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1. Name the nuclear power plant which is often termed as the nuclear titanic?

a) Akademik Lomonosov

b) Chernobyl

c) Sverdlovsk Oblast

d) Zarechny

Answer: a only

Explanation: Akademik Lomonosov is to be the first of a fleet of floating nuclear power stations to be stationed in the Russian Arctic. Environmentalists have termed it as a nuclear titanic.

2. Vedanthangal sanctuary known as the oldest water bird sanctuary is located in which state?

a) Karnataka

b) Tamilnadu

c) Rajasthan

d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer: b only

Explanation: Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary is a 30-hectare (74-acre) protected area located in the Kanchipuram District of the state of Tamil Nadu.

3. Name the river/rivers which originate and ends inside the territory of India?

a) Indus

b) Ganga

c) Brahmaputra

d) Chambal

Answer: d only

Explanation: The perennial Chambal originates at janapav, south of Mhow town, near manpur Indore. The river finishes at a meeting point of five rivers, which include the Kwari, Chambal, Sind, Yamuna, and Pahuj at Pachnanda.

4. Name the finance minister, who has presented the first budget of Independent India?

a) Moraji Desai

b) RK Shanukham Chetty

c) LK Advani

d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: b only

Explanation: Shanmukham Chetty was the Finance Minister of India when the country’s first budget was tabled in Parliament on 26 November 1947.

5. With reference to the Special Economic Zone (SEZ), which of the following statements are correct?

a) It serves as a platform for economic growth offering by quality infrastructure.

b) SEZ tries to promote investment from domestic and foreign sources.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Special Economic Zone (SEZ) serves a foundation for economic growth and activity supported by quality infrastructure complemented by an attractive fiscal package, both at the Centre and the State level, with the minimum possible regulations.

6. Name the food items, which was decided as the base product for enhancing the production according to National Food Security Mission (NFSM)?

a) Wheat

b) Rice

c) Barley

d) Pulses

Answer: a, b and d

Explanation: National Food Security Mission (NFSM) is a Central Scheme of GOI launched in 2007 for 5 years to increase production and productivity of wheat, rice and pulses.

7. Which among the following statements are true, regarding NITI Aayog?

a) NITI Aayog is established to replace the planning commission.

b) It is an acronym for National Institution for Technology India

Answer: a only

Explanation: The NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India), is a policy think tank of the Government of India, established with the aim to achieve Sustainable Development Goals and to enhance cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach.

8. Which among the following statements is/are true regarding Imposition of President’s Rule (Article 356) in states?

a) Article 356 can be imposed when the State Legislature is unable to elect a leader as Chief Minister.

b) President’s rule can be revoked at any time by the President and does not need the Parliament’s approval.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: President’s rule is the suspension of state government and imposition of direct Central Government rule in a state. Under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, in the event that a state government is unable to function according to constitutional provisions, the Central government can take direct control of the state machinery.

9. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following are correct?

a) Distribution of net proceeds of taxes between Center and the States, to be divided as per their respective contributions to the taxes.

b) Any other matter related to it by the president in the interest of sound finance.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: It was formed to define the financial relations between the central government of India and the individual state governments. The Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951 additionally defines the terms of qualification, appointment and disqualification, the term, eligibility and powers of the Finance Commission.

10. The National Mission for Saffron has been launched as a sub scheme for which among the following initiatives?

a) Rural Health Mission

b) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana

c) National Cash Crop Programme

d) National Horticulture Mission

Answer: b only

Explanation: National Mission for Saffron is the third sub scheme of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana. It is an economic Revival of J&K Saffron Sector with allocation of Rs. 39.43 crore for current year.

11. Name the nuclear power plant which is often termed as the nuclear titanic?

a) Akademik Lomonosov

b) Chernobyl

c) Sverdlovsk Oblast

d) Zarechny

Answer: a only

Explanation: Akademik Lomonosov is to be the first of a fleet of floating nuclear power stations to be stationed in the Russian Arctic. Environmentalists have termed it as a nuclear titanic.

12. Vedanthangal sanctuary known as the oldest water bird sanctuary is located in which state?

a) Karnataka

b) Tamilnadu

c) Rajasthan

d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer: b only

Explanation: Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary is a 30-hectare (74-acre) protected area located in the Kanchipuram District of the state of Tamil Nadu.

13. Name the river/rivers which originate and ends inside the territory of India?

a) Indus

b) Ganga

c) Brahmaputra

d) Chambal

Answer: d only

Explanation: The perennial Chambal originates at janapav, south of Mhow town, near manpur Indore. The river finishes at a meeting point of five rivers, which include the Kwari, Chambal, Sind, Yamuna, and Pahuj at Pachnanda.

14. Name the finance minister, who has presented the first budget of Independent India?

a) Moraji Desai

b) RK Shanukham Chetty

c) LK Advani

d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: b only

Explanation: Shanmukham Chetty was the Finance Minister of India when the country’s first budget was tabled in Parliament on 26 November 1947.

15. With reference to the Special Economic Zone (SEZ), which of the following statements are correct?

a) It serves as a platform for economic growth offering by quality infrastructure.

b) SEZ tries to promote investment from domestic and foreign sources.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Special Economic Zone (SEZ) serves a foundation for economic growth and activity supported by quality infrastructure complemented by an attractive fiscal package, both at the Centre and the State level, with the minimum possible regulations.

16. Name the food items, which was decided as the base product for enhancing the production according to National Food Security Mission (NFSM)?

a) Wheat

b) Rice

c) Barley

d) Pulses

Answer: a, b and d

Explanation: National Food Security Mission (NFSM) is a Central Scheme of GOI launched in 2007 for 5 years to increase production and productivity of wheat, rice and pulses.

17. Which among the following statements are true, regarding NITI Aayog?

a) NITI Aayog is established to replace the planning commission.

b) It is an acronym for National Institution for Technology India

Answer: a only

Explanation: The NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India), is a policy think tank of the Government of India, established with the aim to achieve Sustainable Development Goals and to enhance cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach.

18. Which among the following statements is/are true regarding Imposition of President’s Rule (Article 356) in states?

a) Article 356 can be imposed when the State Legislature is unable to elect a leader as Chief Minister.

b) President’s rule can be revoked at any time by the President and does not need the Parliament’s approval.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: President’s rule is the suspension of state government and imposition of direct Central Government rule in a state. Under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, in the event that a state government is unable to function according to constitutional provisions, the Central government can take direct control of the state machinery.

19. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following are correct?

a) Distribution of net proceeds of taxes between Center and the States, to be divided as per their respective contributions to the taxes.

b) Any other matter related to it by the president in the interest of sound finance.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: It was formed to define the financial relations between the central government of India and the individual state governments. The Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951 additionally defines the terms of qualification, appointment and disqualification, the term, eligibility and powers of the Finance Commission.

20. The National Mission for Saffron has been launched as a sub scheme for which among the following initiatives?

a) Rural Health Mission

b) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana

c) National Cash Crop Programme

d) National Horticulture Mission

Answer: b only

Explanation: National Mission for Saffron is the third sub scheme of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana. It is an economic Revival of J&K Saffron Sector with allocation of Rs. 39.43 crore for current year.

21. With reference to the internationally renowned indoor arena ‘Madison Square Garden’, name the first Indian wrestler to participate in the game?

a) Virender Singh

b) Bajrang Punia

c) Ravi Kumar

d) Vinesh Phogat

Answer: b only

Explanation: Asian champion Punia will be the first Indian wrestler to fight at the iconic venue ‘Madison Square Garden’ New York.

22. With reference to the development of OCR system for reading Bharti Script, name the branch of IIT which developed it?

a) IIT Kharagpur

b) IIT Madras

c) IIT Kanpur

d) IIT Bombay 

Answer: b only

Explanation: IIT Madras has developed easy multi-lingual optical character recognition (OCR) schemes for reading documents in Bharati Script.

23. Name the newly launched initiative which is associated with elimination of Malaria from India by 2030?

a) MALARIA India

b) MERA India

c) ELIMINATE India

d) DEL India

Answer: b only

Explanation: ICMR launches ‘MERA India’ to eliminate malaria from India by 2030.

24. Name the two countries which have recently decided to set up a Joint Border Reaction Force (JBRF)?

a) India

b) China

c) Pakistan

d) Iran

Answer: c and d only

Explanation: Iran’s President Hassan Rouhani has announced that Iran and Pakistan has agreed to set up a joint border reaction force to counter terrorism.

25. Name the country which is planning to move its capital away to ensure more equitable development?

a) Iran

b) China

c) South Africa

d) Indonesia

Answer: d only

Explanation: Indonesia, the world’s fourth most populous country, has decided to move its capital away from Jakarta.

26. With reference to monetary policy of RBI, which of the statements are correct?

a) It is aimed at managing the quantity of money to meet the requirements of different sectors of the Economy.

b) Monetary policy is different from fiscal policy.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Monetary policy consists of the process of drafting, announcing and implementing the plan of actions taken by the central bank, currency board or other competent regulatory authority of a country that determines the scope and impact of the key drivers of the economic activity in that country.

27. With reference to the term, Systemically Important Banks, which of the banks are identified in such terms?

a) SBI

b) ICICI

c) HDFC

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has named State Bank of India (SBI), ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs).

28. With reference to the National Voluntary Guidelines on social, environmental and economic responsibilities, released by Union Ministry of Corporate Affairs, which of the following are correct?

a) Businesses should provide goods and services in a manner that is sustainable and safe.

b) Businesses should respect the interests of and be responsive to all their stakeholders.

c) Businesses should respect and promote human rights.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The Union Ministry of Corporate Affairs has released the National Guidelines on responsible business conduct and revised the National Voluntary Guidelines on social, environmental and economic responsibilities of business, 2011. These guidelines on responsible business conduct aim to urge businesses to actualise the following principles in letter and spirit.

29. Which of the following is part of Gross Development Product of a country?

a) Monetary value of all the finished goods.

b) Monetary value of all the services.

c) Value of all the finished goods and services.

d) Value of all the finished goods, services and NRI Deposits.

Answer: a, b and c only

Explanation: Gross domestic product (GDP) is the monetary value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country’s borders in a specific time period.

30. With reference to the Green Field Investments, which of the following are correct?

a) It is a type of foreign direct investment.

b) It refers to a project where a company builds operations in a foreign market starting from scratch.

c) It also gets leasing existing facilities and land results in relatively lower expenses.

Answer: a and b only

Explanation: It refers to a project where a company builds operations in a foreign market starting from scratch, or a so-called green field. These projects are foreign direct investments that provide the highest degree of control for the sponsoring company when compared to other methods of FDI, such as foreign acquisitions or buying controlling stakes in a foreign company.

31. Name the two countries whose bilateral naval exercise is called Varuna?

a) India

b) France

c) Japan

A) b & c

B) a & c

C) a & b

D) None of the above

32. Which of the following has entered a strategic partnership with GE Healthcare with the objective to bring digital healthcare solutions to the market?

a) NASSCOM

b) WIPRO

c) INFOSYS

d) RELIANCE

A) a only

B) b only

C) c only

D) d only

33. Which of the following has signed a contract with defence ministry to build eight anti-submarine warfare shallow water crafts (ASWSWCs) for Indian Navy at the cost of Rs 6311.30 crore?

a) Reliance

b) GRSE

c) BHEL

d) Adani

A) a only

B) b only

C) c only

D) d only

34. Which of the following recently signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with Water & Power Consultancy Services (WAPCOS) Limited with the objective to jointly recognize suitable future projects and carry out geo-technical investigation and engineering consultancy in the fields like water resources, power and infrastructure, port and harbour dredging?

a) BHEL

b) Reliance

c) Adani

d) DCIL

A) a only

B) b only

C) c only

D) d only

35. Who among the following are the 6 recipients of the 2019 world’s eminent award for grassroots environmental activists the Goldman Environmental Prize?

a) Bayarjargal Agvaantseren

b) Alfred Brownell

c) Ana Colovic Lesoska

d) Alberto Curamil

A) a only

B) b only

C) both a & b

D) All the above

36. Who among the following recently became the first Japanese monarch to abdicate in 200 years?

a) Emporer Naruhito

b) Emperor Itoku

c) Emperor Akihito

d) Emperor Renzu

A) a only

B) b only

C) c only

D) None of the above

37. Which of the following recently collaborated with BGI-Shenzhen, China by sequencing 429 chickpea lines from 45 nations to identify genes that are resistant to various extreme factors?

a) ICRISAT

b) SKAUST

c) MAMRI

d) HPMRI

A) a only

B) b only

C) c only

D) d only

38. Name the mysterious animal whose footprints measuring 32×15 inches (81 centimeters by 38 centimeters) was recently found by Indian Army close to Makalu Base Camp,located in North-Eastern Himalayas on 09 April 2019?

a) Polar Bear

b) Yeti

c) Dinosaur

d) Snow Ape

A) a only

B) b only

C) c only

D) d only

39. Which day is celebrated every year as International Labour Day or Workers day?

a) 1st May

b) 2nd May

c) 3rd May

d) 4th May

A) a only

B) b only

C) c only

D) d only

40. Which of the following states celebrated its Foundation Day on 1st May?

a) Maharashtra

b) West Bengal

c) Gujarat

d) Punjab

A) a & b only

B) b & c only

C) a & c only

D) a & d only

41.Which of the following have together signed an MoU Memorandum of Understanding for effective cooperation on different projects related to e-mobility and implement solutions for electric & trolley bus, EV Electric Vehicles chargers, battery and charger testing, etc?

a) BHEL

b) ARAI

c) TISCO

d) MARUTI

Answer: a & b

Explanation: BHEL & ARAI Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited BHEL and Automotive Research Association of India ARAI have together signed an MoU Memorandum of Understanding for effective cooperation on different projects related to e-mobility and implement solutions for electric & trolley bus, EV Electric Vehicles chargers, battery and charger testing, etc. The term electro mobility refers to full and hybrid electric vehicles as well as that using hydrogen fuel cell technology. These vehicles represent electronically driven vehicles in the future.

42. Who among the following has been named as the first non-British president of Marylebone Cricket Club MCC?

a) Kumar Sangakkara

b) Sunil Gavaskar

c) Dilip Vengsarkar

d) Steve Waugh

Answer: a only

Explanation: Kumar Sangakkara, former Sri Lanka captain has been named as the first non-British president of Marylebone Cricket Club MCC. He succeeds Anthony Wire ford. It was announced at the MCC annual general meeting at Lords on 1 May 2019. He will take up his one-year post in October. Sangakkara, 41-year-old, scored 12,400 runs in 134 tests, appears twice on the honours boards at Lords. MCC is the guardian of the Laws of the game and it was founded in 1787 and has been based at Lords, which it owns, since 1814. His responsibilities would involve the launch of The Hundred the England and Wales Cricket Boards new 100-ball cricket format and two England test matches against West Indies and Pakistan.

43. Who among the following has been appointed as the first Independent Woman Director to Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) board?

a) Shella Kanan

b) Meghna Rai

c) M Jayshree Vyas

d) Kusum Choudhary

Answer: c only

Explanation: M Jayshree Vyas has been appointed as the first Independent Woman Director to Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) board. Earlier, M Jayshree Vyas worked as the managing director of Shree Mahila Sewa Sahakari Bank, Ahmedabad since 1986. She had also helped in launching the first financial literacy program in Sewa bank in 2001.

44. Which of the following became the 1st operator to start optical fiber-based high-speed broadband service in Pulwama, J&K with the launch of Bharat Fibre?

a) Airtel

b) Vodafone

c) Reliance Jio

d) BSNL

Answer: d only

Explanation: BSNL Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited became the 1st operator to start optical fiber-based high-speed broadband service in Pulwama with the launch of Bharat Fibre. The Bharat Fibre services with reliable and high-speed internet are provided on the optical fibre by FTTH fibre-to-the-home service up to the customer premises. The Bharat Fibre service has been launched on a revenue sharing basis in a business collaborative model with the local channel partner of Pulwama area. The equipment of FTTH has been installed and commissioned by the channel partner whereas the customer billing services are being provided by BSNL.

45. Name the states from where Indian archaeologists recently unearthed a life-sized stucco sculpture from a Buddhist site at Phanigiri in Suryapet?

a) Andhra Pradesh

b) Telangana

c) Kerala

d) Bihar

Answer: b only

Explanation: Telangana is the state from where Indian archaeologists recently unearthed a life-sized stucco sculpture from a Buddhist site at Phanigiri in Suryapet. As per heritage department officials, it represents one of Bhodhisattva in Jathaka Chakra.This is the largest stucco sculpture found from India till date. The sculpture is about 1.73 metres in height and 35 cm in width. It is considered to have been built at at peak of Ikshavaku dynasty. The preliminary excavation at Phanigiri was started by archaeological department official Khaja Muhammad Ahmad in 1941.

46. Who among the following became the world number one in Womens 10m Air Rifle category with 1,926 rating points according to the latest rankings released by International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF)?

a) Anjum Moudgil

b) Apurvi Chandela

c) Anjana Singh

d) Poonam Rawat

Answer: b only

Explanation: Apurvi Chandela became the world number one in Womens 10m Air Rifle category with 1,926 rating points according to the latest rankings released by International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF). The 26-year old Apurvi Chandela is among the five Indian shooters who have earned the Olympic quota for the Tokyo 2020. In early this year, Chandela had broken the world record after winning India’s first gold medal at the ISSF World Cup 2019 held in New Delhi. She had shot 252.9 in 10m women Air Rifle final to bag gold medal at Dr. Karni Singh Shooting Range in New Delhi. After Chandela, Anjum Moudgil is World No. 2 on ISSF rankings with 1695 rating points in the 10m Air Rifle category after she won mixed gold at the ISSF World Cup in Beijing.

