANSWER KEY 2019 WITH SOLUTION

UPSC IAS EXAMS BOOK/NOTESRPSC RAS/RTS EXAMS BOOK/NOTES

Physical Geography of India Study Notes for IAS Prelims Exam

RPSC RAS Mains Exam GS Paper-I Study Notes

Modern History of India Study Notes With MCQ

RPSC RAS Mains Exam GS Paper-2 Study Notes

2000 Solved MCQ for IAS Preliminary Exam 2019:GS Paper-I

Polity and Administration of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 10 Practice Solved Paper

Art Culture and Heritage of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Study Notes with MCQ

History of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes

Indian Polity Test Series for IAS Prelims 2019

Geography of Rajasthan Study notes with MCQ

IAS Prelims 2019: Art and Culture Revision Notes

Polity & Administration of Rajasthan Solved Practice Question

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Revision Notes: Environment and Ecology

RAS Mains Exam Economy Solved Questions

Geography of India Question Bank

Geography of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes- Hindi

Indian Polity Question Bank eBook

Geography of Rajasthan Solved Question for RPSC RAS Mains Exam

History Of India Practice Question Bank

RPSC RAS Mains Art and Culture Practice Solved Question

UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 GS Paper Solved Test 1-5

RPSC RAS Mains Exam Practice Solved Test-1

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper Test 6-10

RAS Mains Exam Practice Solved Test-2

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Practice Test-1

RPSC RAS Mains Exam Practice Solved Test-3

General Studies Practice Test-1

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UPSC CSE IAS prelims and State PSC Exams Daily Practice Questions

1. Which of the following organization has recently, tested its Crew Escape System?

(a)        NASA

(b)       ISRO

(c)        DRDO

(d)       Air India

2. Consider the following statements regarding Untouchability

1. The constitution doesn’t define untouchability and it also doesn’t prescribe any punitive punishment

2. Manual scavenging is considered as a form of untouchability and is banned by Manual Scavenging Act, 2013 which provides a blanket ban on the employment of manual scavengers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)        1 only

(b)       2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)       Neither 1 nor 2

3. Consider the following statements:

1. The French were the last to come to India in search of trade opportunities.

2. The Portuguese were the first European community to discover a direct sea route to India.

3. Queen Elizabeth I was a share holder of the British East India Company.

Which of the statements given above is/are are correct?

(a)        1 and 2 only

(b)       2 and 3 only

(c)        1 and 3 only

(d)       All of the above

4.         Consider the Following statements:

1. Rotation of the earth is responsible for holding its atmosphere.

2. Atmosphere rotates along with earth’s rotation

3. Humidity in atmosphere increases from equator towards poles.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a)        1 and 2 Only

(b)       2 only

(c)        2 and 3 only

5. Which of the Mobile App launched by Ministry of Coal to prevent illegal coal mining?

(a)        Khan Prahari

(b)       Coal Bachao

(c)        Khan Helpline

(d)       Koyla Bachao

6. If a new state is to be created which of the following schedules should definitely be altered?

(a)        First

(b)       Second

(c)        Third

(d)       Eighth

7. Who was the Governor General of India at the time of formation of the Indian National Congress?

(a)        Lord Lytton

(b)       Lord Dufferin

(c)        Lord Elgin

(d)       Lord Minto

8. Which of the following can be tapped for electricity generation?

1.         Tidal waves

2.         Volcanoes

3.         Hot springs

4.         Earth Quakes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)        1 and 3 only

(b)       1, 2 and 3 Only

(c)        1, 2 and 4 Only

(d)         1, 2, 3 and 4

9.         Consider the following statements

1.         Africa is the second largest continent after Asia and is ten times the size of India

2.         Also called as The Dark Continent

3.         It is the only continent that crosses the Tropic of Cancer, Equator and Tropic of Capricorn.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a)        1 and 2 only

(b)       2 and 3 only

(c)        1 only

(d)       1 and 3 only

10. Which committee was constituted by the Union Government to upgrade norms for state & district level economic data collection?

(a)        Susheel Kumar Committee

(b)       Ravindra H Dholakia Committee

(c)        Bimal Jalan Committee

(d)       S Kashyap Committee

11. Which among the following sites of Mumbai has recently been inducted into the UNESCO World Heritage Site list?

(a)        Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai

(b)       The Imperial Tower

(c)        1905 Prince’s Triumphal Arch Clock Tower, Mumbai

(d)       Global Vipassana Pagoda

12. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Article 15 of the Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners.

2. Article 16 of the Constitution of India is available to the citizens of India only.

3. Article 21 of the Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners alike within the territory of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)        1 only

(b)       2 and 3 only

(c)        3 only

(d)       1, 2 and 3

13. Which of the following statements is incorrect about “Drain of Wealth” theory in context of Indian freedom struggle?

(a)        The Drain of Wealth theory was systemically initiated by Dadabhai Naoroji.

(b)       Through this theory Naoroji sought to prove that Britain was draining money out of India.

(c)        Drain of Wealth included “Home Charges”.

(d)       All the statements are correct.

14. Which one of the following statements is / are not correct with respect to core of the earth?

1.         it’s made up of high-density materials mostly like nickel and iron

2.         Solid state of the inner core is because of the incumbent pressure.

3.         High temperature of inner core is responsible for the magnetic sphere of the earth.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)        3 Only

(b)       2 and 3 only

(c)        1 and 2 only

(d)       1, 2 and 3

15. Which state government has launched a “happiness curriculum” for school students?

(a)        Delhi

(b)       Rajasthan

(c)        Haryana

(d)       Uttar Pradesh

16. Consider the following statements regarding Article 368 of Indian Constitution

1. If an Indian territory is to be ceded to a foreign nation then it requires a formal amendment process under Article 368

2. The settlement of boundary disputes also requires a formal amendment process under Article 368.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)        1 only

(b)       2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)       Neither 1 nor 2

17.       Who among the following is known as “The Father of the Indian Renaissance”?

(a)        Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

(b)       Swami Vivekananda

(c)        Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(d)       Swami Dayanand Saraswati

18.       Which of the following is not a “Second order relief” feature?

(a)        Himalayas

(b)       Mid Atlantic Ridge

(c)        Grand Canyon

(d)       Great African Rift valley

19.       Consider the following statements

1. Africa is separated from Eurasia at three different points, Strait of Gibraltar, Suez Canal and strait of Bab-el- Mandel.

2. It joins Asia by the narrow Isthmus of Suez

Which of the above given statements is/are incorrect?

(a)        Both 1 and 2

(b)       1 only

(c)        2 only

(d)       none

20. Which ministry has launched India Smart Cities Fellowship (ISCF) and Internship (ISCI)?

(a)        Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

(b)       Ministry for Development of North Eastern Region

(c)        Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

(d)       Ministry of environment

21. Which of the following countries have been put in to the grey list of Financial action task force (FATF) ?

(a)        Iran

(b)       Syria

(c)        Pakistan

(d)       Afghanistan

22. Consider the following statements with regards to “Right to Education Act”

1.         “The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act” is an Act enacted by the Parliament of India and ratified by the states of India

2.         It describes the modalities of the importance of free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 under Article 21A of the Indian Constitution.

3.         It mandates unaided schools with the exception of Minority educational schools to reserve 25% of their seats for children from weaker sections and disadvantaged groups.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)        1 only

(b)       1 and 2 only

(c)        2 and 3 only

(d)       1, 2 and 3

23. Consider the following statements about Permanent Settlement System.

  1. Permanent Settlement System was introduced by Lord Wellesley in 1793.
  2. It was introduced on the recommendations of Sir John Shore. Which of the statements given above is/are are correct?

(a)        1 only

(b)       2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)       Neither 1 nor 2

24. Consider the following layers with reference to atmosphere of the sun

1.         Photosphere

2.         Chromo sphere

3.         Corona

Arrange the layers of atmosphere given below in order from surface towards core of the sun.

(a) 3 – 2 – 1

(b) 1 – 2 – 3

(c) 2 – 1 – 3

(d) 1 – 3 – 2

25. In the first ever India’s inter-state relocation, a tiger was shifted between which two states?

(a)        Uttarakhand & Madhya Pradesh

(b)       Madhya Pradesh & Uttar Pradesh

(c)        Madhya Pradesh & Odisha

(d)       Gujarat & Maharashtra

26. Which of the following agencies come under the definition of “State” mentioned in the Article 12 of the Indian constitution?

1.         Local bodies

2.         Public sector banks

3.         National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)

4.         Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)        1 and 2 only

(b)       1, 2 and 4 only

(c)        1, 2 and 3 only

(d)        1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer Key:

1.B ,2.A ,3.D ,4.B ,5.A ,6.A ,7.B ,8.B ,9.B ,10.B ,11.A ,12.B ,13.C ,14.A ,15.A ,16.A ,17.C ,18.C ,19.D ,20.C ,21.C ,22.C ,23.B ,24.A ,25.C

Rajasthan Gk Test-1

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RPSC RAS/RTS Prelims, Lecturer, Sub-Inspector, Teachers and Other Govt Exams daily Practice MCQ.

1. When did Rajasthan came in to existence?

1. 20th march 1948                 2. 30th march 1949

3. 25th April 1949                  4- 26th Jan 1951    

 

Q.2 Total geographical area of Rajasthan State is?

1. 2, 90, 932 sq km                2. 3, 39, 293 sq km

3. 3, 32, 392 sq km                4.  3, 42, 239 sq km

Q.3 The area of Rajasthan is which percentage of Indian Territory?

1. 9.76%                                  2. 10.47%

3. 10.74%                                4. 11.05%

Q.4 Rajasthan is placed in which division of India?

1. North-western                  2. Western

3. North-eastern                    4. Northern

Q.5 The Tropic of Cancer passes through which district in Rajasthan?

1. Banswara               2. Sirohi

3. Jhalawar                 4. Dholpur

6. Who was the first governor of Rajasthan?

1. Gurumukh Nihal Singh

2. Sardar Hukum Singh

3. Basant Rao Patil

4. None of the above

7. Who was the first chairman of Rajasthan Assembley (Vidhan Sabha)?

1. Ramniwas Mirdha

2. Narottam Joshi

3. Lal Singh Shaktawat

4. None of the above

8. Who was the first chief justice of Rajasthan High Court?

1. K. N. Vanchu

2. K. K. Verma

3. 2. N. Jha

4. None of the above

9. Which one of the following was first implemented in Rajasthan?

1. Cooperative society

2. Public distribution system

3. President Rule

4. Panchayati Raj

10. Rajasthan state Archives is located at which place?

1. Bikaner

2. Jaipur

3. Jodhpur

4. Bharatpur

11. Which one of the following date, Rajasthan Public Service Commission Established?

1. 15-08-1950

2. 16-08-1949

3. 20-12-1952

4. 17-08-1952

12. Ajmer and Abu was the part of which Stage of the integration of Rajasthan?

1. First

2. Third

3. Fifth

4. Seventh

13. On March 25, 1948 which Princely state became part of Rajasthan Union?

1. Sirohi

2. Bharatpur

3. Pratapgarh

4. Alwar

14. Match the following:

Paleolithic Sites                                         Place

1 Lidder River                                    a   Rajasthan

2. Sohan valley                                       b. Punjab

3. Chittorgarh and Kota                       c.   Rajasthan

4. River Wagoon, Kadamli basins       d.  Kashmir

  1. 1-a 2-b 3-c 4-d                        

  2. 1-b 2-c 3-d 4-a

 3. 1-d 2-b 3-c 4-a

 4. 1-c 2-a 3-b 4-d

15. Mesolithic human burials have been found at?

Identify the incorrect answer:

 1. Bagor                   Rajasthan

 2. Langhnaj             Gujarat

 3. Bhimbetka          Madhya Pradesh

 4. Mauda                 Haryana

16. The rock painting of Mesolithic period is found at?

Identify the incorrect answer:

1. Lakhudiyar         Uttarakhand

2. Tekkalkotta        Karnataka

3. Bhimbetka         Madhya Pradesh

 4. Adamagarh       Madhya Pradesh

 5. Pratapgarh        Rajasthan

6.  Mirzapur          Haryana

17. Mehrgarh is located on the bank of which River?

1. Indus                       2. Bolan

3. Saraswati                4. Mahi

18. Which is not the Indus Valley Site in Rajasthan?

   1. Kalibangan           2. Baror

   3. Karanpura            4. Rangpur

19. Identify the Place/Site which has the following features?

1. Most noteworthy is a cylindrical seal, depicting a female figure between two male figures, fighting or threatening with spears.

2. The best terracotta figure is that a charging bull which is considered to signify the “realistic and powerful folk art.

3. The cemetery was located to the west-southwest of the citadel.

4. The site was discovered by Luigi Pio Tessitori, an Italian Indologist.

Which is the correct answer?

1.  Lothal (Gujarat)                       2.Kalibangan (Rajasthan)

3. Diamabad (Maharashtra)       4.Alamgirpur (U.P.)

20. Match The Following:

1. Ochre-Colored Pottery (OCP)      a. Ganga valley

2. Narhan culture                                   b. Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan

 3. Ahar culture                                 c. Mewar region of Rajasthan

4. Kayatha and Malwa cultures       d. Maharashtra

5. The Jorwe culture                         e. western Madhya Pradesh

1. 1-a 2-b 3-c 4-d 5-e

2.1-b 2-a 3-c 4-e 5-d

3. 1-c 2-b 3-d 4-a 5-e

4. 1-d 2-c 3-b 4-e 5-a

21. Identify the Place/Site/Culture name which has following features?

1. People lived in single, double & multi-roomed rectangular, square or circular houses.

2. Its Pottery is a Black-and-Red ware (BRW) with linear and dotted designs painted on it

3. Gilund, Ahar, Ojiyana and Balathal are its prominent sites.

Which is the correct answer?

1. Ahar-Banas Culture       2.OCP Culture

3. Kalibangan                         4. Dholavira

22. Match the following:

                 Districts                                 Mahajanapads

1.   Jaipur, Alwar & Bharatpur             Matsya Mahajanapads

2.   Bharatpur, Dholpur & Karauli         Kuru Mahajanapads

3.   Northern Alwar region              Saurasena Mahajanapads

Which is the correct answer?

1.   1-a 2-b 3-c

2.   1-a 2-c 3-b

3.   1-b 2-a 3-c

23. Match the Following:

       Capital                          Mahajanapads

1. Viratanagari           Saurasena Mahajanapads

2. near modern day Mathura      Kuru Mahajanapads

3. Indrapath                                 Matsya Mahajanapads

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1.   1-a 2-b 3-c

2.   1-a 2-c 3-b

3.   1-b 2-a 3-c

4.   1-c 2-a 3-b

24. Where/who acknowledged the military might of the Yaudheyas?

1. Pāṇini’s Ashtadhyayi                  2. Ganapatha

3. Junagarh rock inscription          4.All

  • The region surrounding modern districts of Bikaner & Jodhpur was referred to as Jangaldesh during Mahajanpadas period.

25. Consider the following Statements and choose the right answer:

1. Maan Mori, of the Maurya dynasty was killed by him.

2. He belonged to Guhilot clan.

3. Born as Kalbhoj, was the founder of a dynasty, which later comes to rule Mewar.

1. Vyaghramukh               2. Nayachandra Suri

3. Bappa Rawal                4 Bahar Deo                

26. Consider the following statement and choose the right answer:

1. It is an archaeological site in Rajsamand district.

2. There are three major rivers in the area which include the Kothari, Banas, and Berach.

3. Excavation carried out at the site during 1959-60 by B.B.Lal revealed two mounds labeled as ‘eastern’ and ‘western’ mounds.

4. The site is part of Ahar-Banas Chalcolithic culture.

1. Balathal            2. Pachamta

3. Gilund             4. Ojiyana

27. Consider the following statement and choose the right answer:

1. It is an archaeological site of Ahar-Banas Culture located in Vallabhnagar Tehsil of Rajasthan.

2. It is located on banks of Katar River.

3. The site was discovered by V. N. Misra during a survey in 1962-63.

4. This ancient site was occupied during two cultural periods: the Chalcolithic and the Early Historic.

1. Gilund                      2. Ahar

3. Ojiyana                    4.  Balathal

28. Consider the following statement and choose the right answer:

1. Recently excavation was carried out at a village in Rajasthan, under a project called the Mewar Plains Archaeological Assessment.

2. It belongs to the Ahar-Banas culture in the Mewar region, which was contemporaneous with the early and mature Harappan culture.

3. Art facts such as perforated jars, shell bangles, terracotta beads, shells and the semi-precious stone lapis lazuli, different types of pottery and two hearths have been found during excavation.

1. Balathal          2. Pachamta

3. Gilund             4. Ojiyana

29. Consider the following statement and choose the right answer:

1. The site is located at source of river Kantali, which used to join river Drishadwati, near Soni-Bhadra on the north.

2. Historian R.L. Mishra wrote that, Red pottery with black portraiture was found which is estimated to be belonging to 2500–2000 BC was found when it was excavated in 1977.

3. It mainly supplied copper objects to Harappa.

1. Ganeshwar (Sikar)        2.  Jodhpura (Jaipur)

3. Noh (Bharatpur)          4. Sanari (Jhunjhunu)

30. Consider the following statement and choose the right answer:

1. This Kingdom played a great part in history of Northern India nearly for 500 years.

2. The King Nagabhatt I from this kingdom won Kannauj and established rule over most of Rajasthan.

3. The capital of their Kingdom was shreemal, which is old name of Bhinmal in Jalore.

Identify the Kingdom?

1. Western Satraps                               2. Rajput Kingdom

3. Vardhana                                            4. Gurjara Kingdom

31. Consider the following statement and choose the right answer:

 1. These people worshipped Fire and Fire was the main deity of the Sakas and Hunas as per theory of James Todd.

 2. This theory as put forward by Dr. DP Chatterjee says that it is a mixed race.

3. This theory was propounded by Gauri Shankar Ojha and says that those are NOT from the foreign origin and they are descendents of the mythological Khatriya Heroes like Rama.

4. This theory comes from the Prithvi of Chandrabhardai. According to this theory, those are the result of Yagya performed by Hrishi Vashistha at “Guru Shikhar” in Mount Abu.

1. Origin of Pratiharas               2. Origin of Rajputs

3. Origin of Rathores                 4. Origin of Chauhans

32. Arrange these Pratihars Kings as Historical in descending order

1. Harichandra           2. Kakka

3. Jhota                        4. Narabhatta

1.   1-2-3-4

2.   1-3-2-4

3.   1-4-3-2

4.   1-4-2-3

33. Consider the following statement and choose the right answer:

1. He was the founder of Bhinmal branch of Pratihara.

 2. He formed a triple alliance with Jaysimha & Bappa Rawal to defeat Arabs in Battle of Rajasthan

3. He was the first Pratihara ruler who occupied the Kanauj.

4. He defeated Dharmapala of Gauda country.

1. Raja Nagabhatt I                     2. Raja Nagabhatt II

3. Raja Mihir Bhoj                      4. Raja Mahendrapal

34. Who Constructed Harshnath Temple in Sikar?

1.   Durlabha-raja I

2.   Govinda-raja I

3.   Chandra-raja II

4.   Govindaraja II

35. Consider the following statement and choose the right answer:

1. He captured Multan and occupied whole of Sind in his subsequent expeditions.

2. He suffered defeat in the Battle of Kayadara (Gujarat), from ruler of Gujarat, Bhimdev Solanki II.

3. He attacked Punjab, and defeated Khusru Malik and added Malik’s empire to his dominions.

4. He proceeded towards India through the Khyber Pass and captured a fortress of Bathinda.

1. Qutub ud-din-Aibak          2. Mahmud Gazni

3. Mohd. Ghori                       4 Iltutmish

Answer Key: 

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 3
  4. 1
  5. 1
  6. 1
  7. 2
  8. 2
  9. 4
  10. 1
  11. 2
  12. 4
  13. 3
  14. 3
  15. 4
  16. 6
  17. 2
  18. 4
  19. 2
  20. 2
  21. 1
  22. 2
  23. 4
  24. 4
  25. 3
  26. 3
  27. 4
  28. 2
  29. 1
  30.  4
  31. 2
  32. 3
  33. 1
  34. 2
  35. 3

Current Affairs MCQ from January – July 2019 for All Competitive Exams

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1. Every year Global Family Day is an international day of peace and sharing celebrated on which among the following days?

(A)       Decemeber 29th

(B)       January 1st

(C)       January 2nd

(D)       January 3rd

(E)       January 5th

Answer: B

Global Family Day is celebrated every Year January 1 Global Family Day is an international day of peace and sharing celebrated every January 1 by the citizens of the world

2. Government extends CLSS for MIG scheme till 31st march, 2020. What does the letter ‘L’ stands for in CLSS?

(A)       Line

(B)       Liquidity

(C)       Linked

(D)       Level

(E)       Local

Answer: C

The Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS) for Middle Income Group (MIG) Scheme has been extended by another 12 months till 31.03.2020.

Till December 30 this year, around 3, 39,713 beneficiaries have availed the CLSS under the PMAY (Urban),

Under the CLSS, the MIG beneficiaries with an annual income of above Rs 6 lakh and up to Rs 12 lakh would get an interest subsidy of four per cent on a 20-year loan component of Rs 9 lakh.

Those with an annual income exceeding Rs 12 lakh and up to Rs 18 lakh would get interest subsidy of three per cent.

3. ISRO has launched a new platform named Samwad with Students Programme as part of its enhanced outreach programme in which city?

