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Daily Current Affairs 1-9 May 2019

Daily Current Affairs MCQ

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Current Affairs

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1. Name the nuclear power plant which is often termed as the nuclear titanic?

a) Akademik Lomonosov

b) Chernobyl

c) Sverdlovsk Oblast

d) Zarechny

Answer: a only

Explanation: Akademik Lomonosov is to be the first of a fleet of floating nuclear power stations to be stationed in the Russian Arctic. Environmentalists have termed it as a nuclear titanic.

2. Vedanthangal sanctuary known as the oldest water bird sanctuary is located in which state?

a) Karnataka

b) Tamilnadu

c) Rajasthan

d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer: b only

Explanation: Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary is a 30-hectare (74-acre) protected area located in the Kanchipuram District of the state of Tamil Nadu.

3. Name the river/rivers which originate and ends inside the territory of India?

a) Indus

b) Ganga

c) Brahmaputra

d) Chambal

Answer: d only

Explanation: The perennial Chambal originates at janapav, south of Mhow town, near manpur Indore. The river finishes at a meeting point of five rivers, which include the Kwari, Chambal, Sind, Yamuna, and Pahuj at Pachnanda.

4. Name the finance minister, who has presented the first budget of Independent India?

a) Moraji Desai

b) RK Shanukham Chetty

c) LK Advani

d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: b only

Explanation: Shanmukham Chetty was the Finance Minister of India when the country’s first budget was tabled in Parliament on 26 November 1947.

5. With reference to the Special Economic Zone (SEZ), which of the following statements are correct?

a) It serves as a platform for economic growth offering by quality infrastructure.

b) SEZ tries to promote investment from domestic and foreign sources.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Special Economic Zone (SEZ) serves a foundation for economic growth and activity supported by quality infrastructure complemented by an attractive fiscal package, both at the Centre and the State level, with the minimum possible regulations.

6. Name the food items, which was decided as the base product for enhancing the production according to National Food Security Mission (NFSM)?

a) Wheat

b) Rice

c) Barley

d) Pulses

Answer: a, b and d

Explanation: National Food Security Mission (NFSM) is a Central Scheme of GOI launched in 2007 for 5 years to increase production and productivity of wheat, rice and pulses.

7. Which among the following statements are true, regarding NITI Aayog?

a) NITI Aayog is established to replace the planning commission.

b) It is an acronym for National Institution for Technology India

Answer: a only

Explanation: The NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India), is a policy think tank of the Government of India, established with the aim to achieve Sustainable Development Goals and to enhance cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach.

8. Which among the following statements is/are true regarding Imposition of President’s Rule (Article 356) in states?

a) Article 356 can be imposed when the State Legislature is unable to elect a leader as Chief Minister.

b) President’s rule can be revoked at any time by the President and does not need the Parliament’s approval.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: President’s rule is the suspension of state government and imposition of direct Central Government rule in a state. Under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, in the event that a state government is unable to function according to constitutional provisions, the Central government can take direct control of the state machinery.

9. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following are correct?

a) Distribution of net proceeds of taxes between Center and the States, to be divided as per their respective contributions to the taxes.

b) Any other matter related to it by the president in the interest of sound finance.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: It was formed to define the financial relations between the central government of India and the individual state governments. The Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951 additionally defines the terms of qualification, appointment and disqualification, the term, eligibility and powers of the Finance Commission.

10. The National Mission for Saffron has been launched as a sub scheme for which among the following initiatives?

a) Rural Health Mission

b) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana

c) National Cash Crop Programme

d) National Horticulture Mission

Answer: b only

Explanation: National Mission for Saffron is the third sub scheme of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana. It is an economic Revival of J&K Saffron Sector with allocation of Rs. 39.43 crore for current year.

11. Name the nuclear power plant which is often termed as the nuclear titanic?

a) Akademik Lomonosov

b) Chernobyl

c) Sverdlovsk Oblast

d) Zarechny

Answer: a only

Explanation: Akademik Lomonosov is to be the first of a fleet of floating nuclear power stations to be stationed in the Russian Arctic. Environmentalists have termed it as a nuclear titanic.

12. Vedanthangal sanctuary known as the oldest water bird sanctuary is located in which state?

a) Karnataka

b) Tamilnadu

c) Rajasthan

d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer: b only

Explanation: Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary is a 30-hectare (74-acre) protected area located in the Kanchipuram District of the state of Tamil Nadu.

13. Name the river/rivers which originate and ends inside the territory of India?

a) Indus

b) Ganga

c) Brahmaputra

d) Chambal

Answer: d only

Explanation: The perennial Chambal originates at janapav, south of Mhow town, near manpur Indore. The river finishes at a meeting point of five rivers, which include the Kwari, Chambal, Sind, Yamuna, and Pahuj at Pachnanda.

14. Name the finance minister, who has presented the first budget of Independent India?

a) Moraji Desai

b) RK Shanukham Chetty

c) LK Advani

d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: b only

Explanation: Shanmukham Chetty was the Finance Minister of India when the country’s first budget was tabled in Parliament on 26 November 1947.

15. With reference to the Special Economic Zone (SEZ), which of the following statements are correct?

a) It serves as a platform for economic growth offering by quality infrastructure.

b) SEZ tries to promote investment from domestic and foreign sources.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Special Economic Zone (SEZ) serves a foundation for economic growth and activity supported by quality infrastructure complemented by an attractive fiscal package, both at the Centre and the State level, with the minimum possible regulations.

16. Name the food items, which was decided as the base product for enhancing the production according to National Food Security Mission (NFSM)?

a) Wheat

b) Rice

c) Barley

d) Pulses

Answer: a, b and d

Explanation: National Food Security Mission (NFSM) is a Central Scheme of GOI launched in 2007 for 5 years to increase production and productivity of wheat, rice and pulses.

17. Which among the following statements are true, regarding NITI Aayog?

a) NITI Aayog is established to replace the planning commission.

b) It is an acronym for National Institution for Technology India

Answer: a only

Explanation: The NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India), is a policy think tank of the Government of India, established with the aim to achieve Sustainable Development Goals and to enhance cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach.

18. Which among the following statements is/are true regarding Imposition of President’s Rule (Article 356) in states?

a) Article 356 can be imposed when the State Legislature is unable to elect a leader as Chief Minister.

b) President’s rule can be revoked at any time by the President and does not need the Parliament’s approval.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: President’s rule is the suspension of state government and imposition of direct Central Government rule in a state. Under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, in the event that a state government is unable to function according to constitutional provisions, the Central government can take direct control of the state machinery.

19. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following are correct?

a) Distribution of net proceeds of taxes between Center and the States, to be divided as per their respective contributions to the taxes.

b) Any other matter related to it by the president in the interest of sound finance.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: It was formed to define the financial relations between the central government of India and the individual state governments. The Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951 additionally defines the terms of qualification, appointment and disqualification, the term, eligibility and powers of the Finance Commission.

20. The National Mission for Saffron has been launched as a sub scheme for which among the following initiatives?

a) Rural Health Mission

b) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana

c) National Cash Crop Programme

d) National Horticulture Mission

Answer: b only

Explanation: National Mission for Saffron is the third sub scheme of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana. It is an economic Revival of J&K Saffron Sector with allocation of Rs. 39.43 crore for current year.

21. With reference to the internationally renowned indoor arena ‘Madison Square Garden’, name the first Indian wrestler to participate in the game?

a) Virender Singh

b) Bajrang Punia

c) Ravi Kumar

d) Vinesh Phogat

Answer: b only

Explanation: Asian champion Punia will be the first Indian wrestler to fight at the iconic venue ‘Madison Square Garden’ New York.

22. With reference to the development of OCR system for reading Bharti Script, name the branch of IIT which developed it?

a) IIT Kharagpur

b) IIT Madras

c) IIT Kanpur

d) IIT Bombay 

Answer: b only

Explanation: IIT Madras has developed easy multi-lingual optical character recognition (OCR) schemes for reading documents in Bharati Script.

23. Name the newly launched initiative which is associated with elimination of Malaria from India by 2030?

a) MALARIA India

b) MERA India

c) ELIMINATE India

d) DEL India

Answer: b only

Explanation: ICMR launches ‘MERA India’ to eliminate malaria from India by 2030.

24. Name the two countries which have recently decided to set up a Joint Border Reaction Force (JBRF)?

a) India

b) China

c) Pakistan

d) Iran

Answer: c and d only

Explanation: Iran’s President Hassan Rouhani has announced that Iran and Pakistan has agreed to set up a joint border reaction force to counter terrorism.

25. Name the country which is planning to move its capital away to ensure more equitable development?

a) Iran

b) China

c) South Africa

d) Indonesia

Answer: d only

Explanation: Indonesia, the world’s fourth most populous country, has decided to move its capital away from Jakarta.

26. With reference to monetary policy of RBI, which of the statements are correct?

a) It is aimed at managing the quantity of money to meet the requirements of different sectors of the Economy.

b) Monetary policy is different from fiscal policy.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Monetary policy consists of the process of drafting, announcing and implementing the plan of actions taken by the central bank, currency board or other competent regulatory authority of a country that determines the scope and impact of the key drivers of the economic activity in that country.

27. With reference to the term, Systemically Important Banks, which of the banks are identified in such terms?

a) SBI

b) ICICI

c) HDFC

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has named State Bank of India (SBI), ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs).

28. With reference to the National Voluntary Guidelines on social, environmental and economic responsibilities, released by Union Ministry of Corporate Affairs, which of the following are correct?

a) Businesses should provide goods and services in a manner that is sustainable and safe.

b) Businesses should respect the interests of and be responsive to all their stakeholders.

c) Businesses should respect and promote human rights.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The Union Ministry of Corporate Affairs has released the National Guidelines on responsible business conduct and revised the National Voluntary Guidelines on social, environmental and economic responsibilities of business, 2011. These guidelines on responsible business conduct aim to urge businesses to actualise the following principles in letter and spirit.