47. Which of the following is celebrated every year as World Password Day?

a) 1st Thursday of May

b) 2nd Thursday of May

c) 3rd Thursday of May

d) 4th Thursday of May

Answer: a only

Explanation: 1st Thursday of May is celebrated every year as World Password Day. The Registrar of National Day Calendar has designated the first Thursday of the month of May of each year as World Password Day. This day is celebrated to promote better password habits for digital protection for online shopping, dating, banking, social media, private work, and life communications. For the very first time, security researcher, Mark Burnett encouraged people to have a password day, where they updated important passwords in his 2005 book Perfect Passwords. Inspired by his idea, Intel Security took the initiative to declare the first Thursday of May every year as World Password Day. The declaration was done in May 2013.

48. Which day was recently celebrated as World Tuna Day to highlight the importance of tuna fish and to promote more sustainable fishing practices which will help in achieving the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development?

a) 1st May

b) 2nd May

c) 3rd May

d) 4th May

Answer: b only

Explanation: 2nd May was recently celebrated as World Tuna Day to highlight the importance of tuna fish and to promote more sustainable fishing practices which will help in achieving the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. In December 2016, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) officially recognized May 2 as a World Tuna Day in its resolution 71/124. After the resolution has passed, the day was first observed on May 2, 2017. Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) in its latest report in 2018 titled, The State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture: Meeting the Sustainable Development Goals highlights the tuna fish role in achieving the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) 14 which talks about conservation and sustainable use of oceans, seas and marine resources for sustainable development. Tuna is also more important for food security and nutrition. It is a high source of Selenium, Vitamin B3 (niacin), Vitamin B12, Vitamin B6 and protein and also provides Vitamin D and Phosphorus.

49. Name the city where an all-women police patrol unit named Rani Abakan Force was launched to handle issues pertaining to Women and Children?

a) Bengaluru

b) Kolkata

c) Mangalore

d) Chennai

Answer: c only

Explanation: Mangalore is the city where an all-women police patrol unit named Rani Abakan Force was launched to handle issues pertaining to Women and Children. On 30th April 2019, Mangaluru Police Commissioner Sandeep Patil flagged off the all-women police patrol unit named after the 16th-century warrior of coastal Karnataka, Queen Abakan of Ulla near Mangaluru, who fought the Portuguese in the 16th century. Total 50 women policewomen have been allotted in Rani Abakan Force and each patrol team has five policewomen.

50. How many cities have been selected by MoEFCC with the objective of improving environment by reducing PM particulate matter concentration?

a) 99

b) 100

c) 101

d) 102

Answer: d only

Explanation: 102 cities have been selected by MoEFCC with the objective of improving environment by reducing PM (particulate matter) concentration. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change MoEFCC recently constituted a committee to implement the National Clean Air Program NCAP. The objective is to reduce the PM particulate matter 2.5 and PM 10 concentration by 20% to 30% in at least 102 cities by 2024. The committee will be headed by the Secretary, Union Environment Ministry. The headquarters of the committee will be in New Delhi. The other members of the committee will be Joint Secretary (Thermal), Ministry of Power; Director General, The Energy Resources Institute (TERI) and Professor Sachidananda Tripathi, IIT Kanpur. The 102 cities, across 23 states and Union Territories will be identified by the Central Pollution Control Board (CBCB). The selection criteria will be based on their ambit air quality data between 2011 and 2015. The NCAP is envisioned as a five-year action plan with 2019 as the first year. There would be a review every five years.

51. Which of the following has/have collaborated with CSC (Common Services Centre) e-Governance Services India Limited to upscale ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’?

a) IIT Kanpur

b) IIT Chennai

c) IIT Kharagpur

Answer: a only

Explanation: IIT Kanpur has collaborated with CSC (Common Services Centre) e-Governance Services India Limited to upscale ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’. CSC is a Special Purpose Vehicle under the Ministry of Electronics & IT. ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’ is the programme of the HRD (Human Resource Development) Ministry which is working towards achieving solutions for increasing sustainable growth in rural India. The collaboration of IIT-Kanpur with the leading institutions with CSCs would strengthen the government’s vision of Digital India.

52. Which of the following launched 5$ billion Action Plan for Healthy Oceans and Sustainable Blue Economies for the Asia and Pacific region?

a) World Bank

b) ADB

c) European Union

d) None of the above

Answer: b only

Explanation: Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched 5$ billion Action Plan for Healthy Oceans and Sustainable Blue Economies for the Asia and Pacific region. This will support ADB’s developing member countries’ efforts for achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), inclusive of the SDG 14: Life below Water. The Healthy Oceans Action Plan was launched at the 52nd Annual Meeting of ADB’s Board of Governors, Fiji. Healthy Oceans Action Plan will expand financing and technical assistance for ocean health and marine economy projects to $5 billion from year 2019 to 2024.

53. Which of the following are some of the relaxation recommended by DPIIT (The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade) in order to facilitate fund raising by start-ups?

a) Reduce shareholding requirements of founders from 50% to 20%

b) Reduce shareholding requirements of founders from 40% to 20%

c) Reduce compulsory tenure from 5 years to 3 years

Answer: a and c only

Explanation: Reduce shareholding requirements of founders from 50% to 20%, Reduce compulsory tenure from 5 years to 3 years are some of the relaxation recommended by DPIIT(The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade) in order to facilitate fund raising by start-ups. The relaxation laws are part of the ‘Startup India Vision 2024’ that’s been prepared by the DPIIT. The DPIIT also recommended amendments in Section 54GB of the Income Tax Act, that is, capital gain on transfer of residential property not to be charged in certain cases and Section 79 that states, carry forward and set off of losses would be done for specific companies.

54. Which of the following was recently awarded 27th P.C. Chandra Puraskar, the annual national award from the P.C. Chandra Group at Biswa Bangla Convention Centre?

a) Dr. Ranga Rajan

b) Dr. Devi Prasad Shetty

c) Dr. Nirmal Khatri

d) None of the above

Answer: b only

Explanation: Dr. Devi Prasad Shetty, India’s most reputed cardiac surgeon and humanitarian, was recently awarded 27th P.C. Chandra Puraskar, the annual national award from the P.C. Chandra Group at Biswa Bangla Convention Centre. He is also known as ‘The Man with Divine Hands’. In 2003, he has won Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan for medicine in 2013.

55. Which of the following e-commerce platform recently appointed Virat Kohli and Anushka Sharma as its first ever official brand ambassadors?

a) Flipkart

b) Amazon

c) Myntra

d) Reify

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Myntra, the Flipkart-owned fashion e-commerce platform recently appointed Virat Kohli and Anushka Sharma as its first ever official brand ambassadors. Myntra has launched an integrated campaign called ‘Go Myntra-la-la’ to promote the brand. Advertising agency McCann World group from Bengaluru has created the television campaign.

56. Name the country where a start-up Interstellar Technology Inc. has successfully launched a first privately developed rocket ‘Momo-3’ into space?

a) Japan

b) China

c) Germany

d) France

Answer: a only

Explanation: Japan is the country where a start-up Interstellar Technology Inc. has successfully launched a first privately developed rocket ‘Momo-3’ into space. The unmanned rocket was launched from its test site in Taiki on the northern Japanese island of Hokkaido and it reached about 110 km in altitude before falling into the Pacific Ocean after 10 minutes of flight time. The rocket is 10 meters in length, 50 centimeters in diameter and weighs about 1 ton. ‘Momo-3’ rocket has the capability of putting payloads into the orbit.

57. Which of the following has recently co-authored his autobiography titled, ‘Game Changer’?

a) Sunil Gavaskar

b) Shahid Afridi

c) Steve Waugh

d) Dilip Vengsarkar

Answer: b only

Explanation: Shahid Afridi, former captain of Pakistan has recently co-authored his autobiography titled, ‘Game Changer’ with journalist Wajahat S Khan. The book has been published by Harper Collin’s India. Afridi is popularly known as ‘Boom Boom’ and holds the world record for the fastest ODI (One Day International) century in 37 deliveries. He also holds the distinction of having hit the most number of sixes in the history of ODI cricket.

58. Which of the following day of May every year is celebrated as World Laughter Day?

a) 1st Sunday

b) 2nd Sunday

c) 3rd Sunday

d) 4th Sunday

Answer: a only

Explanation: 1st Sunday of May every year is celebrated as World Laughter Day. The day was first celebrated on May 10, 1998, in Mumbai and arranged by Dr. Madan Kataria, founder of the worldwide Laughter Yoga Movement. The purpose is to raise awareness about laughter and its many healing benefits. The Laughter Yoga Movement started by Dr. Kataria was a part of the facial feedback hypothesis which postulates that facial expression of a person can have an effect on their emotions. The popularity of this movement has grown exponentially and till now over 6000 laughter Clubs opened worldwide. The first World Laughter day named HAPPY-DEMIC took place outside India on January 9, 2000 in Copenhagen, Denmark.

59. Name the place where the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Defence Ministers’ Meet was organised recently?

a) Kazan

b) Chengdu

c) Bishkek

d) Nanjing

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Bishkek in Kyrgyzstan is the place where the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Defence Ministers’ Meet was organised recently. Nirmala Sitharaman, the current Defence Minister of India held a bilateral meeting with General Wei Fenghe, Honourable Defence Minister of China, in which they discussed regional and bilateral security issues.

60. Which of the following has launched a new initiative named Global Registry of Violent Deaths (GReVD) to establish the annual number of violent deaths worldwide?

a) SIFRI

b) SIPRI

c) CIPRI

d) CIFRI

Answer: b only

Explanation: SIPRI which stands for Stockholm International peace research institute has launched a new initiative named Global Registry of Violent Deaths (GReVD) to establish the annual number of violent deaths worldwide. GReVD will count deaths caused by all forms of violence and display these in an open-source database and enable monitoring of progress on the world’s commitment to ‘significantly reduce all forms of violence and related death rates everywhere’ by 2030 as set out in the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)—Goal 16.

Source: Civilservicesindia+The Hindu+PIB

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Q.1) “Forty plus Nine (40+9)” Recommendations is concerned with which of the following institutions/organisations?

a) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)

b) Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

c) Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)

d) Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)

Solution (b)

Q.2) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit

Matritva Abhiyan’

1. It provides subsidised and quality antenatal care to women belonging to Below Poverty Line (BPL) families

2. It is under the aegis of the Ministry of Women and Child Development

3. It aims to reach out to pregnant women who are in the 2nd & 3rd Trimesters of pregnancy

Select the correct statements

a) 1 and 3

b) 1 and 2

c) 3 Only

d) 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.3) considers the following statements with respect to ‘Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR)’ and identifies the correct ones:

1. It is a measure of a bank’s financial strength expressed as a ratio of capital to risk weighted assets.

2. Under Basel III norms, the minimum capital adequacy ratio that banks must maintain is 8%.

Select the correct code:

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.4) which of the following statements is the most appropriate with respect to ‘Feed-in tariff’?

a) It allows consumers who generate some or all of their own electricity to use that electricity anytime, instead of when it is generated.

b) It is a trade barrier erected for the purpose of reducing pollution and improving the environment

c) It is a tax levied on activities which are considered to be harmful to the environment and is intended to promote environmentally friendly activities via economic incentives

d) It is an economic policy created to promote active investment in and production of renewable energy sources

Solution (d)

Q.5) ‘Operation NISTAR’ was a Humanitarian and Disaster Relief Operation (HADR) conducted by India in which of the following countries?

a) Yemen

b) Djibouti

c) Maldives

d) Indonesia

Solution (a)

It was conducted to rescue Indian Nationals off Socotra Islands (Yemen) after the island was struck with a severe Cyclonic Storm – Mekunu.

Q.6) which of the following are correctly matched?

1. National Disaster Risk Index – UNISDR

2. Transformation Index – World Bank

3. Project Half-Earth – UNEP

4. REPLACE Programme – WHO

Select the correct code:

a) 1 and 4

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 2

d) 4 only

Solution (d)

Q.7) Following islands were recently in news.

1. Socotra Island – Arabian Sea

2. Solomon Island – South Pacific Ocean

3. Guam Island – Western Pacific Ocean

4. Sabang Island – Andaman Sea

5. Easter Island – Atlantic Ocean

Which of them is/are correctly matched?

a) 1, 3, 4 and 5

b) 1, 2, 4 and 5

c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 Solution (c)

Q.8) Which of the following experiments/detectors are related to study of ‘Neutrino’?

1. XENON

2. IceCube

3. MINOS

4. KATRIN

Select the correct code:

a) 1 and 3

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1, 2 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (b)

Q.9) ‘Joint Appeal to Youth’ recently in news is related to:

a) BRICS

b) SCO

c) UN

d) ASEAN

Solution (b)

Q.10) The Energy Progress Report provides a global dashboard on progress towards Sustainable Development Goal (SDG). The report targets which SDG and is a joint effort of:

a) SDG7 and International Energy Agency (IEA), the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD), the World Bank, and the World Health Organization (WHO)

b) SDG4 and International Energy Agency (IEA), the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), Environment Programme (UNEP), the World Bank, and the World Health Organization (WHO)

c) SDG6 and International Energy Agency (IEA), the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD), the World Bank, and the World Health Organization (WHO)

d) SDG7 and International Energy Agency (IEA), the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), the World Bank and the World Health Organization (WHO)

Solution (a)

Q.11) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)’

1. The equity of a regional rural bank is held by the concerned State Government and the Sponsor Bank in the proportion of 50:50.

2. They were set up under the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976.

3. They have to maintain the minimum prescribed Capital to Risk weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) of 15%.

Select the correct statements

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 Only

c) 1 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.12) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Central Adoption Resource

Authority (CARA)’

1. It is a statutory body of Ministry of Women & Child Development

2. It was set up under the POCSO Act

3. It has barred partners in live-in relationships from adopting a child

Select the correct statements

a) 1 Only

b) 1 and 2

c) 1 and 3

d) None of the above

Solution (a)

Q.13) which of the following is/are correctly matched?

1. Kanjirankulam Bird Sanctuary – Tamil Nadu

2. Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary – Kerala

3. Chitrangudi Bird Sanctuary – Karnataka

Select the correct code:

a) 1 Only

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.14) ‘Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS)’ is often seen in news. It is associated with which of the following organisations?

a) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)

b) Middle East Security Alliance (MESA)

c) North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)

d) BRICS

Solution (a)

Q.15) ‘Helsinki Accords’ is associated with

a) Generalised System of Preferences (GSP)

b) Antarctic Treaty System

c) Non-Proliferation Treaty

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.16) If you have to reach Russia from India through land, the minimum countries land boundaries that must be crossed is?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

Solution (a)

Q.17) ‘Billion Tree Tsunami’, (BTT) a provincial government programme that has seen a total of 300 million trees of 42 different species planted across the province. BTT is associated with which province?

a) Bali Province, Indonesia

b) Chongqing Province, China

c) Philippines Province

d) Khyber Pakhtunkhwa Province, Pakistan

Solution (d)

Q.18) Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) brands the monsoon as ‘normal’ or ‘deficient’ based on how it fares against its benchmark Long Period Average (LPA). Select the statement that closely defines LPA:

a) LPA is the average rainfall received by the country as a whole during the south-west monsoon, for a 50-year period.

b) LPA is the average rainfall received by the country as a whole during the north-west monsoon, for a 60-year period.

c) LPA is the average rainfall received by the country as a whole during the south-west monsoon, for a 100-year period.

d) LPA is the average rainfall received by the country as a whole during the south-west monsoon, for a 10-year period.

Solution (a)

Q.19) Select the correct statement with reference to ‘GROWTH-India’ recently in new:

a) The telescope located at the Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO) at Hanle in Ladakh, designed to observe dynamic or transient events in the universe.

b) A joint initiative of World Bank and Union Finance Ministry on measures to accelerate GDP.

c) A medical device designed by IIT Madras students for disabled children.

d) It is a flagship initiative of NITI AAYOG for bridging the gaps between Center and State government fiscal health.

Solution (a)

Q.20) Recently India lauded the ‘Third Neighbor Policy’ of one of its partner countries in

Asia. Which of the following pursue the ‘Third Neighbor Policy’?

a) Myanmar

b) Mongolia

c) Vietnam

d) Philippines

Solution (b)

Q.21) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’

1. They are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

2. All kinds of human activities are prohibited in the Eco-Sensitive Zones

3. Eco-Sensitive Zones can be notified only near National Parks

Select the correct statements

a) 1 Only

b) 1 and 2

c) 1 and 3

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.22) considers the following statements with respect to ‘Atal Bhujal Yojana (ABHY)’ and identifies the correct ones.

1. It deals with the matters related to Urban Water Supply and Sanitation including Solid Waste Management

2. It aims to improve ground water management in priority areas in the country through community participation

3. It is being implemented by the Central Public Health and Environmental Engineering

Organisation (CPHEEO)

Select the correct statements

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 Only

c) 2 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.23) ‘Lithium-ion batteries’ can be used in which of the following?

1. Mobile Phones

2. Electric and Hybrid Vehicles

3. Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)

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24

Select the correct code:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.24) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Islands Development Agency

(IDA)’

1. It is chaired by the Prime Minster of India

2. It aims to develop a military and naval base at the Andaman and Lakshadweep

Islands

3. It was set up in 2017

Select the correct statements

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 3 Only

d) 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.25) which of the following statements with respect to ‘Gram Swaraj Abhiyan’ is/are correct?

1. It releases the bonded labourers from their bondage and rehabilitates them

2. It rehabilitates the homeless and destitute persons and provides them with suitable sources of livelihood

Select the correct statements

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (d)

Q.26) ‘Cyclone Sagar and Mekunu’ recently in news are associated with:

a) Southern Pacific Ocean

b) Atlantic Ocean

c) Indian Ocean

d) Western Pacific Ocean

Solution (c)

Q.27) The term ‘HiLumi’ recently in news is associated with:

a) High intensity laser beam technology

b) Helium exploration on the Moon

c) An upgrade of Large Hadron Collider at CERN

d) An artificial intelligence based telescope

Solution (c)

Q.28) ‘International Conference on Water for Sustainable Development’ was held in Tajikistan. Consider the following statements in this regard:

1. The United Nations General Assembly has proclaimed the decade 2020-2030 as the

International Decade for Action ‘Water for Sustainable Development’

2. Sustainable development and integrated water resources management has been kept under Sustainable Development Goal, SDG-6.