(A)       Hyderabad

(B)       Mumbai

(C)       Kolkata

(D)       Bangalore

(E)       Pune

Answer: D

As part of the enhanced outreach programme of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), a new platform named Samwad with Students (SwS) was launched in Bengaluru.

The Indian Space agency will engage youngsters across the country in activities concerning space science under this programme.

During the inauguration in Bengaluru yesterday, 40 students and 10 teachers from select schools interacted with ISRO Chairman Dr. K Sivan about the Indian Space Programme and their benefits to the common man.

4. Which among the following countries have officially quit the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) at the stroke of midnight on New Year’s Day?

(A)       United States

(B)       Israel

(C)       Russia

(D)       Both ((A) and ((B)

(E)       Both ((A) and ((C)

Answer: D

The United States and Israel officially quit the U.N.’s educational, scientific and cultural agency, UNESCO is best known for its work to preserve heritage, including maintaining a list of World Heritage            sites,   and     programmes to         promote education in developing countries.

Before The US has pulled out of UNESCO in 1984 because it viewed the agency as mismanaged, corrupt, and used to advance Soviet interests. The US rejoined in 2003.

5. China is building the first of four ‘most advanced’ naval frigates for which country as part of a major bilateral arms deal?

(A)       India

(B)       Bangladesh

(C)       Pakistan

(D)       Vietnam

(E)       Qatar

Answer: C

China is building the first of four ‘most advanced’ naval frigates for Pakistan as part of a major bilateral arms deal to ensure ‘balance of power’ in the Indian Ocean.

The warship will be capable of anti-submarine and air-defence operations.

The ships are of the Type 054AP class, meaning that it is based on the Type 054A of the People’s Liberation Army Navy (PLAN).

6. Which state Government announced that it is going to create an Adhyatmik Vibhag (spiritual department) by merging several existing departments?

(A)       Maharashtra

(B)       Madhya Pradesh

(C)       Meghalaya

(D)       Andhra Pradesh

(E)       Rajasthan

Answer: B

Madhya Pradesh Government announced that it is going to create an Adhyatmik Vibhag (spiritual department) by merging several existing department. The ‘Anand Vibhag’ (Department of Happiness) set up by the previous government in the state, a first in the country, would be incorporated into the new department.

The proposed Adhyatmik Vibhag (Spiritual Department) going to be formed by merging Dharmik Nyas Evam Dharmasv Department (Religious Trust and Endowment Department), Anand Vibhag (Happiness Department) in addition to the Directorate of Religious Trust and Endowment, Madhya Pradesh Teerth Evam Mela Pradhikaran and Rajya Anand Sansthan.

7. State-owned Allahabad Bank has tied up with which life Insurance company to sell the policies of the insurer from over 3,200 branches?

(A)       United India Insurance Company Limited

(B)       The New India Assurance Company Limited

(C)       LIC of India

(D)       SBI Life Insurance

(E)       None of these

Answer: D

State-owned Allahabad Bank has tied up with SBI Life Insurance to sell the policies of the insurer from over 3,200 branches.

The tie-up, one of the largest Banc assurance partnerships in the country, will see 3,238 branches of Allahabad Bank across the country offer SBI Life’s range of protection, wealth creation and savings products to its customers

8. The MSME ministry has established an export promotion cell to create a sustainable ecosystem for micro, small and medium enterprises. Who will be the chairman of the cell?

(A)       Giriraj Singh

(B)       Arun Kumar Panda

(C)       Rajiv Sharma

(D)       Jai Krishna

(E)       B.B Vikram

Answer: B

The MSME ministry has established an export promotion cell to create a sustainable ecosystem for micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs),

The ministry has also proposed to formulate a governing council that will be chaired by secretary of the MSME ministry Arun Kumar Panda.

The Cell would evaluate readiness of MSMEs to export their products and services, recognise areas where improvements are required in order to be able to export effectively and efficiently and integration of MSME into global value chain.

9. Who was appointed as Competition Commission of India secretary?

(A)       P K Singh

(B)       M K Pandey

(C)       R R Sharma

(D)       D K Kanal

(E)       R V Chowdary

Answer: A

The Competition Commission of India (CCI) appointed Pramod Kumar Singh as its secretary, prior to this, P K Singh was adviser (law) to the competition watchdog.

The secretary would act as the nodal officer for the Commission for making or receiving all statutory information and entering into the any formal relationships including signing of memorandums with any foreign agency or other agency with prior approval from Commission and government.

The Commission was established in 2003 to replace the erstwhile Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Commission.

10. Who took charge as, Railway Board Chairman recently?

(A)       Ajay Singh

(B)       Vinod K. Yadav

(C)       R.K. Kulshrestha

(D)       Purnendu Shekhar Mishra

(E)       Ashwani Lohani

Answer: B

Vinod K. Yadav, General Manager of South Central Railway (SCR), took charge as, Railway Board Chairman.

Yadav succeeds Ashwani Lohani, who retired in December.

He is an electrical engineer and belongs to the 1980 batch of the Indian Railway Service of Electrical Engineers.

He has served two years as a General Manager of South Central Railway, from January 2017.

11. Who was nominated as the Executive Chairman of National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)?

(A)       AK Sikri

(B)       Vijay Arora

(C)       Bipin Chakravarthi

(D)       Mahenthaesh Verma

(E)       None of these

Answer: A

Justice AK Sikri was nominated as the Executive Chairman of National Legal Services Authority (NALSA).

The NALSA was constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free legal services to the weaker sections of the society and to organise Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes.

The post got vacant after the retirement of Justice Madan B Lokur.

12. Name the Indian pacer who becomes Highest International Wicket-Taker in 2018?

(A)       Bhuvaneshwar Kumar

(B)       Ishant Sharma

(C)       Mohamad Shami

(D)       Umesh Yadav

(E)       Jasprit Bumrah

Answer: E

India pacer Jaspreet Bumrah finished 2018 as the highest wicket-taker across all formats in the calendar year; He has picked up 78 wickets across all formats in 2018.

The South African Bowler Kagiso Rabada has taken 77 wickets in 2018.

13. Famous personality Kader Khan Passed Away. He belongs to which profession?

(A)       Actor

(B)       Politician

(C)       Poet

(D)       Musician

(E)       Classical Dancer

Answer: A

Veteran Actor Kader Khan Passed Away

Kader Khan was an Afghan-born Indian-Canadian film actor, screenwriter, comedian, and director. He was born in 22 October 1937 Kabul, Afghanistan.

Kader Khan made his acting debut in 1973 with Rajesh Khanna’s “Daag”. He wrote dialogues for over 250 movies. Before becoming an actor he had written dialogues for Randhir Kapoor-Jaya Bachchan’s “Jawani Diwani”.

14. One of the early architects of the internet Larry Roberts who was the program manager for ARPAnet, Passed Away. He belongs to which country?

(A)       Canada

(B)       Russia

(C)       America

(D)       Australia

(E)       China

Answer: C

One of the early architects of the internet Lawrence Gilman Roberts was an American scientist who received the Draper Prize in 2001 “for the development of the Internet”, and the Principe de Asturias Award in 2002. Who was the program manager for ARPAnet, Passed Away?

Roberts latched on to the concept of computer-to- computer networks in the 1960s

15. Reserve Bank of India has granted permission to which payments bank to add new customers, after it had initially barred the bank from opening bank accounts in June 2018?

(A)       Jana Small Finance Bank

(B)       ESAF Small Finance Bank

(C)       AU Small Finance Bank

(D)       Paytm Payments Bank

(E)       None of these

Answer: D

Paytm Payments Bank has received the green light from the Reserve Bank of India to restart opening accounts for its customers.

Paytm Payments Bank had stopped enrolling new customers from 20 June following an audit by RBI, which made certain observations about the process the company follows in acquiring new customers and its adherence to know your customer (KY(C) norms.

16. 100% Houses in 25 States Electrified under Saubhagya Yojana. Which among the following states are still left to be electrified?

(A)       Assam

(B)       Rajasthan

(C)       Meghalaya

(D)       Chhattisgarh

(E)       All of these

Answer: e

The country achieved yet another milestone in the power sector with completion of electrification in 100% households in 25 states at year end.

Only about 10.48 lakh households are left to be electrified in 4 states – Assam, Rajasthan, Meghalaya and Chhattisgarh.

The central government launched ‘Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana’ (Saubhagya (A) in September 2017 to achieve the goal of universal household electrification in the country by 31 March, 2019

17. Which air port has been declared as an authorized Immigration Check post for entry into/exit from India with valid travel documents for all classes of passengers, recently?

(A)       Rajiv Gandhi International Airport

(B)       Kempegowda International Airport

(C)       Veer Savarkar International Airport

(D)       Biju Patnaik International Airport

(E)       Chaudhary Charan Singh Airport

Answer: C

Veer Savarkar International Airport in Port Blair has been declared as an authorized Immigration Check post for entry into/exit from India with valid travel documents for all classes of passengers.

This decision of the Union Government will open up the Port Blair Airport for direct international flight and immigration facilities.

The announcement was made by Information, Public Relations and Tourism Division of Andaman and Nicobar Administration.

18. Who was sworn in as Brazil’s President in a ceremony at Brazil’s National Congress Building?

(A)       Michel Temer

(B)       Jair Bolsonaro

(C)       Dmitry Medvedev

(D)       Angela Markel

(E)       None of these

Answer: B

Jair Bolsonaro was sworn in as Brazil’s President in a ceremony at Brazil’s National Congress Building Bolsonaro, a former Army captain and admirer of the country’s 1964-1985 military dictatorship Bolsonaro, 63, was a seven-term fringe congressman who rode a wave of anti-establishment anger to became Brazil’s first far-right president since a military dictatorship gave way to civilian rule three decades ago.

19. Which state government announced two welfare initiatives for farmers, which are part of the ‘Krishi Krishak Bondhu’ scheme recently?

(A)       Madhya Pradesh

(B)       Odisha

(C)       Rajasthan

(D)       Punjab

(E)       West Bengal

Answer: e

The West Bengal government announced two welfare initiatives for farmers, both initiatives, which are part of the ‘Krishi Krishak Bondhu’ scheme.

The first of the two initiatives will provide Rs 2 lakh to the family of a deceased farmer,

Under the second initiative, farmers would get Rs 2,500 twice a year for growing a single crop on one acre of land,

20. Which state government has put a ban on the purchase new vehicles and air conditioners (ACs) by the government departments?

(A)       Karnataka

(B)       Gujarat

(C)       Madhya Pradesh

(D)       Meghalaya

(E)       Andhra Pradesh

Answer: C

Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister Kamal has put a ban on the purchase new vehicles and air conditioners (ACs) by the government departments along with a slew of other items.

Also, the expenditure incurred on office furniture, books, magazines, stationery, guest expenses, press and publication, consultancy, sanitation, security, and other such heads has been limited.

Hospitals, hostels, Anganwadis, shelter homes have been kept out of the purview of the latest directive of the Finance Department.

21. The number of complaints registered at banking ombudsman offices has seen an increase of what percentage in the fiscal year 2018?

(A) 20%

(B) 25%

(C) 30%

(D) 35%

(E) 50%

Answer: B

The number of complaints registered at banking ombudsman offices have seen a 25% increase in the fiscal year 2018.

The banking ombudsman offices in tier-1 cities like New Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, Bengaluru and Hyderabad accounted for more than 57% of the total complaints received.

97% of the Complaints were resolved in 2017-18, up from 92% a year earlier.

Most complaints received against public sector banks were pension-related while most complaints received against private banks were for credit cards discrepancies.

22. Which Ministry has recently launched the SHREYAS Scheme?

  1. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  2. Ministry of communication
  3. Ministry of Defence
  4. D.Ministry of Human Resource Development

23.  Prime Minister Narendra Modi has launched the Khelo India Mobile App in which of the following cities?

  1. Amravati
  2. Kolkata
  3. New Delhi
  4. Mumbai

24.  Mehtab Hossain who has announced his retirement is associated with which of the following sports ?

  1. Cricket
  2. Tennis
  3. Football
  4. Wrestling

25. Khanij online which has won this year’s National eGovernance Award is an online portal of which state ?

  1. Chhattisgarh
  2. Madhya Pradesh
  3. Jharkhand
  4. Rajasthan

26. Railways Minister Piyush Goyal has announced the ‚South Coast Railway (SCoR) in which of the following states?

  1. Kerala
  2. Andhra Pradesh
  3. Telangana
  4. Karnataka

27. Hemant Bhargava was appointed as the nonexecutive chairman of which bank?

  1. IDBI Bank
  2. Punjab National Bank
  3. Bank of Baroda
  4. Canara Bank

28. The Reserve Bank has set up an eight members Task Force on Offshore Rupee Markets which will be headed by whom?

  1. R. Gandhi
  2. Urjit Patel
  3. Usha Thorat
  4. Heroon R. Khan

29. AIIB and India have signed US$ 455 Million Loan agreement to improve Rural Connectivity in which of the following states?

  1. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Andhra Pradesh
  3. Karnataka
  4. Bihar

30. Which public sector bank has topped the EASE Reforms Index released by government?

  1. State Bank of India
  2. Allahabad Bank
  3. Bank of Baroda
  4. Punjab National Bank

31. IRCTC has launched its own payment aggregator system named what in a bid to promote digital transactions?

  1. IRCTC iPay
  2. IRCTC iPay
  3. IRCTC Pay
  4. IRCTC vPAY

32. Who is the author of the novel “The Fate of Butterflies‛?

  1. Nandini Bajpai
  2. Anita Nair
  3. Devapriya Roy
  4. Nayantara Sahgal

33. Union Cabinet has approved establishment of new All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) in which of the following districts of Haryana ?

  1. Rohtak
  2. Rewari
  3. Panipat
  4. Panchkula

34. ‘Mainamati Maitree Exercise 2019’ was conducted between India and which country?

  1. Nepal
  2. Bhutan
  3. Sri Lanka
  4. Bangladesh

35. Union Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) has launched which scheme, to fund science projects, on the occasion of National Science Day ?

  1. HUNAR
  2. STARS
  3. STRIKE
  4. KAUSHAL

36. Cabinet has approved Setting up Centre for Disability Sports at which city in Madhya Pradesh?

  1. Indore
  2. Bhopal
  3. Gwalior
  4. Jabalpur

37. AYUSH Minister Shripad Yesso Naik has laid the foundation stone for National Institute of Unani Medicine in which of the following states?

  1. Madhya Pradesh
  2. Rajasthan
  3. Uttarakhand
  4. Uttar Pradesh

38. Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) has celebrated 50th anniversary of its‚ first composite solid propellant ‚ named what?

  1. Mrinal
  2. Taal
  3. Trishul
  4. Vikram

39. Which of the following companies has launched Project Zero to fight product counterfeit?

  1. Flipkart
  2. Alibaba
  3. Amazon
  4. IndiaMart

40. India and ADB has signed a loan agreement of USD———Million for Mumbai Metro Rail Project ?

  1. USD 655 million
  2. USD 472 million
  3. USD 700 million
  4. USD 926 million

Q) Which Indian state has recently created a 7th Guinness Book of World Record by implanting ‘Modern Artificial Limbs (Legs)’ in 260 Divyangjans within eight hours ?

  1. Rajasthan
  2. Uttar Pradesh
  3. Gujarat
  4. Madhya Pradesh

Q) Who has taken charge as MD & CEO of Yes Bank ?

  1. Sushil kumar
  2. Rana Kapoor
  3. Ajay Kumar
  4. Ravneet Gill

Q) Who is the head of the task force formed by CBDT to draft a new direct tax law and replace the existing Income Tax Act?

  1. Akhilesh Ranjan
  2. Sushil Chandra
  3. R. Gandhi
  4. Harun kar

Q) Who has become the first ever batsman to smash 500 sixes in international cricket?

  1. Shoaib Malik
  2. Ken Williamson
  3. Chris Gayle
  4. Mahendra Singh Dhoni

Q) Which of the following states has launched the Mukhyamantri Parivar Samman Nidhi Yojana?

  1. Rajasthan
  2. Haryana
  3. Punjab
  4. Gujarat

Q) Which of the following states has launched the ‘Jalamrutha’ scheme ?

  1. Odisha
  2. Karnataka
  3. Andhra Pradesh
  4. Telangana

Q) Ex-Finance Secretary Hasmukh Adhia was appointed as the non-executive chairman of which bank ?

  1. Bank of India
  2. Bank of baroda
  3. Bank of Maharashtra
  4. Oriental Bank of Commerce

Q) PM Modi has Announced FY20 to be observed as which Year ?

  1. Construction Technology Year
  2. Science
  3. Artificial Intelligence
  4. Millets

Q) Who has been honored with the 2019 Missile Systems Award ?

  1. K Sivan
  2. Vikram Jain
  3. Nirmala Sitharaman
  4. G Sateesh Reddy

Q) 25th Prime Minister’s Trophy for the Best Overall Performance for year 2016-17 was conferred upon ?

  1. Tata Steel Limited, Jamshedpur
  2. JSW Steel Limited, Vijayanagar
  3. SAIL, Rourkela
  4. Jindal Steel and Power Limited, Raigarh

Q) Students and researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Delhi have created a laptop for visually-impaired called what ?

  1. BrailleBook
  2. DotBook
  3. TouchBook
  4. SenseBook

Q)Which state’s Police have launched ‘Samvedna’ campaign to curb crimes against women and children ?

  1. Madhya Pradesh
  2. Chhattisgarh
  3. Gujarat
  4. Maharashtra

Q) Which of the following games has been included in the Asian Games 2022 ?

  1. Baseball
  2. Cricket
  3. Chess
  4. Kabaddi

Q) Who has been appointed as the chairman of the newly constituted National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)

  1. Anush Dadlani
  2. Prakash Nambiar
  3. Gurdeep Khullar
  4. Bhagwan Lal Sahni

Q) Zhores Alferov who passed away recently had won the Nobel Prize in 2000 in which field?

  1. Chemistry
  2. Mathematics
  3. Physics
  4. Biology

Q) Which tennis player has won the Dubai Tennis Championships?

  1. Stefanos Tsitsipas
  2. Roger Federer
  3. Rafael Nadal
  4. Novak Djokovic

Q) Who was conferred with the Atal Bihari Vajpayee Life Time Award?

  1. Thanga Darlong
  2. Temsuyanger Longkumer
  3. Mahapatra jimi chishi
  4. Tapan Bordoloi

Q) India’s first oil museum will come up in which of the following states?

  1. Delhi
  2. Guwahati
  3. Lucknow
  4. Shimla

Q) India’s first ever ‘National Institute of Mental Health Rehabilitation’ will be set up in which district of Madhya Pradesh?

  1. Bhopal
  2. Vidisha
  3. Sehore
  4. Raisen

Q) How many Guinness World Records have been made by Prayagraj Kumbh Mela 2019?

  1. Four
  2. Two
  3. One
  4. Three

Q) Who has been appointed as the chairman of Tea Board?

  1. Vinod Kumar Yadav
  2. V G Siddhartha
  3. M S Boje Dowda
  4. P K Bezboruah

Q) According to the Delta ranking report released by NITI Aayog which district of Assam has become the top aspirational district among the 112 aspirational districts of the country?

  1. Hailakandi
  2. Udalgiri
  3. Nalbari
  4. Jorhat

Q) Under the World Bank funded project – Agribusiness and Rural Transformation (APART), Rice Knowledge Bank web portal of whish state was launched ?

  1. West Bengal
  2. Kerala
  3. Assam
  4. Chhattisgarh

Q) India has signed a deal with which country to manufacture 7.5 lakh AK-203 rifles?

  1. Japan
  2. Israel
  3. USA
  4. Russia

Q) India’s first jewellery park will come up in which of the following states?

  1. Assam
  2. Maharashtra
  3. Gujarat
  4. Karnataka

Q) Which Indian armed forces have created history by achieving a Guinness world record feat in ‘single line bicycle parade’?

  1. Border Security Force (BSF)
  2. Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
  3. Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
  4. Indo Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)

Q) India’s food processing ministry has launched which scheme to bolster the unorganised food processing sector concentrated in rural areas?

  1. Gram Sahyog Yojana
  2. Gram Samridhi Yojana
  3. PM Gram Sahayata Yojana
  4. Atal Bihari Gram Unnati Yojana

Q) PM Narendra Modi has launched Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM- SYM) Yojana on 5th March 2018 from which state?

  1. Maharashtra
  2. Gujarat
  3. Uttar Pradesh
  4. Jharkhand

National Parks in Rajasthan

National Parks of Rajasthan

S. No. Name of National Park Year of Notification Total Area (Sq.Km)
1 Mukundra Hills (Darrah)   2006 200.54
2 Desert National Park   1992 3162
3 Keoladeo Ghana National Park 1981 28.73
4 Ranthambhore National Park 1980 282
5 Sariska National Park   1982 273.8

Mukundra Hills (Darrah) National Park

Mukundra Hills National Park is also known as Darrah wildlife Sanctuary. Darrah wildlife Sanctuary is located in Rajasthan. The sanctuary is located to the southeastern border of the town Kota.

Darrah was declared a (Protected area) wildlife sanctuary in 1955andvisitors now require seeking permission from the local forest ranger to visit the park. The total area of the sanctuary is about 250 sq. km.

In past, Darrah sanctuary was the royal hunting ground of the Maharaja of Kota. This place is located at a distance of about 50 km from Kota. It is located on the eastern bank of Chambal River and is drained by its tributaries.