29. Which of the following is part of Gross Development Product of a country?

a) Monetary value of all the finished goods.

b) Monetary value of all the services.

c) Value of all the finished goods and services.

d) Value of all the finished goods, services and NRI Deposits.

Answer: a, b and c only

Explanation: Gross domestic product (GDP) is the monetary value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country’s borders in a specific time period.

30. With reference to the Green Field Investments, which of the following are correct?

a) It is a type of foreign direct investment.

b) It refers to a project where a company builds operations in a foreign market starting from scratch.

c) It also gets leasing existing facilities and land results in relatively lower expenses.

Answer: a and b only

Explanation: It refers to a project where a company builds operations in a foreign market starting from scratch, or a so-called green field. These projects are foreign direct investments that provide the highest degree of control for the sponsoring company when compared to other methods of FDI, such as foreign acquisitions or buying controlling stakes in a foreign company.

31. Name the two countries whose bilateral naval exercise is called Varuna?

a) India

b) France

c) Japan

A) b & c

B) a & c

C) a & b

D) None of the above

32. Which of the following has entered a strategic partnership with GE Healthcare with the objective to bring digital healthcare solutions to the market?

a) NASSCOM

b) WIPRO

c) INFOSYS

d) RELIANCE

A) a only

B) b only

C) c only

D) d only

33. Which of the following has signed a contract with defence ministry to build eight anti-submarine warfare shallow water crafts (ASWSWCs) for Indian Navy at the cost of Rs 6311.30 crore?

a) Reliance

b) GRSE

c) BHEL

d) Adani

A) a only

B) b only

C) c only

D) d only

34. Which of the following recently signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with Water & Power Consultancy Services (WAPCOS) Limited with the objective to jointly recognize suitable future projects and carry out geo-technical investigation and engineering consultancy in the fields like water resources, power and infrastructure, port and harbour dredging?

a) BHEL

b) Reliance

c) Adani

d) DCIL

A) a only

B) b only

C) c only

D) d only

35. Who among the following are the 6 recipients of the 2019 world’s eminent award for grassroots environmental activists the Goldman Environmental Prize?

a) Bayarjargal Agvaantseren

b) Alfred Brownell

c) Ana Colovic Lesoska

d) Alberto Curamil

A) a only

B) b only

C) both a & b

D) All the above

36. Who among the following recently became the first Japanese monarch to abdicate in 200 years?

a) Emporer Naruhito

b) Emperor Itoku

c) Emperor Akihito

d) Emperor Renzu

A) a only

B) b only

C) c only

D) None of the above

37. Which of the following recently collaborated with BGI-Shenzhen, China by sequencing 429 chickpea lines from 45 nations to identify genes that are resistant to various extreme factors?

a) ICRISAT

b) SKAUST

c) MAMRI

d) HPMRI

A) a only

B) b only

C) c only

D) d only

38. Name the mysterious animal whose footprints measuring 32×15 inches (81 centimeters by 38 centimeters) was recently found by Indian Army close to Makalu Base Camp,located in North-Eastern Himalayas on 09 April 2019?

a) Polar Bear

b) Yeti

c) Dinosaur

d) Snow Ape

A) a only

B) b only

C) c only

D) d only

39. Which day is celebrated every year as International Labour Day or Workers day?

a) 1st May

b) 2nd May

c) 3rd May

d) 4th May

A) a only

B) b only

C) c only

D) d only

40. Which of the following states celebrated its Foundation Day on 1st May?

a) Maharashtra

b) West Bengal

c) Gujarat

d) Punjab

A) a & b only

B) b & c only

C) a & c only

D) a & d only

41.Which of the following have together signed an MoU Memorandum of Understanding for effective cooperation on different projects related to e-mobility and implement solutions for electric & trolley bus, EV Electric Vehicles chargers, battery and charger testing, etc?

a) BHEL

b) ARAI

c) TISCO

d) MARUTI

Answer: a & b

Explanation: BHEL & ARAI Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited BHEL and Automotive Research Association of India ARAI have together signed an MoU Memorandum of Understanding for effective cooperation on different projects related to e-mobility and implement solutions for electric & trolley bus, EV Electric Vehicles chargers, battery and charger testing, etc. The term electro mobility refers to full and hybrid electric vehicles as well as that using hydrogen fuel cell technology. These vehicles represent electronically driven vehicles in the future.

42. Who among the following has been named as the first non-British president of Marylebone Cricket Club MCC?

a) Kumar Sangakkara

b) Sunil Gavaskar

c) Dilip Vengsarkar

d) Steve Waugh

Answer: a only

Explanation: Kumar Sangakkara, former Sri Lanka captain has been named as the first non-British president of Marylebone Cricket Club MCC. He succeeds Anthony Wire ford. It was announced at the MCC annual general meeting at Lords on 1 May 2019. He will take up his one-year post in October. Sangakkara, 41-year-old, scored 12,400 runs in 134 tests, appears twice on the honours boards at Lords. MCC is the guardian of the Laws of the game and it was founded in 1787 and has been based at Lords, which it owns, since 1814. His responsibilities would involve the launch of The Hundred the England and Wales Cricket Boards new 100-ball cricket format and two England test matches against West Indies and Pakistan.

43. Who among the following has been appointed as the first Independent Woman Director to Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) board?

a) Shella Kanan

b) Meghna Rai

c) M Jayshree Vyas

d) Kusum Choudhary

Answer: c only

Explanation: M Jayshree Vyas has been appointed as the first Independent Woman Director to Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) board. Earlier, M Jayshree Vyas worked as the managing director of Shree Mahila Sewa Sahakari Bank, Ahmedabad since 1986. She had also helped in launching the first financial literacy program in Sewa bank in 2001.

44. Which of the following became the 1st operator to start optical fiber-based high-speed broadband service in Pulwama, J&K with the launch of Bharat Fibre?

a) Airtel

b) Vodafone

c) Reliance Jio

d) BSNL

Answer: d only

Explanation: BSNL Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited became the 1st operator to start optical fiber-based high-speed broadband service in Pulwama with the launch of Bharat Fibre. The Bharat Fibre services with reliable and high-speed internet are provided on the optical fibre by FTTH fibre-to-the-home service up to the customer premises. The Bharat Fibre service has been launched on a revenue sharing basis in a business collaborative model with the local channel partner of Pulwama area. The equipment of FTTH has been installed and commissioned by the channel partner whereas the customer billing services are being provided by BSNL.

45. Name the states from where Indian archaeologists recently unearthed a life-sized stucco sculpture from a Buddhist site at Phanigiri in Suryapet?

a) Andhra Pradesh

b) Telangana

c) Kerala

d) Bihar

Answer: b only

Explanation: Telangana is the state from where Indian archaeologists recently unearthed a life-sized stucco sculpture from a Buddhist site at Phanigiri in Suryapet. As per heritage department officials, it represents one of Bhodhisattva in Jathaka Chakra.This is the largest stucco sculpture found from India till date. The sculpture is about 1.73 metres in height and 35 cm in width. It is considered to have been built at at peak of Ikshavaku dynasty. The preliminary excavation at Phanigiri was started by archaeological department official Khaja Muhammad Ahmad in 1941.

46. Who among the following became the world number one in Womens 10m Air Rifle category with 1,926 rating points according to the latest rankings released by International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF)?

a) Anjum Moudgil

b) Apurvi Chandela

c) Anjana Singh

d) Poonam Rawat

Answer: b only

Explanation: Apurvi Chandela became the world number one in Womens 10m Air Rifle category with 1,926 rating points according to the latest rankings released by International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF). The 26-year old Apurvi Chandela is among the five Indian shooters who have earned the Olympic quota for the Tokyo 2020. In early this year, Chandela had broken the world record after winning India’s first gold medal at the ISSF World Cup 2019 held in New Delhi. She had shot 252.9 in 10m women Air Rifle final to bag gold medal at Dr. Karni Singh Shooting Range in New Delhi. After Chandela, Anjum Moudgil is World No. 2 on ISSF rankings with 1695 rating points in the 10m Air Rifle category after she won mixed gold at the ISSF World Cup in Beijing.

47. Which of the following is celebrated every year as World Password Day?

a) 1st Thursday of May

b) 2nd Thursday of May

c) 3rd Thursday of May

d) 4th Thursday of May

Answer: a only

Explanation: 1st Thursday of May is celebrated every year as World Password Day. The Registrar of National Day Calendar has designated the first Thursday of the month of May of each year as World Password Day. This day is celebrated to promote better password habits for digital protection for online shopping, dating, banking, social media, private work, and life communications. For the very first time, security researcher, Mark Burnett encouraged people to have a password day, where they updated important passwords in his 2005 book Perfect Passwords. Inspired by his idea, Intel Security took the initiative to declare the first Thursday of May every year as World Password Day. The declaration was done in May 2013.

48. Which day was recently celebrated as World Tuna Day to highlight the importance of tuna fish and to promote more sustainable fishing practices which will help in achieving the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development?

a) 1st May

b) 2nd May

c) 3rd May

d) 4th May

Answer: b only

Explanation: 2nd May was recently celebrated as World Tuna Day to highlight the importance of tuna fish and to promote more sustainable fishing practices which will help in achieving the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. In December 2016, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) officially recognized May 2 as a World Tuna Day in its resolution 71/124. After the resolution has passed, the day was first observed on May 2, 2017. Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) in its latest report in 2018 titled, The State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture: Meeting the Sustainable Development Goals highlights the tuna fish role in achieving the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) 14 which talks about conservation and sustainable use of oceans, seas and marine resources for sustainable development. Tuna is also more important for food security and nutrition. It is a high source of Selenium, Vitamin B3 (niacin), Vitamin B12, Vitamin B6 and protein and also provides Vitamin D and Phosphorus.