3. World Water Day is observed on 22 March every year.

Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.29) Consider the following statements regarding the recently launched National Digital

Library (NDL) of India:

1. NDL is the Single Window Secret Platform that collects and collates metadata from premier learning institutions in India

2. It is not open to foreign institutions

3. It is a project of the Ministry of Human Resource Development under the aegis of

National Mission on Education through Information and Communication Technology

(NMEICT)

Identify the correct statement/s and mark the appropriate code

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) 3 only

Solution (d)

Q.30) Consider the following statements about ‘Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) and ‘Nuclear DNA’:

1. While nuclear DNA is circular in shape, mtDNA is linear.

2. MtDNA is inherited from both father and mother while nuclear NDA is solely from mother.

3. Nuclear DNA consists of 46 chromosomes while mitochondrial DNA consists of only one chromosome.

Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Solution (b)

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Q.1) NASA’s spacecraft OSIRIS – Rex has recently arrived at its destination. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding it?

1. The mission will land at near earth orbit asteroid, Bennu and will bring a rock sample on earth.

2. The aim of the mission is to discover formation of water and organic molecules on mars.

3. This will be the world’s first space asteroid sampling.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.2) ISRO’s launch vehicle PSLV – C43 has successfully launched satellite HysIS. Which of the following statements are correct regarding HysIS?

a) It is an observation satellite to study the earth’s surface in the visible, near infrared and short-wave infrared regions.

b) It is a communication satellite that will be helpful in providing DTH connection across

India.

c) It is a surveillance satellite launched for Indian army to keep a check at Indo – Pak and Indo – China border.

d) It is a meteorological satellite launched for IMD for exact weather predictions in India.

Solution (a)

Q.3) Recently NASA retired its Kepler space telescope as it ran out of fuel. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the mission?

1. It was NASA’s first planet-hunting mission.

2. It used transit photometry detection method for searching for exoplanet.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding the Gaganyaan Mission:

1. ISRO is setting up a third launch pad at Kalam Island for this mission.

2. It will be India’s first manned space mission.

3. India is planning to send three humans in space in low earth orbit through this mission.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

Q.5) ISRO has launched two observation satellites NovaSAR and S1 – 4 from Satish Dhawan center. Which of the following statements are correct regarding NovaSAR?

1. It has been launched in Sun synchronous Pole to pole project.

2. It is French satellite commercially launched by ISRO.

3. NovaSAR is a S-Band Synthetic Aperture Radar satellite intended for forest mapping, land use and ice cover monitoring, flood and disaster monitoring.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (c)

Q.6) Japanese researchers are going to conduct world’s first experiment to test small prototype of space elevator. Which of the following statements regarding space elevator are correct?

1. It is a proposed planet to space transportation system.

2. An Earth-based space elevator would consist of a cable with one end attached to the surface near the equator and the other end in space beyond geostationary orbit.

3. Gravity and centrifugal force keeps the cable under tension, and stationary over a single position on Earth.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.7) Consider the following statements regarding Gaofen 11:

1. It is part of China High-resolution Earth Observation System (CHEOS).

2. It is a sub-meter resolution optical satellite, used for surveying.

3. It will be used for land surveys, urban planning, and road network design and agriculture and disaster relief.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.8) ISRO has successfully conducted ground test of its high thrust version of Vikas Engine.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Vikas Engine?

1. It is a solid propulsion engine carrying solid fuel and oxidizer.

2. It is a workhorse engine of PSLV but hasn’t been used in any stage of GSLV.

3. High thrust version of Vikas engine will increase the payload capability of PSLV, GSLV and GSLV Mk III.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

Q.9) Remove DEBRIS is a satellite research project intending to demonstrate various space debris removal technologies. Rather than engaging in active debris removal (ADR) of real space debris, the Remove DEBRIS mission plan is to test the efficacy of several ADR technologies on mock targets in low Earth orbit through some experiments. Which of the following experiment is not a part of mission?

a) Net Experiment

b) Vision based Navigation

c) Harpoon and Deployable target

d) Laser HIT and disintegration Experiment

Solution (d)

Q.10) NASA has launched InSight Mission as robotic lander on Mars. The aim of the mission is to

a) Study the atmosphere of Mars

b) Study the topography of Mars

c) Study the interior of Mars

d) Study the evidence of life and water on mars

Solution (c)

Q.11) Chandrayaan 2 is totally indigenous project of ISRO. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Chandrayaan 2?

1. It is a lunar mission consisting of an Orbiter, Lander and Rover.

2. The mission will carry a six-wheeled Rover which will move around the landing site in semi-autonomous mode as decided by the ground commands.

3. If successful, it will be ISRO’s first mission to land rover on any celestial body.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.12) Spacecraft cemetery/graveyard is the location used for crash landing of defunct spacecrafts. It is considered to be the most remote part of the earth and lies in Southern Pacific ocean. The name given to this point is

a) Point Dolphin

b) Point Angel

c) Point Nemo

d) Point Poseidon

Solution (c)

Q.13) Aditya L1 is India’s first dedicated scientific mission to study sun. It will be placed at

Lagrange point 1. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Lagrange points?

1. A Lagrange point is a location in space where the combined gravitational forces of two large bodies, such as Earth and the sun or Earth and the moon, equal the centrifugal force felt by a much smaller third body.

2. L1 lies a million miles from Earth in the opposite direction of the sun with the Earth, moon and sun behind it.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (a)

Q.14) Stratolaunch is the world’s largest composite airplane. Which of the following statements is correct regarding it?

a) It is designed to take astronauts to International Space Station.

b) It is designed to take commercial passengers to exosphere for zero gravity experience.

c) It is designed for sending satellite-carrying rockets into low-Earth orbit

d) It is designed to carry heavy payloads from construction site to the launch site.

Solution (c)

Q.15) NASA successfully tested a supersonic parachute designed to land the agency’s next rover on Mars. The supersonic parachute experiment is known as

a) INSPIRE

b) ASPIRE

c) EXPIRE

d) RESPIRE

Solution (b)

Q.16) NASA has named a new bacteria discovered on International Space Station after

a) Dr A P J Abdul Kalam

b) Dr Vikram Sarabhai

c) Dr Saha

d) Eugene Parker

Solution (a)

Q.17) GUSTO is a balloon based observatory to study the cosmic material entering the earth.

The program was launched by

a) NASA

b) ISRO

c) ROSCOSMOS

d) ESA

Solution (a)

Q.18) which of the following energies are believed to be responsible for expansion and acceleration of Universe?

a) Gravitational energy

b) Weak forces

c) Electromagnetic energy

d) Dark Energy

Solution (d)

Q.19) Cornell University has successfully tested ‘Sprites’. Which of the following statements are correct regarding them?

1. They are world’s smallest fully functional space probes, built on a single circuit board achieving low Earth orbit

2. They are equipped with tiny solar panels and two antennas, plus a tiny radio, computer, magnetometer (to orient to Earth’s magnetic field) and gyroscope.

3. They were launched by NASA under starshot project.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.20) ISRO has commissioned the world’s third largest hypersonic wind tunnel at Vikram Sara bhai Space Center. Which of the following statements regarding this wind tunnel are correct?

1. It is being made with the help of Israel.

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2. It will be used to study the effects of air flowing past solid objects like space vehicles.

3. It will help aerodynamic characterization of advanced space transportation systems in a hypersonic environment.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

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Q.1) which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the GLOBE (Global Learning and Observation to Benefit the Environment)?

1. Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) is the implementing agency in India.

2. NASA has the primary responsibility for administering the government-to-government agreements, and for the management of the GLOBE Implementation Office (GIO).

Select from the given codes:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Solution (b)

Q.2) Consider the following statements

1. Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis.

2. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses, is the net primary productivity.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both

d) None

Solution (c)

Q.3) Consider the following statements

1. Primary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.

2. Secondary productivity is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis.

3. Primary productivity is same in different types of ecosystems.

4. Primary productivity of Oceans is less compared to that of the Land.

Which of the above statements are INCORRECT?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 4

c) 1 and 2

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.4) Consider the following statements

1. Detritivores (e.g., earthworm) break down detritus into smaller particles. This process is called fragmentation.

2. Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances. This process is called as catabolism.

3. The processes Fragmentation, Leaching and Catabolism (in the same order) operates one after the other on detritus.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 3

c) 1 and 2

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.5) which of the following statements is/are correct regarding humus

1. It is a dark coloured amorphous substance.

2. It is highly resistant to microbial action.

3. It is colloidal in nature.

4. The humus is further degraded by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrients occurs by the process known as Humification.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 2 and 4

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 3 and 4

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

Q.6) Consider the following statements regarding Food Chain

1. In an aquatic ecosystem, Grazing Food Chain is the major conduit for energy flow.

2. In a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through the Detritus Food Chain than through the Grazing Food Chain.

Which of the statements above is/are INCORRECT?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Solution (d)

Q.7) Consider the following statements regarding the Ecological Pyramids

1. Pyramid of energy is always upright

2. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.

3. Ecological pyramids do not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.

4. Saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1, 3 and 4

b) 2,3 and 4

c) 1 and 3

d) 1 and 4

Solution (a)

Q.8) which of the following statements are correct regarding Ecological Succession?

1. Succession is a process that starts where no living organisms are there.

2. Primary Succession is faster than Secondary Succession.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (a)

Q.9) Consider the following statements regarding Carbon

1. Carbon constitutes 49 per cent of dry weight of organisms and is next only to water.

2. The amount of Carbon dissolved in Oceans is more than that is stored in the land biosphere.

Which of the above statement is/are true?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.10) Consider the following statements regarding the processes that occur in Nitrogen cycle

1. Decomposers chemically modify the nitrogen found in organic matter to ammonium ion

(NH4+). This process is known as micelle fixation.

2. The process of Nitrification involves the metabolic reduction of nitrate (NO3-) into

nitrogen (N2) or nitrous oxide (N2O) gas

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both

d) None

Solution (c)

Q.11) which of the following statements in general correctly explains ‘edge effect’

a) The number of species and the population density of some of the species is very low in the zone of transition.

b) The number of species and the population density of some of the species is greater in the zone of transition.

c) The species in the zone of transition are completely different from that of the surrounding habitats.

d) The species in the zone of transition are exactly the same from that exist in the surrounding habitats.

Solution (b)

Q.12) Consider the following statements regarding Ecological Niche

1. Organisms that occupy same or similar ecological niches in different geographical regions are called Ecophene.

2. Species with broad ecological niches tend to be specialists.

Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both

d) None

Solution (d)

Q.13) Consider the following:

Seral Community Explanation

1. Lithosere Community on rock

2. Xerosere Community in dry area

3. Psammosere Community in saline body

4. Hydrosere Community in water

Which of the following are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 4

c) 2 and 4

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

Depending on the substratum and climate, a seral community can be one of the following

Seral Community Explanation

1. Lithosere Community on rock

2. Xerosere Community in dry area

3. Psammosere Community on sand

4. Hydrosere Community in water

5. Halo sere Community in saline body

Q.14) Consider the following statements regarding the processes of ecological succession

1. Ecesis is the increase in population of the species which has become established in the area.

2. Nudation is the initial establishment of plant community.

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both

d) None of the above

Solution (c)

Q.15) Consider the following statements regarding Sikkim

1. It is the first organic state in India.

2. Sikkim was awarded Future Policy Gold Award 2018 for its achievement in becoming the world’s first totally organic agriculture state.

3. The award is given by UN Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) Only 1

c) Only 2

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.16) Consider the following statements

1. Bio-accumulation occurs across different trophic levels in a food chain.

2. Bio-magnification occurs when an organism absorbs a toxic substance from all sources at a rate greater than that at which the substance is lost.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.17) Consider the following statements about Organic World Congress (OWC)

1. The International Federation of Organic Agriculture Movements (IFOAM – Organics International) organizes it.

2. It is an annually organized congress.

3. OWC-2020 is to be conducted in India.

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

a) 1 and 2

b) Only 1

c) Only 2

d) 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.18) Consider the below statements and select the correct statement from the codes given below:

1. The succession brought about by external conditions and not by the existing organisms

is known as allogenic succession.

2. The succession that begins in a predominantly inorganic environment where there is dominance of autotrophic organisms is called Autogenic Succession.

Choose the correct answer:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (a)

Q.19) Consider the following pair of biotic interactions.

Type of interaction Result

1. Neutralism No net benefit or harm to either species

2. Amensalism One species benefits, one is not affected

3. Parasitism One species benefits, one is harmed

Which of the above pairs is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3

b) 2 and 3

c) Only 1

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.20) which of the following statements best describes ‘Ecotype’?

a) It is a type of marine ecosystem that provides an alternative to a species of terrestrial for growth and survival.

b) It is a transition area between two biomes where communities interact.

c) It is a genetically distinct variety within a species, which is adapted to specific environmental conditions.

d) It is a type of ecosystem in which inherent balance is maintained between autotrophs and Heterotrophs.

Solution (c)

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Q.1) With reference to the calculation of Gross Domestic Product (GDP), consider the following:

1. Commission of a real estate agent in the sale of a property

2. Sale of a used car

3. Components such as tyres sold for car manufacture

Which of the following are not included in its calculation?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.2) With reference to National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC), consider the following statements:

1. It is the statutory organisation under Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.

2. It strengthens and promotes programmes across sectors relating to agriculture and allied fields

3. Recently it launched Yuva Sahakar – Cooperative Enterprise Support and Innovation

Scheme

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.3) With reference to the Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) rankings, consider the following statements:

1. It is published by the World Bank

2. The Doing Business report ranks countries on the basis of distance to frontier (DTF), a score that shows the gap of an economy to the global average.

3. India’s rank has been constantly improving since 2014.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 3 only

Solution (b)

Q.4) With reference to the first Human Capital Index released recently, consider the following Statements:

1. It has been released by World Economic Forum

2. It conveys the productivity of the next generation of workers compared to a benchmark of complete education and full health.

3. Singapore topped the list.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 2 only

Solution (c)

Q.5) With reference to the Credit Rating agencies in India, consider the following statements:

1. They are registered and regulated by SEBI

2. They function on “Issuer pays” model rather than “Subscriber pays’ model

3. According to the new norms, ratings agencies are required to disclose liquidity position, source and rationale of additional funds of a company.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.6) With reference to the External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs), consider the following statements:

1. The cost of ECBs is higher than the domestic borrowings.

2. It widens the investor base of a company

3. The government can direct inflows into specific sectors by allowing higher ECBs in them, thus promoting development

Which of the given statements is/are advantages of ECBs?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.7 which of the following schemes is not related to MSMEs?

a) SHAKTI

b) Samadhaan

c) Sambandh

d) SFURTI

Solution (a)

MSME Delayed Payment Portal – MSME Samadhaan

Public Procurement Portal for MSEs – MSME Sambandh

Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries (SFURTI) – related to Infrastructure of MSMEs

SHAKTI (Scheme for harnessing & allocating Koyla transparently in India) – step to tackle stress in the power sector and not related to MSME.

Q.8) Baba Kalyani committee recently submitted its report on?

a) Review of powers of CBI

b) Impact of Climate change on Indian rivers

c) SEZ policy

d) Review of Bilateral Trade Agreements

Solution (c)

Q.9 Inclusive Wealth Report 2018 is published by?

a) World Bank

b) World Economic Forum

c) UN Environment Programme

d) UN Development Programme

Solution (c)

10. With reference to the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP), consider the following statements:

1. It comes under the National Health Mission.

2. The scheme seeks to set up a Central Disease Surveillance Unit and a State Surveillance

Unit in each State where data is collected and analyzed.

3. It is assisted by World Bank.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP)

• IDSP is a disease surveillance scheme under National Health Mission, under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in India, assisted by the World Bank.

11. With reference to the Intensified Mission Indradhanush, consider the following Statements:

1. It has been launched by the Government of India to reach each and every child under two years of age.

2. It is a special drive that will focus on all the districts of the country

3. It targets to immunize all children against seven vaccine preventable diseases

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.12) Recently, PAiSA portal was launched by which of the following Union Ministries?

a) Ministry of Railways

b) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

c) Ministry of Housing

d) Ministry of Rural Development

Solution (c)

Q.13) With reference to the Demographic Dividend, consider the following statements:

1. A country with a high population between 15-64 years is considered to have a high demographic dividend.

2. Focus on providing skill development and education will help in effective utilisation of demographic dividend.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.14) Universal Basic Income has been in news for a while. Consider the following statements with reference to it:

1. It is unconditional and universal to all the citizens of the country

2. UBI would require subsumption of other subsidies and allowances in order to free up resources so that a particular amount can be directed to people on a periodic basis.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Universal basic income (UBI) is a model for providing all citizens of a country or other geographic area with a given sum of money, regardless of their income, resources or employment status. The purpose of the UBI is to prevent or reduce poverty and increase equality among citizens.

Q.15) With reference to the definition of poverty in India, which of the following statements is correct?

a) According to C Rangarajan committee, poverty line should be Rs 32 in rural areas and Rs 47 in urban areas.

b) The poverty estimates of Rangarajan committee were lower than that of Tendulkar committee.

c) The poverty line suggested by World Bank is lower than that of Tendulkar committee.

d) None of the above

Solution (a)

Q.16) which of the following statements is not correct?

a) Poverty Gap is the difference between the mean income among the poor and the poverty line

b) Headcount ration shows the percentage of population whose per capita incomes are below the poverty line

c) Multidimensional poverty Index consists of 10 indicators

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.17) which of the following committees is not related to poverty estimation in India?

a) YK Alagh

b) NC Saxena committee

c) Pronab Sen committee

d) None of the above

Solution (c)

Pranab Sen Committee for Slums was constituted by Ministry of Housing and Poverty Alleviation in 2010.