The Darrah wildlife sanctuary was declared as a National park (Mukundra Hills (Darrah) National Park) in 2004. Total area of the National park is about 200 sq. km. Mukundra Hills (Darrah) National Park is a combination of three wildlife sanctuaries namely Darrah wildlife sanctuary, Chambal wildlife sanctuary and Jaswant Sagar wildlife sanctuary.

The park got the nod from National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in 2013 and the state (Rajasthan) bagged its third tiger reserve in the form of the Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve.

The name Darrah is taken as the ‘Pass’ in the local language revealing the purpose that the region served earlier. The Marathas, Rajput’s and the British utilized the opportune position of the forest to seek asylum during war.

The park is situated between two parallel mountains viz. Mukundra and Gagrola which run across a length of about 80 km (from Murlipura to Rawatbhata). The four rivers which form the boundary of this valley are Ramzan, Ahu, Kali and Chambal.

The densely wooded Darrah Sanctuary is spread all over the hilly terrain. The forest of the sanctuary is very thick and dense.

Ranthambore National Park

Ranthambore is a beautiful place, located in the Sawai Madhopur district of the state of Rajasthan. Ranthambore National Park is one of the largest national parks in northern India.

Ranthambore was (Sawai Madhopur Game Sanctuary in 1955) declared a wildlife sanctuary in 1957andcame under the “Project Tiger “as a Tiger reserves in 1973-74. The total area of the sanctuary is about 400 sq. km.

The Ranthambore tiger reserve was declared as a National park in 1981. Total area of the National park is about 282 sq. km.

Ranthambore was a hunting reserve of the Maharajas of Jaipur, the park at Ranthambore was once the scene of royal hunting parties in the past.

Ranthambore National Park is famous for its tigers and is one of the best places in the country to see these majestic tigers.

  • Ranthambore National Park is set between the Aravalli and Vindhya ranges. Located at the junction of the Aravalli and Vindhya hill range.
  •  It spreads over a highly undulating topography varying from the gentle to the steep slopes; from flat topped hills of the Vindhayas to the conical hillocks and the sharp ridges of the Aravallis.
  • An important geological feature the ‘Great Boundary Fault’ where the Vindhayas plateaus meet the Aravalli hill ranges.

The Rivers Chambal in the South and the Banas in the North bound the National Park. Pure stands of the Dhok interspersed with open grasslands of the plateaus, six large lakes – Gilai Sagar, Mansarovar, Malik talao, Raj Bagh and Padam Talao with in the National Park.

The rugged park terrain alternates between dry deciduous forest, open grassy meadow, dotted by several lakes and rivers that are only made passable by rough roads built and maintained by the Forest Service.

There are many water bodies located all over the park, which provide perfect relief during the extremely hot summer months for the forest inhabitants.

A huge fort, after which the park is named, towers over the park atop a hill. There are many ruins of bygone eras scattered all over the jungle, which give it a unique, wonderful and mixed flavour of nature, history and wildlife.

Tigers at Ranthambore National park have been known to even hunt in full view of human visitors. These tigers are famous for being seen in the daytime too, due to their lack of fear of human presence in vehicles. This lack of fear of humans is excellent for tourists, as they get to see the tigers often.

Desert National Park

Desert National Park is a beautiful place located in the Jaisalmer district of the state of Rajasthan. Desert National Park is one of the largest national parks in India. The Desert National Park is also a protected sanctuary.

The Desert protected sanctuary was declared as a National park in 1980. Total area of the National park is about 3162 km2. The desert is a harsh place to sustain life and thus most of the fauna and flora live on the edge.

The great Indian Bustard is a magnificent bird and can be seen in considerably good numbers in this park. It migrates locally in different seasons. The region is a heaven for migratory and resident birds of the desert.

  1. Desert National park harbours a wide array of flora and fauna species.
  2. It is only place where Rajasthan State Bird (Great Indian Bustard), State animal (Camel) and State tree (Khejri) and State flower (Rohida) are found naturally.
  3. It also has fossil evidences dating back to the Jurassic Period indicating hot and humid climate characterized by dense forests. 180 million years old fossils of animals and plants are preserved at Wood Fossil Park at Akal, situated 17 km away from Jaisalmer.
  4. The Desert National Park is a unique and fragile ecosystem. More than 60 per cent of it is simply semi-arid desert.
  5. The seemingly barren lands gradually dissolve at the horizon touching Pakistan.
  6. But the warm sands of the Desert National Park beyond Jaisalmer form a fertile micro broth hiding an astounding variety of animals and birds.
  7. Desert National Park is an excellent example of the desert ecosystem.
  8. The landform primarily comprises rocks and compact salt lake bottoms, intermedial areas and fixed dunes.
  9. The topography of Desert National Park supports sandy, gravelly, rocky and compact salt lake bottoms. Sandy areas dominate the western parts of Jaisalmer district, while gravelly and rocky areas are scattered throughout central, southern and eastern areas.
  10. The Desert National Park is barren with several sand dunes and a few hills in the north-western region. The Park forms a vast sandy and undulating terrain.

Dominant fauna

Birds – Great Indian Bustard, Falcons, Eagles, Vultures, Bee-Eaters, Shrikes, Larks, Demoiselle Crane, Macqueen’s Bustard, Sand grouse, Long-Legged, Honey Buzzards, chats, babblers, kites etc.

Mammals – Camel, Desert Fox, Bengal Fox, Chinkara, Wolf, Desert Cat, Blackbuck, Hedgehog, Nilgai

Reptiles – Russell’s viper, Saw Scaled Viper, Monitor Lizard, Spiny tailed lizard, Saw scaled viper, Common Krait, Spiny Tailed Lizard, Gecko, Persian Gecko etc.

Keoladeo Ghana National Park

Detail:

 Bird Sanctuary-1971   

National Park-1981           

Ramsar site Oct-1981

World Heritage Site-1985                 

 Reserve forest

Keoladeo Ghana National Park is also known as Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary or Keoladeo Ghana Bird Sanctuary. Keoladeo Ghana National Park is located in the Bharatpur district of the state of Rajasthan.

Keoladeo Ghana National Park famous for housing of birds and was created around 250 years ago. The name Keoladeo has been derived from a nearby ancient Hindu temple, devoted to Lord Shiva (Maharaja Suraj Mal).

  1. Keoladeo Ghana National Park also famous migrant species of birds, including the Common, Demoiselle and the rare Siberian Cranes.
  2. Keoladeo was declared a Bird Sanctuary in 1971. The Keoladeo bird sanctuary was declared as a National park in 1981.
  3. Total area of the National park is about 28.7 sq. km.
  4. Keoladeo Ghana National Park was announced as a Ramsar site under the Wetland Convention in October 1981.
  5. Keoladeo was designated a World Heritage Site under the world Heritage Convention in 1985 by UNESCO.
  6.  It is a Reserve forest under the Rajasthan Forest Act, 1953 and therefore, is the property of the State of Rajasthan of the Indian Union.
  7. The park was a hunting ground for the maharaja of Bharatpur, who turned his personal hunting domain into a bird sanctuary in 1956.
  8. Maharaja of Bharatpur setting up the sanctuary, building a dam and an artificial lake to store the rains that would fall in torrents during the monsoons.
  9. Duck shoots were organized yearly in honor of the British viceroys. In one shoot alone in 1938, about 4,250 birds were killed by Lord Linlithgow. The last big shoot was held in 1964 but the Maharajah retained shooting rights until 1972.
  10. Grazing of village cattle was banned in this area in 1982, which led to clashes between government and local farmers.

Sariska National Park

Detail:

Wildlife Reserve-1955                                      

Wildlife Sanctuary-1958   

(1979) Sariska Tiger Reserve        

National Park-1982

  1. Sariska is a beautiful place, located in the Alwar district of the state of Rajasthan.
  2. The area of Sariska, being a part of the Aravalli Range.
  3. Sariska was declared a wildlife Reserve in 1955.
  4. The reserve was declared a wildlife sanctuary in 1958 and came under the “Project Tiger” as a Sariska tiger reserve in 1979.
  5. The total area of the sanctuary is about 800 sq. km.
  6. The Sariska tiger reserve was declared as a National park in 1982. Total area of the National park is about 273.8 sq. km.
  7. The landscape of Sariska comprises of hills and narrow valleys of the Aravalli hill range.
  8. The topography of Sariska supports scrub-thorn arid forests, rocky landscapes, tropical forest, grasslands, dry deciduous forests, rocks and hilly cliffs.
  9. The area of Sariska is rich in mineral resources, such as copper.
  10. Supreme Court of India ban on mining in the area of Sariska National park, in 1991.
  11.  Sariska is the first tiger reserve in the world to have successfully relocated tigers.

Sariska was a hunting reserve for royal families in past. Its plentiful tiger population supported by large herds of Sambhar and Nilgai was the ideal place for the royals of the state as well as their visiting guests to go on shikaars. The broad range of wildlife here is a wonderful example of ecological adoption and tolerance, for the climate here is variable as well as erratic.

Geography of Rajasthan
Geography of Rajasthan

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Wildlife and its Conservation in Rajasthan

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Wildlife and its Conservation

Wildlife traditionally refers to undomesticated animal species but has come to include all organisms that grow or live wild in an area without being introduced by humans. Wildlife can be found in all ecosystems.

Sanctuary is an area which is of adequate ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, natural or zoological significance. The Sanctuary is declared for the purpose of protecting, propagating or developing wildlife or its environment. Certain rights of people living inside the Sanctuary could be permitted. Further, during the settlement of claims before finally notifying the Sanctuary, the Collector may in consultation with the Chief Wildlife Warden and allow the continuation of any right of any person in or over any land within the limits of the Sanctuary.

A sanctuary is a protected area which is reserved for the conservation of only animal and human activities like harvesting of timber, collecting minor forest products and private ownership rights are allowed as long as they do not interfere with well-being of animals. Boundaries of sanctuaries are not well defined and controlled biotic interference is permitted.

Definition of Wildlife Sanctuary: Wildlife Sanctuary as the name suggests, is the place that is reserved exclusively for the use of wildlife, which includes animals, reptiles, insects, birds etc. Otherwise called as wildlife refuges it provides habitat and safe & healthy living conditions to the wild animals especially to the endangered and rare ones so that they can live peacefully for their entire life and maintain their viable population.

For proper management of the sanctuary the rangers or guards are appointed to patrol the region. They ensure the safety of animals from poaching, predating or harassing.

  • International Union of Conservation of Nature, shortly called as IUCN has grouped wildlife sanctuaries in Category IV of protected areas.

The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is a membership Union uniquely composed of both government and civil society organisations. It provides public, private and non-governmental organisations with the knowledge and tools that enable human progress, economic development and nature conservation to take place together.

Created in 1948, IUCN has evolved into the world’s largest and most diverse environmental network.

Definition of National Park: National Park implies an area that is exclusively designated by the government for the conservation of wildlife and biodiversity due to its natural, cultural and historical significance. It is home to millions of animals, birds, insects, microorganisms, etc. of different genes and species, which provides a healthy and safe environment to them.

National Parks, not only conserve wildlife, but it also provides an amusement of the environmental and scenic heritage, in a way and by those means that does not cause harm to it, so as to provide enjoyment to the future generations. The plantation, cultivation, grazing, hunting and predating of animals, destruction of flowers are highly prohibited.

Key Differences between Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park:

The points given below explain the difference between wildlife sanctuary and national park:

  • Wildlife sanctuary can be understood as the regions where wildlife and their habitat are protected from any disturbance. Conversely, a National park is the area of countryside, which is specifically designated for wildlife, where they can live freely and use the natural resources.
  • Wildlife Sanctuaries are famous for the conservation of wildlife, which includes animals, insects, microorganisms, birds, etc. of different genes and species. On the other hand, National Parks are highly known preserving the flora, fauna, landscape and historical objects.
  • Wildlife Sanctuaries aims at ensuring that a substantial population of the wildlife and their habitats are maintained. As against, National Parks safeguards the environmental, scenic and cultural heritage of the region.
  • When it comes to restrictions, national parks are highly restricted areas, which are not open to all the people, whereas wildlife sanctuaries have lesser restrictions than national parks.
  • To visit national parks, official permission is to be taken from the requisite authorities. In contrast, no official permission is to be taken to visit a wildlife sanctuary.
  • Boundaries of wildlife sanctuaries are not sacrosanct. However, the national parks have clearly marked boundaries.
  • Human activities are allowed to a limited extent in the wildlife sanctuaries but in case of national parks, they are strictly prohibited by the authorities.

Difference between Wildlife Sanctuary, Biosphere Reserves and National Park

Wildlife Sanctuary: It is a consecrated place where sacred species are kept. It is not open for general public, unlike zoo. In other words, it tries not to allow any activity that would place the animals in an unduly stressful situation. India has 543 wildlife sanctuaries.

Characteristics of Wildlife Sanctuary

1. It is natural area which is reserve by a governmental or private agency for the protection of particular species.

2. Area is designated for the protection of wild animals.

3. Only animals are conserved, Could be private property also, outside activities allowed

4. It came under the category called “Protected Areas”. The Protected Areas are declared under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

5. International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has defined its Category IV type of protected areas.

National Parks: It is a home to many species of birds and animals which is established by central and state government for the conservation.

Characteristics of National Park

1. Reserve area of land, owned by the government.

2. Area is protected from human exploitation, industrialization and pollution.

3. There is no cutting or Grazing allowed and no any Outside Species Allowed

4. It came under the category called “Protected Areas”. The Protected Areas are declared under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

5. Conservation of ‘wild nature’ for posterity and as a symbol of national pride.

6. International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and its World Commission on Protected Areas has defined its Category II type of protected areas.

Biosphere Reserve: The International Co-ordinating Council (ICC) of UNESCO designated of ‘Biosphere reserve’ for natural areas from November, 1971.

Characteristics of Biosphere Reserve:

1. Notified areas which cover a larger area of land which may cover multiple National Parks, Sanctuaries and reserves as well.

2. Areas are meant for conservation of biodiversity of a specific area.

3. Three areas: Core, Buffer & Marginal. No outside Species allowed Conservation & research purpose.

4. It is internationally recognized within the framework of UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere (MAB) programme and nominated by national governments.

5. The Ministry of Environment and Forest provides financial assistance to the respective State governments for conservation of landscape and biological diversity and cultural heritage.

Wildlife Sanctuary of Rajasthan

S.No. Wildlife Sanctuary (WLS) Established Year Area  (In km²)
1 Bandh Baratha WLS 1985 199.5
2 Bassi WLS 1988 138.69
3 Bhensrodgarh WLS 1983 229.14
4 Darrah WLS 1955 80.75
5 Jaisamand WLS 1955 52
6 Jamwa Ramgarh WLS 1982 300
7 Jawahar Sagar WLS 1975 153.41
8 Kailadevi WLS 1983 676.38
9 Kesarbagh WLS 1955 14.76
10 Kumbhalgarh WLS 1971 608.58
11 Mount Abu WLS 1960 112.98
12 Nahargarh WLS 1980 50
13 National Chambal WLS 1979 274.75
14 Phulwari Ki Nal WLS 1983 692.68
15 Ramgarh Vishdhari WLS 1982 252.79
16 Ramsagar WLS 1955 34.4
17 Sajjangarh WLS 1987 5.19
18 Sariska WLS 1955 219
19 Sawaimadhopur WLS 1955 131.3
20 Sawai Man Singh WLS 1984 103.25
21 Shergarh WLS 1983 98.71
22 Sitamata WLS 1979 422.94
23 Tal Chhapper WLS 1971 7.19
24 Todgarh Raoli WLS 1983 495.27
25 Van Vihar WLS 1955 25.6

Source – Wildlife Institute of India

Main wildlife found in Protected Areas

Protected Area           Main Wild Life
DamDamp-baretha Resident and migratory Birds
Sariska  Tiger, Panther, Chital, Sambhar, Porcupine 
Sariska ‘A’  Sambhar, Chital, Panther
Desert National Park  Chinkara, Desert Cat, Fox, Great Indian Bustard 
Ramgarh- Vishdhari  Panther, hyena, Sloth Bear, jackal, Fox, Chital 
Kesar Bagh  Wolf, hyena, Fox, Chital
Ram Sagar  Wolf, hyena, Fox, Chital 
Van Vihar  Bear, Wolf, Chital, hyena, Fox, Wild Cat
Keoladevi  Panther, Chital, Chinkara, Sambhar, Bear, hyena, Wild Boar, Wolf 
Sitamata  Flying Squirrel, Panther, Wild Cat, Sambhar, hyena, Civet 
Bhensrodgarh  Panther, Sloth Bear, Four horned antelope, Chinkara, hyena, Fox 
Shergarh  Panther, Chital, Chinkara, Wild Boar 
Darrah  Panther, Wolf, Jackal, Chital, Fox, Sambhar, Sloth Bear, Porcupine 
Jawahar Sagar  Panther, Bear, Wolf, Ghariyal, Crocodile, Chital, Hyena, Fox, Jackal 
National Chambal Ghariyal  Ghariyal, Crocodile, Tortoise, Dolphin, Bear, Chinkara, Otter 
Bassi  Chital, Chinkara, Panther, Hyena, Wild Cat
Tal-Chapar  Black Buck, Resident birds, 
Nahar-Garh  Hyena, Jackal, Fox, Hare 
Jamwa-Ramgarh  Panther, Chital, Wild Boar, Hyena, Jackal 
Sajjan-Garh  Panther, Hyena, Wild Cat, Jackal, Fox
Phulwari- ki- Naal  Panther, Hyena, Wild Cat, Jackal, Fox
Tatgarh Ravli  Panther, Hyena, Wolf, Green Pigeon, Jungle fowl 
Jaisamand  Resident Birds, Hyena, Jackal, Chinkara 
Kumbhalgarh  Panther, Sloth Bear, Hyena, wild boar, Four Horned antelope, Sambhar
Mount Abu  Panther, Bear, Hyena, Wolf, Porcupine
Sawai Man Singh  Tiger, Panther, Hyena, Fox, Bear, Chital, Sambhar

Geography of Rajasthan
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BREEDS OF GOAT LIVESTOCK IN RAJASTHAN

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BREEDS OF GOAT IN RAJASTHAN

S.No. Breeds of Goat          Distribution Area
  1.   Sirohi Sirohi district of Rajasthan. The breed also extends to Palanpur in Gujarat.
  2.   Marwari Marwar region of Rajasthan, comprising Jodhpur, Pali, Nagaur, Bikaner, Jalore, Jaisalmer and Barmer districts. The breed also extends into certain areas of Gujarat, especially Mehsana district.
  3.   Jhakrana Jhakrana and a few surrounding villages near Behror, in the Alwar district of Rajasthan.
  4.   Barbary Etah, Agra and Aligarh districts of Uttar Pradesh and Bharatpur district of Rajasthan.

Geography of Rajasthan
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Breeds of Cow – Livestock in Rajasthan

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BREEDS of COWS IN RAJASTHAN

S.No. Breeds of Cow Area (Mainly Found)
  1.   Nagauri 1. Origin from Suhalak area Nagaur 2. This species gives less milk.
  2.   Kankrej 1. Found in Barmer, Sirohi & Jalore. 2. Gives daily average of 5-10 litres of milk 3. The bull of this variety has good draught capacity.
3. Tharparkar Breed 1. Origin from Malani (barmer) 2. Cows excellent production of milk
4. Rathi Breed  Sri Ganganagar, Bikaner and Jaisalmer. Good at milk production, males lack draught power.
5.   Gir Breed Gir breed comes from Gir forests of Saurashtra in Gujarat. In Rajasthan it is found in Southeastern Ajmer, Chittorgarh, Bundi and Kota

  • .
Geography of Rajasthan
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Cattle and Buffalo Breeds of Rajasthan

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Cattle and Buffalo Breeds of Rajasthan-Livestock

1. Gir

  • This breed is otherwise known as Bhadawari, Desan, Gujarati, Kathiawari, Sorthi and Surati.
  • Originated in Gir forests of South Kathiawar in Gujarat also found in Maharashtra and adjacent Rajasthan.
  • Basic colours of skin are white with dark red or chocolate-brown patches or sometimes black or purely red.
  • Horns are peculiarly curved, giving a ‘half moon’ appearance.
  • Milk yield ranges from 1200-1800 kgs per lactation.
  • Age at first calving 45-54 months and inter calving period from 515 to 600 days.
  • This is known for its hardiness and disease resistance.

2. Sahiwal

  • Originated in Montgomery region of undivided India.
  • This breed otherwise known as Lola (loose skin), Lambi Bar, Montgomery, Multani and Teli.
  • The best indigenous dairy breed.
  • The colour is reddish dun or pale red, sometimes flashed with white patches.
  • Heavy breed with symmetrical body having loose skin.
  • The average milk yield of this breed is between 1400 and 2500 kg per lactation.
  • Age at first calving ranges from 37 to 48 months and the calving interval is 430 to 580 days.

3. Tharparkar

  • Originated in Tharparkar district (Pakistan) of undivided India and also found in Rajasthan.
  • Otherwise known as White Sindhi, Gray Sindhi and Thari.
  • They are medium sized, compact and have lyre-shaped horn and Body colour is white or light grey.
  • The bullocks are quite suitable for ploughing and casting and the cows yield 1800 to 2600 kg of milk per lactation.
  • Age at first calving ranges from 38 to 42 months and inter calving period from 430 to 460 days.