49. Name the city where an all-women police patrol unit named Rani Abakan Force was launched to handle issues pertaining to Women and Children?

a) Bengaluru

b) Kolkata

c) Mangalore

d) Chennai

Answer: c only

Explanation: Mangalore is the city where an all-women police patrol unit named Rani Abakan Force was launched to handle issues pertaining to Women and Children. On 30th April 2019, Mangaluru Police Commissioner Sandeep Patil flagged off the all-women police patrol unit named after the 16th-century warrior of coastal Karnataka, Queen Abakan of Ulla near Mangaluru, who fought the Portuguese in the 16th century. Total 50 women policewomen have been allotted in Rani Abakan Force and each patrol team has five policewomen.

50. How many cities have been selected by MoEFCC with the objective of improving environment by reducing PM particulate matter concentration?

a) 99

b) 100

c) 101

d) 102

Answer: d only

Explanation: 102 cities have been selected by MoEFCC with the objective of improving environment by reducing PM (particulate matter) concentration. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change MoEFCC recently constituted a committee to implement the National Clean Air Program NCAP. The objective is to reduce the PM particulate matter 2.5 and PM 10 concentration by 20% to 30% in at least 102 cities by 2024. The committee will be headed by the Secretary, Union Environment Ministry. The headquarters of the committee will be in New Delhi. The other members of the committee will be Joint Secretary (Thermal), Ministry of Power; Director General, The Energy Resources Institute (TERI) and Professor Sachidananda Tripathi, IIT Kanpur. The 102 cities, across 23 states and Union Territories will be identified by the Central Pollution Control Board (CBCB). The selection criteria will be based on their ambit air quality data between 2011 and 2015. The NCAP is envisioned as a five-year action plan with 2019 as the first year. There would be a review every five years.

51. Which of the following has/have collaborated with CSC (Common Services Centre) e-Governance Services India Limited to upscale ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’?

a) IIT Kanpur

b) IIT Chennai

c) IIT Kharagpur

Answer: a only

Explanation: IIT Kanpur has collaborated with CSC (Common Services Centre) e-Governance Services India Limited to upscale ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’. CSC is a Special Purpose Vehicle under the Ministry of Electronics & IT. ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’ is the programme of the HRD (Human Resource Development) Ministry which is working towards achieving solutions for increasing sustainable growth in rural India. The collaboration of IIT-Kanpur with the leading institutions with CSCs would strengthen the government’s vision of Digital India.

52. Which of the following launched 5$ billion Action Plan for Healthy Oceans and Sustainable Blue Economies for the Asia and Pacific region?

a) World Bank

b) ADB

c) European Union

d) None of the above

Answer: b only

Explanation: Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched 5$ billion Action Plan for Healthy Oceans and Sustainable Blue Economies for the Asia and Pacific region. This will support ADB’s developing member countries’ efforts for achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), inclusive of the SDG 14: Life below Water. The Healthy Oceans Action Plan was launched at the 52nd Annual Meeting of ADB’s Board of Governors, Fiji. Healthy Oceans Action Plan will expand financing and technical assistance for ocean health and marine economy projects to $5 billion from year 2019 to 2024.

53. Which of the following are some of the relaxation recommended by DPIIT (The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade) in order to facilitate fund raising by start-ups?

a) Reduce shareholding requirements of founders from 50% to 20%

b) Reduce shareholding requirements of founders from 40% to 20%

c) Reduce compulsory tenure from 5 years to 3 years

Answer: a and c only

Explanation: Reduce shareholding requirements of founders from 50% to 20%, Reduce compulsory tenure from 5 years to 3 years are some of the relaxation recommended by DPIIT(The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade) in order to facilitate fund raising by start-ups. The relaxation laws are part of the ‘Startup India Vision 2024’ that’s been prepared by the DPIIT. The DPIIT also recommended amendments in Section 54GB of the Income Tax Act, that is, capital gain on transfer of residential property not to be charged in certain cases and Section 79 that states, carry forward and set off of losses would be done for specific companies.

54. Which of the following was recently awarded 27th P.C. Chandra Puraskar, the annual national award from the P.C. Chandra Group at Biswa Bangla Convention Centre?

a) Dr. Ranga Rajan

b) Dr. Devi Prasad Shetty

c) Dr. Nirmal Khatri

d) None of the above

Answer: b only

Explanation: Dr. Devi Prasad Shetty, India’s most reputed cardiac surgeon and humanitarian, was recently awarded 27th P.C. Chandra Puraskar, the annual national award from the P.C. Chandra Group at Biswa Bangla Convention Centre. He is also known as ‘The Man with Divine Hands’. In 2003, he has won Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan for medicine in 2013.

55. Which of the following e-commerce platform recently appointed Virat Kohli and Anushka Sharma as its first ever official brand ambassadors?

a) Flipkart

b) Amazon

c) Myntra

d) Reify

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Myntra, the Flipkart-owned fashion e-commerce platform recently appointed Virat Kohli and Anushka Sharma as its first ever official brand ambassadors. Myntra has launched an integrated campaign called ‘Go Myntra-la-la’ to promote the brand. Advertising agency McCann World group from Bengaluru has created the television campaign.

56. Name the country where a start-up Interstellar Technology Inc. has successfully launched a first privately developed rocket ‘Momo-3’ into space?

a) Japan

b) China

c) Germany

d) France

Answer: a only

Explanation: Japan is the country where a start-up Interstellar Technology Inc. has successfully launched a first privately developed rocket ‘Momo-3’ into space. The unmanned rocket was launched from its test site in Taiki on the northern Japanese island of Hokkaido and it reached about 110 km in altitude before falling into the Pacific Ocean after 10 minutes of flight time. The rocket is 10 meters in length, 50 centimeters in diameter and weighs about 1 ton. ‘Momo-3’ rocket has the capability of putting payloads into the orbit.

57. Which of the following has recently co-authored his autobiography titled, ‘Game Changer’?

a) Sunil Gavaskar

b) Shahid Afridi

c) Steve Waugh

d) Dilip Vengsarkar

Answer: b only

Explanation: Shahid Afridi, former captain of Pakistan has recently co-authored his autobiography titled, ‘Game Changer’ with journalist Wajahat S Khan. The book has been published by Harper Collin’s India. Afridi is popularly known as ‘Boom Boom’ and holds the world record for the fastest ODI (One Day International) century in 37 deliveries. He also holds the distinction of having hit the most number of sixes in the history of ODI cricket.

58. Which of the following day of May every year is celebrated as World Laughter Day?

a) 1st Sunday

b) 2nd Sunday

c) 3rd Sunday

d) 4th Sunday

Answer: a only

Explanation: 1st Sunday of May every year is celebrated as World Laughter Day. The day was first celebrated on May 10, 1998, in Mumbai and arranged by Dr. Madan Kataria, founder of the worldwide Laughter Yoga Movement. The purpose is to raise awareness about laughter and its many healing benefits. The Laughter Yoga Movement started by Dr. Kataria was a part of the facial feedback hypothesis which postulates that facial expression of a person can have an effect on their emotions. The popularity of this movement has grown exponentially and till now over 6000 laughter Clubs opened worldwide. The first World Laughter day named HAPPY-DEMIC took place outside India on January 9, 2000 in Copenhagen, Denmark.

59. Name the place where the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Defence Ministers’ Meet was organised recently?

a) Kazan

b) Chengdu

c) Bishkek

d) Nanjing

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Bishkek in Kyrgyzstan is the place where the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Defence Ministers’ Meet was organised recently. Nirmala Sitharaman, the current Defence Minister of India held a bilateral meeting with General Wei Fenghe, Honourable Defence Minister of China, in which they discussed regional and bilateral security issues.

60. Which of the following has launched a new initiative named Global Registry of Violent Deaths (GReVD) to establish the annual number of violent deaths worldwide?

a) SIFRI

b) SIPRI

c) CIPRI

d) CIFRI

Answer: b only

Explanation: SIPRI which stands for Stockholm International peace research institute has launched a new initiative named Global Registry of Violent Deaths (GReVD) to establish the annual number of violent deaths worldwide. GReVD will count deaths caused by all forms of violence and display these in an open-source database and enable monitoring of progress on the world’s commitment to ‘significantly reduce all forms of violence and related death rates everywhere’ by 2030 as set out in the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)—Goal 16.

Source: Civilservicesindia+The Hindu+PIB

Daily Current Affairs 25-30 April 2019

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1. With reference to the Chabahar Port, name the countries associated with the project?

a) Iran

b) India

c) Afghanistan

d) Iraq

Answer: a, b and c only

Explanation: India, Afghanistan and Iran held their first trilateral meeting on Chabahar port project.

2. Name the unique mechanism discovered by Chinese scientist in the plant’s immune system?

a) Temporary sleeping mechanism

b) Death switch mechanism

c) Sleep mode mechanism

d) Ultra growth mechanism

Answer: b only

Explanation: The Chinese scientists have discovered a possible death switch mechanism in plant’s immune system that triggers infected cells to self-destruct, thus limiting the spread of the disease and keeping other parts of the plant healthy.

3. Name the Australian player appointed as the new coach for Hockey team (Men)?

a) Graham Gouch

b) Graham Reid

c) Piyush Manas

d) Romesh Pawar

Answer: b only

Explanation: Australia’s Graham Reid was on Monday named the new coach of the India men’s hockey team.

4. With reference to ‘Aber’ the common digital currency, name the banks associated with it?

a) Reserve Bank of India

b) UAE central bank

c) Saudi Arabian Monetary Authority (SAMA)

d) US Federal Reserve

Answer: b and c only

Explanation: The central banks of the UAE and Saudi Arabia (SAMA) will launch a common digital currency called Aber.

5. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises sector is associated with which ministry?

a) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

b) Ministry of Commerce

c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Answer: a only

Explanation: The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, a branch of the Government of India, is the apex body for the formulation and administration of rules, regulations and laws relating to micro, small and medium enterprises in India

6. Erode turmeric which is considered as a medicine was recently got GI tag. Which state is associated with the herb?

a) Andhra Pradesh

b) Arunachal Pradesh

c) Madhya Pradesh

d) Tamil Nadu

Answer: d only

Explanation: The Geographical Indications Registry has accepted the application seeking a GI tag for Erode Turmeric.

7. With reference to ‘Bolo’ App, which was launched to tutor children to read in Hindi and English, name the IT Company associated with the development?

a) Google

b) Wipro

c) Apple

d) Facebook

Answer: a only

Explanation: Aiming to make it easier for kids to improve their Hindi and English reading skills, Google India has launched a new app called Bolo.

8. Recently, the tribal language Gondi was selected to be taught in school, which state government has taken the decision?

a) Rajasthan

b) Bihar

c) Chattisgarh

d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer: d only

Explanation: In Madhya Pradesh, ancient tribal language Gondi will be taught in tribal districts. The Gondi language is being spoken by the Gonds, a scheduled tribe category of people living in the hilly regions of Orissa, Chattisgarh, Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh.

9. With reference to the new black hole coin released by United Kingdom, name the scientist on whose honour the coin was released?

a) Charles Darwin

b) Stephen Hawking

c) T Edison

d) Isaac Newton

Answer: b only

Explanation: The UK’s Royal Mint has unveiled a new commemorative 50 pence coin inspired by the late legendary British physicist Stephen Hawking’s seminal work on black holes.

10. With reference to National Centre for Good Governance, which of the following are correct?

a) To provide a platform for policy development debates and discussions.

b) To promote exchange of innovative ideas and best practices in Governance by organising, sponsoring and aiding seminars.

c) To interact with international organisations, in and outside government, engaged in research and training in subject areas of mutual interest.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The National Centre for Good Governance (NCGG) is an autonomous institute. It was created to assist in bringing about governance reforms through studies, training, knowledge sharing and promotion of good ideas. It seeks to carry out policy relevant research and prepare case studies; curate training courses for civil servants from India and other developing countries; provide a platform for sharing of existing knowledge and pro-actively seek out and develop ideas for their implementation in the government, both at the States and the Central level.

11. With reference to Indo-Pacific Wing, which is in news recently, name the ministry associated with it?

a) Ministry of External Affairs

b) Ministry of Commerce

c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Select the correct answer:

Answer: a only

Explanation: India has just set up an Indo-Pacific division in the foreign office (External Affairs).

12. Food regulator FSSAI has recently banned the milk and milk products from which country?

a) Pakistan

b) China

c) Malaysia

d) Indonesia

Answer: b only

Explanation: Food safety regulator under the Union Government on April 23, 2019 extended the ban on import of milk and its products, including chocolates, from China till laboratories at ports for testing the presence of toxic chemical melamine are upgraded.

13. Name the institution which is associated with development of 5G Use Cases LAb for banking and financial sector?

a) SEBI

b) RBI

c) Ministry of Finance

d) Income tax department

Answer: b only

Explanation: The Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT), which is division of Reserve Bank of India (RBI), has launched a 5G Use Cases Lab for banking and financial sector.

14. Name the sports which are associated with Santhosh Trophy?

a) Football

b) Cricket

c) Carrom

d) Kabbadi

Answer: a only

Explanation: Santosh Trophy is an annual football tournament conducted in India.

15. With reference to Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), consider the following statement ?

a) It is a apex body in India for the formulation, coordination and promotion of biomedical research.

b) It aims to strengthen or generate research capabilities in different geographic areas of the country.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: ICMR is an apex body in India for the formulation, coordination and promotion of biomedical research, is one of the oldest and largest medical research bodies in the world. The ICMR is funded by the Government of India through the Department of Health Research, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

16. Name the government body, which gives special category statys to the disadvantaged states in the country?

a) National Labour Council

b) National Development Council

c) National Skill Development Council

d) NITI Aayog

Answer: b only

Explanation: The decision to grant special category status lies with the National Development Council. This council composed of the Prime Minster, Union Ministers, Chief Ministers and members of the Planning Commission, who guide and review the work of the Planning Commission.

17. Mention the act, which prohibits advertising, supply of distribution of cigarettes and tobacco products?

a) Cigarettes and Tobacco Control Act

b) Cigarettes Prohibition Act

c) Public Prohibition Act

d) Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act

Answer: d only

Explanation: The Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act, 2003 or COTPA, 2003 is an Act of Parliament of India enacted in 2003 to prohibit advertisement of, and to provide for the regulation of trade and commerce in, and production, supply and distribution of cigarettes and other tobacco products in India.

18. Name the state, which implemented the 10 per cent quota for Economically Weaker Sections?

a) Rajasthan

b) Gujarat

c) Maharashtra

d) Bihar

Answer: b only

Explanation: Gujarat government has implemented 10 per cent reservation in state government jobs and education for the economically weaker sections (EWS) in the general category. With this, Gujarat has become the first state in the country to implement the new provision.

19. Name the government body which recently formed the committee to boost digital payments ?

a) NITI Aayog

b) RBI

c) Ministry of Finance

d) State Bank of India

Answer: b only

Explanation: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has constituted a High-Level Committee on Deepening of Digital Payments to encourage digitisation of payments.

20. Which of the following year, is declared as the official target for universal household electrification in India?

a) March 31, 2020

b) March 21, 2019

c) January 31, 2019

d) August 15, 2019

Answer: c only

Explanation: Government has declared that it is planning to achieve the goal of universal household electrification in the country by January 31, 2019.

21. With reference to Strategic Petroleum Reserve in India, which among the following is not place selected for storage?

a) Jaipur

b) Vishakhapatnam

c) Mangalore

d) Padur

Answer: a only

Explanation: India has strategic petroleum reserves to store crude oil under the ground these are located at Visakhapatnam (1.33 MMT), Mangalore (1.5 MMT) and Padur (2.5 MMT).

22. With reference to Ice Stupas, which among the following statements are correct?

a) Stupa made up of ice and erected like dome is known as Ice Stupa.

b) Each stupa has a capacity to store at least 30-50 lakh litres of water.

c) It is generated by freezing the stream water vertically in the form of towers.

d) These are created can be built right next to the village itself.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: stupa made up of ice and erected like dome is known as Ice Stupa. It is similar to a huge ice towers which are created by freezing the stream water vertically in the form of towers. Where water is needed these ice stupas can be built right next to the village itself.

23. The Garça Branca Ayurvedic Botanical Garden is located in which state?

a) Rajasthan

b) Manipur

c) Goa

d) Jammu and Kashmir

Answer: c only

Explanation: Garça Branca Ayurvedic Botanical Garden is located in Goa.

24. Bhitarkanika National Park is located at which state?

a) Rajasthan

b) Manipur

c) Odisha

d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer: c only

Explanation: Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Odisha. It is one of India’s biggest estuarine crocodile habitats and a major coastal eco-system.

25. With reference to Deep Sea Trawling, which among following are correct?

a) It is also known as the Industrial way or method fishing.

b) It is a method where large nets with heavy weight are carted across the seafloor to lift out the catch marine animals.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: The Deep Sea Trawling is also named as Industrial method of fishing. This activity is followed by throwing with large nets with heavy weight are carted across the seafloor to lift out the catch marine creatures such as fishes, small sharks, shrimp etc.

26. Name the ministry associated with National Productivity Council which is associated with the promote productivity culture in India?

a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

b) Ministry of Home Affairs

c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

d) Ministry of Agriculture

Answer: a only

Explanation: National Productivity Council is associated with the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

27. With reference to the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC), which of the following are correct?

a) Scheme aims to support concrete adaptation activities which mitigate the adverse effects of climate change.

b) It prioritizes the needs that build climate resilience in the areas identified

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) was conceived to meet the cost of adaptation to climate change for the State and Union Territories of India that are particularly vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change

28. In the context of, ‘Defence Innovation Hubs (DIHs)’, which of the following are the features?

a) It serves has a platform where innovators can get information about needs and feedback from major defence platforms.

b) It also aims to attract more innovators to work for the defence sector in India.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: The Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) framework of the Government envisages setting up and managing independent Defence Innovation Hubs (DIHs). These DIHs will serve as platforms where innovators can get information about needs and feedback from the Services directly and create solutions for India’s major defence platforms. This structure is also geared towards attracting more innovators to work for the defence sector in India.

29. With reference to ‘National Gas Grid’, which of the following are the objectives of the scheme?

a) The scheme aims to regional imbalance within the country with regard to access of natural gas and provide clean and green fuel throughout the country.

b) It plans to connect gas sources to major demand centres and ensure availability of gas to consumers in various sectors.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: The aims and objectives of National Gas Grid are, to remove regional imbalance within the country with regard to access of natural gas and provide clean and green fuel throughout the country. To connect gas sources to major demand centres and ensure availability of gas to consumers in various sectors, Development of City Gas Distribution Networks in various cities for supply of CNG and PNG.

30. Name the ministry or government body associated with Monetary Policy?

a) Ministry of Finance

b) Department of Income tax

c) Reserve Bank of India

d) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Answer: c only

Explanation: Monetary policy is the process by which a central bank (Reserve Bank of India or RBI) manages money supply in the economy. One of the main objectives of monetary policy include ensuring inflation targeting and price stability, full employment and stable economic growth.

31. With reference to the Ryugu asteroid which is currently in news, name the country’s scientist who have created an artificial crater on it?

a) Japan

b) US

c) France

d) Russia

Answer: a only

Explanation: Japanese scientists have succeeded in creating first-ever artificial crater on a Ryugu asteroid.