18. Which of the following is/are a correct difference between SECC 2011 and Census 2011?

1) Census is conducted by Census Commissioner in Home Ministry while SECC 2011 was by Ministry of Rural Development.

2) Census has a statutory backing while SECC 2011 doesn’t.

Select the correct option from below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.19) which of the following are steps taken by the Government for the eradication of poverty?

1. Progressive taxation

2. Decentralisation through Panchayati Raj and Nagarpalikas

3. Saubhagya scheme

Which of the following is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.20) With reference to The National Food Security Act 2013, consider the following statements:

1. The Act provides for coverage of up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population

2. Under the Act, the eligible persons will be entitled to receive 5 kgs of food grains per person per month at subsidized prices of Rs. 3/2/1 per Kg for rice/wheat/coarse grains.

3. To ensure the food security of poorest of poor, the existing Antyodaya Anna Yojana

(AAY) households will continue to receive 35 Kgs of foodgrain per household per month

4. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are also covered under the scheme.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (d)

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Practice Question for UPSC IAS And Other Competitive Exams

Q.1     What can be the maximum interval between two sessions of parliament?        

(A)      3 Months         (B)      4 Months

(C)       6 Months         (D)   9 Months

Answer (C)

Q.2 which of the following non-member of parliament has the right to address it?

(A)      Attorney General            

(B)      Solicitor General of India

(C)       Chief justice of India      

 (D)      Chief election Commissioner

Answer (A)

Q.3     Age of a candidate t contest parliamentary election should not be lesser than?

(A)      18 Years          (B)      21 Years

(C)       25 Years          (D)      26 Years

Answer (C)

Q.4     The most important feature of the Indian parliament is that?

(A)      It is the union legislature in India      

(B)      It also comprises of the president

(C)       It is bicameral in nature   

(D)   The upper house of the parliament is never dissolved

Answer (B)

 Q.5 Japan’s Parliament Known as?

(A)      Diet                (B)      Dial

(C)       Yuan              (D)      Shora

Answer (A)

 Q.6   Who sail, ‘Parliamentary system provides a daily as well as a periodic assessment of the government?

(A)      B.R. Ambedkar                  

(B)      B.N. Nehru

(C)       Jawahar Lal Nehru                       

(D)      Rajendra Prasad

Answer (A)

Q.7     How many members of the Anglo-indian community can be nominated by the president of India to the parliament?    

(A)      1                       (B)      2         

(C)       5                      (D)      8

Answer (B)

Q.8     Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the president of India?

(A)      Only Lok Sabha                                         

(B)      Only Rajya Sabha

(C)       Either house of the parliament                       

(D)      Any Legislative assembly

Answer (C)

Q.9     Which of the following has the powers to create a new all India service? 

(A)      Parliament             

(B)      Union public service commission

(C)       Union Cabinet       

(D)      Ministry of personnel, Public grievances and Pensions

Answer (A)

 Q.10   Sovereignty of Indian parliament is restricted by? 

(A)      Powers of the president of India        

(B)      Judicial review

(C)       Leader of the opposition                       

(D)      Powers of the prime minister of India

Answer (B)

Q.11   The committee of parliament on official language comprises the members?

(A)  20 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(B)  10 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

(C)   10 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(D)  20 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

Answer (A)

Q.12 which of the following is NOT a parliamentary committee?   

(A)      Committee on public accounts           

(B)      Committee on public undertakings

(C)      Committee on Estimates                      

(D)      Demands for grants committee

Answer (D)

Q.13     Which one of the following is the largest committee of the parliament?   

(A)      The Public accounts committee                      

(B)      The Estimates committee

(C)       The committee on public undertakings       

(D)      The committee on petitions

Answer (B)

 Q.14   In which of the following committees there is no representation of Rajya Sabha?

(A)    Public accounts committee                              

(B)    Committee on public undertakings

(C)   Committee on government assurance        

 (D)  Estimates Committee

Answer (D)

Q.15   Which of the following is NOT a tool of parliamentary control over public expenditures?           

(A) Public accounts committee                  

(B) Comptroller and Auditor general of India

(C) Estimates Committee                            

(D) Committee on public undertakings

Answer (B)

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Practice Question for UPSC IAS And Other Competitive Exams

Q.1     The comptroller and auditor general of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the? 

(A)      Union Government                     

(B)      State Government

(C)       Union and State Government

(D)      Neither Union nor State Government

Answer (C)

 Q.2     What is the period of appointment of the comptroller and auditor general of India?

(A)      6 Years                                                                                 

(B)      Upto 65 Years of age

(C)     6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier     

(D)    Upto 64 years of age

Answer (C)

 Q.3     Who is the highest civil servant of the union government?    

(A)      Attorney General            

(B)      Cabinet Secretary

(C)       Home Secretary               

(D)      Principle secretary to the P.M

Answer (B)

 Q.4     The Attorney general of India is appointed by?   

(A)      The president of India                 (B)      The Prime Minister

(C)       The Chief justice of India           (D)      The UPSC

Answer (A)

Q.5     In india’ The Comptroller –general of accounts presents a detailed analytical review of union government accents to the finance ministry every?     

(A)      Years                                    

(B)      Six Months

(C)       Three Months       

(D)      Month

Answer (A)

 Q.6     Who advises the government of India on legal matters?           

(A)      Attorney General                         (B)      Chief justice of Supreme Court

(C)       Chairman, law commission        (D)      none of these

Answer (A)

 Q.7     Comptroller and auditor – general of India is appointed by:     

(A)      President                                                                 

(B)      Speaker of the lok sabha

(C)       Chairman of the planning commission         

(D)      Finance minister

Answer (A)

 Q.8     The attorney General of India is a legal advisor to?    

(A)      The president of India                 (B)      The Prime Minister

(C)       Lok Sabha                                  (D)      Government of India

Answer (D)

 Q.9     Who is called the guardian of public purse?           (UP PCS Main 2008)

(A)      President                

(B)   Comptroller   and auditor- general

(C)       Parliament             

(D)      Council of Ministers

Answer (B)

 Q.10   Which non-member cab participates in the business of either house of parliament?

(A)      The Vice-President                       (B)      The Solicitor General

(C)       The Attorney General                 (D)      The Chief justice of India

Answer (C)

Q.11     Which of the following standing committees of parliament has no MP from Rajya Sabha?

 (A)     Public accounts committees                

(B)      Committee on public undertakings

(C)       Committee on government assurance         

(D)      Estimates committee

Answer (D)

 Q.12     The parliament committee which scrutinizes the report of the comptroller and auditor general of Indian is?       

(A)      Estimates committee                  (B)      Select Committee

(C)       Public Account Committee        (D)      None of these

Answer (C)

 Q.13     Who among the following forms the advisory committee of the parliament?

(A)      Speaker of Lok Sabha                   (B)      Vice-President of India

(C)       President of India                         (D)      None of these

Answer (A)

Q.14     The committee of parliament on official language comprises the members?

(A) 20 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(B)  10 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

(C) 10 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(D) 20 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

Answer (A)

 Q.15     Which of the following is NOT a parliamentary committee?   

(A)      Committee on public accounts           

(B)      Committee on public undertakings

(C)       Committee on Estimates                       

(D)      Demands for grants committee

Answer (D)

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Practice Question for UPSC IAS And Other Competitive Exams

Q.1     The president of India enjoys emergency powers of? (SSC Grad 2007)

(A)      Two Types      (B)      Three Types

(C)       Four Types     (D)      Five Types

Answer (B)

 Q.2     How many times the president of India can seek reelection to his post?

(A)      Once                

(B)      Two times

(C)       Three Times  

(D)      Any number of times

Answer (D)

 Q.3     Which of the following appointments not made by the president of India?

(A)      Speaker of the Lok Sabha         

(B)      Chief justice of India

(C)       Chief of air staff                            

(D)      Chief of Army

Answer (A)

Q.4     What is the maximum age limit prescribed for the post of the president of India?                   

(A)      58 Years                  

(B)      60 Years

(C)       62 Years                  

(D)      There is no maximum age limit

Answer (D)

Q.5     Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by?

(A)      Edward stone        

(B)      Le Corbusier

(C)       Edwin Lutyens        

(D)      Tarun Dutt

Answer (C)

 Q.6     A presidential ordinance can remain force?         

(A)      For Three Months            

(B)      For Six Months

(C)       For Nine Months              

(D)      Indefinitely

Answer (B)

 Q.7   To be eligible for election as president of Indian, a person must have completed the age of?    

(A)      25 years                   (B)      30 Years

(C)       35 Years                (D)      40 Years

Answer (C)

 Q.8     Who was the president of India at the time of proclamation of emergency in the year 1975?                  

(A)       V.V Giri                                

(B)      Giani Zail singh

(C)     Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad    

(D)    Shankar Dayal Sharma

Answer (C)

Q.9     Under Which Article of the constitution of India can the president of India be impeached?         

(A)      Article 61            (B)      Article 75

(C)       Article 76          (D)      Article 356

Answer (A)

 Q.10   Who holds the power to appoint the nominees from Anglo-Indian community in the lok sabha?        

(A)      Minorities commission              

(B)      President of India

(C)       Prime Minister                             

(D)      Vice-President

Answer (B)

Q.10   Who holds the power to appoint the nominees from Anglo-Indian community in the lok sabha?

(A)      Minorities commission              

(B)      President of India

(C)       Prime Minister                             

(D)      Vice-President

Answer (B)

Q.11   The first president of independent India hails from?                 

(A)      U.P                

(B)      Andhra Pradesh

(C)       Bihar             

(D)      Tamil Nadu

Answer (C)

Q.12   Acting chief justice of the supreme court in India is appointed by the? 

(A)      Chief justice of Supreme Court                       

(B)      Prime Minister

(C)       President                                                    

(D)      Law Minister

Answer (C)

Q.13   Comptroller and auditor general of India are appointed by?      

(A)      President                                                       

(B)      Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(C)       Chairman of the planning Commission    

(D)      Finance Minister

Answer (A)

 Q.14   The vacancy of the Office of the president of India must be filled up within?

(A)      90 Days        

(B)      6th Months

(C)       1 Years         

(D)   Within the period decided by the parliament

Answer (B)

Q.15   Who among the following is constitutionally empowered to declare a geographical area as a Scheduled area?      

(A)      Governor                

(B)      Chief Minister

(C)     Prime Minister      

(D)      President

Answer (D)

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This Booklet will be Helpful for UPSC Civil Services Prelims Exam General Studies Paper-1

This Booklet will cover all these topics:

  1. Culture
  2. Economy
  3. Environment
  4. International Relation
  5. Polity
  6. Science & Technology
  7. Social Issues
  8. Government schemes

Vision IAS Current Affairs Revision MCQ January to March 2019 Download PDF

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This Booklet will cover all these topics:

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  2. Economy
  3. Environment
  4. International Relation
  5. Polity
  6. Science & Technology
  7. Social Issues
  8. Government schemes

Current Gk April 2019 for All Competitive Exams

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CURRENT AFFAIRS FOR THE MONTH OF APRIL 2019

Awards

The Indian writer who has been awarded the Rabindranath Tagore Literary Prize 2019 for his literary novel Solo – Rana Dasgupta

The journalist of Pakistan’s Dawn newspaper who has been awarded the 71st World Press Freedom Hero Award by the International Press Institute, Vienna (Austria) – Cyril Almeida

The Reuters reporters at present imprisoned in Myanmar, who have been awarded the UNESCO/Guillermo Cano World Press Freedom Prize 2019 – Kyaw Soe Oo and Wa Lone

The Telugu poet who has been awarded the Saraswati Samman 2018 for his collection of poetry Pakkaki Ottigilite by the KK Birla Foundation – K Siva Reddy

The highest civilian award of Russia which has been awarded to the Indian PM Shri Narendra Modi –Order of the St Andrew, the Apostle

The Switzerland based NRI who has been awarded the Pravasiya Bharatiya Samman Award by the President of India – Dr. Rajendra Joshi

The country which has conferred its highest civilian honour named Zayed Medal upon the Indian Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi – UAE

The integrated skill development programme launched by the Government of West Bengal with an annual target of 600,000 persons which has been awarded the World Summit on the Information Society Prize 2019 – Utkarsh Bangla

Sports

The Australian female umpire who has become the first woman to be an umpire in men’s one-day international – Claire Polosak

The team which has won the 2nd Marshal of the Indian Air Force Arjan Singh Memorial International Hockey Tournament held in Chandigarh defeating South Central Railway in the finals – Integral Coach Factory, Chennai

The Malayalam film which has won the Best Cinematography Award at the 2019 Beijing International Film Festival – Bhayanakam

The team which has won the 73rd edition of Santosh Trophy football tournament defeating Punjab in the finals – Services

The Indian women’s cricketer who has been named Wisden’s Leading Women’s Cricketer in the World for 2018 – Smriti Mandhana

The Indian cricketer who has been named Wisden’s Leading Cricketer in the World for 2018 – Virat Kohli

The former Australian hockey player who has been appointed as the coach of Indian national men’s hockey team – Graham Reid

The All India Football Federation president who has become the first Indian to be elected as the member of FIFA Executive Council for a period of 4 years – Praful Patel

The team which has won the Sultan Azlan Shah Cup hockey tournament defeating India in the finals at Ipoh, Malaysia – South Korea

The Thai badminton player who has won the Women’s Singles title at the India Open badminton tournament in New Delhi defeating He Bingjiao of China in the finals – Ratchanok Intanon

The Denmark badminton player who has won the Men’s Singles title at the India Open badminton tournament in New Delhi defeating India’s Kidambi Srikanth in the finals – Viktor Axelson

Places

The city in which the first ever summit of North Korean leader Kim Jong-Un and Russian President Vladimir Putin was held recently – Vladivostok

The African country in which the world’s first malaria vaccine RTS, S was launched for children upto 2 years – Malawi

The country which has released a commemorative stamp on the theme of Ramayana to mark 70 years of its diplomatic ties with India – Indonesia

The village in West Imphal district of Manipur which has been tagged as India’s first carbon positive settlement – Phayeng

Persons

The former of CEO of Network 18 Digital who has been named the new MD of Twitter in India – Manish Maheshwari

The former television serial comedian who has been elected the new President of Ukraine – Volodymyr Zelensky

The renowned Hindi poet and humorist who passed away on 12 April 2019 – Pradeep Chaubey

The well-known film actress who has been appointed as the industry head of Google India – Mayuri Kango

Defence

The guided missile destroyer launched by the Indian Navy at Mazagaon Dock Shipbuilders, Mumbai is named – INS Imphal

The place in China at which International Fleet Review was held from 21 April with participation of INS Kolkata and INS Shakti of the Indian Navy – Qingdao

The 12th edition of joint military exercise between India and Singapore conducted at Babina Military Station in MP from 08 to 11 April 2019 – Bold Kurukshetra 2019

The Air Force officer who has been appointed the new Chief of Strategic Force Command to replace Air Marshal Jasbir Walia – Air Marshal NS Dhillon

The biennial bilateral maritime exercise conducted by the Navies of India and Australia off the coast of Visakhapatnam from 02 April 2019 – AUSINDEX 2019

Miscellaneous

The rank of India in the Index of Cancer Preparedness 2019 released by Economist Intelligence Unit for 28 countries – 19

The HDFC promoted finance company with which the merger of Bandhan Bank has been approved by Competition Commission of India – GRUH Finance

The name given by Hawaiian language professor Larry Kimura to the first ever black hole photographed by Event Horizon Telescope – Powehi

The cloud management tool launched by Google allowing its users to run applications from anywhere is named – Google Anthos

The railway station in North East Frontier Railway zone which has become the first in the country to be awarded ISO certification (ISO-14001) by the National Green Tribunal – Guwahati

The country which has voted anti-corruption activist Zuzana Caputova to be its first female President –Slovakia

Launch of PSLV-C45

Launch date: 01 April 2019 Launch station: SHAR, Sriharikota

Indian Satellite launched: EMISAT (weight – 436 kg) intended for electromagnetic spectrum measurement.

Foreign Satellites launched: Bluewalker1 and M6P (Lithuania); Aistechsat-3 (Spain); Astrocast-2 (Switzerland); Flock-4A (20 satellites) and Lemur (USA). Total 28

Important Days of April

World Autism Awareness Day: 02 April 2019 Theme: Assistive Technologies, Active Participation Designated by: UN General Assembly First Observed in: 2008
International Mine Awareness Day: 04 April 2019 Designated by: United Nations General Assembly Theme: United Nations Promotes SDGs – Safe Ground, Safe Home First Observed in: 2006
International Day of Sport for Development and Peace: 06 April 2019 Designated by: United Nations General Assembly First Observed in: 2014
World Health Day: 07 April 2019 Designated by: World Health Organisation Theme: Universal Health Coverage: Everyone, Everywhere First Observed in: 1950
International Day of Human Space Flight: 12 April 2019 Designated by: UN General Assembly First Observed in: 2011
World Haemophilia Day: 17 April 2019 Designated by: World Federation of Haemophilia Theme: Reaching out – connect to your community First Observed in: 1989
International Day for Monuments and Sites (World Heritage Day): 18 April 2019 Designated by: UNESCO Theme: Rural Landscapes First Observed in: 1983
International Mother Earth Day: 22 April 2019 Designated by: UN General Assembly Theme: Protect our species First Observed in: 2010 Note: Earth Day was first observed in 1970 in the United States and it went global in 1990. The same day was adopted by the UN in 2009 as the International Mother Earth Day.
UN English Language Day: 23 April 2019 Designated by: UN Dept of Public Information First Observed in: 2010 Significance: Birthday of William Shakespeare
World Malaria Day: 25 April 2019 Designated by: World Health Organisation First Observed in: 2007 Theme: Zero malaria starts with me
World Intellectual Property Day: 26 April 2019 Designated by: World Intellectual Property Organisation First Observed in: 2000 Theme: Reach for Gold: IP and Sports
World Day for Safety and Health at Work: 28 April 2019 Designated by: International Labour Organisation First Observed in: 2003 Theme: Safety and Health and the Future of Work
Rank Country Rank Country
1. Norway 140 India
2. Finland 142 Pakistan
3. Sweden 177 China
4. Netherlands 150 Bangladesh
5. Denmark 126 Sri Lanka

Source:Leadthecompetition

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Energy Transition Index

World Economic Forum has released its global Energy Transition index. The annual list ranks 115 economies on their ability to balance energy security and access with environmental sustainability and affordability.