4. Hariana

• It was originated from Rohtak, Hisar, Jind and Gurgaon districts of Haryana and also popular in Punjab, UP and parts of MP.

• Horns are small and the bullocks are powerful work animals.

• Hariana cows are fair Milkers yielding 600 to 800 kg of milk in lactation.

• The age at first calving is 40 to 60 months and calving interval is 480 to 630 days.

5. Kankrej

  • It is otherwise called as Wadad or Waged, Wadhiar.
  • Originated from Southeast Rann of Kutch of Gujarat and adjoining Rajasthan (Barmer and Jodhpur district).
  • The horns are lyre-shaped.
  • Colour of the animal varies from silver-grey to iron-grey or steel black.
  • The gait of Kankrej is peculiar called as 1 ¼ paces (sawai chal).
  • Kankrej is valued for fast, powerful, draught cattle.
  • Useful in ploughing and carting.
  • The cows are good milkers, yielding about 1400 kg per lactation.

6. Rathi

  • Mostly found in Lunkaransar Tehsil of Bikaner and Ganganagar & Hanumangarh district of Rajasthan and also found in Fazilka & Abhor district of Punjab, adjoining to Rajasthan.
  • Usually brown with white patches all over the body but animals having complete brown or black with white patches are often encountered.
  • Horn: Short and generally do not exceed 3-4 inches
  • Forehead: Medium size & lean
  • Ear- Medium size
  • Body- Medium size & symmetrical

7. Malvi

  • Mostly found in Malwa area of Madhya Pradesh and Jhalawar districts of Rajasthan.
  • Type: Draught and the Colour –White, Males: Grey dark in neck, shoulders, hump quarters, Head: Short, dished forehead.
  • Horns: Strong pointed emerge from outer angles from poll.
  • Tail: Switch is black.

8. Nagauri

  • Mostly found in Nagaur districts of Rajasthan.
  • Type –Draught and the Colour – White, light Grey.
  • Eyes-White eyelids, heavy and over hanging
  • Horns-Black, emerging from outer angles.
  • Ears-Medium size, inside is pinkish.

9. Murrah

  • Most important breed of buffaloes whose home is Rohtak, Hisar and Sind of Haryana, Nabha and Patiala districts  of Punjab and southern parts of Delhi state. It is also called as Delhi, Kundi and Kali.
  • The colour is usually jet black with white markings on tail and face and extremities sometimes found.
  • Tightly curved horn is an important character of this breed.
  • Most efficient milk and butter fat producers in India.
  • Butter fat content is 7.83%. Average lactation yield is varying from 1500 to 2500 kgs per lactation and also used for the grading up of inferior local buffaloes.

10. Surti

  • It is also known as Deccani, Gujarati, Talabda, Charator and Nadiadi.
  • The breeding tract of this breed is Kaira and Baroda district of Gujarat. Coat colour varies from rusty brown to silver-grey.
  • The horns are sickle shaped, moderately long and flat.
  • The peculiarity of the breed is two white collars, one round the jaw and the other at the brisket region.
  • The milk yield ranges from 1000 to 1300 kgs per lactation and the peculiarity of this breed is very high fat percentage in milk (8-12 %).

Geography of Rajasthan
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Thar the Great Indian desert

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The Thar Desert also known as the Great Indian Desert encompasses 77,000 square miles of rolling sand dunes in the northwestern Indian state of Rajasthan. Small portions of the desert also extend into the Indian states of Haryana, Punjab and Gujarat, but these states do not exercise extensive control over the region.

The Thar Desert’s name derives from the word t’hul, the general term for the region’s sand ridges. It is defined by a series of natural borders, including the Aravalli Mountain Range to the southeast and the Punjab plain in the north and northeast. To the west, lies the Indus plain and to the south, the Rann of Kutch.

The geographic isolation of the Thar desert by mountain ranges and plains contributes significantly to the weather patterns that shape its distinctive, hot, dry environment. The environment around the Thar effectively absorbs all the rain that is carried in the monsoon clouds before the clouds can reach the desert. The resulting monsoon winds in the desert are hot and dry and the desert does not share in the wet season experienced in surrounding terrains.

Origin of the Thar Desert

The origin of the Thar Desert is a controversial subject. Some experts consider it to be 4,000 to 10,000 years old, while others maintain that aridity started in this region much earlier.

Another theory states that the area turned to desert relatively recently: Perhaps around 2,000-1,500 B.C.E. Around this time, the Ghaggar river ceased to be a major river and the river now has terminated in the desert.

It has been observed through remote sensing techniques that Late Quaternary climatic changes and neo-tectonics have played a significant role in modifying the drainage courses and a large number of palaeochannels exist.

Most of the studies share the opinion that the palaeochannels of the Sarasvati coincide with the bed of present day Ghaggar and believe that the Sutlej along with the Yamuna once flowed into the present Ghaggar riverbed. It has been postulated that the Sutlej was the main tributary of the Ghaggar and that subsequently the tectonic movements might have forced the Sutlej westward and the Yamuna eastward, causing the Ghaggar to dry up.

Natural features-

There are three principal landforms in the desert region:

  • The predominantly sand covered Thar
  • Plains with hills including the central dune free country
  • Hills
  • The Thar Desert is distinguished by a series of rolling sand dunes that vary in height across the desert. While sand dunes are a common occurrence in deserts across the world, the dunes of the Thar are remarkable for their continual motion. In sharp contrast to the mountain ranges that ring the desert, the sandy desert floor is always in motion.
  • The perpetual movement of the desert, while contributing the desert’s beauty has had a prohibitive effect for permanent human settlement as the sands can easily be blown over structures.
  • The sands are particularly mobile due to severe winds in the region, which sweep the sands over areas of fertile soil.
  •  The layer of sand over much of the available farming land hinders agricultural development in the region.
  • Some of the sand dunes of the Thar have become semi stabilized over time and while not completely sedentary, these older dunes move only very small degrees. Older sand dunes can reach a height of 500 feet.

Dotted among the sands of the Thar, several salt water lakes provide a unique and welcome environment for desert dwelling creatures. While the water of the lakes cannot be consumed by humans, they support much needed shelter and viable farmland. The abundance of salt water, however also serves to highlight the extreme lack of drinkable water in the Thar desert. Annual rainfall in the region is particularly low measuring from 4-20 inches, most of which falls during the monsoon season. It is difficult to estimate annual precipitation for the Thar desert however as rainfall often varies widely from year to year.

Vegetation

  • The harsh natural environment and extreme temperature variations found in the Thar desert have combined to severely inhibit the growth of vegetation.
  • Most of the native plants grow in small clumps, without a system of order regulating where the clumps grow or any standard number of plants in a vegetation grouping.
  • The plants which have been most successful in the difficult environment have adapted to the conditions of the desert.
  • It is important, in particular for plants, to have developed water storage systems to be able to provide much needed water to themselves during the dry season.
  • Significant plants of the desert include gum, Arabic acacia and euphorbia. However, these plants are only found on the rocky slopes of the hills.

Wildlife

  • Stretches of sand in the desert are interspersed by hillocks and sandy and gravel plains.
  • Due to the diversity of ecosystems that exist within the Thar, a varied and thriving wildlife population calls the desert their home.
  • Both vegetation and animal life in this arid region are very rich. About 23 species of lizard and 25 species of snakes are found here; several of them are endemic to the region.

The most notable example of a preserved ecosystem is the Desert National Park, Jaisalmer which provides an excellent example of the natural wildlife of the region. In this park, Great Indian Bustards, Blackbucks, Chinkaras, the Indian Gazelle, the Indian Wild Ass and Desert Foxes are common. These are species which are fast vanishing in other parts of India. Despite the apparent difficulty of life in the desert, the animals in the Desert National Park have found ways to adapt and thrive. The park supports these wild and naturally occurring populations of species that are threatened with existence elsewhere. It is also noted for rich seashell and petrified wood deposits.

The animals which are found in the Desert National Park exhibits many of the adaptations that are necessary for survival in the desert. These animals, along with those animals found outside the reserve, often exhibit a smaller body size, one example of biological adaptation to the region. In addition, many of the desert animals are nocturnal, a trait which allows them to avoid the sweltering heat of the day.

There are certain other factors responsible for the survival of these animals in the desert. Due to the lack of water in this region, transformation of the grasslands into cropland has been very slow. The protection provided to them by a local community the Bishnois, is also a factor.

Conservation

The Thar Desert faces a distinct environmental threat from the loss of land through wind erosion. The harsh winds of the Thar sweep the sands across the plains and into its awe–inspiring sand dune formations. However, the winds also erode valuable farming land and threaten livestock grazing areas. In an attempt to hinder the wind erosion, plants species and trees have been planted in many areas to help keep the sands attached to the ground. The new windbreaks also provide much needed shelter.

In order to plant the necessary windbreaks, it has become necessary to import exotic plants into the region. The native plants are noted for their slow growth patterns and windbreaks must mature quickly to be fully effective. The Acacia tortillis has proven most adaptable to the Thar. While the induction of foreign plants is helping the wind erosion issues, the introduction of exotic plants into any environment threatens to overthrow the preexisting environmental balance.

Why most of the world’s tropical deserts located on the Western margins of continents?

A desert is a barren area of landscape where little precipitation occurs and consequently living conditions are hostile to plant and animal life. In other words, it is extremely dry area of land with sparse vegetation.

The lack of vegetation exposes the unprotected surface of the ground to the processes of denudation (the wearing away of the Earth’s surface by moving water, by ice, by wind and by waves, leading to a reduction in elevation and in relief of landforms and of landscapes).

There are four types of desert found in the world: sub-tropical desert, Coastal deserts, Cold desert and Polar Desert. The fifth part of the Earth’s surface is desert. They are found in Asia, Australia, Africa, North America and South America. Sahara is the world’s largest tropical desert.

There are four major factors responsible for the location of the world’s tropical desert on the western margins of continents:

1. Offshore areas of trade wind and falling under the rain shadow area: When the moisture laden trade wind flows from east to west shed their moisture on the eastern part and by the time they reach the western margin, they become dry. These dry winds make the soil more and this led to the formation of the desert.

2. Anti-cyclonic conditions: The areas between 20 °- 30 ° latitude on western margins of continents are the regions of descending air. Because of this, the air gets compressed and warm as it descends and thus the moisture keeps decreasing.

3. Formation of Rain-shadow Zone:

A region in the lee of mountains that receives less rainfall than the region windward of the mountains is called rain-shadow zone. For example: Thar Desert in India is formed due to the formation of rain-shadow zone because Aravallis mountains are situated parallel to the region. Therefore the moisture holding winds pass away from the region because there is absence of mountain barriers.

4. Presence of cold ocean currents along the western coast of continents tends to stabilize the air over the coast. This prevents cloud formation and rainfall. Hence, it leads to arid conditions or the formation of marine deserts on the adjacent coastal lands.

Geography of Rajasthan


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Semi-Arid Transitional Plain or Rajasthan Bagar

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Semi-Arid Transitional Plain or Rajasthan Bagar

The line dividing the Sandy Arid Plains and the Semi-Arid Transitional Plain is climatic, i.e. 25cm isohyets. The western-most belt which is ‘The Great Desert’ is covered by sand dunes which stretch from the Great Rann along the Pakistan border to Punjab. The degree and extent of sand dunes greatly influence the economic activity in this area. 63 per cent sand dune area of Rajasthan is concentrated in the desert districts of Barmer, Jaisalmer and Bikaner.

  • Jaipur, Jodhpur, Nagaur, Pali, Jalore, Barmer districts covered in semi arid.
  • Area – 7500 Sq. Km
  • Rainfall – 20 cm
  • Gullying has given rise to conglomerate landscape. Its eastern part is covered with superficial sand deposits.

Towards north lies the Shekhawati tract which is semi arid transitional plain characterized by inland drainage & stream with salt lakes. Ghaggar Plain lies in extreme north.

 Semi-Arid Transitional Plain or Rajasthan Bagar divided into:

1. Luni Basin              

2. Shekhawati Region 

3. Ghaggar Plain                    

4. Nagauri Upland

1. Luni Basin: This area is locally known as Naid and is one of best alluvial plains and flood occurs during the rainy season in Luni river.

The Luni River originates from western slopes of Naga Hills of Aravalli Range near Ana sagar lake, Ajmer. Barmer, Jalore, Jodhpur and Nagaur districts are part of this basin and the total Area is 34866 .4 Sq. Km.

Basin is drained by the Luni River & its tributaries Bandi, Saagi, etc. Covers the area from its source to Tilwara in Barmer where Sukari River meets it.  

2. Shekhawati Region: Aravalli hills runs through this region from south to north, cutting into almost two halves and Churu, Sikar, Jhunjhunu & Nagaur districts are part of this region; the main occupation of this region is live stock, Milk production & dairy.

Topography of the Shekhawati tracts is characterized by an undulating sandy terrain traversed by longitudinal sand dunes. Kantli is the only seasonal river.

3. Ghaggar Plain: Hanumangarh & Sriganganagar districts are part of this plain. There is no stream or river except Ghaggar Nali which flows through the ancient bed of Ghaggar river which is now extinct; this region is known as Ghaggar Plain. This plain is a sandy plain interspersed with sand-dunes &small sand-hills. A large part of it is dreary & full of sand dunes. Northern part of this region is fully canalled & thus is made productive. Sand ridge dunes are found on the bank of ancient rivers height of sand ridge dunes-6 m to 30 m.

4. Nagauri Upland: Average height of this region from sea level is 300 m to 500 meter and the rainfall in this region is 25 cm in west to 50 cm in east. This region is full of sand hills & low depressions and the temperature being High, the evaporation of the saline flood water results in the deposits of the Salt & Soda in the depression.

 Practice MCQ

Geography of Rajasthan
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Mountains, Peaks and Aravalli Ranges- Geography of Rajasthan

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Rajasthan is bisected by Aravali range into two major parts: Southeast Rajasthan and Northwest Rajasthan. The northwest consists of a series of sand dunes covers nearly two-thirds of the area. Aravali range is approximately 692 Kms long which is running across Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana and Delhi.

The Aravali Mountain in Rajasthan is divided into following Ranges:

Geography of Rajasthan- Mountain,Peak and Aravali Ranges

What is Mountain?

Mountains are landforms that stick up high above the surrounding land. Mountains are much taller than hills, mountains can often be found together in groups or mountain ranges.

Mountains are prominent landforms that have significant heights above sea level and/or the surrounding land. They are steeper than hills. A mountain or mountain range usually has a peak, which is a pointed top. Mountains have different climates than land at sea level and nearby flat land.

The literal meaning of Aravalli Range is ‘line of peaks’. It is the oldest fold mountain ranges in the world which stretching about 300 miles from the northeast to the southwest which extends from Delhi to Ahmadabad. Guru Shikhar is the highest point which is located in Mount Abu. The Aravalli range is very rich in natural resources and gave rise of numerous peninsula rivers like Banas, Luni and Sabarmati. This region is also famous for heavily forested consisting of large areas of sand and stone and of masses of rose-coloured quartzite.

1. North-Eastern Aravalli Range

  • This range is also known as Alwar hill range.
  • In North-Eastern Aravalli Range all the hill ranges are eroded.
  • It stretches from delhi to isolated hills of Alwar & Jaipur.
  • Average elevation of this range is approx. 300-670 meters.
  • Towards north & east it merges with Ganga-Yamuna plains.
  • Torawati hills, Malkhet & Khetri Group of hills are also part of north eastern Aravali range.

Important Peaks of North-Eastern Aravalli Region:

Peak Name District Height (meters)  
Raghunathgarh Sikar 1055
Khoh Jaipur 920
Bhairach Alwar 792
Barwara Jaipur 786
Babai   Jhunjhunu 780
Bilali Alwar 775
Manoharpur Jaipur 747
Baraith Jaipur 704
Sariska Alwar 677

2. Central Aravali Range

The Average height of Central Aravali Range is 700 meter but in the valley it is approx 550m. Four famous ghats of this range are Bar, Pakheria, Shivpur and sura ghat. Shekhawati lower hills and Marwar hills are part of Central Aravali range.

It includes districts of Ajmer, south-western Tonk and Jaipur Surrounded:-

(1)  North by Alwar hills

(2)  East by Karauli table-land

(3)  South by Banas plains and

(4)  West by Sambhar basin

Important Peaks of Central Aravalli Region

Peaks District Height (m)  
Goramji Ajmer 934
Taragarh Ajmer 870
 Naag Pahar Ajmer 795

3. Southern Aravali Range

The southern Aravali expansion of hill ranges: 100km width and the average height is 1000meter. Granite and Aravali quartzite also found in this range and it formed 8-10 hill ranges are in parallel. The Southern Aravali range includes district of Banswara, Udaipur, Sirohi, Dungarpur & South-eastern margin of Pali district.

Physiographically it is a dominant part of Aravallis which falls in Mewar. The general altitude of the region is above 650 metre and it extends longitudinally from Bhim tehsil in the north to the Dungarpur tehsil in the south. The region separates Marwar in the west from the Mewar in the east, extending along the western border of Udaipur district. The Aravalli within Mewar appears like a triangular shaped land form, having greates width as well as height in the south. Thus the whole western portion of the Mewar is part of Aravalli and widely known as south Aravalli region.

Peaks of Southern Aravali Range                                                            

Peak Name District Height (m)
Guru Shikhar Sirohi 1722
Ser Sirohi 1597
Dilwara Sirohi 1442
Jarga Sirohi 1431
Achalgarh Sirohi 1380
Kumbhalgarh Rajsamand 1224
Dhoniya Abu Block 1183
Hrishikesh Abu Block 1017
Kamalnath Udaipur 1001
Sajjangarh Udaipur 938
Lilagarh   — 874

Main hill ranges of southern Aravali are:

  • Girwa Hills
  • Mewar hills & Bhorat Plateau
  • Merwara Hills
  • Abu block & Oria plateau
Geography of Rajasthan

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Introduction:Geography of Rajasthan

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General Introduction

The term “geography” comes from the ancient Greeks. In Greek, geo means earth and graphy means to write. Greeks developed an understanding of where their homeland was located in relation to other places and how people and environments were distributed by using geography.

Geography is the study of places and the relationships between people and their environments. Geographers explore both the physical properties of Earth’s surface and the human societies spread across it. They also examine how human culture interacts with the natural environment and the way those locations and places can have an impact on people. Geography seeks to understand where things are found, why they are there and how they develop and change over the time.

The natural resources of a country are of primary importance for the economic development. As a matter of fact, natural resources determine the economic life of a nation.

Man may grow rich in knowledge and intelligence, however much he may have overcome nature but ultimately he will have to depend on the materials supplied by Mother Nature for the development of his economic life.

The physical factors like topography, soils, geologic formation, climate and the available flora and fauna are the basic influences which lead to differences in land-use, cropping pattern, settlement and density of population and occurrence of minerals, water and power resources in different parts of the country.

Geography also became an important part of other academic disciplines, such as chemistry, economics and philosophy. In fact every academic subject has some geographic connection and the study where certain chemical elements such as gold or silver can be found. Economists examine which nations trade with other nations and what resources are exchanged.

Some people have trouble to understanding the complete scope of the discipline of geography because unlike most other disciplines, geography is not defined by one particular topic. The geography is concerned with many different topics—people, culture, politics, settlements, plants, land forms and much more.

What distinguishes geography is that, it approaches the study of diverse topics in a particular way. Geography asks spatial questions—how and why things are distributed or arranged in particular ways on Earth’s surface. It looks at these different distributions and arrangements at many different scales. It also asks questions about how the interaction of different human and natural activities on earth’s surface shape the characteristics of the world in which we live.

Geography seeks to understand where things are found and why they are present in those places; how things that are located in the same or distant places influence one another over time; and why places and the people who live in them develop and change in particular ways. Raising these questions is at the heart of the “geographical perspective.”

The study of geography is so broad; the discipline is typically divided into specialties. At the broadest level, geography is divided into physical geography, human geography, geographic techniques and regional geography.

The natural environment is the primary concern of physical geographers, although many physical geographers also look at how humans have altered natural systems. Physical geographers study Earth’s seasons, climate, atmosphere, soil, streams, landforms and oceans. Some disciplines within physical geography include geomorphology, glaciology, Pedology, hydrology, climatology, biogeography and oceanography.

Geomorphology is the study of landforms and the processes that shape them. Geomorphologists investigate the nature and impact of wind, ice, rivers, erosion, earthquakes, volcanoes, living things, and other forces that shape and change the surface of the Earth.

Glaciologists focus on the Earth’s ice fields and their impact on the planet’s climate. Glaciologists document the properties and distribution of glaciers and icebergs. Data collected by glaciologists has demonstrated the retreat of Arctic and Antarctic ice in the past century.

Pedologists study soil and how it is created, changed and classified. Soil studies are used by a variety of professions from farmers analyzing field fertility to engineers investigating the suitability of different areas for building heavy structures.

Hydrology is the study of Earth’s water: its properties, distribution and effects. Hydrologists are especially concerned with the movement of water as it cycles from the ocean to the atmosphere then back to Earth’s surface. Hydrologists study the water cycle through rainfall into streams, lakes, the soil and underground aquifers.

Climatologists study Earth’s climate system and its impact on Earth’s surface. For example: climatologists make predictions about El Nino- a cyclical weather phenomenon of warm surface temperatures in the Pacific Ocean. They analyze the dramatic worldwide climate changes caused by El Nino, such as flooding in Peru, drought in Australia and in the United States, the oddities of heavy Texas rains or an unseasonably warm Minnesota winter.