32. Name the airborne observatory which has detected the first type of molecule ever formed in the universe?

a) Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared Astronomy

b) General Observatory for International Space

c) Indian Space Research Organisation

Answer: a only

Explanation: Scientists discovered the molecule in our own galaxy using NASA’s Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared Astronomy (SOFIA), as the aircraft flew high above the Earth’s surface and pointed its sensitive instruments out into the cosmos.

33. Name the space agency, which has found that planet Mercury has found a very large solid inner core?

a) NASA

b) JAXA

c) ISRO

d) ESA

Answer: a only

34. Name of the satellite which is recently launched by Nepal?

a) NepaliSat-1

b) Nepal SAT

c) Bird-3

d) GSAT-1

Answer: a only

Explanation: Nepal realizes its dream of having its own satellite by launching the first satellite into space. The first satellite named NepaliSat-1 was launched.

35. Name the guidelines for which ISO 31000:2018 was released?

a) Materials Management

b) Risk Management

c) Bank Management

d) Air Management

Answer: a only

Explanation: ISO 31000:2018 provides guidelines on managing risk faced by organizations. It can be used throughout the life of the organization and can be applied to any activity, including decision-making at all levels.

36. With reference to the usage of bio toilets in Indian Railways, which of the following statements are correct?

a) It is the first of its kind, being used by any railroad in the world for on-board accelerated digestion of human waste.

b) The success of the project depends on the co-operation of passengers by not throwing any in-organic material like bottles, polythene, napkins.

c) The bacteria convert the human waste mainly into water and small amount of bio-gases, which escape into atmosphere.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The bio-toilet project implemented by Indian Railways is first of its kind, being used by any railroad in the world for on-board accelerated digestion of human waste. The bio-toilets in trains are installed underneath the lavatories and the human waste discharged into them is then acted upon by a colony of anaerobic bacteria. Further to this, the bacteria converts the human waste mainly into water and small amount of bio-gases, which escape into atmosphere and waste water is discharged after chlorination onto the track.

37. With reference to the National Biogas and Manure Management Programme (NBMMP), which of the following are correct?

a) The initiative aims to setup family type biogas plants in rural and semi-urban areas of the country.

b) These biogas plants are based on cattle dung and other mixed biodegradable wastes.

c) It reducing emission of Green House Gases (GHGs).

Answer: Above all

Explanation: National Biogas and Manure Management Programme (NBMMP) is an initiative developed for setting up of family type biogas plants in rural and semi-urban areas of the country. The family type biogas plants generate clean gaseous fuel particularly for cooking and meeting lighting needs and replaces use of fuel wood, avoid cutting of trees thereby reducing pressure on forests

38. In the context of the power of the state government, which of the following activities of religious institutions can be restrained?

a) Economic

b) Political

c) Academic

Answer: Above all

Explanation: State government is permitted to regulate or restrict any economic, financial, political or other secular activity associated with religious practice but not the academic ones.

39. Foreigners living in India possess the right to

a) Education

b) Equality before law

c) Freedom of Speech

d) Freedom to start business

Answer: a only

Explanation: All Fundamental Rights guaranteed and they are available to Indian citizens. But some laws are available to foreigners; they are Equality before law and equal protection of laws, Freedom of Speech, Freedom to start business.

40. With reference to ‘Red data book’, which of the following endangered species are documented?

a) Fungi

b) Animals

c) Plants

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Red Data Book is a state document established for documenting rare and endangered species of animals, plants and fungi, as well as some local subspecies.

Source: Civilservicesindia+The Hindu+PIB


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Q.1) “Forty plus Nine (40+9)” Recommendations is concerned with which of the following institutions/organisations?

a) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)

b) Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

c) Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)

d) Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)

Solution (b)

Q.2) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit

Matritva Abhiyan’

1. It provides subsidised and quality antenatal care to women belonging to Below Poverty Line (BPL) families

2. It is under the aegis of the Ministry of Women and Child Development

3. It aims to reach out to pregnant women who are in the 2nd & 3rd Trimesters of pregnancy

Select the correct statements

a) 1 and 3

b) 1 and 2

c) 3 Only

d) 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.3) considers the following statements with respect to ‘Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR)’ and identifies the correct ones:

1. It is a measure of a bank’s financial strength expressed as a ratio of capital to risk weighted assets.

2. Under Basel III norms, the minimum capital adequacy ratio that banks must maintain is 8%.

Select the correct code:

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.4) which of the following statements is the most appropriate with respect to ‘Feed-in tariff’?

a) It allows consumers who generate some or all of their own electricity to use that electricity anytime, instead of when it is generated.

b) It is a trade barrier erected for the purpose of reducing pollution and improving the environment

c) It is a tax levied on activities which are considered to be harmful to the environment and is intended to promote environmentally friendly activities via economic incentives

d) It is an economic policy created to promote active investment in and production of renewable energy sources

Solution (d)

Q.5) ‘Operation NISTAR’ was a Humanitarian and Disaster Relief Operation (HADR) conducted by India in which of the following countries?

a) Yemen

b) Djibouti

c) Maldives

d) Indonesia

Solution (a)

It was conducted to rescue Indian Nationals off Socotra Islands (Yemen) after the island was struck with a severe Cyclonic Storm – Mekunu.

Q.6) which of the following are correctly matched?

1. National Disaster Risk Index – UNISDR

2. Transformation Index – World Bank

3. Project Half-Earth – UNEP

4. REPLACE Programme – WHO

Select the correct code:

a) 1 and 4

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 2

d) 4 only

Solution (d)

Q.7) Following islands were recently in news.

1. Socotra Island – Arabian Sea

2. Solomon Island – South Pacific Ocean

3. Guam Island – Western Pacific Ocean

4. Sabang Island – Andaman Sea

5. Easter Island – Atlantic Ocean

Which of them is/are correctly matched?

a) 1, 3, 4 and 5

b) 1, 2, 4 and 5

c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 Solution (c)

Q.8) Which of the following experiments/detectors are related to study of ‘Neutrino’?

1. XENON

2. IceCube

3. MINOS

4. KATRIN

Select the correct code:

a) 1 and 3

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1, 2 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (b)

Q.9) ‘Joint Appeal to Youth’ recently in news is related to:

a) BRICS

b) SCO

c) UN

d) ASEAN

Solution (b)

Q.10) The Energy Progress Report provides a global dashboard on progress towards Sustainable Development Goal (SDG). The report targets which SDG and is a joint effort of:

a) SDG7 and International Energy Agency (IEA), the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD), the World Bank, and the World Health Organization (WHO)

b) SDG4 and International Energy Agency (IEA), the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), Environment Programme (UNEP), the World Bank, and the World Health Organization (WHO)

c) SDG6 and International Energy Agency (IEA), the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD), the World Bank, and the World Health Organization (WHO)

d) SDG7 and International Energy Agency (IEA), the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), the World Bank and the World Health Organization (WHO)

Solution (a)

Q.11) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)’

1. The equity of a regional rural bank is held by the concerned State Government and the Sponsor Bank in the proportion of 50:50.

2. They were set up under the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976.

3. They have to maintain the minimum prescribed Capital to Risk weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) of 15%.

Select the correct statements

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 Only

c) 1 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.12) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Central Adoption Resource

Authority (CARA)’

1. It is a statutory body of Ministry of Women & Child Development

2. It was set up under the POCSO Act

3. It has barred partners in live-in relationships from adopting a child

Select the correct statements

a) 1 Only

b) 1 and 2

c) 1 and 3

d) None of the above

Solution (a)

Q.13) which of the following is/are correctly matched?

1. Kanjirankulam Bird Sanctuary – Tamil Nadu

2. Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary – Kerala

3. Chitrangudi Bird Sanctuary – Karnataka

Select the correct code:

a) 1 Only

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.14) ‘Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS)’ is often seen in news. It is associated with which of the following organisations?

a) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)

b) Middle East Security Alliance (MESA)

c) North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)

d) BRICS

Solution (a)

Q.15) ‘Helsinki Accords’ is associated with

a) Generalised System of Preferences (GSP)

b) Antarctic Treaty System

c) Non-Proliferation Treaty

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.16) If you have to reach Russia from India through land, the minimum countries land boundaries that must be crossed is?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

Solution (a)

Q.17) ‘Billion Tree Tsunami’, (BTT) a provincial government programme that has seen a total of 300 million trees of 42 different species planted across the province. BTT is associated with which province?

a) Bali Province, Indonesia

b) Chongqing Province, China

c) Philippines Province

d) Khyber Pakhtunkhwa Province, Pakistan

Solution (d)

Q.18) Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) brands the monsoon as ‘normal’ or ‘deficient’ based on how it fares against its benchmark Long Period Average (LPA). Select the statement that closely defines LPA:

a) LPA is the average rainfall received by the country as a whole during the south-west monsoon, for a 50-year period.

b) LPA is the average rainfall received by the country as a whole during the north-west monsoon, for a 60-year period.

c) LPA is the average rainfall received by the country as a whole during the south-west monsoon, for a 100-year period.

d) LPA is the average rainfall received by the country as a whole during the south-west monsoon, for a 10-year period.

Solution (a)

Q.19) Select the correct statement with reference to ‘GROWTH-India’ recently in new:

a) The telescope located at the Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO) at Hanle in Ladakh, designed to observe dynamic or transient events in the universe.

b) A joint initiative of World Bank and Union Finance Ministry on measures to accelerate GDP.

c) A medical device designed by IIT Madras students for disabled children.

d) It is a flagship initiative of NITI AAYOG for bridging the gaps between Center and State government fiscal health.