The index considers both the current state of the countries’ energy system and their structural readiness to adapt to future energy needs.

Performance of various countries:

Sweden retained its top spot on the list, followed by Switzerland and Norway in the second and third positions respectively.

The United States, which is placed at the 27th position, was found to have made progress in reducing the use of coal in power generation. It slipped in the rankings by two places due to concerns surrounding affordability of energy to households and regulatory uncertainty on environmental sustainability

The developing countries in Asia, on the other hand, showed significant improvements towards universal access to electricity led by India (76), Indonesia (63) and Bangladesh (90).

Key observations on India’s performance:

  1. India was found to be amongst the countries with high pollution levels and relatively high CO2 intensity in its energy system. Despite this, the report found that India has made significant strides to improve energy access in recent years and currently scores well in the area of regulation and political commitment towards energy transition.
  2. While India scored low in terms of system performance, it ranks considerably higher when it comes to readiness to adapt to future energy needs. Overall, India has moved up two places from its 78th position in 2018.
  3. India is among the five economies that have managed to improve their rank since last year.
  4. In the BRICS bloc of emerging economies, India was ranked second best, only after Brazil.

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Global Peace Index

Global Peace Index (GPI) measures the relative position of nations’ and regions’ peacefulness. The GPI gauges global peace using three broad themes: the level of societal safety and security, the extent of ongoing domestic and international conflict and the degree of militarization.

The Global Peace Index (GPI) published by Australia-based Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) is an attempt to measure the relative position of nations’ and regions’ peacefulness. It is developed in consultation with an international panel of peace experts from peace institutes and think tanks with data collected and collated by the Economist Intelligence Unit.

The list was first launched in May 2007 and updates have been made on an annual basis since then. It is claimed to be the first study to rank countries around the world according to their peacefulness.

Method of assessing Peace

The GPI measures global peace using three broad themes: the level of societal safety and security, the extent of ongoing domestic and international conflict and the degree of militarization Both external factors such as military expenditures, wars and internal factors such as the levels of violence and crime within the country are considered.

Global Peace Index – 2018

India’s rank has marginally improved in “global peacefulness”, at a time when there is an overall decline of global peace owing to the escalation of violence in West Asia and North Africa.

India’s GPI rank was 137 out of 163 countries in 2017, when the year 2016 was assessed. In 2018, when the year 2017 is assessed, India’s rank moved up to 136.

Iceland continues to remain the most peaceful country in the world, a position it has held since 2008.

Syria remained the least peaceful country in the world, a position that it had held for the past five years.

South Asian countries

  1. The best performer of South Asia, Bhutan, has slipped from 13 to 19.
  2. Bangladesh’ peace index deteriorated sharply. Bangladesh moved from 84 to 93.
  3. Nepal moved up from 93 to 84, while
  4. Sri Lanka moved up too, from position 80 to 67.
  5. Pakistan moved from 152 to 151.


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Interim Budget 2019-20

What is Budget?

The Union Budget of India also referred to as the Annual Financial Statement in the Article 112 of the Constitution of India, is the annual budget of the Republic of India. The Government presents it on the first day of February so that it could be materialized before the commencement of new financial year in April. Till 2016 it was presented on the last working day of February by the Finance Minister of India in Parliament. The budget, which is presented by means of the Finance bill and the Appropriation bill, has to be passed by both the Houses before it can come into effect from April 1, the start of India’s financial year.

What is an interim budget?

An interim budget is the budget of a regime or administration that is going through a period of transition. It is very much similar to a full budget as the government presents expenses for the current fiscal and makes projections for the upcoming fiscal year through it. An interim budget is also a detailed set of accounts that includes expenditure and receipts and also the complete financial statement.

When is an interim budget presented?

The government presents an interim budget if it does not have time to present a full Budget or if the general elections may be in the near future. So usually, in an election year, the outgoing government presents an interim budget and the task of framing the full budget is left for the next government.

Why do we need an interim budget?

The government needs Interim Budget to work during the time it takes for a new government to make its own fiscal plan. The budget for the year permitted by Parliament gives the government spending rights only till 31st March i.e. end of the financial year.

If for any reason the government is unable to present a full budget before the fiscal year ends, it will require parliamentary authority for incurring expenses in the new financial year until a full Budget is presented. The Parliament, via interim Budget, passes a vote-on account that permits the government to meet the expenses of the government until the new Parliament passes the Budget for the whole year.

What is the difference between interim and regular budget?

In an interim budget, the vote-on-account asks for Parliament’s approval for incurring expenditure for part of a financial year. The estimates are presented for the whole year, as is the case with the regular Budget. The new administration has the full right to change the estimates fully when the final Budget is presented.

Can the government declare new taxes and policies?

The government can make changes in tax in the interim budget under the Constitution. The 12 interim budgets since India’s Independence have refrained from declaring big-ticket changes or new schemes. At the same time, numerous governments, including the Congress-led UPA in 2009, have not shied away from making policy statements in interim budgets.

Difference between Interim Budget and Vote on Account

An Interim Budget is not the same as a ‘Vote on Account’. While a ‘Vote on Account’ deals only with the expenditure side of the government’s budget, an Interim Budget is a complete set of accounts, including both expenditure and receipts.

Highlights of interim Budget 2019-20

Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi

New Scheme- namely “Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)” to extend direct income support at the rate of Rs. 6,000 per year to farmer families, having cultivable land upto 2 hectares is announced. The estimated outlay for the scheme is Rs.75, 000 crore.

Under this Government of India funded Scheme, Rs.2, 000 each will be transferred to the bank accounts of around 12 crore Small and Marginal farmer families, in three equal installments. This programme would be made effective from 1st December 2018 and the first installment for the period upto 31st March 2019 would be paid during this year itself.

Separate Department of Fisheries

To provide sustained and focused attention towards development of Fisheries, the Government has decided to create a separate Department of Fisheries. Finance Minister said that through the measure, the Government wants to promote further growth over 7% to promote livelihood of about 1.45 crore people dependent on the sector.

The Finance Minister announced 2% interest subvention to the farmers pursuing the activities of animal husbandry and fisheries, who avail loan through Kisan Credit Card. Further, in case of timely repayment of loan, they will also get an additional 3% interest subvention.

Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog

Setting up of “Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog” to upscale sustainable genetic upgradation of cow resources and to enhance production and productivity of cows has also been announced. The Aayog will also look after effective implementation of laws and welfare schemes for cow.

Pradhan Mantri Shram-Yogi Maandhan

To provide pensionary benefits to at least 10 crore labourers and workers in the unorganised sector a new Scheme called ‘Pradhan Mantri Shram-Yogi Maandhan’ is announced. The Finance Minister said that within next five years it would be one of the largest pension schemes of the world. A sum of Rs.500 crore has been allocated for the Scheme. Additional funds will be provided as needed, Shri Goyal added. The scheme will also be implemented from the current year, he said.

Tax Benefits

1. Individual taxpayers having taxable annual income up to Rs.5 lakhs will not be required to pay any income tax. Tax benefit of Rs. 18,500 crore is proposed to be provided to an estimated 3 crore middle class and small taxpayers comprising self employed, small business, small traders, salary earners, pensioners and senior citizens.

2. For salaried persons, Standard Deduction is being raised from the current Rs.40, 000 to Rs.50, 000. This will provide additional tax benefit of Rs. 4,700 crore to more than 3 crore salary earners and pensioners.

3. Exemption on levy of income tax on notional rent on a second self-occupied house is also now proposed. Currently, income tax on notional rent is payable if one has more than one self-occupied house.

4. TDS threshold on interest earned on bank/post office deposits is being raised from Rs. 10,000 to Rs.40, 000.

5. TDS threshold for deduction of tax on rent is proposed to be increased from Rs. 1, 80,000 to Rs.2, 40,000 for providing relief to small taxpayers.

Inflation

The Finance Minister said that the Government has been successful in bringing down average inflation to 4.6% over last five years, which is lower than the inflation during the tenure of any other Government. In fact Inflation in December 2018 was down to 2.19% only. The average rate of inflation during previous five years 2009-2014 was a backbreaking 10.1%, he pointed out.

Fiscal Deficit

The fiscal deficit has been brought down to 3.4% in 2018-19 Revised Estimates from the high of almost 6% seven years ago, the Finance Minister mentioned. He said, the Current Account Deficit (CAD), against a high of 5.6% six years ago, is likely to be only 2.5% of GDP this year.

Enhanced allocations for major Schemes

1. Announcing an allocation of Rs.60, 000 crores for MGNREGA for Budget Estimates 2019-20, the Finance Minister said that additional allocations will be made, if required.

2. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) is being allocated Rs.19, 000 crore in BE 2019-20 as against Rs.15, 500 crore in RE 2018-19. During the period 2014-18, a total number of 1.53 crore houses have been built under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana, he announced.      

3. By March, 2019, all households will be provided with electricity connection. Till now, 143 crore LED bulbs have been provided in a mission mode which has resulted in saving of Rs.50, 000 crore for the poor and middle class.

4. He said through the world’s largest healthcare programme, Ayushman Bharat, to provide medical treatment to nearly 50 crore people in the country, around 10 lakh patients have already benefited through free treatment for medical treatment which would have otherwise cost them Rs. 3,000 crore. Lakhs of poor and middle class people are also benefiting from reduction in the prices of essential medicines, cardiac stents and knee implants, and availability of medicines at affordable prices through Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Kendras, the Finance Minister added.

5. Shri Goyal also said that 14 of the 21 AIIMS operating or being established in the country presently have been announced since 2014. He also announced setting up of a new – the 22nd AIIMS in Haryana

6. Allocation for Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) is being increased from Rs.23, 357 crore in RE 2018-19 to Rs.27, 584 crore in BE 2019-20.

7. A substantial increase is proposed in the allocation for welfare of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The allocation of Rs.56, 619 crore made in BE of 2018-19 for Scheduled Caste, further increased to Rs.62, 474 crore in RE is proposed to be enhanced to Rs.76, 801 crore in BE for 2019-20, an increase of 35.6% over BE of 2018-19. For the Scheduled Tribes also, proposed allocation in 2019-20 BE is Rs.50, 086 crore as against Rs.39, 135 crore in BE 2018-19, an increase of 28%.

8. The Finance Minister said that a Welfare Development Board to frame special strategies for the benefit of the hard-to-reach De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic communities will be set up under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. He said that a Committee under NITI Aayog will also be set up to complete the task of identifying Denotified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic communities not yet formally classified.

9. Shri Goyal said under the Ujjwala Yojana aiming delivery of 8 crore free LPG connections, more than 6 crore connections have already been given and the remaining will get free gas connections by next year.

10. The Finance Minister announced that a National Artificial Intelligence Portal will also be developed soon as a part of the National Programme on ‘Artificial Intelligence.

11. The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion will now be renamed as the Department for Promotion of Industries and Internal Trade.

12. The Finance Minister stated that the Government e-Marketplace (GeM), created by the present Government two years ago, resulted in average savings of 25-28% and the platform will now be extended to all CPSEs. Transactions of over Rs. 17,500 crore have taken place so far.

13. The Finance Minister announced that for the first time, the country’s Defence Budget will be of over Rs.3 lakh crore.

14. The Finance Minister, Shri Piyush Goyal pointed-out that domestic air traffic passengers have doubled during the last five years, leading to large number of jobs also being created. The number of operational airports has crossed 100 with the commissioning of the Pakyong airport in Sikkim. Arunachal Pradesh came on the air map recently and Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram have come on India’s rail map for the first time.

15. Capital support from the budget for Indian Railways is proposed at Rs.64, 587 crore in 2019-20 (BE). The Railways’ overall capital expenditure programme is of Rs. 1, 58,658 crore. The Finance Minister, who is also holding the portfolio of Railway Ministry, announced that the Operating Ratio is expected to improve from 98.4% in 2017-18 to 96.2% in 2018-19 (RE) and further to 95% in 2019-20 (BE).

Daily Current Affairs 19-24 April 2019

UPSC IAS Prelims and State PSC Exams-2019 Current Affairs MCQ

1. Which article of the Indian Constitution has the provision of Finance Commission in India?

a) Article 275

b) Article 280

c) Article 265

d) Article 360

Answer: b only

Explanation: The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.

2. With reference to the union government offering grants-in-aid to state government, name the article that has the provision?

a) Article 275

b) Article 280

c) Article 265

d) Article 360

Answer: a only

Explanation: Article 275 provides for the payment of such sums as Parliament may by law provide as grants-in-aid of the revenues of such States.

3. which among them are the duties levied by the Union but Collected and Appropriated by the States?

a) Succession duty in respect of property other than agriculture land.

b) Estate duty in respect of property rather than agricultural land.

c) Stamp duty and duties of excise on the medical and toilet preparations.

d) Taxes on railway fares and freights

Answer: c only

Explanation: Stamp duty and duties of excise on the medical and toilet preparations are levied by the Union but Collected and Appropriated by the States.

4. With reference to the taxes levied and collected by the Union, which among following are assigned to the States?

a) Taxes on transactions in stock exchange.

b) Tax of sale and purchase of newspapers including advertisements

c) Estate duty in respect of property other than agriculture land.

d) Stamp duty and duties of excise on the medical and toilet preparations.

Find out the correct option from below:

Answer: a, b and c only

Explanation: The duties and taxes shall be levied and collected by the Government of India but shall be assigned to the States are duties in respect of succession to property other than agricultural land, estate duty in respect of property other than agricultural land, Terminal taxes on goods or passengers carried by railway, sea or air and taxes on railway fares and freights.

5. With reference to the Election Commission of India, name the authority who appoints the members?

a) President of India

b) Prime Minister of India

c) Elected by MPs

d) Appointed by Chief Election Commissioners

Answer: a only

Explanation: President of India appoints the members of the Election Commission of India.

6. With reference to monetary policy of RBI, which of the statements are correct?

a) It is aimed at managing the quantity of money to meet the requirements of different sectors of the economy.

b) Monetary policy is different from fiscal policy.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Monetary policy consists of the process of drafting, announcing and implementing the plan of actions taken by the central bank, currency board or other competent regulatory authority of a country that determines the scope and impact of the key drivers of the economic activity in that country.

7. With reference to the term, Systemically Important Banks, which of the banks are identified in such terms?

a) SBI

b) ICICI

c) HDFC

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has named State Bank of India (SBI), ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs).

8. With reference to the National Voluntary Guidelines on social, environmental and economic responsibilities, released by Union Ministry of Corporate Affairs, which of the following are correct?

a) Businesses should provide goods and services in a manner that is sustainable and safe.

b) Businesses should respect the interests of and be responsive to all their stakeholders.

c) Businesses should respect and promote human rights.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The Union Ministry of Corporate Affairs has released the National Guidelines on responsible business conduct and revised the National Voluntary Guidelines on social, environmental and economic responsibilities of business, 2011. These guidelines on responsible business conduct aim to urge businesses to actualize the following principles in letter and spirit.

9. With reference to the Interim Budget, which of the following are correct?

a) Interim Budget is presented by the outgoing government during the last year of its tenure before elections.

b) It is generally meant for the first 2-4 months of the fiscal year in which the elections are scheduled.

c) It does not include the proposal on the income part of the budget through collection of taxes.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Interim Budget is presented by the outgoing government during the last year of its tenure before elections. It is presented by the new government during the first term of its tenure after it takes charge. It is also known as vote on account or approval, which the government seeks from the parliament for essential spending for a limited period.

10. Which of the following are correct?

a) The annual budget is presented in two parts. It includes the detailed structure of income and future ways to raise funds.

b) The full budget is passed by the Lok Sabha only after proper discussions and voting on demand for grants.

c) It does not include the proposal on the income part of the budget through collection of taxes.

Answer: b and c only

Explanation: It is presented by the new government during the first term of its tenure after it takes charge. The annual budget is presented in two parts. It includes the detailed structure of income and future ways to raise funds.

11. Name the state associated with New Year celebrations known as ‘Vishu’?

a) Tamil Nadu

b) Kerala

c) Andhra Pradesh

d) Rajasthan

Answer: b only

Explanation: Vishu is an Indian festival celebrated in one of the Indian state Kerala and in coastal Kanyakumari nearby regions and their diaspora communities.

12. With reference to Open Market Operations (OMO), which of the following statements are correct?

a) Buying and selling of government securities in the open market.

b) Open Market Operations of securities’ purchases inject money into the banking system and stimulate growth.

c) It helps to implement and control monetary policy.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Open market operations (OMO) are the most flexible and most common tool that the Fed uses to implement and control monetary policy in India. However, the discount rate and reserve requirements are also used.

13. Name the telescope which is has captured the direct image of a black hole?

a) Event Horizon Telescope

b) Great Cloud Telescope

c) Great Globe Telescope

d) Half Horizon Telescope

Answer: a only

Explanation: In a breakthrough, the first ever direct image of a black hole has been captured, thanks to Event Horizon Telescope (EHT).

14. With reference to Anthos platform which helps to run apps from anywhere, name the technology giant associated with it?

a) Google

b) Microsoft

c) HCL

d) Wipro

Answer: a only

Explanation: Google has introduced a new open platform called Anthos to run and manage apps from anywhere. Based on the Cloud Services Platform that Google announced in 2018, Anthos lets users run applications on existing on-premise hardware investments or in the Public Cloud.