Biogeographers study the impact of the environment on the distribution of plants and animals. For example: a biogeographer might document all the places in the world inhabited by a certain spider species and what those places have in common.     

Oceanography is a related discipline of physical geography, focuses on the creatures and environments of the world’s oceans. The discovery and tracking of the Gulf Stream helped communications and travel between Europe and the Americas.

Human geography is concerned with the distribution and networks of people and cultures on Earth’s surface. A human geographer might investigate the local, regional and global impact of rising economic powers China and India, which represent 37 percent of the world’s people. They also might look at how consumers in China and India adjust to new technology and markets and how markets respond to such a huge consumer base.

Human geographers also study how people use and alter their environments. When people allow their animals to overgraze a region, the soil erodes and grassland is transformed into desert. The impact of overgrazing on the landscape as well as agricultural production is an area of study for human geographers.

The Republic of India is a vast country. It lies entirely in the northern hemisphere. The mainland of the country extends between latitudes 8°4′ and 37°6′ north, longitude 68°7′ and 97°25′ east.

Why everyone should read Geography?

  1. To understand basic physical systems that affect everyday life.
  2. To learn the location of places and the physical and cultural characteristics of those places.
  3. To develop a mental map of your community, province or territory, country and the world so that you can understand the “where” of places and events.
  4. To explain how the processes of human and physical systems have arranged and sometimes changed the surface of the Earth.
  5. To understand the spatial organization of society, people and places.
  6. To understand the geography of past times and how geography has played important roles in the evolution of people, their ideas, places and our environments.
  7. To recognize spatial distributions at all scales- local and worldwide -the complex connectivity of people and land places.
  8. To be able to make sensible judgements about matters involving relationships between the physical environment and our society.
  9. To appreciate Earth as the homeland of humankind and provide insight for wise management decisions about how the planet’s resources should be used.
  10. To understand global interdependence and to become a better global citizen.
  11. To understand earth-sun relationships, water cycles and wind and ocean currents).
  12. To understand the rich natural resources and how peoples are depend on our environment and ecology.

Geography is a focus within the curriculum for understanding and resolving issues about the environment and sustainable development. It is also an important link between the natural and social sciences. As students study geography, they encounter different societies and cultures.

Introduction of Rajasthan

The Rajasthan state was earlier known as Rajputana came into existence on March 30, 1949.

Rajasthan, situated at the northwestern part of India is the biggest state in the country of India and lies between 23°30′ and 30° 11′ North latitude and 69° 29′ and 78° 17′ East longitude. The state shares its north-western and western boundary with the Indo-Pakistan international border that extends about 1,070 km and touches the major districts Barmer, Bikaner, Sriganganagar and Jaisalmer. It is bounded on the west and northwest by Pakistan, on the north and northeast by Haryana &Uttar Pradesh, on the south-southeast and southwest by Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat States respectively. The huge portion of the state of Rajasthan is desiccated and houses the biggest Indian desert- the Thar desert known as the ‘Maru-kantar’. The oldest chain of fold mountains- the Aravali range splits the state into two geographical zones- desert at one side and forest belt on the other. Only 10% of the total geographical region lies under forest vegetation. The Mount abu is the only hill station of the state and houses the Guru Shikhar Peak that is the highest peak of the Aravali range with an elevation of 1,722 m. The area to the east of the hills is covered by the eastern plains and the Vindhyan plateau.

The north-western state of Rajasthan is the largest indian state with an area of 3, 42,239sq.km comprising of the 10.74% of the total geographical area of the country. This state has a type of rhomboid shape and stretches lengthwise 869 km. from west to east and 826 km. from north to south. The Tropic of Cancer passes through its south tip in its Banswara district.

The Aravalli ranges are india’s oldest fold mountains. The north end of the Aravalli range continues as secluded hills and rocky ridges into Haryana and ending in Delhi.

The Aravalli Range and the lands to the east and southeast of the range are generally more fertile and better watered. This region is home to the Kathiawar-Gir dry deciduous forests eco-region with tropical dry broadleaf forests that include teak, Acacia and other trees. The hilly Vagad region lies in southernmost Rajasthan on the border with Gujarat. With the exception of Mount Abu, Vagad is the wettest region in Rajasthan and the most heavily forested. North of Vagad lays the mewar region home to the cities of Udaipur and Chittaurgarh in Rajasthan. The Hadoti region lies to the southeast on the border with Madhya Pradesh. The dhundhar region is located in the north of Hadoti and mewar is also known as home to the state capital of Jaipur in Rajasthan. Mewat, the easternmost region of Rajasthan borders with Haryana and Uttar Pradesh. Eastern and southeastern Rajasthan is drained by the Banas and Chambal rivers, tributaries of the Ganges.

The Aravalli outline most important divisions of Rajasthan. The Chambal River which is the only large and perennial river in the state originates from its drainage to the east of this range and flows northeast. Its principal tributary the Banas rises in the Aravali near Kumbhalgarh and collects all the drainage of the Mewar plateau. Farther in north the Banganga after rising near Jaipur in Rajasthan flow east-wards before disappearing. The Luni is the only significant river located in west of the Aravali. It rises in the Pushkar valley of Ajmer and flows 320 km west-southwest into the Rann of Kachchh. Northeast of the Luni basin in the Shekhawati tract, is an area of internal drainage characterized by salt lakes, the largest of which is Sambhar Salt Lake.
Rajasthan has varying topographic features though a major part of the state is dominated by parched and dry region. The extensive topography includes rocky terrain, rolling sand dunes, wetlands and barren tracts of land filled with thorny scrubs, river-drained plains, plateaus, ravines and wooded regions.

Rajasthan has its important role in drainage system and some very useful rivers flow /originates through rajasthan. Chambal, Banas, Sabarmati, Mithari, Parbati, Berach, Saraswati, Jawai and Luni Rivers are important.

The soil and vegetation of Rajasthan alters with its wide-ranging topography of the state and the availability of water. The varied kind of soils available in Rajasthan are mostly sandy, saline, alkaline and chalky (calcareous). Clay, loamy, black lava soil and nitrogenous soils are also found.

The seasonal vegetation such as a few grass species, shrubs and dwarf trees can be found owing to the limited rainfall. However food crops are grown in the plains that are drained by the rivers and streamlets owing to the alluvial and clay soil deposits. The hilly tracts of the Aravali are characterized by the black, lava soils that sustain the growth of cotton and sugarcane.

The Thar desert or the Great Indian desert encompasses about 70% of total landmass of Rajasthan and hence it is identified as the “Desert State of India”. The Rajasthan desert which forms a major portion of the Thar desert is the biggest desert in India and encompasses the districts of Jaisalmer, Barmer, Bikaner and Jodhpur. In fact the Rajasthan desert comprises the desert triangle of three cities – Jaisalmer, Bikaner and Jodhpur. Thar desert extends from Sutlej River bounded by aravali ranges on the eastern part and on the southern part by the Great Rann of Kutch and on the western side by the Indus river.

The desert becomes very hot during the summer and it experiences extreme climate with an average annual rainfall less than 25 cm. Days are hot and the nights are cold here. The Vegetation consists of thorny bushes, shrubs and xerophilious grass. Various species of lizards and snakes are found here.

Rajasthan has varying climate like its varying topography. The weather and climate of the Rajasthan can be broadly classified into four distinct seasons. They are – Pre-monsoon, which is the hot season preceding the monsoon and extends from April to June, the Monsoon that occurs in the month of June in the eastern region and mid- July in the western arid regions.  The Post-monsoon that commences from mid-September and continues till November and the winter that extends from December to March while January being the coldest month of the year. The average temperature in winter ranges from 8° to 28° C and in summer the average temperature range from 25° to 46° C.

Different Regions of Rajasthan: 1. Ahirwal- This include some part of Haryana too along with Rajasthan. Alwar and Bharatpur in Rajasthan, Mahendragarh and Gurgaon in Haryana are part of this region.

2. Bagar tract- This include regions of Fatehabad and Sirsa (Haryana); Hanumangarh and Sriganganagar (Rajasthan).

3. Dhundhar- “Jaipur region” include districts – Jaipur, Dausa, Sawai Madhopur, Tonk and northern part of Karauli.

4. Gorwar- South-western part of Rajasthan; having historical capitals- Nadol, Chandrawati and Sirohi. It covers region of Jalore, Sirohi and southern portion of Pali.

5. Hadoti- districts like Bundi, Baran, Jhalawar and Kota are part of this region.

6. Marwar- “Jodhpur region” includes district of Barmer, Jodhpur, Jalore, Nagaur and Pali.

7.  Mewar- South- central region of Rajasthan: In this region the districts covered are- Bhilwara, Chittorgarh, Rajsamand, Udaipur, Pirawa tehsil of Jhalawar (Rajasthan), Neemuch and Mandsaur of M.P. and some parts of Gujarat.

8. Mewat- In this region area covered is the Hathin tehsil and Nuh district of Haryana; Tijara, Kishangarh Bas, Ramgarh and Laxmangarh tehsil. Aravalli range in Alwar district, Pahari, Nagaur, Kaman tehsils in Bharatpur district of Rajasthan and some part of Mathura district of U.P.

9. Shekhawati- district like Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Churu and a part of Nagaur and Jaipur.

10. Vagad- region in south-eastern Rajasthan. Boundaries roughly defined by districts of Dungarpur and Banswara.

Rajasthan: Important Facts

Area 342,239 km2  (Biggest state of India in terms of land)
Population 6.85 cr (2011 census)
Language Official language (Hindi), Additional official language (English) and Rajasthani (Devanagari is a language of the Indo-Aryan languages family.
Climate Rajasthan has a tropical desert climate. It is extremely cold from October to February while the scorching sun tortures the land from March to September.
Capital  Jaipur
Election Seats    25 Seats in General Election (Lok Sabha) and 200 Seats in Legislative Assembley (Vidhan Sabha) Elections.
Legislature Unicameral
Major Cities (population) Jaipur (3,073,349), Jodhpur(1,138,300), Kota(1,001,365), Bikaner(647,804), Ajmer(551,101), Udaipur(474,531) and Bhilwara(360,009)
Famous Lakes Rajsamand Lake, Sambhar lake, Udai Sagar Lake, Nakki Lake, Kaylana Lake, Raj Bagh Talao, Malik Talao, Lake Fateh Sagar, Gadsisar Lake, Lake Pichhola, Swaroop Sagar Lake, Udai Sagar Lake, Raj Bagh Talao etc.
Average annual rainfall (mm) 313-675
The Thar Desert Jaisalmer, Barmer, Bikaner and Jodhpur (The Thar desert or the Great Indian desert encompasses about 70% of total landmass of Rajasthan and hence it is identified as the “Desert State of India”.)
Literacy 66.11 %
Districts 33
Sex Ratio (as per 2011 census) 928 per Thousand male
Child sex Ratio 888 (census 2011)
Famous Folk Dances Bhavai Dance, Chari Dance, Drum Dance, Fire Dance, Gair Dance, Ghoomar Dance ( by Bhil tribe),Kachhi Ghodi dance, Kalbelia Dance(‘Sapera Dance or Snake Charmer),Kathak Dance, Kathputli Dance.
Fair and Festivals Desert Festival-Jaisalmer, Nagaur Fair-Nagaur, Pushkar Fair- Pushkar, Summer Festival-Mt. Abu, Marwar Festival-Jodhpur, Camel Race Festival-Bikaner, Gangaur Festival-Jaipur, Teej Festival-Jaipur, Mewar Festival-Udaipur, Urs Festival-Ajmer, Kaila Devi Fair-Karauli, Summer Festival-Mount Abu, Dusshera –Kota
World Heritage Sites   The six forts — Chittorgarh, Kumbhalgarh, Jaisalmer, Ranthambhore (Sawai Madhopur), Gagaron (Jhalawar) and Amber (Jaipur) were recognised as serial World Heritage Sites in the 37th session of the world heritage committee (WHC) in Phnom Penh, Cambodia .
Principal Crops Barley, Wheat, Gram, Pulses, Oil Seeds, Bajra, Pulses, Jowar, Maize,  Ground Nuts, fruits and vegetables and spices.etc.
Principal Minerals Wollastonite (100%), Jasper(100%), Zinc concentrate (99%), Fluorite(96%), Gypsum(93%),Marble(90%), Asbestos(89%), Calcite(70%), Phosphate rock(75%), Mica, Copper, Silver and Natural Gas & Petroleum

District-wise Population-List (As per census – 2011)

District Population Area (km2) Po. Density Sex-ratio
Jaipur 66,26,178 11,143 595 910
Jodhpur 36,87,165 22,850 161 916
Alwar 36,74,179 8,380 438 895
Nagaur 33,07,743 17,718 187 950
Udaipur 30,68,420 11,724 262 958
Sikar 26,77,333 7,732 346 947
Barmer 26,03,751 28,387 92 902
Ajmer 25,83,052 8,481 305 951
Bharatpur 25,48,462 5,066 503 880
Bhilwara 24,08,523 10,455 230 973
Bikaner 23,63,937 30,239 78 905
Jhunjhunun 21,37,045 5,928 361 950
Churu 20,39,547 13,835 147 940
Pali 20,37,573 12,387 164 987
Ganganagar 19,69,168 10,978 179 887
Kota 19,51,014 5,217 374 911
Jalore 18,28,730 10,640 172 952
Banswara 17,97,485 4,522 397 980
Hanumangarh 17,74,692 9,656 184 906
Dausa 16,34,409 3,432 476 905
Chittaurgarh 15,44,338 7,822 197 972
Karauli 14,58,248 5,524 264 861
Tonk 14,21,326 7,194 198 952
Jhalawar 14,11,129 6,219 227 946
Dungarpur 13,88,552 3,770 368 994
SawaiMadhopur 13,35,551 4,498 297 897
Baran 12,22,755 6,992 175 929
Dhaulpur 12,06,516 3,033 398 846
Rajsamand 11,56,597 4,655 248 990
Bundi 11,10,906 5,776 192 925
Sirohi 10,36,346 5,136 202 940
Pratapgarh 8,67,848 4,449 195 983
Jaisalmer 6,69,919 38,401 17 852

Geography of Rajasthan

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India and Tropic of Cancer

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Key Points:

Tropic of Cancer is an imaginary line, at an angle of 23.50 degrees north from the Equator that passes through the middle of India. If you run this imaginary line around Earth (Yes, Flat-Earthlings, the Earth is spherical), it passes through 17 countries, India being one of them. The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight states in India: Gujarat (Jasdan), Rajasthan (Kalinjarh), Madhya Pradesh (Shajapur), Chhattisgarh (Sonhat), Jharkhand (Lohardaga), West Bengal (Krishnanagar), Tripura (Udaipur) and Mizoram (Champhai).

Mahi River is the only river in India that cuts the Tropic of Cancer twice, first in Madhya Pradesh from where it flows towards Rajasthan and enters Gujarat where it cuts for the second time. If you are the adventurous type and was looking for something different, following the Tropic of Cancer line across India would definitely qualify as something different. Follow the river all through Dhar and Jhabua in Madhya Pradesh, follow it some more as it enter Banswara in Rajasthan (you are on the Tropic of Cancer here!) and then follow the river back as it passes through Panchmahal in Gujarat and finally joins Arabian Sea at the mouth of Gulf of Khambhat. While you are still in Gujarat, head to Jasdan. The city is known for its beautiful handicrafts and diamond polishing. Looks like sun brought bling with it. Don’t forget, Tropic of Cancer passes through this city.

Udaipur in Tripura is the city nearest to the Tropic of Cancer. Tripura, even though it falls under northeastern part of India, is a hot place. The city is famous for its Tripura Sundari Temple and was an erstwhile capital of the Maharajas of Tripura. Speaking of hot places in the northeast, Mizoram gives a good competition to the rest of country’s hot places. And no wonder why. Champhai falls on the Indo-Myanmar border, and also the Tropic of Cancer. The town is important for the aforementioned reason and upon reaching there, you will be glad you visited. The town is a pretty one (pretty hot too).

The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through
      a) India
      b) Pakistan
      c) Bangladesh
      d) Myanmar

Ans-b

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UPSC Prelims 2019 Question Paper with Explanation

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2019 General Studies Paper-I on date 02/06/2019

1. Consider the following statements:
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

  • Nitrous oxide is emitted into the atmosphere as a result of biomass burning, and biological processes in soils. Biomass burning is not only an instantaneous source of nitrous oxide, but it results in a longer term enhancement of the biogenic production of this gas.
  • The current belief is that 90% of the emissions come from soils. Nitrous oxide is formed in soils during the microbiological processes nitrification and denitrification. Because nitrous oxide is a gas it can escape from soil during these transformations. Nitrous oxide production is controlled by temperature, pH, water holding capacity of the soil, irrigation practices, fertilizer rate, tillage practice, soil type and oxygen concentration, availability of carbon, vegetation, land use practices and use of chemicals. Nitrous oxide emissions from agricultural soils are increased by the addition of fertilizer.

Statement 2 is correct:

  • Cattle release both ammonia and methane into the atmosphere. Ruminant animals do not efficiently utilize dietary nitrogen. Excess nitrogen fed in the form of feed proteins is excreted in manure (urine + feces). Dairy cows on average secrete in milk 25 to 35 percent of the nitrogen they consume and almost all the remaining nitrogen is excreted in urine and feces with about half of the nitrogen excreted in urine.

Statement 3 is correct:

  • Nitrogen emissions in chicken production occur in several forms but mainly ammonia can contribute directly or indirectly to several environmental and public health hazards. Chicken production also contributes to some extent to climate change through the emissions of nitrous oxide, fine particulate matters, and methane.

2. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?
(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits
(b) Tropical rain forests
(c) Underground cave systems
(d) Water reservoirs
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • These are water reservoirs of national importance.
    • Aliyar Dam: Aliyar Dam is a charming location surrounded by Annamali Hills with wonderful natural views. It is located between Pollachi and Valparai.At a distance of 64 Kms from Coimbatore, 24 Kms from Pollachi & 545 Kms from Chennai.Built across Aliyar River between 1959 and 1969, the primary purpose of the dam is to support irrigation for Pollachi and nearby places for Agriculture purpose. The height of the dam is 81 meters. There is a well-maintained park built at bottom of the Dam. The view of the Anamalai range around the reservoir is a feast for the eyes and the view of the coconut groves from top of the dam is amazing. Boating is available here.
    • Isapur Dam: Isapur Dam is one of the biggest dam in the state of Maharashtra, build over the Painganga River that divides Maharashtra into two regions namely; Marathwada and Vidarbha regions. It is an earth fill dam, with a height of 57 m, and the length is 4,120.1 m. The motive behind the construction of the Dam was mainly irrigation. Lush with water, Isapur Dam is a prominent tourist attraction cradled in the lap of mother nature. Blessed with pristine scenery, it is an incredible place for the keen bird watchers to stay around and get mesmerized by the sweet calls of the colorful birds around, especially during winters. While the immense greenery around the dam makes it a perfect background for the picnic or sightseeing.
    • Kangsabati Reservoir Project: Kangsabati Reservoir Project was started in the year 1956-57. Till date an irrigation potential of 3,48,477 ha. has been created in the districts of Bankura, Midnapore and Hooghly through this Project. With bank assistance and under Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme, the Government has undertaken large extension and improvement programme of the main canals. The project though originally planned for Kharif and limited Rabi, at present the irrigation water is provided for Boro cultivation also to an area of 27,944 ha.

3. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements :
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: H-CNG reduces the emission of Carbon Monoxide up to 70% but does not eliminate it.
  • Statement 2 is correct: H-CNG as a fuel reduces the emission of carbon-di-oxide and hydrocarbon as compared to other fuels. Compared with natural gas, HCNG has many advantages when it comes to performance. Research has shown that the brake effective thermal efficiency increases with an increased percentage of hydrogen. Another effect of the addition of hydrogen is that the brake specific fuel consumption is reduced, the cycle by cycle variations are also reduced, and the thermal efficiency is increased.
  • Emissions can also be improved with the addition of hydrogen. Compared to pure natural gas, HCNG reduces the HC emissions, which is in part due to the increased combustion stability that comes with the addition of hydrogen. However, due to the increased temperature and combustion duration that accompanies the hydrogen addition, an increase in NOx emissions is observed.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is methane (CH4) stored at high pressure. CNG as a fuel can be used in place of gasoline, diesel fuel and propane (C3H8) / LPG and its combustion produces fewer undesirable gases then the other mentioned fuels. Combustion is a high temperature exothermic chemical reaction between a fuel and an oxidant that produces oxidized products. When 18-20% of hydrogen as fuel is mixed into the CNG it becomes pollution free as it reduces the emission of carbon-monoxide up to 20%.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: Current cost of H2 is more than the cost of Natural Gas. Therefore, HCNG’s cost is more than CNG. Current price of HCNG is higher than CNG and will cost 72 paisa per kilometer more if implemented in DTC buses.

4. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?
(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.
(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
(c) The Earth’s surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.
(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • Dew: Dew is the water droplets formed by condensation of water vapor on a relatively cold surface of an object. It forms when the temperature of an object drops below the dew point temperature.
  • When there is cloudy weather condition, terrestrial radiation is radiated back to the earth’s surface after reflection from clouds. This leads to formation of hothouse (Greenhouse) condition due to which temperature on earth’s surface is relatively higher. Hence, condition becomes unfavorable for the formation of dew.