Solution (a)

Q.20) Recently India lauded the ‘Third Neighbor Policy’ of one of its partner countries in

Asia. Which of the following pursue the ‘Third Neighbor Policy’?

a) Myanmar

b) Mongolia

c) Vietnam

d) Philippines

Solution (b)

Q.21) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’

1. They are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

2. All kinds of human activities are prohibited in the Eco-Sensitive Zones

3. Eco-Sensitive Zones can be notified only near National Parks

Select the correct statements

a) 1 Only

b) 1 and 2

c) 1 and 3

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.22) considers the following statements with respect to ‘Atal Bhujal Yojana (ABHY)’ and identifies the correct ones.

1. It deals with the matters related to Urban Water Supply and Sanitation including Solid Waste Management

2. It aims to improve ground water management in priority areas in the country through community participation

3. It is being implemented by the Central Public Health and Environmental Engineering

Organisation (CPHEEO)

Select the correct statements

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 Only

c) 2 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.23) ‘Lithium-ion batteries’ can be used in which of the following?

1. Mobile Phones

2. Electric and Hybrid Vehicles

3. Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)

IASbaba 60 Days CA Compilation – Week 1 &2 2019

24

Select the correct code:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.24) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Islands Development Agency

(IDA)’

1. It is chaired by the Prime Minster of India

2. It aims to develop a military and naval base at the Andaman and Lakshadweep

Islands

3. It was set up in 2017

Select the correct statements

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 3 Only

d) 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.25) which of the following statements with respect to ‘Gram Swaraj Abhiyan’ is/are correct?

1. It releases the bonded labourers from their bondage and rehabilitates them

2. It rehabilitates the homeless and destitute persons and provides them with suitable sources of livelihood

Select the correct statements

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (d)

Q.26) ‘Cyclone Sagar and Mekunu’ recently in news are associated with:

a) Southern Pacific Ocean

b) Atlantic Ocean

c) Indian Ocean

d) Western Pacific Ocean

Solution (c)

Q.27) The term ‘HiLumi’ recently in news is associated with:

a) High intensity laser beam technology

b) Helium exploration on the Moon

c) An upgrade of Large Hadron Collider at CERN

d) An artificial intelligence based telescope

Solution (c)

Q.28) ‘International Conference on Water for Sustainable Development’ was held in Tajikistan. Consider the following statements in this regard:

1. The United Nations General Assembly has proclaimed the decade 2020-2030 as the

International Decade for Action ‘Water for Sustainable Development’

2. Sustainable development and integrated water resources management has been kept under Sustainable Development Goal, SDG-6.

3. World Water Day is observed on 22 March every year.

Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.29) Consider the following statements regarding the recently launched National Digital

Library (NDL) of India:

1. NDL is the Single Window Secret Platform that collects and collates metadata from premier learning institutions in India

2. It is not open to foreign institutions

3. It is a project of the Ministry of Human Resource Development under the aegis of

National Mission on Education through Information and Communication Technology

(NMEICT)

Identify the correct statement/s and mark the appropriate code

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) 3 only

Solution (d)

Q.30) Consider the following statements about ‘Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) and ‘Nuclear DNA’:

1. While nuclear DNA is circular in shape, mtDNA is linear.

2. MtDNA is inherited from both father and mother while nuclear NDA is solely from mother.

3. Nuclear DNA consists of 46 chromosomes while mitochondrial DNA consists of only one chromosome.

Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Solution (b)

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Q.1) NASA’s spacecraft OSIRIS – Rex has recently arrived at its destination. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding it?

1. The mission will land at near earth orbit asteroid, Bennu and will bring a rock sample on earth.

2. The aim of the mission is to discover formation of water and organic molecules on mars.

3. This will be the world’s first space asteroid sampling.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.2) ISRO’s launch vehicle PSLV – C43 has successfully launched satellite HysIS. Which of the following statements are correct regarding HysIS?

a) It is an observation satellite to study the earth’s surface in the visible, near infrared and short-wave infrared regions.

b) It is a communication satellite that will be helpful in providing DTH connection across

India.

c) It is a surveillance satellite launched for Indian army to keep a check at Indo – Pak and Indo – China border.

d) It is a meteorological satellite launched for IMD for exact weather predictions in India.

Solution (a)

Q.3) Recently NASA retired its Kepler space telescope as it ran out of fuel. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the mission?

1. It was NASA’s first planet-hunting mission.

2. It used transit photometry detection method for searching for exoplanet.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding the Gaganyaan Mission:

1. ISRO is setting up a third launch pad at Kalam Island for this mission.

2. It will be India’s first manned space mission.

3. India is planning to send three humans in space in low earth orbit through this mission.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

Q.5) ISRO has launched two observation satellites NovaSAR and S1 – 4 from Satish Dhawan center. Which of the following statements are correct regarding NovaSAR?

1. It has been launched in Sun synchronous Pole to pole project.

2. It is French satellite commercially launched by ISRO.

3. NovaSAR is a S-Band Synthetic Aperture Radar satellite intended for forest mapping, land use and ice cover monitoring, flood and disaster monitoring.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (c)

Q.6) Japanese researchers are going to conduct world’s first experiment to test small prototype of space elevator. Which of the following statements regarding space elevator are correct?

1. It is a proposed planet to space transportation system.

2. An Earth-based space elevator would consist of a cable with one end attached to the surface near the equator and the other end in space beyond geostationary orbit.

3. Gravity and centrifugal force keeps the cable under tension, and stationary over a single position on Earth.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.7) Consider the following statements regarding Gaofen 11:

1. It is part of China High-resolution Earth Observation System (CHEOS).

2. It is a sub-meter resolution optical satellite, used for surveying.

3. It will be used for land surveys, urban planning, and road network design and agriculture and disaster relief.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.8) ISRO has successfully conducted ground test of its high thrust version of Vikas Engine.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Vikas Engine?

1. It is a solid propulsion engine carrying solid fuel and oxidizer.

2. It is a workhorse engine of PSLV but hasn’t been used in any stage of GSLV.

3. High thrust version of Vikas engine will increase the payload capability of PSLV, GSLV and GSLV Mk III.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

Q.9) Remove DEBRIS is a satellite research project intending to demonstrate various space debris removal technologies. Rather than engaging in active debris removal (ADR) of real space debris, the Remove DEBRIS mission plan is to test the efficacy of several ADR technologies on mock targets in low Earth orbit through some experiments. Which of the following experiment is not a part of mission?

a) Net Experiment

b) Vision based Navigation

c) Harpoon and Deployable target

d) Laser HIT and disintegration Experiment

Solution (d)

Q.10) NASA has launched InSight Mission as robotic lander on Mars. The aim of the mission is to

a) Study the atmosphere of Mars

b) Study the topography of Mars

c) Study the interior of Mars

d) Study the evidence of life and water on mars

Solution (c)

Q.11) Chandrayaan 2 is totally indigenous project of ISRO. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Chandrayaan 2?

1. It is a lunar mission consisting of an Orbiter, Lander and Rover.

2. The mission will carry a six-wheeled Rover which will move around the landing site in semi-autonomous mode as decided by the ground commands.

3. If successful, it will be ISRO’s first mission to land rover on any celestial body.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.12) Spacecraft cemetery/graveyard is the location used for crash landing of defunct spacecrafts. It is considered to be the most remote part of the earth and lies in Southern Pacific ocean. The name given to this point is

a) Point Dolphin

b) Point Angel

c) Point Nemo

d) Point Poseidon

Solution (c)

Q.13) Aditya L1 is India’s first dedicated scientific mission to study sun. It will be placed at

Lagrange point 1. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Lagrange points?

1. A Lagrange point is a location in space where the combined gravitational forces of two large bodies, such as Earth and the sun or Earth and the moon, equal the centrifugal force felt by a much smaller third body.

2. L1 lies a million miles from Earth in the opposite direction of the sun with the Earth, moon and sun behind it.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (a)

Q.14) Stratolaunch is the world’s largest composite airplane. Which of the following statements is correct regarding it?

a) It is designed to take astronauts to International Space Station.

b) It is designed to take commercial passengers to exosphere for zero gravity experience.

c) It is designed for sending satellite-carrying rockets into low-Earth orbit

d) It is designed to carry heavy payloads from construction site to the launch site.

Solution (c)

Q.15) NASA successfully tested a supersonic parachute designed to land the agency’s next rover on Mars. The supersonic parachute experiment is known as

a) INSPIRE

b) ASPIRE

c) EXPIRE

d) RESPIRE

Solution (b)

Q.16) NASA has named a new bacteria discovered on International Space Station after

a) Dr A P J Abdul Kalam

b) Dr Vikram Sarabhai

c) Dr Saha

d) Eugene Parker

Solution (a)

Q.17) GUSTO is a balloon based observatory to study the cosmic material entering the earth.

The program was launched by

a) NASA

b) ISRO

c) ROSCOSMOS

d) ESA

Solution (a)

Q.18) which of the following energies are believed to be responsible for expansion and acceleration of Universe?

a) Gravitational energy

b) Weak forces

c) Electromagnetic energy

d) Dark Energy

Solution (d)

Q.19) Cornell University has successfully tested ‘Sprites’. Which of the following statements are correct regarding them?

1. They are world’s smallest fully functional space probes, built on a single circuit board achieving low Earth orbit

2. They are equipped with tiny solar panels and two antennas, plus a tiny radio, computer, magnetometer (to orient to Earth’s magnetic field) and gyroscope.

3. They were launched by NASA under starshot project.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.20) ISRO has commissioned the world’s third largest hypersonic wind tunnel at Vikram Sara bhai Space Center. Which of the following statements regarding this wind tunnel are correct?

1. It is being made with the help of Israel.

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2. It will be used to study the effects of air flowing past solid objects like space vehicles.