15. With reference to Order of St Andrew the Apostle, name the country associated it?

a) Japan

b) Prussia

c) Russia

d) Bulgaria

Answer: c only

Explanation: Russia’s highest state decoration, Order of St Andrew, for exceptional services in promoting special and privileged strategic partnership between the two countries.

16. With reference to 24X7 pollution charge zone which is currently in news, name the city which implemented the scheme?

a) Bangalore

b) Hong Kong

c) London

d) Delhi

Answer: c only

Explanation: London is the first city in the world to implement a 24-hour, seven day a week Ultra Low Emission Zone.

17. What is/are the purpose/purposes of the Geological Survey of India (GSI)?

a) Enable and facilitate the providing of objective, impartial and up-to-date geological expertise and geoscientific information.

b) Explore and scientifically assess mineral, energy and water resources for the country.

c) Conduct ground level surveys about the minerals deposits

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Geological Survey of India aims to facilitate the providing of objective, impartial and up-to-date geological expertise and geo-scientific information of all kinds, particularly for decision-making for policy, commercial, economic and societal needs.

18. With reference to ‘The New Delhi Declaration on Asian Rhinos 2019’, what are the objectives?

a) Conservation and protection of the Asian Rhino species.

b) Review the population of the Greater one-horned, Javan and Sumatran rhinos every four years.

c) Undertake studies on health issues of the rhinos.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The New Delhi Declaration on Asian Rhinos 2019’ for the conservation and protection of the species.

19. With reference to National Crime Records Bureau, which of the following are correct?

a) Collecting and analysing crime data as defined by the Indian Penal Code (IPC).

b) Function as a repository of information on crime and criminals.

c) To Empower Indian Police with Information Technology and criminal Intelligence.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) was created to function as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators.

20. With reference to preparation of noise pollution maps, name the regulatory body which issued the directive?

a) Central Pollution Control Board

b) Ministry of Environment and Forest

c) Supreme Court

d) National Green Tribunal

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The National Green Tribunal has directed the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) to prepare a noise pollution map and remedial action plan to solve the issue across the country.

21. With reference to National Rural Livelihood Mission, consider the following statement:

a) It aims to promote self-employment and organization of rural poor.

b) It aims to organize the poor into SHG (Self Help Groups) groups and make them capable for self-employment.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) is a poverty alleviation project implemented by Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India. This scheme is focused on promoting self-employment and organization of rural poor. The basic idea behind this programme is to organize the poor into SHG (Self Help Groups) groups and make them capable for self-employment.

22. With reference to Integrated Rural Development Program (IRDP) of the union government, consider the following statement:

a) IRDP aims to raise families of identified people below poverty line by creation of opportunities for self-employment in the rural sector.

b) IRDP is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme funded on a 50:50 basis by the centre and the states.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: The Integrated Rural Development Program is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme funded on a 50:50 basis by the centre and the states. The scheme has been in operation in all the blocks of the country since the year 1980. Under this scheme Central funds are allocated to states on the basis of proportion of rural poor in a state to the total rural poor in the country.

23. With reference to National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, consider the following:

a) It is renamed as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA).

b) It aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by offering at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: It is an Indian labour law and social security measure that aims to guarantee the ‘right to work’. It aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.

24. In the context of Universal Basic Income (UBI) scheme, which among the following are correct?

a) It is a model for providing a sum of money to all citizens of a country with a given sum of money, regardless of their income.

b) It could increase the purchasing power of the poor section of the society.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: In the Economic Survey 2016-17, Finance Minister Arun Jaitley advocated Universal Basic Income scheme (UBI) in place of various social welfare schemes in the country, in an effort to reduce poverty and income inequality in the country.

25. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMGAY), which of the following are correct?

a) It is a social welfare flagship programme which aims to provide housing for the rural poor.

b) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) (PMAY-U) for the urban poor is also the part of the programme.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMGAY) has two components: Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) (PMAY-U) for the urban poor and Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana (Gramin) (PMAY-G and also PMAY-R) for the rural poor.

26. Which of the following statements is/are correctly regarding Smart India Hackathon 2019?

a) It is a unique Open Innovation Model for identifying new and disruptive technology innovations to solve the challenges faced in India.

b) It aims to build funnel for ‘Startup India’ campaign.

c) Provide opportunity to citizens to provide innovative solutions to India’s daunting problems.

d) It is a nationwide initiative to provide students a platform to solve some of pressing problems we face in daily lives.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Smart India Hackathon 2019 is a nationwide initiative to provide students a platform to solve some of pressing problems we face in our daily lives, and thus inculcate a culture of product innovation and a mindset of problem solving.

27. Which among the following is the first municipal corporation setup in India?

a) Delhi Municipal Corporation

b) Bombay Municipal Corporation

c) Madras Municipal Corporation

d) Kolkata Municipal Corporation

Answer: c only

Explanation: The Madras Corporation is the oldest municipal body of the Commonwealth of Nations outside the United Kingdom. It was formed in 1688 to control the powers of the Governor of Madras.

28. In which year did India become a sovereign democratic republic?

a) 26th January 1950

b) 15th August 1947

c) 30th January 1948

d) 14th January 1947

Answer: b only

Explanation: Republic Day honours the date on which the Constitution of India came into effect on 26 January 1950 replacing the Government of India Act as the governing document of India and became a sovereign democratic republic.

29. in which year, the first census of India was conducted?

a) 1947

b) 1872

c) 1857

d) 1867

Answer: b only

Explanation: The decennial Census of India has been conducted 15 times, as of 2011. While it has been conducted every 10 years, beginning in 1872 and completed on 1881.

30. How many islands are present in the Lakshadweep Islands?

a) 40

b) 38

c) 36

d) 30

Answer: c only

Explanation: Lakshadweep has 10 inhabited islands, 17 uninhabited islands, attached islets, 4 newly formed islets and 5 submerged reefs. 10 inhabited islands are, Andrott, Amini, Agatti, Bitra, Cheetal, Kadmatt, Kalpeni, Kavaratti, Kiltan and Minicoy. There are 36 Islands in Lakshadweep group.

31. With Cotton production of India crossing new heights, name the largest cotton growing state?

a) Maharashtra

b) Gujarat

c) Bihar

d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer: b only

Explanation: Gujarat produces around 95 Lakh Bales of cotton, which stands around 30% of the complete cotton production of the country.

32. With reference to Minimum Support Price (MSP), consider the following?

a) Aims to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices.

b) It is a guarantee price for farmers for their produce from the Government.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).

33. With reference to National Horticulture Mission, consider the following statements:

a) NHM aims to provide holistic growth of the horticulture sector through an area based regionally differentiated strategies.

b) Its objective is to create opportunities for employment generation for skilled and unskilled person.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: National Horticulture Mission (NHM) is an Indian horticulture Scheme promoted by Government of India. It was launched under the 10th five-year plan in the year 2005-06.While Government of India contributes 85%, 15% share is contributed by State Governments.

34. With reference to National Bamboo Mission, consider the following statements:

a) Promote the growth of the bamboo sector through as an area based regionally differentiated strategy.

b) To promote marketing of bamboo and bamboo based handicrafts.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: National Bamboo Mission (NBM) is being implemented as a sub scheme. It envisages promoting holistic growth of bamboo sector by adopting area-based, regionally differentiated strategy and to increase the area under bamboo cultivation and marketing.

35. With reference to the launch of e-Charak platform for medicinal plants, name the ministry associated with the initiative?

a) Ministry of Corporate affairs

b) Ministry of Home Affairs

c) Ministry of Ayush

d) Ministry of Agriculture

Answer: c only

Explanation: e-Charak has been jointly developed by the National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB), Ministry of Ayush, Government of India and Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC).

36. Name the government body associated with committee to boost digital payments?

a) RBI

b) Ministry of Finance

c) Digital India

d) Department of Income Tax

Answer: an only

Explanation: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has constituted a High-Level Committee on Deepening of Digital Payments to encourage digitisation of payments and enhance financial inclusion. The five-member committee will be headed by UIDAI’s former Chairman Nandan Nilekani.

37. Name the countries, which are planning to use India as a base to address their food security concerns?

a) Iran and Iraq

b) UAE and Saudi Arabia

c) Iran and Saudi Arabia

d) Iraq and Saudi Arabia

Answer: b only

Explanation: Union Commerce Ministry has announced that the UAE and Saudi Arabia had decided to use India as a base to address their food security concerns. For the first time, India’s export policy identifies the potential of agriculture along with horticulture, dairy, plantation and fisheries. The farm-to-port project will be similar to a special economic zone but in the style of a corporatised farm, where crops would be grown keeping a specific UAE market in mind. The concept has been accepted by both governments.

38. Su Tseng Chang was appointed as the new premier of which country?

a) Malaysia

b) Taiwan

c) Indonesia

d) Singapore

Answer: b only

Explanation: Taiwan President Tsai Ing-wen has appointed Su Tseng-chang as Prime Minister during a Cabinet reshuffle.

39. Which countries are involved in the dispute of Chagos Islands?

a) United States and India

b) UK and Mauritius

c) Maldives and Srilanka

d) India and UK

Answer: b only

Explanation: Sovereignty over the Chagos Islands is disputed between Mauritius and the United Kingdom, where India is supporting the former.

40. Name the cricket team which won the Duleep Trophy 2018?

a) India Yellow

b) India Green

c) India Blue

d) India Orange

Answer: c only

Explanation: India Blue has won 2017-18 Duleep Trophy by defeating defending champion India Red by an innings and 187 runs.

41. Which of the following statements regarding the new amended version of the Forests rights act are true?

1) Under the act Forest dwellers can transport minor forest produce by any appropriate means of transport.

2) Transit passes for transporting minor forest produce will be issued by a committee constituted by the district administration.

3) No committee or individual official at the panchayat, block or forest range level except the forest rights committee shall be eligible to receive, decide or reject the forest rights claims.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

42. Which of the following pairs of tribals and their inhabiting states are correctly matched ?

1) Kand :Odisha

2) Warli : Gujarat

3) Adiyan :Tamilnadu

4) Chakma : Nagaland

5) Asur : West Bengal

a) 1,2 & 3 only

b) 1,3 & 5 only

c) 3,4 & 5 only

d) all of the above

43. With respect to the Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kits (SAECK)to be distributed by the Union home ministry which of the following statements are true ?

1) The Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kits (SAECK) or ‘rape investigation kits’ are designed to carry out immediate medico-legal investigation and aid in furnishing evidence in sexual assault and rape cases.

2) Each kit comprises essential items that will aid in furnishing evidence such as blood and semen samples in sexual assault and rape cases, helping the prosecution to gather evidence.

3) Under the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution, ‘Police’ and ‘Public Order’ are State subjects and the States are competent to equip their police stations suitably with these kits.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

44. Consider the following statements with respect to solar energy production :

1) ‘Solar PV’ works by photons in sun’s rays knocking off electrons in the semi-conducting material in the panels and channels them through a wire the stream of electrons is electricity.

2) While Solar thermal systems, in contrast, suck up sun’s heat and conduct it to where it is needed – such as for drying of spices or fish or wet paint.

3) There is no loss in conversion of light energy into electric energy in a solar PV but a Solar thermal system has high conversion losses.

Which of the above statements are true ?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q45. Which of the following is the first country to allow voting through mobile phones in a parliamentary election?

a) Lithuania

b) Estonia

c) Latvia

d) Kenya

46. Consider the following statements regarding Net Interest Income (NII):

1) Net interest income is the difference between the revenue that is generated from a bank’s assets and the expenses associated with paying its liabilities.

2) A bank can earn more interest from its assets than it pays out on its liabilities, which means the bank is profitable.

3) Banks with variable rate assets and liabilities will be more sensitive to changes in interest rates than those with fixed rate assets and liabilities.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

47. Which of the following are important sites of nesting places of olive ridley turtles across the world?

1) Galapagos islands

2) Gulf of California

3) Gahirmatha

4) Coromandal coast

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 3 & 4 only

c) all the above

d) 1 & 3 only

48. Which of the following statements regarding India’s pollution statistics are true?

1) India can achieve its air quality goals if it completely eliminates emissions from household sources

2) A recent study has pointed out that the use of firewood, kerosene and coal in the households contributed to about 40% of the PM 2.5 pollution in the Gangetic basin districts.

3) If all households transitioned to clean fuels, about 13% of premature mortality in India could be averted.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

49. Which of the following statements with respect to sexual harassment at workplace (prevention, prohibition & redressal) 2013 act are true?

1) The Act uses a definition of sexual harassment which was laid down by the Supreme Court of India in Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997).

2) The Supreme Court asserted that in case of a non-compliance or non-adherence of the Vishaka Guidelines, it would be open to the aggrieved persons to approach the Supreme Court only.

3) Under the act Government can order an officer to inspect workplace and records related to sexual harassment in any organisation.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

50. Mount Agung which recently erupted is in which of the following countries?

a) Bali

b) Java

c) New Zealand

d) Japan

ANSWER:

41(c), 42(b), 43(d), 44(a), 45(b), 46(c), 47(c), 48(d), 49(c), 50(a)

Source: Civilservicesindia+The Hindu+PIB

Petya Ransomware Attack

Key Features:

Petya Ransomware was part of a new wave of cyber-attacks that had hit computer servers all across Europe, locking up computer data and crippling enterprise services in the corporate sector.

  1. Ransomware is a type of malware that blocks access to a computer or its data and demands money to release it.
  2. When a computer is infected, the Ransomware encrypts important documents and files and then demands a ransom, typically in Bitcoin, for a digital key needed to unlock the files
  3. Ukraine and Russia are the worst affected, though the attack has also impacted some companies in the US and other Western European countries

NASA Developing First Asteroid Deflection Mission

Key Feature:

NASA is developing the first-ever mission that will deflect a near-Earth asteroid, and help test   the systems that will allow mankind to protect the planet from potential cosmic body impacts in future.

  1. The Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART) — which is being designed and would be built and managed by the John Hopkins Applied Physics Laboratory.
  2. DART would be NASA‘s first mission to demonstrate what‘s known as kinetic impact or technique — striking the asteroid to shift its orbit — to defend against a potential future asteroid impact.
  3. The target for DART is an asteroid, Didymos that will have a distant approach to Earth in October 2022 and then again in 2024.
  4. The Didymos asteroid system has been closely studied since 2003. It has been classified as potentially hazardous asteroid.

Two Stages to Orbit (TSTO) Space Transportation System

Key Features:

Recently India became the fifth nation to successfully conduct the flight demonstration of a scaled down version of a winged-body reusable launch vehicle.

It is a stepping stone towards fully reusable Two Stage to Orbit (TSTO) space transportation system.

  1. TSTO launch vehicle can launch payload to Lower Earth Orbit (LEO) with 15 times reusability.
  2. It also validates the critical technologies such as autonomous navigation, guidance & control, reusable thermal protection system and re-entry mission management
  3. Low earth orbit is defined as an orbit within a locus extending from the earth‘s surface up to an altitude of 1,200 miles.
  4. Most communication applications use LEO satellites because it takes less energy to place the satellites into LEO.
  5. Also, they need less powerful amplifiers for successful transmission.
  6. As LEO orbits are not geostationary, a network of satellites is required to provide continuous coverage.

Electric Propulsion System

Recently, ISRO has planned to launch GSAT-20, based on electric propulsion technology which has helped in reducing the weight of the satellite to just 3.5 tonnes.

  1. Electric Propulsion System (EPS) can reduce the dependence on chemical propellant thereby increasing the payload capacity of the vehicle.
  2. Electric Propulsion system helps in orbit correction of a satellite.
  3. It helps in maintaining a satellite on its path during its entire life duration.
  4. This system provides small but accurate thrust to a satellite in its orbit.
  5. The new system converts solar energy available in the space into electrical energy and later to kinetic energy by generating thrust that propels a satellite.
  6. This system has been already tested by Russian space agency and NASA.
  7. It has immense capability to eventually lower the cost of launches.

Green Propellants by ISRO

Key features:

The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) is developing green propellants for future rockets, considering the harmful effects of exhausts released by rockets on the earth’s atmosphere.

  1. ISRO has developed eco-friendly solid propellant based on Glycidyl Azide Polymer (GAP) as fuel and Ammonium Di-Nitramide (ADN) as oxidizer at the laboratory level, which will eliminate the emission of chlorinated exhaust products from rocket motors.
  2. The LOX/LH2 (liquid oxygen – liquid hydrogen) combination is already being used in the cryogenic upper stages of GSLV and GSLV Mk-III launch vehicles.
  3. Additional Facts: ISRO has successfully developed ISROSENE, which is a rocket grade version of kerosene as an alternative to conventional hydrazine rocket fuel.
  4. The propellants that are being used now have a very reactive effect on the ozone layer due to the release of chlorinated exhaust products.

UPSC IAS Prelims 2019: Important Study Notes

UPSC and State Public Services Commission Prelims and Mains Exam 2019

Western Disturbances

  • Western Disturbance is an extra tropical storm originating in the Mediterranean region that brings sudden winter rain to the north-western parts of the Indian sub-continent.
  • It is a non-monsoonal precipitation pattern driven by the westerlies.
  • Extra-tropical storms are a global phenomenon with moisture usually carried in the upper atmosphere, unlike their tropical counterparts where the moisture is carried in the lower atmosphere.
  • Western disturbances bring moderate to heavy rain in low-lying areas and heavy snow to mountainous areas of the Indian Subcontinent.
  • Precipitation has great importance in agriculture, particularly for the Rabi crops. Wheat among them is one of the most important crops, which helps to meet India’s food security.

UNESCO Geo Park

UNESCO Global Geoparks are single, unified geographical areas where sites and landscapes of international geological significance are managed with a holistic concept of protection, education and sustainable development.