5. Consider the following statements :
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • 44th amendment didn’t provide for this. 99th amendment was declared null and void for violating independence of judiciary by bringing in executive in selection process of judges.

6. Consider the following statements :
1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Only 3 and 4 are correct. Hence Option (C) is the answer.

  • Speaker can refuse to accept the motion (Laxmikanth: Supreme Court). Incapacity and proved misbehavior haven’t been defined.

7. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Ninth Schedule was introduced by 1st constitutional amendment and this was under reign of Nehru.

8. Consider the following statements:
1. CoaI sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self- sufficient in coal production.
Which of the statements given above is/arc correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is Correct, as the Indira Gandhi administration nationalized coal mining in phases – coking coal mines in 1971–72 and non-coking coal mines in 1973. With the enactment of the Coal Mines (Nationalization) Act, 1973, all coal mines in India were nationalized on 1 May 1973.

Statement 2 is Incorrect, as under the new policy, mines will be auctioned to the firm offering the highest per tonne price.

Statement 3 is Incorrect, as due to high demand and poor average quality, India is forced to import high quality coal to meet the requirements of steel plants. India’s coal imports have risen from 49.79 million metric tons (0.05488 billion short tons) in 2007–08 to 190.95 million metric tons (0.21049 billion short tons) in 2016–17.

9. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well- defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Article 102 of the Constitution provides that a person shall be disqualified from being chosen as a Member of Parliament (MP) if he holds an office of profit under the government of India or the government of a state. However, Parliament can declare by law that the holding of certain offices will not incur this disqualification.  The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 lists certain offices of profit under the central and state governments, which do not disqualify the holders from being an MP.  The Chairperson of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is exempted from disqualification as per this list.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 was amended five times.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Office of profit is a position in government which cannot be held by Member of Legislative Assembly (MLA) or Member of Parliament (MP). The post can yield salaries, perquisites and other benefits. It has not been defined in Constitution or Representation of the People Act, 1951.

10. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
(a) Third Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Fifth Schedule

  • The key objective is to provide protection to the tribals living in the Scheduled Areas from alienation of their lands and natural resources to non-tribals.
  • In these areas, the Governor has been given plenary powers as far as their administration is concerned.
  • Option (b) is correct: Under this schedule the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void
  • The executive power of the Union extends to the giving of directions to the State as to the administration of these areas.
  • Governor of these states need make report to the President annually or as needed by President regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State.

11. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of
(a) anti-malarial drug
(b) biodiesel
(c) pulp for paper industry
(d) textile fibre
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Himalayan Nettle

  • Option (d) is correct: Girardinia diversifolia (Himalayan nettle), a fibre-yielding plant, is found to be a sustainable source of Textile fibre.
  • It has become an important livelihood option for people living in the remote mountainous villages of the Hindu Kush Himalaya.
  • There is a community in Khar, a hamlet in Darchula district in far-western Nepal, which produces fabrics from Himalayan nettle.
  • The fabric and the things made from it are sold in local as well as national and international markets as high-end products.

12. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?
1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

For the measurement/estimation of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data is used:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location is estimated by using Multispectral Satellite Imagery.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Land surface temperatures of a specific location. Land surface temperature (LST) is of fundamental importance to many aspects of the geosciences, for example, net radiation budget at the Earth surface, monitoring state of crops and vegetation, as well as an important indicator of both the greenhouse effect and the physics of land-surface processes at local through global scales. Satellite LST measurements provide unique data sources for regional and global coverage in fairly good temporal, spatial resolution, and time span. Therefore, LST is one of the baseline products in both Joint Polar-orbiting Satellite System (JPSS) and Geostationary Operational Environmental Satellite-R Series (GOES-R) satellite missions.

13. Consider the following Suites :
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
(a) 2-3-1-4
(b) 2-3-4-1
(c) 3-2-4-1
(d) 3-2-1-4
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

following are the percentage of forest area of the four states, according to Indian state of forest report, 2017:

State Percentage of forest area
Chhattisgarh 41.09%
Madhya Pradesh 25.11 %
Maharashtra 16.47%
Odisha 32.98%

14. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ arc found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Methane Hydrate

  • Statement 1 is correct: Scientists concerned that global warming may release huge stores of methane from reservoirs beneath Arctic tundra and deposits of marine hydrates — a theory known as the “clathrate gun” hypothesis — have turned to geologic history to search for evidence of significant methane release during past warming events.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Vast amounts of methane hydrate are buried in sediments on the continental shelves and slopes. Four different kinds of geological settings have the temperature and pressure conditions suitable for the formation and stability of methane hydrates:
    • Sediment and sedimentary rock units below Arctic permafrost
    • Sedimentary deposits along continental margins
    • Deep-water sediments of inland lakes and seas, and
    • Under the Antarctic ice.
  • Statement 3 is correct:

15. Consider the following :
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

From- Review Paper Emissions from Crop/Biomass Residue Burning Risk to Atmospheric Quality From above references it may be safely concluded that crop residue/biomass residue burning not only emits poisonous gases such as SO2, CH4, CO2, CO, N2O, NOx, NO, NO2, OC, BC, TC, NMHCs, SVOCs, VOCs, O3 etc; but also influences the quality of environment at large. (Page 27)

http://www.isca.in/EARTH_SCI/Archive/v1/i1/4.ISCA-IRJES-2013-005.pdf

16. Consider the following pairs:
Sea Bordering country
1. Adriatic Sea : Albania
2. Black Sea : Croatia
3. Caspian Sea : Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea : Morocco
5. Red Sea : Syria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • Countries bordering Adriatic sea: The Adriatic Sea is a part of the Mediterranean Sea positioned between the eastern coastline of Italy, and countries of the Balkan Peninsula, from Slovenia, south through Croatia. Montenegro, and to Albania. The southern boundary of the sea ends in the Strait of Otranto between Albania and Italy’s Salento Peninsula. Immediately south of that strait the Ionian Sea begins.
  • Countries bordering Black sea: The Black Sea lies between southeastern Europe and Asia Minor. Excluding its northern arm, the Sea of Azov, the Black Sea occupies about 168,500 square miles (436,400 square kilometers). It is connected to the Aegean Sea through the Bosporus, the Sea of Marmara, and the Dardanelles, and has been of critical importance to regional commerce throughout the ages. This major inland sea is bordered by six countries — Romania and Bulgaria to the west; Ukraine, Russia, and Georgia to the north and east; and Turkey to the south. Additionally, it is impacted by another 10 nations through the five major rivers that empty into the Black Sea, the largest of which is the Danube River.
  • Countries bordering Capspian sea: The five countries Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Russia, Turkmenistan and Iran share their boundary with the Caspian Sea
  • Countries bordering Mediterranean sea: The countries surrounding the Mediterranean in clockwise order are Spain, France, Monaco, Italy, Slovenia, Croatia, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Montenegro, Albania, Greece, Turkey, Syria, Lebanon, Israel, Egypt, Libya, Tunisia, Algeria, and Morocco; Malta and Cyprus are island countries in the sea.
  • Countries bordering Red sea: There are six countries (Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti) bordering the Red Sea.

17. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Myanmar
(d) Vietnam
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

India is the largest exporter of rice in the world since the last decade while China is largest producer of rice. Below are the 15 countries that exported the highest dollar value worth of rice during 2018.

1)India: US$7.4 billion (30.1% of total rice exports)

2)Thailand: $5.6 billion (22.7%)

3)Vietnam: $2.2 billion (9%)

4)Pakistan: $2 billion (8.2%)

5)United States: $1.7 billion (6.9%)

6)China: $887.3 million (3.6%)

18. Consider the following pairs :
Glacier River
1. Bandarpunch : Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri : Chenab
3. Milam : Mandakini
4. Siachen : Nubra
5. Zemu : Manas
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 5
(d) 3 and 5
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Origin Glacier  Rivers
Bandarpunch Yamuna  
Bara Shigri Chenab
Milam Gori Ganga  
Siachen Nubra
Zemu Teesta  

19. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as
(a) pesticides in agriculture
(b) preservatives in processed foods
(c) fruit-ripening agents
(d) moisturising agents in cosmetics
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Option (a) is correct: In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as Pesticides in Agriculture.

20. Consider the following statements :
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

  • When a country joins the Ramsar Convention, it gets itself listed into the international effort for the conservation and wise use of wetlands. Once a country has joined, there are commitments which it has to fulfil as obligations.
  • It has to designate at least one of its wetlands into the List of Wetlands of International Importance called “Ramsar List”. Once that is done, it can later designate more such wetlands.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The above designation has to be based upon criteria that take into account the ecology, botany, zoology, limnology (freshwater science) or Hydrology. Thus, not every wetland becomes a Ramsar site but only those which have significant values related to these fields.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Wetlands (Conservation andManagement) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

21. Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of
(a) Chalukya
(b) Chandela
(c) Rashtrakuta
(d) Vijayanagara
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

During period of Vijaynagara empire certain new features were evident in terms of temple architecture. These were Mandapas and Gopurams.

  • Mandapas: It meant pavilions and long, pillared corridors that often ran around the shrines within the temple complex. A Kalyana Mandapa, meant to celebrate divine weddings
  • Gopurams: or royal gateways that often dwarfed the towers on the central shrines, and signalled the presence of the temple from a great distance. They were also probably meant as reminders of the power of kings, able to command the resources, techniques and skills needed to construct these towering gateways.

22. Consider the following statements:
1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Iqta system: Iqta’ is an Arabic word meaning an administrative regional unit. It is usually considered equivalent to a province. It was initiated by Iltutmish in India.
  • It had started outside India in Persia (Iran) region and in western Asia. Thus not indigenous.
  • Office of Mir Bakshi started under Mughal administration. He looked after all matters pertaining to the military administration. The orders of appointment of mansabdars and their salary papers were endorsed and passed by him.
  • The amalguzar or amil was the revenue collector during Delhi Sultanate. His duty was to assess and supervise the revenue collection. He was expected to increase the land under cultivation and induce the peasants to pay revenue willingly. He used to maintain all accounts and send the daily receipt and expenditure report to the provincial Diwan.

23. Consider the following statements:
1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • Saint nimbarka is believed to have been alive during 11th century. While Akbar 16th century.
  • Saint Kabir was born in 1440 while Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi was an Islamic scholar lived later between (1564-1624)

24. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.
2. In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • Lord Chelmsford, the then Viceroy of India, invited Gandhi to Delhi at a War Conference. In order to gain the trust of the empire, Gandhi agreed to move people to enlist in the army for World War I. However, he wrote to the Viceroy and said that he “personally will not kill or injure anybody, friend or foe”.
  • The first agitation that Mahatma Gandhi launched during his days in South Africa was against the system of indentured labour. In India, Gokhale, Tilak and others agitated against the practice of sending Indians abroad to labour on sugarcane farms.
  • Congress was declared illegal during Salt Satyagraha and Gandhiji signed Gandhi-Irwin pact and agreed to attend second RTC.

25. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:
Person Position held
1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru : President, All India Liberal Federation
2. K.C. Neogy : Member, the Constituent Assembly
3. P.C. Joshi : General Secretary, Communist Party of India
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru: He was an important leader of All India liberal federation and served as its President.
  • KC Neogy: He was a member of constituent Assembly from West Bengal
  • PC Joshi He was the first president of Communist Party of India and remained so for 12 years till 1947.

26. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar
(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.
(c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
(d) Tansen invented many Ragas.
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Statement (a) is not correct as Tansen was the title given to him by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior. Akbar made Tansen as one of the Navaratnas in his court and gave him the title of ‘Mian’.
  • Kalpadruma is a compliation of 300 of his dhrupads that were in Gauhar Bani. Tansen composed in his favourite ragas — Multani, Bhairavi and Todi .
  • He invented the night raga Darbari Kanhra, morning raga Mian Ki Todi, mid-day raga, Mian ki Sarang, seasonal raga Mian ki Malhar. His descendants and disciples are called Seniyas.
  • He composed many dhrupads on Ganesha, Shiva, Parvati and Rama.
  • He also composed songs on his patrons, eulogizing kings and Akbar

27. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?
(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shah Jahan
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

  • Jahangir took keen interest in painting. He was a bird and animal lover and patronized paintings of flowers, animals, birds etc. Apart from painting of hunting scenes, court scenes, under him specialized individual portraits were painted in a realistic manner.

28. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
(a) Manas National Park
(b) Namdapha National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Valley of Flowers National Park
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • Manas National Park: About Grasslands of Terai and Bhabar type cover the half of the Park, the riparian areas have colonizing grasslands and woodlands of several species. The thick woodlands are called Eastern Moist Deciduous Forests of various types. The undergrowths are very thick. There are more than 650 species of Angiosperms alone. The commonly seen trees are the Simul, Oxi, Sissoo, Khaie, Gamari, etc.
  • Manas is the only landscape in the world where pristine Terai Grasslands are seen merging with the Bhabar grasslands interspersed with diverse habitats ascending to Semi-Evergreen forests and then to Bhutan Himalayas. The Biodiversity is very rich here. The last population of the Pygmy Hog survives in the wilds of Manas and nowhere else in the world.
  • Namdapha National Park Namdapha National Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India. It is also the third largest national park in India in terms of area. It is located in the Eastern Himalayan sub-region and is recognized as one of the richest areas in biodiversity in India. The park harbours the northernmost lowland evergreen rainforests in the world at 27°N latitude. The area is also known for extensive Dipterocarp forests.
  • Neora Valley National Park: Neora Valley National Park was established in the year of 1986. This park falls in the catchment area of the Neora River. Neora Valley National Park is distinct for its pristine scenic beauty and rich bio-diversity. Due to wide range of altitude variation, the climate condition of the park varies from tropical to temperate or even Sub-alpine in Rachilla Danda area. Its floral diversity is noteworthy with mixed species of rhododendrons, bamboo, sal etc. along with several species of orchids.
  • Valley of flowers National park: Valley of Flowers is a vibrant and splendid national park reposing in West Himalayas. Nestled in Uttarakhand, this alluring place is famous for its charming meadows of alpine flowers. Endowed with a diverse range of endemic flora, it is picturesque in its beauty. This lush region is also home to some rare and endangered animal species. You may spot animals like Asiatic black deer, snow leopard, musk deer, red fox, brown bear and blue sheep. High in the lofty Himalayas of the Garhwal region sprawls this enchanting valley. Legends believe it to be the place from where Hanuman had collected the Sanjeevani buti for curing Lakshmana. This place has floral pastures, running streams and beautiful backdrop of the mountains.

29. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
(a) Department of Science and Technology
(b) Ministry of Labour and Employment
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

  • The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country.

30. On 21st June, the Sun
(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • The Sun is directly overhead at “high-noon” on the equator twice per year, at the two equinoxes. On the Arctic Circle, the Sun does not set at all on the Summer Solstice which occurs on 21st June. On that one day, the Sun traces a complete circle just above the horizon as the Earth rotates.

31. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?
1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Jagirdar and Zamindar

  • The Jagirdars were the king’s officials who enjoyed the land gifted from the King. They were the rank (mansab) holder given by the king called mansabdar.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: They were allotted non-inheritable land area equivalent to their fee amount called Jagir. These Jagirs are temporary in character and the Jagirdars only have the right to claim and enjoy the revenue collected from the land.
  • The holder of land is termed as the Zamindar. They had the hereditary right over the land to claim share in the peasant’s output other than land revenues.
  • They also have the right to detain the peasants. In most of the Mughal period the Zamindar collected land revenue from the actual tillers of land and for this they were allowed one tenth of the collections either in cash or an equivalent amount of tax free land.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.

32. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
(c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The main objectives of the Land Reforms:

  • To make redistribution of Land to make a socialistic pattern of society. Such an effort will reduce the inequalities in ownership of land.
  • Option (d) is incorrect and Option (b) is correct: To ensure land ceiling and take away the surplus land to be distributed among the small and marginal farmers.
  • To legitimize tenancy with the ceiling limit.
  • To register all the tenancy with the village Panchayats.
  • To establish relation between tenancy and ceiling.
  • To remove rural poverty.
  • Proliferating socialist development to lessen social inequality
  • Empowerment of women in the traditionally male driven society.
  • To increase productivity of agriculture.
  • To see that everyone can have a right on a piece of land.
  • Protection of tribal by not allowing outsiders to take their land.

33. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) World Bank
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

  • The Global Competitiveness Report (GCR) is a yearly report published by the World Economic Forum.

34. Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’:
1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • This Act asserted the Crown’s sovereignty over British possessions in India.
  • Company’s rule and trade monopoly in India was extended to another 20 years. Monopoly was ended except for the trade in tea and with China
  • The Act gave more powers for the courts in India over European British subjects.
  • Another important feature of this act was to grant permission to the missionaries to come to India and engage in religious proselytization
  • The missionaries were successful in getting the appointment of a Bishop for British India with his headquarters at Calcutta in the provisions of the Act.
  • It allotted Rs 100,000 to promote education in Indian masses and allowed them to open anywhere anytime.

35. With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:
1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

  • The National Council of Education (or NCE) was an organization founded by Indian nationalists in Bengal in 1906 to promote science and technology as part of a swadeshi industrialization movement
  • The Swadeshi had a great impact on handloom industry. There was a revival in handloom, silk weaving, and some other tradition artisan crafts. Cotton mills were set up at this time.

36. Consider the following pairs:
Movement/Organization Leader
1. All India Anti-Untouchability League : Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha : Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Self-Respect Movement : E.V. Ramaswami Naicker
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • All India Anti Utouchability League: It was formed by Mahatma Gandhi then later renamed as Harijan Sewak Sangh.
  • All India Kisan Sabha: It was formed by Sahajanand Saraswati in Lucknow Session of 1936.
  • Self Respect Movement: EV Ramaswamy Naicker was an important leader of self respect movement in 1925. It was an anti caste movement against Brahmanism.

37. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
(a) Chanhudaro
(b) Kot Diji
(c) Sohgaura
(d) Desalpur
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

  • Sohgaura is not a Harappan site and is situated in Uttar Pradesh. It is famous for it copper inscription written in prakrit in the Brahmi script.
  • All the other three are Harappan sites. Chanhudaro in Sindh, Pakistan, Kot Diji in Sindh, Pakistan , Desalpur in Gujarat, India

38. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashokan’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
(a) Kanganahalli
(b) Sanchi
(c) Shahbazgarhi
(d) Sohgaura
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • This site is situated on the left bank of the Bhima river ,2km east of chandrala Parameshwari temple at sannati, Karnataka.
  • The discoveries of the site included a broken relief sculpture showing a king and queen flanked by female attendants two of whom held up a parasol and fly whisk – symbols of sovereignty – in their hands.
  • An Inscription in Brahmi read “Ranyo Ashoka” (King Ashoka) leaving no doubt who the central figure was supposed to represent.

39. Consider the following:
1. Deification of the Buddha
2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas
3. Image worship and rituals
Which of the above is/are the feature/features of Mahayana Buddhism?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

40. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
(c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • In central and western India the villagers were also subjected to forced labour called vishti for serving the royal army and officials. Thus it was a source of income for the kingdom.

41. Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’?
(a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
(b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber
(c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
(d) Rubber, coffee and wheat
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Old World refers to Africa, Asia, and Europe while New World refers to the Americas, including North America, Central America, and South America. On the other hand, the New World refers to the Americas and it is inclusive of North America, South America, and Central America. The Old World contrasts with the New World.
  • Tobacco, one of the most important cash crops in American farming, is native to the North and South American continents. It was first introduced in Eurape and later to India.
  • Portuguese merchants first brought tobacco to India 400 years ago. Although there were already some strains of locally-grown tobacco in India these were outclassed by the new imported varieties from Brazil.
  • Theobroma cacao, also called the cacao tree and the cocoa tree, is a small (4–8 m (13–26 ft) tall) evergreen tree in the family Malvaceae, native to the deep tropical regions of the Americas. Its seeds, cocoa beans, are used to make chocolate liquor, cocoa solids, cocoa butter and chocolate.
  • Ficus elastica, the rubber fig, rubber bush, rubber tree, rubber plant, or Indian rubber bush, Indian rubber tree, is a species of plant in the fig genus, native to eastern parts of South Asia and southeast Asia.

42. Consider the following statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • The Great one horned rhino is commonly found in Nepal, Bhutan, Pakistan and in Assam, India. It is confined to the tall grasslands and forests in the foothills of the Himalayas. Double humped camel also known as Bactrian camel is a native to the steppes of Central Asia, though it is also found in Numbra valley in India. However Asiatic Lion is naturally found in India only.

43. Consider the following pairs:
Famous place River
1. Pandharpur : Chandrabhaga
2. Tiruchirappalli : Cauvery
3. Hampi : Malaprabha
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Pandharpur is a well known pilgrimage town on the banks of Chandrabhaga River in Sol?pur district, Maharashtra, India. Tiruchirapalli is located along the Kaveri River in Tamil Nadu, India. Hampi, also referred to as the Group of Monuments at Hampi, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site situated on the banks of the Tungabhadra River in the eastern part of central Karnataka near the state border with Andhra Pradesh. Thus only 1 and 2 are correct.

44. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because
(a) poverty rates vary from State to State
(b) price levels vary from State to State
(c) Gross State Product varies from State to State
(d) quality of public distribution varies from State to State
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Poverty Line

  • There are many challenges in marking a poverty line, such as determining components of poverty line basket.
  • Option (b) is correct: There are price differentials (of constituents of basket) which vary from state to state and period to period. So, in a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because price levels vary from State to State
  • Further, consumption patterns, nutritional needs and prices of components keep on changing as per dynamics of macro economy and demography.

45. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?
(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
(d) Reducing the global warming
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • Cirrus clouds do not reflect a lot of solar radiation back into space, but because they form at high altitudes and cold temperatures, they trap long-wave radiation and have a climate impact similar to greenhouse gases. Thus Thinning cirrus clouds would reduce the absorption of infrared radiation and proposed form of climate engineering to reduce global warming.
  • Another proposed Geo-engineering technique involves injecting reflective sulfate aerosol particles into Earth’s lower stratosphere to cast a small proportion of the inbound sunlight back into space and cool the planet off. Thus both are climate engineering/ Geo-engineering techniques to reduce global warming.

46. In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?
(a) Extraction of rare earth elements
(b) Natural gas extraction technologies
(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
(d) Waste-to-energy technologies
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • Like incineration, pyrolysis, gasification and plasma technologies are thermal processes that use high temperatures to break down waste. The main difference is that they use less oxygen than traditional mass-burn incineration. Thus these belong to waste to energy technologies.

47. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • ABR in situated at the southern-most end of the Western Ghats and spread over two southern states Kerala and Tamil Nadu. It covers Peppara and Shendurney wildlife sanctuaries and parts of the Neyyar sanctuary in Kerala and the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve of Tamil Nadu. Thus option a is correct

48. Consider the following statements:
1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • Marine herbivores are found within four groups of species in the animal kingdom — invertebrates, fish, reptiles and mammals — and include zooplankton, mollusks, the green sea turtle, the marine iguana and some fish species. Manatees and dugongs are the only herbivores among marine mammals.
  • Viviparous: This is when there is no egg at all. Snakes that are viviparous nourish their developing young through a placenta and yolk sac, something that is highly unusual among reptiles. Boa constrictors and green anacondas are two examples of viviparous snakes, meaning they give birth to live young with no eggs involved at any stage of development.
  • Thus option d) is correct.

49. Consider the following pairs:
Wildlife Naturally found in
1. Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River
3. Rusty-spotted Cat : Eastern Ghats
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

  • Irrawaddy Dolphin is found in coastal areas in South and Southeast Asia, and Irrawaddy River, it is also found in India’s Ganges, and Southeast Asia’s Mekong River. They are also found in Chilika lake in Orissa. They are not found in Chambal. Thus option c is correct i.e. 1 and 3 only.

50. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into environment?
(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Microbeads are itty-bitty plastic orbs that can be found in exfoliating facial scrubs, cosmetics, shower gels and toothpaste, among other products. They are part of a larger class of microplastics, or pieces of plastic less than five millimeters, or 0.2 inch, long.
  • Microbeads that wash down drains cannot be filtered out by many wastewater treatment plants, meaning that tiny plastics slip easily into waterways. Fish and other marine animals often eat them, introducing potentially toxic substances into the food chain. Thus they are harmful to marine ecosystem.

51. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:
1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected into real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 4 only
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

52. The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to
(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs
(b) an early human species
(c) a cave system found in North-East India
(d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • Denisovans is early human species. When our ancestors first migrated out of Africa around 60,000 years ago, they were not alone. At least two of our hominid cousins had made the same journey—Neanderthals and Denisovans. Neanderthals, the better known of the two species, left Africa about 300,000 years ago and settled in Europe and parts of western Asia. The Denisovans are a much more recent addition to the human family tree. In 2008, paleoanthropologists digging in a cave in southern Siberia unearthed a 40,000-year-old adult tooth and an exquisitely preserved fossilized pinkie bone that had belonged to a young girl who was between five and seven years old when she died.

53. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
(b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.
(c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
(d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Option (a) is incorrect: Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
  • Option (b) is correct: Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.
  • Option (c) is correct: A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell cannot be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
  • Option (d) is correct: Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.

54. Consider the following statements:
A digital signature is
1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet
3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

55. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?
1. Location identification of a person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
3. Assisting the hearing impaired person
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • Wearables are electronic technology or devices incorporated into items that can be comfortably worn on a body. These wearable devices are used for tracking information on real time basis. They have motion sensors that take the snapshot of your day to day activity and sync them with mobile devices or laptop computers. After the invention of smartphones, wearable electronics are the next big innovation in the world of technology.

56. ‘RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?
1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.
2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4 only
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • RNA interference is a post transcriptional gene silencing mechanism that is triggered by double-stranded RNA (dsRNA). RNAi is a mechanism for controlling normal gene expression which has recently began to be employed as a potential therapeutic agent for a wide range of disorders, including cancer, infectious diseases and metabolic disorders. It is also used as a tool to improve crops by providing resistance against parasites and modified versions of siRNA that are directed against disease causing genes are being developed, some of which are already tested in clinical trials.

57. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
(a) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.
(b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.
(c) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.
(d) It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’.
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • Billions of light years away, two black holes have collided to create a larger one – the biggest black hole merger yet detected. It has a mass more than 80 times that of the sun. The resulting energy injected into the fabric of space-time was also record breaking, with five sun’s worth of mass released in the form gravitational waves as the two holes spiralled in towards each other.  Such titanic amounts of energy meant that the signal was still detectable by the time it reached gravitational wave detectors on Earth. It produced a record-breaking result – the most distant collision detected so far, nine billion light years away.

58. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
1. Genetic predisposition of some people
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

59. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?
(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
(b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients
(c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant
(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • CRISPR-Cas9 is a genome editing tool that is creating a buzz in the science world. It is faster, cheaper and more accurate than previous techniques of editing DNA and has a wide range of potential applications. CRISPR-Cas9 is a unique technology that enables geneticists and medical researchers to edit parts of the genome by removing, adding or altering sections of the DNA sequence.

60. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
(c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • The hepatitis B vaccine is a safe and effective vaccine that is recommended for all infants at birth and for children up to 18 years. The hepatitis B vaccine is also recommended for adults living with diabetes and those at high risk for infection due to their jobs, lifestyle, living situations, or country of birth. Since everyone is at some risk, all adults should seriously consider getting the hepatitis B vaccine for a lifetime protection against a preventable chronic liver disease. The hepatitis B vaccine is also known as the first “anti-cancer” vaccine because it prevents hepatitis B, the leading cause of liver cancer worldwide. Thus option b) is answer.

61. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionallyinvalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Both options are false.

  • “The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 curtailed the judicial review power of high court. It debarred the high courts from considering the constitutional validity of any central law. However, the 43rd Amendment Act of 1977 restored the original position.” (Laxmikanth: High Court)
  • Justice Syed Shah Mohamed Quadri has classified the judicial review into the following three categories “Judicial review of constitutional amendments.” (Laxmikanth: Judicial Review)

62. Consider the following statements:
1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Statement 2 is wrong as India is 3rd largest economy on PPP.

63. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crop in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 , 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

64. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?
(a) Spices
(b) Fresh fruits
(c) Pulses
(d) Vegetable oils
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

65. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • Option (a) and (b) entail negative conception of liberty and have minimalist overtone. Option (c) is related to anarchy and lawlessness. Option (D) provides for positive conception of liberty that our constitution provides for. Provision of reservation, protection of minority rights etc. provide for creating an enabling atmosphere where individual can develop themselves fully.

66. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
(a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports
(b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds
(c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
(d) Following an expansionary monetary policy
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

To stop slide of rupee against dollar, we need to improve inflow of forex and increase its supply and control domestic currency money supply.

  • Is a correct step as it will bring more forex
  • Is a correct step as it will bring more forex through FPI
  • Is a correct step as it will bring more forex through Debt
  • Is not a correct step, as it increases money supply

67. Consider the following statements:
The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that
1. they shall ensure that entire date relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India
2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises
3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

  • There has been considerable growth in the payment ecosystem in the country. Such systems are also highly technology dependent, which necessitate adoption of safety and security measures, which are best in class, on a continuous basis. As per the RBI, not all system providers store the payments data in India.
  • To ensure better monitoring, it is important to have unfettered supervisory access to data stored with these system providers as also with their service providers / intermediaries/ third party vendors and other entities in the payment ecosystem. The RBI has put in place certain guidelines for storage of payment system data which are as follows:
  • All system providers are required to ensure that the entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India. This data should include the full end-to-end transaction details / information.
  • Collected / carried / processed as part of the message / payment instruction. For the foreign leg of the transaction, if any, the data can also be stored in the foreign country, if required.
  • System providers are required to ensure compliance of (1) above within a period of six months and report compliance of the same to the Reserve Bank latest by October 15, 2018.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: All system providers are required to ensure that the entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India. This data should include the full end-to-end transaction details / information. They may be private or public sector enterprises.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: System providers are required to submit the System Audit Report (SAR) on completion of the requirement above not with CAG. CERT-IN empanelled auditors certifying completion of activity at above should conduct the audit. The SAR duly approved by the Board of the system providers should be submitted to the Reserve Bank not later than December 31, 2018.

68. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) The European Union
(d) The United States of America
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), agreed upon by the European Parliament and Council in April 2016, will replace the Data Protection Directive 95/46/ec in Spring 2018 as the primary law regulating how companies protect EU citizens’ personal data. Companies that are already in compliance with the Directive must ensure that they are also compliant with the new requirements of the GDPR before it becomes effective on May 25, 2018. Companies that fail to achieve GDPR compliance before the deadline will be subject to stiff penalties and fines.

GDPR requirements apply to each member state of the European Union, aiming to create more consistent protection of consumer and personal data across EU nations. Some of the key privacy and data protection requirements of the GDPR include:

  • Requiring the consent of subjects for data processing
  • Anonymizing collected data to protect privacy
  • Providing data breach notifications
  • Safely handling the transfer of data across borders
  • Requiring certain companies to appoint a data protection officer to oversee GDPR compliance
  • Simply put, the GDPR mandates a baseline set of standards for companies that handle EU citizens’ data to better safeguard the processing and movement of citizens’ personal data.

who is subject to GDPR compliance?

The purpose of the GDPR is to impose a uniform data security law on all EU members, so that each member state no longer needs to write its own data protection laws and laws are consistent across the entire EU. In addition to EU members, it is important to note that any company that markets goods or services to EU residents, regardless of its location, is subject to the regulation. As a result, GDPR will have an impact on data protection requirements globally.

69. Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?
(a) Japan
(b) Russia
(c) The United Kingdom
(d) The United States of America
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • India signs Action Plan with the Russian Federation. Back. “Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field”.
  • The two countries intent to develop a project of six nuclear power units of Russian design at a new site in India, further enhance cooperation in the third countries and bring in new perspective nuclear technologies together with joint construction of nuclear power plants.
  • According to the document, for the new nuclear project in India Russia will offer the evolutionary VVER generation “3+” technical solutions and will increase the level of Indian industry’s involvement and localization. This is state of art nuclear reactor technology in the world.

70. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
(a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio
(b) Increase in the banking habit of the population
(c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
(d) Increase in the population of the country
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • increase in CRR decrease money multiplier, as it reduces flow of funds back to market
  • it increases money multiplier by increasing the velocity of money
  • increase in SLR decrease money multiplier, as it reduces flow of funds back to market
  • population is not related to money multiplier

71. The Services Area Approach was implemented under the purview of
(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(b) Lead Bank Scheme
(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
(d) National Skill Development Mission
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • Lead bank scheme Service Area Approach under which villages are identified and assigned to bank branches based on their proximity and contiguity. Sub Service Area is a cluster of more than one village wherein up to 1000 to 1500 households are brought under such cluster for providing banking services.

72. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India consider the following statements:
1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Sand is a minor mineral, as defined under section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act).
  • Section 15 of the MMDR Act empowers state governments to make rules for regulating the grant of mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals and for purposes connected therewith. The regulation of grant of mineral concessions for minor minerals is, therefore, within the legislative and administrative domain of the state governments.
  • Further,section 23C of theMMDR Act, 1957 empowers state governments to frame rules to prevent illegal mining, transportation and storage of mineralsand for purposes connected therewith. Control of illegal mining is, therefore, under the legislative and administrative jurisdiction of state governments.

73. Consider the following statements:
1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.
2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • India’s external debt is held in multiple currencies, the largest of which is the United States dollar. As on 31 December 2017, 48.2% of the country’s debt was held in U.S. dollars. The rest of the debt is held in Indian rupees (37.3%), special drawing rights (5.7%), Japanese yen (4.6%), Euros (3.2%) and other currencies (1%).
  • Most of India’s external debt is in form of ECB and NRI deposits.
S. No. Component External debt (US$) Percentage share
1 Multilateral 56,021 million 10.9%
2 Bilateral 23,371 million 4.6%
3 IMF loans 5,666 million 1.1%
4 Export credit 9,390 million 1.8%
5 Commercial borrowings 196,861 million 38.3%
6 NRI deposits 123,315 million 24.0%
7 Rupee debt 1,205 million 0.2%
  Long-term debt 415,829 million 81.0%
  Short-term debt 97,609 million 19.0%
Total 513.4 billion 100%

74. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?
(a) Advances
(b) Deposits
(c) Investments
(d) Money at call and short notice
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • Deposits of banks are liability not assets

75. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?
1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector
2. Increasing the government expenditure
3. Remittances from Indians abroad
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • Currency crisis risk is reduced by increase in foreign exchange inflow in the current account of BoP. In this question 1 and 3 are inflows in the current account and hence reduce the risk, whereas 2 are not related to currency risk directly.

76. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Sarkaria Commission provides for these. (Laxmikanth: Center-State Relations)

While selecting Governors, the Central Government should adopt the following strict guidelines as recommended in the Sarkaria Commission report and follow its mandate in letter and spirit:

  • He should be eminent in some walk of life
  • He should be a person from outside the state
  • He should be a detached figure and not too intimately connected with the local politics of the states
  • He should be a person who has not taken too great a part in politics generally and particularly in the recent past

77. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
(a) Certificate of Deposit
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Promissory Note
(d) Participatory Note
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • P-Notes or Participatory Notes are Overseas Derivative Instruments that have Indian stocks as their underlying assets. They allow foreign investors to buy stocks listed on Indian exchanges through FIIs without being registered.

78. Consider the following statements:
1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

  • The Bill establishes the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of India, and a State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of each state.
  • These Funds will receive payments for: (i) compensatory afforestation, (ii) net present value of forest (NPV), and (iii) other project specific payments. The National Fund will receive 10% of these funds, and the State Funds will receive the remaining 90%.
  • These Funds will be primarily spent on afforestation to compensate for loss of forest cover, regeneration of forest ecosystem, wildlife protection and infrastructure development.
  • The Bill also establishes the National and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authorities to manage the National and State Funds.

Statement 2 is incorrect:

  • People’s participation is not mandatory in compensatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the compensatory fund act,2016.

79. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 5
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

80. With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

(i) A sizeable increase in national income so as to raise the level of living.

(ii) Rapid industrialization of the country with particular emphasis on the development of basic and Capital Goods industries.

(iii) A large expansion of employment opportunities by developing labour-intensive projects and small scale industries.

(iv) Reduction in inequalities of income and distribution.

(v) To attain the annual growth rate of 5%.

Statement 2 is correct:

  • The fourth five year plan for the first time the financial sector was included as an integral part of the plan.
  • Major reform taken during this period was Nationalization of Banks and abolition of privy purses.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Financial sector was included for the first time in fourth five year plan itself.

81. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India :
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi Tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: PVTGs reside in 18 States and UT of A&N Islands.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Some specific signs such as primitive traits, distinctive culture, geographical isolation, shyness to contact with the community at large and backwardness often identify tribal communities. Along with these, some tribal groups have some specific features such as dependency on hunting, gathering for food, having pre-agriculture level of technology, zero or negative growth of population and extremely low level of literacy. These groups are called Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.
  •  
  • Under the scheme, Conservation-cum-Development (CCD)/Annual Plans are to be prepared by each State/UT for their PVTGs based on their need assessment, which are then appraised and approved by the Project Appraisal Committee of the Ministry. Activities for development of PVTGs are undertaken in Sectors of Education, Health, Livelihood and Skill Development , Agricultural Development , Housing & Habitat, Conservation of Culture etc
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: 75 tribal groups have been categorized categorized by Ministry of Home Affairs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG)s. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs implements the Scheme of “Development of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)” exclusively for them .
  • Statement 4 is correct: Konda reddy of Khammam district of Telangana and Irular of Tamil Nadu are under PVTGs.

82. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State legislatures cannot make law on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • “One of the important instances of application by the Supreme Court of Article 142 was in the Union Carbide case — relating to the victims of the Bhopal gas tragedy — where the Court felt a need to deviate from existing law to bring relief to the thousands of persons affected by the gas leak. In this judgment, the Supreme Court, while awarding compensation of $470 million to the victims, went to the extent of saying that to do complete justice, it could even override the laws made by Parliament by holding that, “prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot, ipso facto, act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142.” By this statement the Supreme Court of India placed itself above the laws made by Parliament or the legislatures of the States.”

83. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statments:
1. The governor makes a customary address to members of the house at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

  • Laxmikanth: State Legislature

84. Consider the following statements:
1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air.
2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:

  • Negotiated by member states of the United Nations (UN) it has been adopted by the UN General Assembly in October 2003 and entered into force in December 2005.
  • The UNCAC recognise the importance of both preventive and punitive measures, addresses the cross-border nature of corruption with provisions on international cooperation and on the return of the proceeds of corruption.

Statement 2 is correct:

  • The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) is the only legally binding international anti-corruption multilateral treaty.

Statement 3 is incorrect:

  • UNCAC’s goal is to reduce various types of corruption that can occur across country borders, such as trading in influence and abuse of power, as well as corruption in the private sector, such as embezzlement and money laundering. Another goal of the UNCAC is to strengthen international law enforcement and judicial cooperation between countries by providing effective legal mechanisms for international asset recovery.

Statement 4 is correct:

  • The UN Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) in Vienna serves as Secretariat for the UNCAC. Its members to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC also mandate it.

85. Consider the following statements:
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Parliament passed an amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927 removing ‘bamboo’ plant growing on non-forest lands from the definition of ‘tree’. The government claimed this would benefit tribals and other dwellers living around forests. The amendment converted into law what had been passed as an ordinance before that. As they enjoy right to fell bamboos in forest areas.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Section 2(i) of the the scheduled Tribes and other Traditional forest dweller Act defines a Minor Forest Produce (MFP) as all non-timber forest produce of plant origin and includes bamboo, brushwood, stumps, canes, Tusser, cocoon, honey, waxes, Lac, tendu/kendu leaves, medicinal plants and herbs, roots, tuber and the like.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, popularly known as the Forests Rights Act (FRA), was enacted in 2007. The Act recognizes and vests individual forest-dwellers with forest rights to live in and cultivate forest land that was occupied before 13 December 2005 and grants community forest rights to manage, protect and regenerate the forest under section 3(1)(i), and to own and dispose minor forest products from forests where they had traditional access. Section 3(1)(c) of the Forest Rights Act 2006 defines forest rights as inclusive of ‘Right of ownership, access to collect, use and dispose of minor forest produce which have traditionally been collected within or outside village boundaries’. Individuals, communities and gram sabhas having rights under this particular section of the Act will not only have the rights to use but also rights of ownership over MFPs. This goes beyond the Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension To The Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA Act) which had authorised states to entrust panchayats and gramasabhas as the owners of MFP.

86. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • “The right to marry a person of one’s choice is integral to Article 21 (right to life and liberty) of the Constitution”, the Supreme Court said Monday and set aside a 2017 order of the Kerala High Court which annulled the marriage of Kerala Muslim convert girl Hadiya and Shefin Jahan.

87. Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Indian Patent Act

  • A patent is an exclusive right granted to an inventor to prevent others from making, using, producing, selling and distributing the patented invention.
  • A patent on seeds would prevent farmers from saving and exchanging seed.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 3 is correct: In our Patent Law we introduced a clause Article 3j which clearly states that the following are not inventions, hence not patentable: “plants and animals in whole or in any part thereof other than microorganisms; but including seeds, varieties, and species, and essentially biological processes for production or propagation of plants and animals”.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) was constituted on September 15, 2003 by the Indian Government to hear and resolve the appeals against the decisions of the registrar under the Indian Trademarks Act, 1999 and the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
  • Since April 2, 2007, IPAB has been authorized to hear and adjudicate upon the appeals from most of the decisions, orders or directions made by the Patent Controller under the Patents Act. Therefore all pending appeals of Indian High Courts under the Patents Act were transferred to IPAB.
  • The headquarter of the IPAB is located in Chennai. IPAB also has sittings at Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata and Ahmedabad.

88. Consider the following statements :
The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to
1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the Procedure and manner in which it sought
2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Environment Protection Act, 1986: The Act empowers the Central Government to take all appropriate measures to prevent and control pollution and to establish effective machinery for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of the environment and preventing, abating and controlling environmental pollution.