3. It will help aerodynamic characterization of advanced space transportation systems in a hypersonic environment.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

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Q.1) With reference to the calculation of Gross Domestic Product (GDP), consider the following:

1. Commission of a real estate agent in the sale of a property

2. Sale of a used car

3. Components such as tyres sold for car manufacture

Which of the following are not included in its calculation?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.2) With reference to National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC), consider the following statements:

1. It is the statutory organisation under Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.

2. It strengthens and promotes programmes across sectors relating to agriculture and allied fields

3. Recently it launched Yuva Sahakar – Cooperative Enterprise Support and Innovation

Scheme

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.3) With reference to the Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) rankings, consider the following statements:

1. It is published by the World Bank

2. The Doing Business report ranks countries on the basis of distance to frontier (DTF), a score that shows the gap of an economy to the global average.

3. India’s rank has been constantly improving since 2014.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 3 only

Solution (b)

Q.4) With reference to the first Human Capital Index released recently, consider the following Statements:

1. It has been released by World Economic Forum

2. It conveys the productivity of the next generation of workers compared to a benchmark of complete education and full health.

3. Singapore topped the list.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 2 only

Solution (c)

Q.5) With reference to the Credit Rating agencies in India, consider the following statements:

1. They are registered and regulated by SEBI

2. They function on “Issuer pays” model rather than “Subscriber pays’ model

3. According to the new norms, ratings agencies are required to disclose liquidity position, source and rationale of additional funds of a company.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.6) With reference to the External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs), consider the following statements:

1. The cost of ECBs is higher than the domestic borrowings.

2. It widens the investor base of a company

3. The government can direct inflows into specific sectors by allowing higher ECBs in them, thus promoting development

Which of the given statements is/are advantages of ECBs?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.7 which of the following schemes is not related to MSMEs?

a) SHAKTI

b) Samadhaan

c) Sambandh

d) SFURTI

Solution (a)

MSME Delayed Payment Portal – MSME Samadhaan

Public Procurement Portal for MSEs – MSME Sambandh

Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries (SFURTI) – related to Infrastructure of MSMEs

SHAKTI (Scheme for harnessing & allocating Koyla transparently in India) – step to tackle stress in the power sector and not related to MSME.

Q.8) Baba Kalyani committee recently submitted its report on?

a) Review of powers of CBI

b) Impact of Climate change on Indian rivers

c) SEZ policy

d) Review of Bilateral Trade Agreements

Solution (c)

Q.9 Inclusive Wealth Report 2018 is published by?

a) World Bank

b) World Economic Forum

c) UN Environment Programme

d) UN Development Programme

Solution (c)

10. With reference to the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP), consider the following statements:

1. It comes under the National Health Mission.

2. The scheme seeks to set up a Central Disease Surveillance Unit and a State Surveillance

Unit in each State where data is collected and analyzed.

3. It is assisted by World Bank.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP)

• IDSP is a disease surveillance scheme under National Health Mission, under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in India, assisted by the World Bank.

11. With reference to the Intensified Mission Indradhanush, consider the following Statements:

1. It has been launched by the Government of India to reach each and every child under two years of age.

2. It is a special drive that will focus on all the districts of the country

3. It targets to immunize all children against seven vaccine preventable diseases

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.12) Recently, PAiSA portal was launched by which of the following Union Ministries?

a) Ministry of Railways

b) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

c) Ministry of Housing

d) Ministry of Rural Development

Solution (c)

Q.13) With reference to the Demographic Dividend, consider the following statements:

1. A country with a high population between 15-64 years is considered to have a high demographic dividend.

2. Focus on providing skill development and education will help in effective utilisation of demographic dividend.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.14) Universal Basic Income has been in news for a while. Consider the following statements with reference to it:

1. It is unconditional and universal to all the citizens of the country

2. UBI would require subsumption of other subsidies and allowances in order to free up resources so that a particular amount can be directed to people on a periodic basis.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Universal basic income (UBI) is a model for providing all citizens of a country or other geographic area with a given sum of money, regardless of their income, resources or employment status. The purpose of the UBI is to prevent or reduce poverty and increase equality among citizens.

Q.15) With reference to the definition of poverty in India, which of the following statements is correct?

a) According to C Rangarajan committee, poverty line should be Rs 32 in rural areas and Rs 47 in urban areas.

b) The poverty estimates of Rangarajan committee were lower than that of Tendulkar committee.

c) The poverty line suggested by World Bank is lower than that of Tendulkar committee.

d) None of the above

Solution (a)

Q.16) which of the following statements is not correct?

a) Poverty Gap is the difference between the mean income among the poor and the poverty line

b) Headcount ration shows the percentage of population whose per capita incomes are below the poverty line

c) Multidimensional poverty Index consists of 10 indicators

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.17) which of the following committees is not related to poverty estimation in India?

a) YK Alagh

b) NC Saxena committee

c) Pronab Sen committee

d) None of the above

Solution (c)

Pranab Sen Committee for Slums was constituted by Ministry of Housing and Poverty Alleviation in 2010.

18. Which of the following is/are a correct difference between SECC 2011 and Census 2011?

1) Census is conducted by Census Commissioner in Home Ministry while SECC 2011 was by Ministry of Rural Development.

2) Census has a statutory backing while SECC 2011 doesn’t.

Select the correct option from below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.19) which of the following are steps taken by the Government for the eradication of poverty?

1. Progressive taxation

2. Decentralisation through Panchayati Raj and Nagarpalikas

3. Saubhagya scheme

Which of the following is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.20) With reference to The National Food Security Act 2013, consider the following statements:

1. The Act provides for coverage of up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population

2. Under the Act, the eligible persons will be entitled to receive 5 kgs of food grains per person per month at subsidized prices of Rs. 3/2/1 per Kg for rice/wheat/coarse grains.

3. To ensure the food security of poorest of poor, the existing Antyodaya Anna Yojana

(AAY) households will continue to receive 35 Kgs of foodgrain per household per month

4. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are also covered under the scheme.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (d)

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Q.1) Consider the following statements with regard to Regulating Act of 1773:

1. The first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British

Government was enacted through this Act.

2. This Act is of great constitutional importance as it was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (b)

Q.2) considers the features given below and chooses the correct answer:

1. This Act provided for the first time for the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the Viceroy and Governors.

2. This Act introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’.

3. This Act retained official majority in the Central Legislative Council but allowed the provincial legislative councils to have non-official majority.

The above important features are part of –

a) Indian Councils Act of 1861

b) Indian Councils Act of 1892

c) Indian Councils Act of 1909

d) Government of India Act of 1919

Solution (c)

Features of the Act of 1909 also known as Morley-Minto Reforms:

1. It considerably increased the size of the legislative councils, both Central and provincial.

2. It retained official majority in the Central Legislative Council but allowed the provincial legislative councils to have non-official majority.

3. It enlarged the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at both the levels. For example, members were allowed to ask supplementary questions, move resolutions on the budget, and so on.

4. It provided (for the first time) for the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the Viceroy and Governors.

5. It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’.

6. It also provided for the separate representation of presidency corporations, chambers of commerce, universities and zamindars.

Q.3) which among the following is/are the feature common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation?

1. Three lists in the Constitution

2. A federal supreme court to interpret the Constitution

3. Single citizenship

4. Appointment of state governors by the Centre

Choose correct option:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) 2 only

d) 2 and 3 only

Solution (c)

Q.4) Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble were the features borrowed from –

a) Weimar Constitution of Germany

b) French Constitution

c) Irish Constitution

d) US Constitution

Solution (b)

Q.5) the Preamble reveals which among the following ingredients or components –

1. Source of authority of the Constitution

2. Nature of Indian State

3. Objectives of the Constitution

4. Date of adoption of the Constitution

Choose correct option:

a) 2 and 3 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (d)

Q.6) Consider the below statements:

1. The Indian Constitution provides for direct democracy where the people exercise their supreme power.

2. The term ‘democratic’ is used in the Preamble in the broader sense embracing not only political democracy but also social and economic democracy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (b)

Q.7) in which of the following case, the Supreme Court laid down that the Constitution is federal and characterised federalism as its ‘basic feature’?

a) Bommai case (1994)

b) Minerva Mills case (1980)

c) Cooper case (1970)

d) Shankari Prasad (1951)

Solution (a)

Q.8) In addition to the making of the Constitution and enacting of ordinary laws, the

Constituent Assembly also performed which of the following functions?

1. Elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India

2. Adopted India’s National Anthem and National Song

3. Adopted the National Flag of India

4. Ratified India’s membership of the Commonwealth

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.9) Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the Division of powers?

a) Schedule Two

b) Schedule Four

c) Schedule Three

d) None

Solution (d)

Q.10) Consider the following statements:

1. Process for changing the name of a state or its district/villages can be initiated by state only.

2. Formation of new states, altering boundary and name is not considered as Constitutional Amendment under Art 368.

3. Parliament has power to change the name of a state or its districts and villages.

Which of the statements provided above is/are correct?

a) 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (a)

Q.11) the Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has

1. Republican system

2. Doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament

3. System of legal responsibility of the minister

4. System of judicial review

5. Both a real and a nominal executive

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 3 and 4

b) 4 and 5 only

c) 2, 4 and 5

d) 1 and 4 only

Solution (d)

Q.12) The Constitution of India confers which among the following rights and privileges on the citizens of India (and denies the same to aliens)?