At present, there are 147 UNESCO Global Geoparks in 41 countries

UNESCO Global Geoparks is given this designation for a period of four years after which the functioning and quality of each UNESCO Global Geoparks are thoroughly re-examined during a revalidation process.

In 2018 Lonar Lake in Maharashtra and St. Mary’s Island and Malpe beach in coastal Karnataka are listed for UNESCO Global Geopark Network status.

Helium Hydride Ion

Scientists have detected that Helium hydride ion (HeH+) was the first molecule to be formed in the universe.

During big bang, ionized hydrogen and neutral helium atoms reacted to form HeH+.

The molecule will emit its strongest spectral line at a characteristic wavelength of 0.149 mm.

NASA’s high-flying observatory SOFIA detected this molecule towards a planetary nebula.

SOFIA

Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared Astronomy (SOFIA) is an aircraft with reflecting telescope, flying into the stratosphere at 38,000-45,000 feet.

SOFIA is put above Earth’s infrared-blocking atmosphere, allowing astronomers to study the solar system and beyond in ways that are not possible with ground-based telescopes.

The observatory’s mobility allows researchers to observe from almost anywhere in the world and enables studies of transient events that often take place over oceans where there are no telescopes.

Genome Sequencing

Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) with co-operation of Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) has initiated a genome sequencing project for educating a generation of students on the “usefulness” of genomics.

Globally, many countries have undertaken genome sequencing of a sample of their citizens to determine unique genetic traits, susceptibility (and resilience) to disease.

This is the first time that such a large sample of Indians will be recruited for a detailed study.

The project aims to sequence at least 10,000 Indian genomes, where Genomes will be sequenced based on a blood sample.

International Fleet Review

International Fleet Review (IFR) is a parade of naval ships, aircraft and submarines, and is organized by nations to promote goodwill, strengthen cooperation and showcase their organizational capabilities.

IFR also serves as an ideal platform for the world’s navies to showcase their prowess and indigenous ship designing and shipbuilding capabilities in a global/ international arena.

Indian Navy warships INS Kolkata and INS Shakti will be participating in IFR 2109, China.

Indo-Pacific Division

Ministry of External Affairs has setup Indo-Pacific division to integrate the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA), ASEAN region and the Quad to the Indo-Pacific table.

Countries falling in the direct hinterland of the vast Indian and Pacific oceanic expanse are termed ‘Indo-Pacific countries’.

It is a multipolar region, contributing more than half of the world’s GDP and population.

It has several important regional trading blocs, many of which have implemented free trade agreements (FTAs) in goods and services and some of which have even been elevated to the Customs Union.

This move will give a coherent architecture to the policy articulated at the Shangri-La Dialogue in 2018.

Shangri-La Dialogue is an annual security dialogue that brings together defence ministers and military chiefs from 28 Asia-Pacific countries to talk about security in the region.

Tiger census

Tiger census in India is conducted every four years by the National Tiger Conservation Authorities (NTCA).

The first all India tiger census was conducted in 2006.

Wildlife Institute of India (WII), a Union Environment Ministry funded body, is coordinating agency for the tiger estimation exercise.

NTCA uses an android app named MSTrIPES (Monitoring system for Tigers – Intensive Protection and Ecological Status), for the proper location data feeding and filling the record more accurately.

The app will capture the forest team’s route throughout the forest and assist them in uploading geo-tagged images into the database

According to the last survey conducted in 2014, the tiger count was 2,226.

Microplastics

Microplastics are a type of plastic fragment that is less than five millimetres in length, which are atmospheric pollutants.

Microplastics include fragments, fibres and sheet-like pieces of film.

According to recent reports, microplastics are carried away by winds and being deposited in a remote, high-altitude mountain location far from any major city causing microplastic-pollution.

Zinc Deficiency

According to recent research, it is found that inadequate zinc intake has been rising in India for decades, causing tens of millions of people to become newly deficient in it.

Rising carbon dioxide levels can accelerate zinc deficiency in crops and thus in human consumption.

The highest rate of inadequate zinc intake was concentrated mainly in the southern and northeastern States with rice-dominated diets: Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Manipur and Meghalaya.

Salt Tolerant Rice

Researchers have developed a new salt-tolerant transgenic rice plant by over-expressing a gene from wild rice called Porteresia coarctata into the commonly used IR 64 indicia rice variety.

Porteresia coarctata is a native of India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh and Myanmar and is grown mainly in saline estuaries.

The new crop can withstand salt concentration of up to 200 micromoles per litre or about half as saline as seawater without affecting normal growth and grain yield under greenhouse conditions.

Origin of life from Ponds

According to a recent study, primitive ponds may have provided a suitable environment for creating the earth’s first life forms, more so than oceans.

Shallow water bodies could have held high concentrations of nitrogen, a key ingredient for jump-starting life on the earth.

Nitrogenous oxides were likely deposited in water bodies, including oceans and ponds, as remnants of the breakdown of nitrogen in earth’s atmosphere.

Atmospheric nitrogen comprises two nitrogen molecules, linked via a strong triple bond that can only be broken by an extremely energetic event namely, lightning.

In the ocean, UV light and dissolved iron would have made nitrogenous oxides far less available for synthesizing living organisms.

In shallow ponds, however, life would have had a better chance to grow, mainly because ponds have much less volume over which compounds can be diluted.

 As a result, nitrogenous oxides would have built up to much higher concentrations in Ponds.

Mariana Trench

  1. The Mariana Trench is located in the western Pacific Ocean and has the deepest natural trench in the world.
  2. It is a crescent-shaped trough in the Earth’s crust averaging about 2,550 km long and 69 km wide.
  3. The maximum known depth is 10,994 meters (36,070 ft) at the southern end of a small slot-shaped valley in its floor known as the Challenger Deep.
  4. For comparison: if Mount Everest were dropped into the trench at this point, its peak would still be over two kilometres (1.2 mi) under water.
  5. The trench is not the part of the seafloor closest to the centre of the Earth since the Earth is not a perfect sphere.
  6. Recently scientists have discovered unique oil-eating bacteria in the Mariana Trench.
  7. The found microorganisms eat compounds similar to those in oil and then use it for fuel.

3D- Printed Heart

Recently Scientists have unveiled a 3D print of a heart with human tissue and vessels.

This invention is a major medical breakthrough that advances possibilities for transplants in near future.

Maternal Spindle Transfer

Fertility doctors in Greece and Spain have produced a baby from three people in order to overcome a woman’s infertility; the team used a technique called maternal spindle transfer (MST).

It was developed to help families affected by deadly mitochondrial diseases which are passed down from mother to baby.

The experimental form of MST uses an egg from the mother, sperm from the father, and another egg from a donor woman.

All cells have mitochondria, which are like power packs for the cells and create the energy that keeps cells alive.

While a child’s DNA is a mixture from both the mother and father, mitochondria are separate “packages of genetics” that come solely from the mother.

Some people have a mitochondrial disease a problem with the genetics in their mitochondria which can lead to severe, life-threatening conditions, although this is rare.

One treatment for a woman who might have one of these diseases is to replace the mitochondria in her eggs via IVF.

Central Monitoring Committee on Pollution

  1. National Green Tribunal (NGT) has formed a Central Monitoring Committee to prepare and enforce a national plan to make over 350 river stretches across the country pollution free.
  2. The Chairman of the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) will be the nodal authority for coordination.
  3. The Chief Secretaries of the states will act as the nodal agency at the state level.
  4. The committee has been composed to monitor pollution of rivers, as it has caused a serious threat to the safety of water and environment.

Besides checking river pollution, the central monitoring committee will coordinate with the River Rejuvenation Committees of the states and oversee the execution of the action plans.

Wholesale Price Index

A wholesale price index (WPI) is an index that measures and tracks the changes in the price of goods in the stages before the retail level – that is, goods that are sold in bulk and traded between entities or businesses instead of consumers.

Usually expressed as a ratio or percentage, the WPI shows the included goods average price change and is often seen as one indicator of a country’s level of inflation.

Some countries use WPI changes as a central measure of inflation, but India has adopted new CPI to measure inflation.

WPI is published by the Economic Adviser in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, where CPI is released by CSO.

The Wholesale Price Index focuses on the price of goods traded between corporations, rather than goods bought by consumers, which is measured by the Consumer Price Index.

DART Mission

  • Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART) is NASA’s first mission to demonstrate kinetic impact or technique which will strike the asteroid to shift its orbit to defend against a potential future asteroid impact.
  • The target for DART is an asteroid that will have a distant approach to Earth in October 2022 and then again in 2024.
  • The asteroid is called Didymos, an asteroid binary system that consists of two bodies: Didymos A, and Didymos B.
  • The kinetic impact technique works by changing the speed of a threatening asteroid by a small fraction of its total velocity, which would shift the asteroid’s path away from Earth.

Nirbhay Missile

Nirbhay is a Long Range Sub-Sonic Cruise Missile designed and developed by DRDO.

The missile has been recently test fired from the Integrated Test Range (ITR), located in Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha.

The missile has way point navigation and sea-skimming capability to cruise at very low altitudes.

Leucistic Squirrel

For the first time, Leucistic five-striped palm squirrel has been reported from north India.

Funambulus pennanti is more frequently found in the northern part of India including Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan and Bihar.

Colour abnormalities are very rare in wild mammals; these abnormalities may be governed by several factors like environmental pollution, congenital infection, low nutrition food and genetic causes.

Leucism is a condition where there is partial loss of pigmentation in animals on the skin; however, the loss of colour does not extend to the eye.

On the other hand, in albinism, the affected individual is totally white, with red eyes.

The survival rate of Leucistic animals is comparatively lesser than non-Leucistic ones because of their distinctive features which easily gets noticed by predators.

Yangtze giant soft-shell turtles

  • The only known female member of Yangtze giant soft-shell turtle has died recently in China.
  • The animal was one of four known to be remaining in the world, rest three turtles are male.
  • It is also known as the Red River giant soft-shell turtle.
  • It is listed as critically endangered in the IUCN Red List.

PEETHA

Odisha Chief Minister announced a new programme “PEETHA” for transparency and awareness on various government schemes.

The programme, the Peoples Empowerment Enabling Transparency and Accountability or PEETHA aims to improve transparency in the distribution of individual and social benefits.

TROPEX- 2019 Exercise

Indian Navy will conduct its flagship large-scale coastal defence exercise “Theatre Level Operational Readiness Exercise” (TROPEX) from next year to test the robustness of entire coastal security apparatus.

It is an annual exercise that takes place on Western Seaboard.

It is a tri-service exercise in which troops from the Indian Army and fighter aircraft from Indian Air will also participate.

It is conducted to test various aspects of not only joint combat capabilities but also to test the war capabilities of three services in a war-like situation.

SWADESH DARSHAN SCHEME

Swadesh Darshan scheme is one among the flagship schemes of the Ministry of Tourism for development of thematic circuits in the country in a planned and prioritized manner.

The scheme was launched in 2014 -15.

Under this scheme, the Government is focussing on the development of quality infrastructure in the country with the objective of providing better experience and facilities to the visitors on one hand and on other hand fostering the economic growth.

One World One Sun One Grid

  1. 24thmeeting of Conference of Parties (COP-24) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was held at Katowice, Poland.
  2. This year the theme of the Indian Pavillion was “One World One Sun One Grid”.
  3. India will try for achieving 175 GW target for installed Renewable Energy capacity by 2022.
  4. India stands 4th in wind power 5th in renewable power and 5th in solar power.   
  5. Under Ujjwala scheme, 58 million households are already covered under and it will not only contribute to improved health of women and children but also help on reducing deforestation.
  6. India also pledged to get rid of single-use plastic by 2022 across the country.
  7. India’s leadership in global climate action has been recognized and PM Narendra Modi has been awarded the “champions of Earth Award” this year by the United Nations in promoting International Solar Alliance and resolve to make India plastic free by 2022.

Rihand Dam

Rihand Dam, also known as Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar, is the country’s largest reservoir by volume and largest artificial lake, located on the Rihand River.

Its catchment area spread over Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh

The largest floating solar plant to date is a 2MW one in Vishakhapatnam.

Another is a 500-kWh plant built by the Kerala State Electricity Board at the Banasura Sagar Dam.

Recently a 50 Mega Watt floating solar plant will be set up in the country’s largest reservoir Rihand dam in Sonbhadra district of Uttar Pradesh.

PRASAD (Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive) Scheme

  • The scheme was launched by Ministry of Tourism in 2014-15.
  • The scheme aimed at infrastructure development such as entry points (road, rail, and water transport), last mile connectivity and basic tourism facilities.
  • Under the scheme ‘Prasad’, the Ministry of Tourism provides Central Financial Assistance (CFA) to State Governments/Union Territory Administrations for development and beautification of the identified pilgrimage destinations.
  • It is a 100% Central Government funded scheme.
  • Initially, Twelve cities were identified, namely Amaravati (Andhra Pradesh), Gaya(Bihar), Dwaraka(Gujarat), Amritsar(Punjab), Ajmer(Rajasthan), Kanchipuram(Tamil Nadu), Velankanni (Tamil Nadu), Puri(Odisha), Varanasi(Uttar Pradesh), Mathura(Uttar Pradesh), Kedarnath (Uttarakhand) and Kamakhya (Assam) for development under PRASAD by the Ministry of Tourism.
  • To implement the PRASAD scheme a Mission Directorate has been set up in the Ministry of Tourism.
  • Recently, Centre has included Gangotri and Yamunotri in Uttarakhand, Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh and Parasnath in Jharkhand under this central scheme to develop pilgrimage and heritage destinations in the country.

With the new additions, the number of sites under the Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive (PRASAD) scheme has now become 41 in 25 states.

Colistin

Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) said that a ban on the use of the antibiotic colistin would be a step in the right direction.

India’s highest drug advisory body, the Drug Technical Advisory Board had recommended a stoppage on the use of colistin by poultry farmers.

Colistin is a last resort antibiotic which is administered to human beings when most other antibiotics fail to function.

However, it is indiscriminately used by the poultry industry to promote growth and prevent the occurrence of infections in chicken.

Increasing evidence has linked this to the development of resistance against colistin in humans.

OSIRIS-REx

NASA’s Origins, Spectral Interpretation, Resource Identification, Security-Regolith Explorer (OSIRIS-REx) spacecraft completed its journey to arrive at the asteroid Bennu on 3 December 2018.

The primary goals of this survey are to refine estimates of Bennu’s mass and spin rate and to generate a more precise model of its shape.

The mission will help scientists investigate how planets formed and how life began, as well as improve our understanding of asteroids that could impact Earth.

Geosynchronous satellite

A geosynchronous satellite is a satellite in geosynchronous orbit, with an orbital period the same as the Earth’s rotation period.

A satellite in such an orbit is at an altitude of approximately 36000 km above mean sea level.

A special case of the geosynchronous satellite is the geostationary satellite, which has a geostationary orbit– a circular geosynchronous orbit directly above the Earth’s equator.

Geostationary satellites have the special property of remaining permanently fixed in exactly the same position in the sky, as viewed from any location on Earth, meaning that ground-based antennas do not need to track them but can remain fixed in one direction.

Such satellites are often used for communication purposes.

GSAT-11

ISRO’s heaviest and most-advanced high throughput communication satellite GSAT-11 was successfully launched from the Spaceport in French Guiana on December 5, 2018.

The launch vehicle Ariane 5 VA-246 lifted off from Kourou Launch Base, French Guiana carrying India’s GSAT-11 and South Korea’s GEO-KOMPSAT-2A satellites, as scheduled.

Ariane 5 is one of three launch vehicles operated by Arianespace along with Soyuz and Vega.

The 5,854-kg GSAT-11 will provide high data rate connectivity to users of Indian mainland and islands through 32 user beams in Ku-band and 8 hub beams in Ka-band.

GSAT-11 will boost the broadband connectivity to rural and inaccessible Gram Panchayats in the country coming under the Bharat Net Project, which is part of Digital India Programme.

GSAT-11 will be positioned at 74-degree east longitude in the geostationary orbit.

Subsequently, the two solar arrays and four antenna reflectors of GSAT-11 will be deployed in orbit.

Mukhyamantri Tirth Yatra Yojana

Under the scheme, any resident of Delhi above 60 years of age will be eligible for the scheme and those above 70 years can have one attendant.

The scheme does not have any income criterion, but preference will be given to those who are from the economically weaker section.

The applicant should not be an employee of the central, state, local government or autonomous bodies.

The journey will be performed through Indian Railways.

A total of 77,000 pilgrims will be able to avail this facility every year.

The pilgrimage duration will be of three days and two nights and will be for any of the following routes:

(a) Delhi-Mathura-Vrindavan-Agra-Fatehpur Sikri-Delhi;

(b) Delhi-Haridwar-Rishikesh-Neelkanth-Delhi;

(c) Delhi-Ajmer-Pushkar-Delhi;

(d) Delhi-Amritsar-Wagah border-Anandpur Sahib-Delhi;

(e) Delhi-Vaishno Devi-Jammu-Delhi.

The Scheme will help and promoting communal harmony and brotherhood in society.

Shahpurkandi Dam

The Union Cabinet has approved implementation of Shahpurkandi Dam Project, Punjab on river Ravi.

Central Assistance of Rs. 485.38 cr (for irrigation component) would be provided over five years from 2018-19 to 2022-23.

Implementation of this project would help to minimize some of the water of the River Ravi which at present is going waste through the Madhopur Headworks downstream to Pakistan whereas there is a requirement for the same for use in Punjab and J&K.

Funding for Central Assistance to Shahpurkandi Dam project shall be made through NABARD under the existing system for funding of 99 PMKSY-AIBP projects under LTIF.

The project would be implemented by Govt. of Punjab with Central Assistance of Rs. 485.38 crore the project would be completed by June 2022.

Digital Sky Platform

The DGCA announced the Civil Aviation Regulations (CAR) to enable safe flying of Remotely Piloted Aerial Systems (RPAS) popularly referred to as drones in India.