  1. The Act empowers the center to “take all such measures as it deems necessary”.
  2. By virtue of this Act, Central Government has armed itself with considerable powers which include,
    1. coordination of action by state,
    1. planning and execution of nationwide programmes,
    1. Statement 2 is correct: laying down environmental quality standards, especially those governing emission or discharge of environmental pollutants,
    1. placing restriction on the location of industries and so on.
    1. authority to issue direct orders, included orders to close, prohibit or regulate any industry.
    1. power of entry for examination, testing of equipment and other purposes and power to analyze the sample of air, water, soil or any other substance from any place.
  3. The Act explicitly prohibits discharges of environmental pollutants in excess of prescribed regulatory standards.
  4. There is also a specific prohibition against handling hazardous substances except those in compliance with regulatory procedures and standards.
  5. The Act provides provision for penalties. For each failure or contravention the punishment included a prison term up to five years or fine up to Rs. 1 lakh, or both.
  6. The Act imposed an additional fine of up to Rs. 5,000 for every day of continuing violation.
  7. If a failure or contravention occurs for more than one year, offender may be punished with imprisonment which may be extended to seven years.
  8. Section 19 provides that any person, in addition to authorized government officials, may file a complaint with a court alleging an offence under the Act.
  9. This “Citizens’ Suit” provision requires that the person has to give notice of not less than 60 days of the alleged offence of pollution to the Central Government.

89. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
(d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016

  • The new rules have mandated the source segregation of waste in order to channelize the waste to wealth by recovery, reuse and recycle.
  • Statement (a) is incorrect: Waste generators would now have to now segregate waste into three streams (not five) – Biodegradables, Dry (Plastic, Paper, metal, Wood, etc.) and Domestic Hazardous waste (diapers, napkins, mosquito repellants, cleaning agents etc.) before handing it over to the collector.
  • Statement (b) is incorrect: The Rules are applicable beyond municipal areas and will extend to urban agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships, areas under the control of Indian Railways, airports, airbase, port and harbour, defence establishments, special economic zones, State and Central government organizations, places of pilgrims, religious & historical importance.
  • Statement (c) is correct: Waste processing facilities will have to be set up by all local bodies having a population of 1 million or more within two years. The landfill site shall be 100 meters away from a river, 200 meters from a pond, 500 meters away from highways, habitations, public parks and water supply wells and 20 km away from airports/airbase.
  • The construction of landfills on hills shall be avoided. Land for construction of sanitary landfills in hilly areas will be identified in the plain areas, within 25 kilometers.
  • Statement (d) is incorrect: The bio-degradable waste should be processed, treated and disposed of through composting or bio-methanation within the premises as far as possible. The residual waste shall be given to the waste collectors or agency as directed by the local authority.

90. Consider the following statements :
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018
1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers
2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018

  • Statement 1 is correct: Fixed-term employment for all sectors will make it easier for companies to hire-and-fire workers. If rules for fixed term employment are implemented, it become easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers
  • Statement 2 is correct: No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman.
  • Provided that a temporary workman, who has completed three months continuous service, shall be given two weeks notice of the intention to terminate his employment if such termination is not in accordance with the terms of the contract of his employment:
  • Provided further that when the services of a temporary workman, who has not completed three month’s continuous service, are terminated before the completion of the term of employment given to him, he shall be informed of the reasons for termination in writing and when the services of a badli workman are terminated before the return to work of the permanent incumbent or the expiry of his (badli’s) term of employment, he shall be informed of the reasons for such termination in writing.”

91. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements :
1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
    • AIIB is multilateral development bank initiated by China.
    • Its purpose is to provide finance to infrastructure development and regional connectivity projects in Asia-Pacific region.
    • It is viewed as Asia’s response to West-dominated Asian Development Bank (ADB) and World Bank (WB).
    • It was officially established in December 2015 with mission to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia and beyond and opened for business in January 2016.
    • It is headquartered in Beijing, China.
  • Statement 1 is correct: So far it has more than 80 member nations.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: It has an authorised capital of US $100 billion. China is largest shareholder of AIIB with 26.06% voting shares. India with 7.5% vote share is second largest shareholder followed by Russia, Germany and South Korea.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The bank has members from around the world with the major exceptions of Japan, United states of America and Mexico.

92. What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?
(a) To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit
(b) To support the infrastructure Projects of Central and State Governments
(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more
(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA)

  • Option (d) is correct: Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) aimed at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending.
  • It has been signed by 22 public sector banks, 19 private sector banks and 32 foreign banks and 12 major financial intermediaries like LIC, HUDCO etc.
  • ICA Framework is part of project ‘Sashak’. Under it, lead lender (having highest exposure) will be authorised to formulate resolution plan for operation turnaround of assets which will be presented to lenders for their approval.
  • It will be applicable to all corporate borrowers who have availed loans and financial assistance for amount of Rs. 50 crore or more under consortium lending or multiple banking arrangements. Each resolution plan will be submitted by lead lender to Overseeing Committee.
  • The decision making under ICA framework will be by way of approval of majority lenders i.e. lenders with 66% share in aggregate exposure. Once resolution plan is approved by majority lenders, it will be binding on all lenders that are party to ICA. The plan formulated under ICA will be in compliance with RBI norms and all other applicable laws and guidelines. Banks opposing resolution plan will have option to sell their stressed loans to company at discount or buy out loans to that entity from all other lenders at premium.

93. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the
(a) Banks Board Bureau
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Management of concerned bank
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Bank Board Bureau (BBB)

  • BBB is autonomous body of Central Government.
  • It was announced by Union Government in August 2015 as part of seven point Indradhanush Mission to revamp PSBs and started functioning in April 2016.
  • It had replaced Appointments Board of Government.
  • It is housed in Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) central office in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
  • It comprises eminent professionals and officials for public sector banks (PSBs).

Functions of BBB

  • Option (a) is correct: Give recommendations for appointment of full-time Directors as well as non-Executive Chairman of PSBs.
  • Give advice to PSBs in developing differentiated strategies for raising funds through innovative financial methods and instruments and to deal with issues of stressed assets.
  • Guide banks on mergers and consolidations and governance issues to address bad loans problem among other issues.

94. Consider the following statements :
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006 notified via Gazette Notification dated 31st March, 2006.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Act provide for the establishment of Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board to protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas and to promote competitive markets and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
  • Further as enshrined in the act, the board has also been mandated to regulate the refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas excluding production of crude oil and natural gas so as and to ensure uninterrupted and adequate supply of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas in all parts of the country.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Appellate Tribunal established under section 110 of the Electricity Act, 2003 (36 of 2003) shall be the Appellate Tribunal for the purposes of this Act and the said Appellate Tribunal shall exercise the jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred on it by or under this Act : Provided that the Technical Member of the Appellate Tribunal for the purposes of this Act shall be called the Technical Member (Petroleum and Natural Gas) and shall have the qualifications specified in subsection (2) of section 31.

95. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?
1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

LTE and VoLTE

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: VoLTE stands for voice over LTE. It’s voice calls over a 4G LTE network, rather than the 2G or 3G connections which are usually used.
  • VoLTE is a technology update to the LTE protocol used by mobile phone networks. Under LTE, the infrastructure of telecom players only allows transmission of data while voice calls are routed to their older 2G or 3G networks. This is why, under LTE, you cannot access your 4G data services while on a call. This leads to problems such as slow internet speeds and poor voice clarity.
  • VoLTE allows voice calls to be ‘packaged’ and carried through LTE networks. This would mean 4G data accessibility even during calls. VoLTE is an Internet Protocol Multimedia Subsystem (IMS) specification which enables a variety of services to operate seamlessly on the network rather than having to switch to different applications for voice or video
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: In LTE, the network will switch off the data connection while making voice calls, while you don’t need to turn your data connection off while making a voice call in VoLTE. While LTE is targeted for increasing data rates on the 4G bandwidth, VoLTE is targeted towards both voice calling and internet data without affecting each other.

96. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017

  • The Maternity (Amendment) Bill 2017 an amendment to the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, was passed in the Parliament and received assent from President of India on March 27, 2017.
  • The Act protects the employment of women during the time of her maternity and entitles her of a ‘maternity benefit’ – i.e. full paid absence from work – to take care for her child. The act is applicable to all establishments employing 10 or more employees.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Maternity Benefit Amendment Act has increased the duration of paid maternity leave available for women employees from the 12 weeks previously to 26 weeks (6 months). This benefit could be availed by women for a period extending up to a maximum of 8 weeks (and not 3 months) before the expected delivery date and the remaining time can be availed post childbirth.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Act makes crèche facility mandatory for every establishment employing 50 or more employees. Women employees would be permitted to visit the crèche 4 times during the day (including rest intervals)
  • Statement 3 is correct: For women who are expecting after having 2 children, the duration of paid maternity leave shall be only 12 weeks as against 26 weeks for first and second child.

97. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s “Ease of Doing Business Index”?
(a) Maintenance of law and order
(b) Paying taxes
(c) Registering property
(d) Dealing with construction permits
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Ease of Doing Business Index

  • The Ease of doing business index ranks countries against each other based on how the regulatory environment is conducive to business operation.
  • Of the options given, the option (a), i.e. ‘Maintenance of law and order’ is not a sub-index of the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ and hence, is the correct answer.
  • The sub-indexes of the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ are given in the following diagram:

98. In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
(b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

E-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011

  • The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change had notified the E-Waste Management Rules, 2016 in supersession of the e-waste (Management & Handling) Rules, 2011.
  • Announcing the notification of the rules, Minister of State (Independent Charge) of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Shri Prakash Javadekar, said that norms had been made more stringent and reflected the government’s commitment to environmental governance.
  • He pointed out that the E-waste rules will now include Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFL) and other mercury containing lamps, as well as other such equipment.
  • The Minister said that for the first time, the Rules will bring the producers under Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR), along with targets. He added that producers have been made responsible for collection of E-waste and for its exchange.

99. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
(a) Transportation cost only
(b) Interest cost only
(c) Procurement incidentals and distribution cost
(d) Procurement incidentals and charges for godowns
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Components of economic cost of food grains incurred by the Food Corporation of India

Source: iasscore.in

OPERATION GREENS

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OPERATION GREENS

Recently, a new Scheme “Operation Greens” was announced on the line of “Operation Flood”, with an outlay of Rs.500 crore to promote Farmer Producers Organizations (FPOs), agri-logistics, processing facilities and professional management. Accordingly, the Ministry has formulated a scheme for integrated development of ‘Tomato, Onion and Potato’ (TOP) value chain. 

Objectives:

  • Enhancing value realisation of TOP farmers by targeted interventions to strengthen TOP production clusters and their FPOs, and linking/connecting them with the market.
  • Price stabilisation for producers and consumers by proper production planning in the TOP clusters and introduction of dual use varieties.
  • Setting up of a market intelligence network to collect and collate real time data on demand and supply and price of TOP crops.

Strategies:

The scheme will have two-pronged strategy of Price stabilisation measures (for short term) and integrated value chain development projects (for long term). 

Citizenship Amendment Bill 2019

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Citizenship Amendment Bill 2019

  1. The Union Home Minister introduced the Citizenship Amendment Bill, 2019 in Lok Sabha.
  2. The Bill seeks to facilitate acquisition of citizenship by six identified minority communities namely: – Hindus, Sikhs, Jains, Buddhists, Christians and Parsis from Afghanistan, Pakistan and Bangladesh who came to India before 31st Dec, 2014.
  3. The Act is not confined to the State of Assam.
  4. The Bill will apply to all States and Union Territories of the country.
  5. The beneficiaries of Citizenship Amendment Bill can reside in any state of the country.
  6. The burden of these persecuted migrants will be shared by the whole country.
  7. The Act will provide relief to persecuted migrants who have come through western borders of the country to States like:- Gujarat, Rajasthan, Delhi, Madhya Pradesh and other States.
  8. The proposed amendment will make these persecuted migrants eligible to apply for citizenship
  9. Citizenship will be given to them only after due scrutiny and recommendation of district authorities and the State Government.
  10. The minimum residency period for citizenship is being reduced from existing 12 years under the present law to 7 years.

HIV/AIDS ACT

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HIV/AIDS ACT

  • The Human Immunodeficiency Virus and Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (Prevention and Control) Act, 2017, came into force on September 10, 2018. It aims to prevent and control the spread of HIV and AIDS in the country and provides for penalties for discrimination against those affected by the virus
  • The Act, safeguards the rights of people living with HIV and affected by HIV.
  • Grounds on which discrimination against HIV positive persons and those living with them is prohibited:-

These include the denial, termination, discontinuation or unfair treatment with regard to:-

 (i) Employment,

 (ii) Educational establishments,

(iii) Health care services,

 (iv) Residing or renting property,

(v) Standing for public or private office, and

(vi) Provision of insurance (unless based on actuarial studies).

The requirement for HIV testing as a pre-requisite for obtaining employment or accessing health care or education is also prohibited

Rights of a infected person as per the Act: –

  1. Every person below the age of 18 years has the right to reside in a shared household and enjoy the facilities of the household.
  2. Prohibits any individual from publishing information or advocating feelings of hatred against HIV positive persons and those living with them.
  3. Family or guardian of a person below the 18 years of age to be applicable in the matters relating to admission to educational establishments, operating bank accounts, managing property, care and treatment, amongst others.
ST Status to the Six Communities of the Assam. Government has given approval to grant ST status to six communities of Assam namely:- Tai Ahom, Koch Rajbongshi, Chutia, Tea Tribes, Moran and Matak. The Government also provides full safeguards to protect the interests, rights & privileges of existing Scheduled Tribes of Assam. A separate Bill will be brought to grant ST status to Bodo Kacharis in Hill districts of Assam and Karbis in the rest of Assam.
  • Every person in the care and custody of the state shall have right to HIV prevention, testing, treatment and counselling services.

Women’s Reservation Bill

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Women’s Reservation Bill

The Constitution (108th Amendment) Bill, commonly known as the Women’s Reservation Bill

  1. Aims for reserving 33% of the seats in the Lok Sabha and all state legislative assemblies for women.
  2. The Rajya Sabha had passed the bill on March 9, 2010, but it is still pending before the Lok Sabha.
  3. The Bill’s journey, however, began on September 12, 1996 – when it was introduced in the Lok Sabha by the United Front government of H.D. Deve Gowda.
  4. As per the draft, the seats were to be reserved for women on a rotation basis and would be determined by draw of lots, in such a way that a seat would be reserved only once in three consecutive general elections.
  5. Reservation of seats for women would cease to exist 15 years after the commencement of the amendment Act.
  6. Thereafter, the Bill lapsed and was reintroduced – in 1999, in 2002 and 2003.

Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan

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Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan

  1. Prime Minister launched a scheme called Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) that seeks to strengthen the country’s Panchayati Raj system and address critical gaps that hinder its success
  2. He launched the scheme at Ramnagar in tribal-dominated district of Madhya Pradesh on the occasion of National Panchayati Raj Day.
  3. The scheme aims at making rural local bodies self-sustainable, financially stable and more efficient. 
  4. It seeks to address critical gaps that hinder the success of Panchayats by enhancing their capacities and effectiveness, and promote devolution of powers and responsibilities. 
  5. This scheme will extend to all States and UTs of the country and will also include institutions of rural local government in non-Part IX areas, where Panchayats do not exist.
  6. The approved scheme of RGSA will help more than 2.55 lakh Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) to develop governance capabilities to deliver on SDGs through inclusive local governance with focus on optimum utilisation of available resources.

The key principles of SDGs are:-

  1. leaving no one behind,
  2. reaching the farthest first and universal coverage,
  3. along with gender equality will be embedded in the design of all capacity building interventions including trainings,
  4. Training modules and materials.
  5. Priority will be given to subjects of national importance that affects the excluded groups the most,
  6. poverty, primary health services, nutrition, immunization, sanitation, education, water conservation, digital transactions etc.
  7. Committee under the Chairmanship of the Vice Chairman-NITI Aayog is constituted to restructure the existing scheme as Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan.

Nari-Portal

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Nari-Portal

  • Union Minister for Women and Child Development launched a web portal, NARI (National Repository of Information for Women), which will provide information on all government schemes for women.
  • Users can log on to http://www.nari.nic.into access information on different programmes offered by various state governments as well as the Centre.
  • The NARI portal carries details on 350 different schemes for women.
  • The schemes are divided into seven different categories — education, health, employment, housing and shelter, addressing violence, decision making and social support.
  • In this Portal Website for NGOs called e-SAMVAD, an interactive portal allowing NGOs to contact the ministry and share their feedback, suggestions grievances and their best practices.
  • The move aims at improving security for women by providing them a tool to alert the local police.
  • NARI will provide information to women on issues affecting their lives. There are tips on good nutrition, suggestions for health check ups, information on major diseases, tips for job search and interview, investment and savings advice, information on crimes and against women and reporting procedures, contacts of legal aid cells, simplified adoption procedures and much more.
  • It will endow women with the power of information to build their life skills and facilitates them in taking full advantage of the services provided by the Government for them.

“Safe City Surveillance” Scheme

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“Safe City Surveillance” Scheme

  1. The Bihar government launched a “Safe City Surveillance” scheme.
  2. It aimed at putting a check on eve-teasing and other crimes against women at public places across the state.
  3. Under the scheme, CCTV cameras will be installed at public places.
  4. Patna will be the first district to be covered under this scheme.
  5. All major public places will be under the watch of CCTV cameras, which will be used for traffic management as well as crime control.
  6. Bihar home department will be the nodal agency for implementation of the surveillance scheme.
  7. The network of CCTV cameras will be connected to the control room where they will be monitored by policemen around the clock.
  8. The policemen in the control room will coordinate with their counterparts in field and police stations to alert them about any incidents in the area.

National Register of Citizens

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National Register of Citizens

  1. NRC was first conducted in 1951 to enumerate Indian citizens.
  2. In Assam specifically, there have been mass movements and violent agitations over the decades against infiltrators from Bangladesh and a demand to update the NRC.
  3. After a militant movement to protect Assam against Bangladesh infiltrators, the Assam Accord was signed in 1985 between the Government of India and All Assam Students Union (AASU), which led to an amendment in the Citizenship Act, 1955, to incorporate Section 6A specifically pertaining to Assam.
  4. Everyone who entered after March 25, 1971, is to be identified as foreigner by the Tribunals and deported.
  5. For inclusion in NRC, a unique legacy code is to be submitted in the form to establish parental linkage before March 25, 1971.
  6. Legacy documents include electoral rolls up to March 25, 1971, and the 1951 NRC which was digitised and each person allotted a unique legacy code.
  7. Apart from legacy documents, any of 12 other documents, including land and tenancy record, citizenship certificate, refugee registration certificate, passport
  8. From September 25, for a period of 60 days, 40.07 lakh people who do not figure in the final draft of NRC can file their claims and objections to be included in the final list of citizens for Assam.

Cauvery Water Dispute Verdict

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Cauvery Water Dispute Verdict

  • Supreme Court, pronounced the verdict on the appeals filed by Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala against the final award of the Cauvery Waters Tribunal in 2007 on the allocation of water to them.
  • The dispute dates back to the Madras-Mysore agreements of 1924. It was in 1990 when the Centre created a tribunal to examine the conflict and address the water shortage.

Key points of verdict:-

  • The Supreme Court increased Karnataka’s share of water.
  • The verdict has reduced Tamil Nadu’s allocation of the Cauvery water from the Billigundulu dam.
  • The Court has allowed Bengaluru to use the Cauvery water for drinking purposes.
  • There is no change in the water share of Kerala and Puducherry.

The Cauvery basin:-

  • The Cauvery River originates in Karnataka’s Kodagu district, flows into Tamil Nadu and reaches the Bay of Bengal at Poompuhar.
  • Parts of three Indian states – Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka – and the Union Territory of Pondicherry lie in the Cauvery basin.

Other Inter-State River Water Sharing Disputes:-

  • Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal -II between the states Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra.
  • Mahanadi Water Disputes Tribunal between the states Odisha and Chhattisgarh.
  • Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal between the states Goa, Karnataka and Maharashtra.
  • Ravi & Beas Water Tribunal between the states Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan.
  • Vansadhara Water Disputes Tribunal between the states Andhra Pradesh &Odisha.

Article 35A

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Article 35A

  1. Article 35A allows the Jammu and Kashmir legislature to define permanent residents of the state.
  2. It was inserted through the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954, which was issued by President under Article 370.
  3. Article 35A confers upon the government of Jammu and Kashmir the power to define permanent residents and give them special rights and privileges regarding
  4. employment,
  5. acquiring immovable property,
  6. Settlement in the state,
  7. Scholarships and other forms of aid in the state.

Petition Against Article35A:-

  1. It said Article 35 A is against the “very spirit of oneness of India” as it creates a “class within a class of Indian citizens”.
  2. It is restricting citizens from other States from getting employment or buying property within Jammu and Kashmir.
  3. Also it is a violation of fundamental rights under Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution.

Action on it:-

The court observes that the President may modify an existing provision in the Constitution under Article 370; the judgment is silent as to whether the President can, without the Parliament’s knowledge, introduce a new Article.

The court has indicated that the validity of Articles 35A and 370 may ultimately be decided by a five-judge Constitution Bench.

Umang-APP

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Umang-APP

  • UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance) is envisaged to make e-governance.
  • It is developed by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and National e-Governance Division (NeGD) to drive Mobile Governance in India.

Features of APP:-

  1. It provides a single platform for all Indian Citizens to access pan India e-Gov services ranging from Central to Local Government bodies and other citizen centric services.
  2. UMANG intends to provide major services offered by Central and State Government departments, Local bodies and other utility services from private organizations.
  3. It provides a unified approach where citizens can install one application to avail multiple government services.
  4. UMANG service has been made available on multiple channels like mobile application, web, IVR and SMS which can be accessed through smartphones, feature phones, tablets and desktops.