It specified the obligations of operators, remote pilots/ users and manufacturers/ OEM for safe operations of RPAS and co-operative use of airspace.

It also announced Digital Sky Platform, a first of its kind that implements ‘no permission, no take-off’ (NPNT) – a novel system of software based self-enforcement to minimize deviations from the CAR.

The Digital Sky Platform will register and monitor the drones, pilots, and operators for online permission before the take-off.

This platform is built to evolve with the needs of the rapidly changing industry with Digital Sky Service Providers (DSPs) by extending the functionality of the platform through Application Program Interfaces (APIs).

Emergency Response Support System (ERSS)

The Union Home Minister launched Emergency Response Support System (ERSS) for the State of Nagaland at Kohima.

Nagaland is the first amongst the North-Eastern States and the second State in India to launch Pan-India single emergency number ‘112’ under ERSS.

Under this project, one Emergency Response Centre (ERC) has been established in Kohima along with 3 District Command Centers (DCCs), namely Kohima, Dimapur and Mokokchung.

The Emergency Response Centre is capable of receiving emergency calls through voice call to 112 emails; panic buttons activated calls and 112 India mobile App.

State of Nagaland has integrated ERSS with Tourist Police and Highway patrol and will expand to interior districts subsequently.

As a special feature, to ensure safety of women, a unique ‘SHOUT’ feature exclusively for women has been introduced in 112 India mobile App.

This feature allows victims to seek immediate assistance from registered volunteers in the vicinity apart from contacting Emergency Response Centre.

Tree Cover & Forest Cover

The MoEFCC defines ‘forest cover’ in India as all lands, more than one hectare in area with a tree canopy density of more than 10%.

The ‘tree cover’ is defined as tree patches outside recorded forest areas exclusive of forest cover and less than the minimum mappable area of one hectare.

Classification scheme for the purpose of Forest Cover assessment is described as follows:

Class Description

Very Dense Forest  All lands with tree canopy density of 70% and above.

Moderately Dense Forest  All lands with tree canopy density of 40% and more but less than 70%.

  • Open Forest all lands with tree canopy density of 10% and more but less than 40%.
  • Scrub Degraded forest lands with canopy density less than 10%.
  • Non-forest   Lands not included in any of the above classes.

Scheme for Higher Education Youth in Apprenticeship and Skills (SHREYAS)

The Ministry of Human Resources Development has launched the Scheme for Higher Education Youth in Apprenticeship and Skills (SHREYAS) for providing industry apprenticeship opportunities to the general graduates exiting in April 2019 through the National Apprenticeship Promotional Scheme (NAPS).

SHREYAS is a programme basket comprising the initiatives of three Central Ministries, namely the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship and the Ministry of Labour& Employment viz the National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS), the National Career Service (NCS)and introduction of BA/BSc/BCom (Professional) courses in the higher educational institutions.

  • SHREYAS is a programme conceived for students in degree courses, primarily non-technical, with a view to introduce employable skills into their learning, promote apprenticeship as integral to education and also amalgamate employment facilitating efforts of the Government into the education system so that clear pathways towards employment opportunities are available to students during and after their graduation.
  • To enhance the employability of Indian youth by providing ‘on the job work exposure’ and earning of stipend.
  • In all the tracks together, it is proposed to cover 50 lakh students by 2022.

Yuva Sahakar-Cooperative Enterprise Support and Innovation Scheme

To cater to the needs and aspirations of the youth, the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) has come up with a youth-friendly this scheme for attracting them to cooperative business ventures.

The newly launched scheme would encourage cooperatives to venture into new and innovative areas.

The scheme will be linked to Rs 1000 crore ‘Cooperative Start-up and Innovation Fund (CSIF)’ created by the NCDC.

The funding for the project will be up to 80% of the project cost for these special categories as against 70% for others.

The scheme envisages 2% less than the applicable rate of interest on term loan for the project cost up to Rs 3 crore including 2 years moratorium on payment of principal.

It would have more incentives for cooperatives of North Eastern region, Aspirational Districts and cooperatives with women or SC or ST or PwD members.

All types of cooperatives in operation for at least one year are eligible.

Feni

  • It is popular local traditional brew (liquor) distilled from the cashew fruit.
  • Cashew feni was given the Geographical Indication tag as manufactured goods.
  • The name feni is derived from Sanskrit word ‘phena’ meaning froth or foam.
  • It is also distilled from fermented toddy from coconut palm.
  • It is prepared in a typical Portuguese way that does not entail the use of electricity in the process.

Inclusive Internet Index 2019

The Inclusive Internet Index, commissioned by Facebook and conducted by The Economist Intelligence Unit, seeks to measure the extent to which the Internet is not only accessible and affordable, but also relevant to all, allowing usage that enables positive social and economic outcomes at individual and group level.

The aim of the Inclusive Internet Index is to provide researchers and policymakers with the information they need to enable the beneficial use of the Internet, irrespective of age, gender, location or background.

The index assesses the performance of 100 countries in four categories of inclusion: Accessibility, Affordability, Relevance and Readiness. Each category incorporates key indicators of internet inclusion, including quantitative measures such as network coverage and pricing, and qualitative measures such as the presence of e-inclusion policies and the availability of local-language content.

Sweden has topped the rankings followed by Singapore and the US.

India has been ranked 47th.

 PRANAM Commission

Assam has launched the PRANAM Commission, a panel set up to look after the issues concerning a Bill brought in for protection of parents of state government employees.

The Parents Responsibility and Norms for Accountability and Monitoring (PRANAM) Bill, stated to be the first-of its-kind Bill in the country, is an effort to protect elderly parents of government employees in their times of need.

To ensure that no state government employee ignores their elderly parents and unmarried differently-abled siblings.

The PRANAM Bill makes it mandatory for the state government employees to look after their parents and unmarried differently-abled siblings who do not have their own sources of income.

Under the bill’s provisions, if the PRANAM Commission gets a complaint that parents of a state government employee are being ignored, then 10 or 15 per cent of the employee’s salary will be deducted by the government and paid to the parents or differently-abled siblings.

The employees of private companies and the central government working in the state would also be covered by the bill at a later stage.

Mirage 2000 Fighter Jet

  • Indian Air Force Mirage 2000 fighters were used to destroy the Jaish-e-Mohammad camps at Balakot along the Line of Control.
  • It is a French multirole, single-engine fourth-generation fighter jet.
  • It is manufactured by Dassault Aviation.
  • It gained prominence after their remarkable success rate in the 1999 Kargil war.
  • It has a maximum climbing speed of 60,000 feet per minute and is designed for all weather penetration at low altitude.

Benefits of Repo Rate

It will make the system more transparent since every borrower will know the fixed interest rate and the spread value decided by the bank.

It will help borrowers compare loans in a better way from different banks.

Under the new system, a bank is required to adopt a uniform external benchmark within a loan category so that there is transparency, standardisation and ease of understanding for the borrowers.

This would mean that same bank cannot adopt multiple benchmarks within a loan category.

Repo Rate

Technically, Repo stands for ‘Repurchasing Option’.

It refers to the rate at which commercial banks borrow money from the RBI in case of shortage of funds. It is one of the main tools of RBI to keep inflation under control.

When we borrow money from the bank, they charge an interest on the principal. Basically, it is cost of credit.

Similarly, banks too can borrow money from RBI during cash crunch on which they must pay interest to the Central Bank. This interest rate is repo rate.

Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)

Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR) is the minimum interest rate, below which a bank is not permitted to lend. RBI can give authorization for the same in exceptional cases.

MCLR replaced the earlier base rate system to determine the lending rates for commercial banks.

RBI implemented it on 1 April 2016 to determine rates of interests for loans.

It is an internal reference rate for banks to decide what interest they can levy on loans.

For this, they take into account the additional or incremental cost of arranging additional rupee for a prospective buyer.

Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air missiles (QRSAM)

India has successfully test-fired two indigenously developed Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air missiles (QRSAM) from a test range off the Odisha coast.

  1. The trials were conducted by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) from Launch Complex 3 of the Integrated Test Range (ITR) at Chandipur.
  2. This missile has been developed to replace the ‘Akash’ missile defence system, and has 360-degree coverage, light weight, high mobility and shorter second reaction time as compared to ‘Akash’.
  3. It also uses solid fuel propellant and has a stated range of strike range of 25-30 km with capability of hitting multiple targets.

It is capable of hitting the low flying objects.

It successfully demonstrated the robust Control, Aerodynamics, Propulsion, Structural performance and high maneuvering capabilities thus proving the design configuration.

Radars, Electro Optical Systems, Telemetry and other stations have tracked the Missiles and monitored through the entire flights.

Exercise Sampriti-2019

It is an important bilateral defence cooperation endeavour between India and Bangladesh and this will be the eighth edition of the exercise which is hosted alternately by both countries.

As part of the ongoing India Bangladesh defence cooperation, the joint military exercise will be conducted at Tangail, Bangladesh.

The exercise is aimed to strengthen and broaden the aspects of interoperability and cooperation between the Indian and Bangladesh Armies.

The exercise will involve tactical level operations in a counter insurgency and counter terrorism environment under the UN mandate.

In addition to understanding each other in tactical level operations, emphasis will also be laid for greater cultural understanding to strengthen military trust and cooperation between the two nations.

Phen Wildlife Sanctuary

It is a popular buffer zone of Kanha national park, Madhya Pradesh.

It lies in Southern region of Kanha tiger reserve, close to Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh state borders.

It was declared as a wildlife sanctuary in year 1983 by Government of Madhya Pradesh.

The Fauna at this sanctuary mainly consists of the Tiger, Leopard, Wild boar, Cheetal, Sambar etc.

Marine Clouds

Marine clouds could break up and vanish if CO2 in the atmosphere triples.

It protects us from hothouse Earth conditions by reflecting sunlight back into space.

It is the stratocumulus clouds that cover about 20 % of subtropical oceans, mostly near western seaboards such as the coasts of California, Mexico and Peru.

These clouds cool and shade the earth as they reflect the sunlight that reflects them back into space.

Due to the rise in Carbon Dioxide it may become unstable and disappear.

The consequence will trigger a spike in global warming.

Global Digital Health Partnership (GDHP)

Global Digital Health Partnership (GDHP) is an international collaboration of governments, government agencies and multinational organisations.

It is dedicated to improving the health and well-being of their citizens through the best use of evidence-based digital technologies.

Governments are making significant investments to harness the power of technology and foster innovation and public-private partnerships that support high quality, sustainable health and care for all.

The GDHP facilitates global collaboration and co-operation in the implementation of digital health services.

Hayabusa 2 and Ryugu asteroid

  1. Hayabusa 2 is a Japanese probe sent to collect samples from an asteroid for clues about the origin of life and the solar system.
  2. It fired a bullet into the surface of the Ryugu asteroid.
  3. The Ryugu asteroid is thought to contain relatively large amounts of organic matter and water from some 4.6 billion years ago when the solar system was born.
  4. It was launched in December 2014 and is scheduled to return to the Earth with its samples in 2020.
  5. The probe will observe the surface of the asteroid with its camera and sensing equipment.

Central Information Commission (CIC)

The Central Information Commission (CIC) set up under the Right to Information Act is the authorized quasi judicial body, established in 2005.

It acts upon complaints from those individuals who have not been able to submit information requests due to either the officer not having been appointed, or because the respective Officer refused to receive the application for information under the RTI Act.

The Commission includes 1 Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) and not more than 10 Information Commissioners (IC) who are appointed by the President of India.

CIC and members are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a committee consisting of—Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha; a Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister.

Hindu Succession Act, 1956

Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, only sons had a direct right to ancestral property, excluding daughters from inheritance claims where the father did not leave a will.

From the 1970s onwards, changes in inheritance legislation sought to empower women by strengthening their financial and social position and reducing dependence on male relatives.

The traditional preference for sons was also supposed to lessen, because daughters, backed by possession of the family home, would be able to offer parents security in old age.

Equally, this was expected to eradicate the dowry system, a key contributing factor to the perception of a daughter as a financial burden.

MUDRA Scheme

The Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana was introduced in April 2015 as an effort to extend affordable credit to micro and small enterprises.

Loans up to Rs. 10 lakh are extended to these non-corporate, non-farm enterprises by the Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency (MUDRA) through last-mile financial institutions.

So far, 15.56 crore loans worth a total of Rs. 7.23 lakh crore have been disbursed.

In December 2017, faced with mounting criticism on the failure to create job opportunities, the Labour Ministry had asked the Labour Bureau to initiate the survey on jobs created through the MUDRA scheme.

Wallace’s giant bee

It is the world’s largest bee that was recently rediscovered in a remote part of Indonesia.

Wallace’s giant bee was discovered in the 19th century by British naturalist Alfred Russel Wallace.

The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species lists the bee as “vulnerable”.

It was nicknamed the “flying bulldog as it is nearly four times bigger than the European bee.

It lives in the Indonesian island region of North Moluccas and makes its nest in termite mounds.

Invisible Ink

The NPL prepared the ‘invisible ink’ as part of a pilot project mooted by the Mysore Paints and Varnish Ltd. (MVPL)

It is a transparent liquid as an organic-inorganic mixture that was biodegradable and could be washed off in 48 hours.

It works on the well-known principle of fluorescence — certain materials emit a characteristic glow when exposed to ultraviolet light.

The NPL ink, however, glows only when exposed to a narrow band of frequencies of ultraviolet (UV) light.

The NPL’s invisible ink experiment is linked to a larger project of creating security inks that could be used to make bank notes and documents, such as passports, more secure.

Indelible Ink in India

The ink was first used during India’s third General Elections in 1962. Indelible ink has been used in every General Election since

At the time, the country’s election commission was having a tough time dealing with identity theft, as they soon discovered that there were duplicate or fake votes.

Indelible ink is made of a chemical compound called silver nitrate.

When applied to the skin and exposed to ultraviolet light, it leaves a mark that is almost impossible to wash off.

The stain is so strong; in fact, it is only removed when the external skin cells are replaced

When put on the skin, silver nitrate reacts with the salt present on it to form silver chloride.

Silver chloride is not soluble in water, and clings to the skin. It cannot be washed off with soap and water.

Fernandina Giant Tortoise

  • It is a rare Giant Tortoise (Chelonoidis phantasticus).
  • It was feared to be extinct but has been found in a remote part of the Galapagos island of Fernandina recently.
  • The IUCN listed it as critically endangered & possibly extinct.
  • Its habitat is largely dry brush land at lower elevations, but much of that habitat has been destroyed by extensive lava flows.
  • Fernandina is the third largest Galapagos Island and features the La-Cumber volcano, one of the most active in the world.

Padayani

It is a ritual art and folk dance form performed at Bhadrakali temples in the state of Kerala.

The word ‘Padai-ani’ means line-up or formation of the soldiers.

The story behind Padayani is the re-enactment of the killing of Demon Darika and calming the Goddess Kali after it.

The dance is to appease the Goddess so that there is eradication of social evils and there is rain, good crop and prosperity.

Permanent Resident Certificate

  1. Permanent resident certificate is a legal document issued to Indian citizens that serves as evidence of residence and is required to be submitted as residential proof for official purpose.
  2. It is a domicile certificate otherwise called as Permanent Residence Certificate (PRC) to the residents of the state who stayed therein over a period.
  3. Those citizens who are not currently residing in the state but are sure of permanently staying therein can also apply for it.
  4. Besides the permanent residence certificate, the State also offers Temporary Residence Certificate (TRC) for those who reside in the State on a temporary basis.
  5. It enables the citizens to avail various policies and claims made in their particular state.

Bacteria Wolbachia

Key Points

Recently successful experiments were conducted in Australia, which demonstrated the positive correlation between presence of Wolbachia bacteria in mosquitoes and reduced spread of diseases such as Malaria and Dengue.

Wolbachia bacteria are a tiny bacterium that is present in up to 60% of all species of insects, including several mosquito species.

  1. It is one of the world‘s most common parasitic microbes and possibly the most common reproductive parasite in the biosphere.
  2. But it is usually not present in the Aedes aegypti mosquito, the primary species responsible for transmitting dengue, chikungunya and Zika.
  3. When present in the mosquito, the viruses (E.g. Zika Virus) cannot replicate and hence small numbers of Wolbachia-carrying mosquitoes are released in target areas.
  4. Once Wolbachia carrying mosquitoes are released, they breed with wild mosquitoes and over time, the majority of mosquitoes carry Wolbachia.

Thermal Battery Plant

India became home to the world‘s first-ever thermal battery plant which was inaugurated recently in Amravati, Andhra Pradesh.

It aims to create a new energy storage form that is expected to have commercial applications, while also maintaining a low carbon footprint, and being less dependent on external factors like weather.

It will be owned by Bharat Energy Storage Technology Private Limited (BEST).

It will have a battery capacity of 1000MW which is expected to be upgraded to a 10GW capacity by 2025.

It could provide energy solutions for electrical grids, transport and telecom services (help boost signal strength).

 Key Points:

  1. It is considered to be even better than solar energy which cannot be charged or utilized to their optimum potential after sunset or even when the skies are densely clouded.
  2. Conventional  battery  technology  work  on  basis  of  electrical  energy  and  is  based  on  system of charging and discharging cycles that are driven by electricity.
  3. Thermal battery use thermal energy to operate i.e. energy created by temperature differences.
  4. The energy transfer in this battery helps to store heat when heat travels from one part of battery setup to other.
  5. For this transmission, thermal battery consists of two parts viz. cool zone (sink) and hot source.

Digital North East Vision 2022

Key Points

Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) recently released The Digital North East Vision 2022 in Guwahati, Assam.

The vision document emphasizes on leveraging digital technologies to transform lives of people of north east and enhance ease of living.

It identifies eight digital thrust areas namely, Digital Infrastructure, Digital services, Promotion of Electronics Manufacturing, Digital empowerment, Promotion of IT and ITeS including BPOs, Digital Payments, Innovation & Startups and Cyber security.