1. Equality before law and equal protection of laws

2. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion

3. Freedom to manage religious affairs

4. Six basic freedoms subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19

5. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2 and 4

b) 4 and 5 only

c) 2, 4 and 5

d) 3 and 5 only

Solution (b)

Q.13) Consider the statements given below:

1. In India only a citizen by birth and not a naturalised citizen are eligible for the office of President.

2. The Constitution does not contain provisions dealing with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (b)

Q.14) Consider the following:

1. States not indestructible

2. Single Constitution

3. Flexibility of the Constitution

4. Three tier government

5. Integrated Election Machinery

Which of the terms given above are unitary features of the Indian Constitution?

a) 1, 2 and 4

b) 2, 3 and 5

c) 1, 2, 3 and 5

d) 1, 2 and 5

Solution (c)

Q.15) Arrange the below given States in correct chronological sequence based on their creation after the reorganisation of the states in 1956:

1. Haryana

2. Nagaland

3. Gujarat

4. Sikkim

Choose the correct code:

a) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3

b) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4

c) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3

d) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4

Solution (b)

Q.16) if any foreign territory becomes a part of India –

a) Government of India specifies the persons who among the people of the territory shall be the citizens of India.

b) Automatically all the people belonging to the territory become the citizens of India.

c) Parliament has to amend the Citizenship Act and make provision for providing citizenship to people of the territory.

d) People of the territory can acquire citizenship of India by Registration.

Solution (a)

Q.17) which among the following powers are granted to the Parliament by Article 2 of the Indian Constitution?

1. Power to admit into the Union of India new states

2. Power to increase the area of any state

3. Power to alter the boundaries of any state

4. Power to establish new states which were previously not part of India

Select the correct code:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (c)

Q.18) Consider the following statements:

1. Republic Day is celebrated to commemorate the adoption of constitution.

2. The Beating Retreat ceremony is held after officially denoting the end of Republic Day festivities i.e. evening of 26th January.

3. Beating Retreat ceremony is performed by the bands of the three wings of the military, the Indian Army, Indian Navy and Indian Air Force.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 2

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.19) Consider the following statements regarding the states of India:

1. States in India have no right to territorial integrity.

2. Indian Federation is “an indestructible Union of indestructible states”.

3. In order to change the name or boundary of a country ratification of the State Legislature is required.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) None

Solution (a)

Unlike in other federations, the states in India have no right to territorial integrity. The Parliament can by unilateral action change the area, boundaries or name of any state. Moreover, it requires only a simple majority and not a special majority. Hence, the Indian Federation is “an indestructible Union of destructible states”. The American Federation, on the other hand, is described as “an indestructible Union of indestructible states”.

Q.20) The Swaran Singh Committee considered the question of –

a) Integration of British provinces and the princely states

b) Reorganisation of states on the basis of linguistic factor

c) The suitability of the Presidential form of government for India

d) Reorganisation of states on the basis of administrative convenience

Solution (c)

The Swaran Singh Committee was appointed by the Congress government in 1975 which considered the question of the suitability of the Presidential form of government for India. The committee gave report in favor of presidential form of government owing to various advantages over presidential form of government. However, the committee also opined that there is no need to replace parliamentary system.

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Q.1     Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya sabha?   

(A)      The chairman, Rajya sabha                   (B)      The President

(C)       The joint – session of parliament        (D)      None

Answer (D)

Q.2     Rajya sabha enjoys more power than the Lok sabha in the casa of?           

(A)      Money Bills                                                            

(B)      Non Money Bills

(C)       Setting up of new all India service     

(D)      Amendment of the constitution

Answer (C)

 Q.3     The tenure of the Rajya sabha is?     

(A)      2 Years       (B)      5 Years

(C)       6 Years       (D)      Permanent

Answer (D)

Q.4     What is the term of a member of the Rajya sabha?        

(A)      3 years          (B)      4 years          (C)       5 years          (D)      6 years

Answer (D)

 Q.5     The vice-president is the ex-officio chairman of the?   

(A)      Rajya Sabha                       

 (B)      Lok Sabha

(C)       Planning Commission    

 (D)      National Development Council

Answer (A)

 Q.6     The Rajya sabha is dissolved after?   

(A)      Every Five years                                       

(B)      Every Six Years

(C)       On the advice of the Prime Minister

 (D)      None of these

Answer (D)

 Q.7     The upper house of Indian parliament is known as?       

(A)      The Rajya Sabha               

(B)      The Lok Sabha

(C)       The National Assembly  

(D)      The Indian parliament

Answer (A)

Q.8Who is the chairman of Rajya Sabha?           

(A)      The president                    

(B)      The Vice-President

(C)       The Prime minister         

(D)      The Speaker

Answer (B)

 Q.9 which is the house where the chair person is not the member of that house?

(A)      Rajya Sabha                       

 (B)      Lok Sabha

(C)       Legislative council           

(D)      Legislative assembly

Answer (A)

Q.10   How many members are nominated by the president in the Rajya Sabha?

(A)      2          (B)      10                  

(C)       12        (D)      15

Answer (C)

Q.11   Which one of the following is president over by one who is not its member?

(A)      Vidhan Sabha                     

(B)      Council of ministers

(C)       Lok Sabha                            

(D)      Rajya Sabha

Answer (D)

 Q.12   What could be the maximum time limit of ‘Zero Hour’?

(A)      30 Minutes            

(B)      1 Hour

(C)       2 Hours                    

(D)      Indefinite period

Answer (B)

Q.13   What is the fixed strength of Rajya Sabha?

(A)      210                 (B)      220                 (C)       230                 (D)      250

Answer (D)

Q.14   The First mid-term election for lok sabha was held in?

(A)      1962              (B)      1971              (C)       1977              (D)      1980

Answer (B)

 Q.15   The Speaker’s vote in the lok sabha is called?     

(A)      Casting vote                       

(B)      Sound vote

(C)       Direct vote             

(D)      Indirect vote

Answer (A)

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Q.1     What can be the maximum interval between two sessions of parliament?        

(A)      3 Months         (B)      4 Months

(C)       6 Months         (D)   9 Months

Answer (C)

Q.2 which of the following non-member of parliament has the right to address it?

(A)      Attorney General            

(B)      Solicitor General of India

(C)       Chief justice of India      

 (D)      Chief election Commissioner

Answer (A)

Q.3     Age of a candidate t contest parliamentary election should not be lesser than?

(A)      18 Years          (B)      21 Years

(C)       25 Years          (D)      26 Years

Answer (C)

Q.4     The most important feature of the Indian parliament is that?

(A)      It is the union legislature in India      

(B)      It also comprises of the president

(C)       It is bicameral in nature   

(D)   The upper house of the parliament is never dissolved

Answer (B)

 Q.5 Japan’s Parliament Known as?

(A)      Diet                (B)      Dial

(C)       Yuan              (D)      Shora

Answer (A)

 Q.6   Who sail, ‘Parliamentary system provides a daily as well as a periodic assessment of the government?

(A)      B.R. Ambedkar                  

(B)      B.N. Nehru

(C)       Jawahar Lal Nehru                       

(D)      Rajendra Prasad

Answer (A)

Q.7     How many members of the Anglo-indian community can be nominated by the president of India to the parliament?    

(A)      1                       (B)      2         

(C)       5                      (D)      8

Answer (B)

Q.8     Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the president of India?

(A)      Only Lok Sabha                                         

(B)      Only Rajya Sabha

(C)       Either house of the parliament                       

(D)      Any Legislative assembly

Answer (C)

Q.9     Which of the following has the powers to create a new all India service? 

(A)      Parliament             

(B)      Union public service commission

(C)       Union Cabinet       

(D)      Ministry of personnel, Public grievances and Pensions

Answer (A)

 Q.10   Sovereignty of Indian parliament is restricted by? 

(A)      Powers of the president of India        

(B)      Judicial review

(C)       Leader of the opposition                       

(D)      Powers of the prime minister of India

Answer (B)

Q.11   The committee of parliament on official language comprises the members?

(A)  20 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(B)  10 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

(C)   10 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(D)  20 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

Answer (A)

Q.12 which of the following is NOT a parliamentary committee?   

(A)      Committee on public accounts           

(B)      Committee on public undertakings

(C)      Committee on Estimates                      

(D)      Demands for grants committee

Answer (D)

Q.13     Which one of the following is the largest committee of the parliament?   

(A)      The Public accounts committee                      

(B)      The Estimates committee

(C)       The committee on public undertakings       

(D)      The committee on petitions

Answer (B)

 Q.14   In which of the following committees there is no representation of Rajya Sabha?

(A)    Public accounts committee                              

(B)    Committee on public undertakings

(C)   Committee on government assurance        

 (D)  Estimates Committee

Answer (D)

Q.15   Which of the following is NOT a tool of parliamentary control over public expenditures?           

(A) Public accounts committee                  

(B) Comptroller and Auditor general of India

(C) Estimates Committee                            

(D) Committee on public undertakings

Answer (B)

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Q.1     The comptroller and auditor general of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the? 

(A)      Union Government                     

(B)      State Government

(C)       Union and State Government

(D)      Neither Union nor State Government

Answer (C)

 Q.2     What is the period of appointment of the comptroller and auditor general of India?

(A)      6 Years                                                                                 

(B)      Upto 65 Years of age

(C)     6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier     

(D)    Upto 64 years of age

Answer (C)

 Q.3     Who is the highest civil servant of the union government?    

(A)      Attorney General            

(B)      Cabinet Secretary

(C)       Home Secretary               

(D)      Principle secretary to the P.M

Answer (B)

 Q.4     The Attorney general of India is appointed by?   

(A)      The president of India                 (B)      The Prime Minister

(C)       The Chief justice of India           (D)      The UPSC

Answer (A)

Q.5     In india’ The Comptroller –general of accounts presents a detailed analytical review of union government accents to the finance ministry every?     

(A)      Years                                    

(B)      Six Months

(C)       Three Months       

(D)      Month

Answer (A)

 Q.6     Who advises the government of India on legal matters?           

(A)      Attorney General                         (B)      Chief justice of Supreme Court

(C)       Chairman, law commission        (D)      none of these

Answer (A)

 Q.7     Comptroller and auditor – general of India is appointed by:     

(A)      President                                                                 

(B)      Speaker of the lok sabha

(C)       Chairman of the planning commission         

(D)      Finance minister

Answer (A)

 Q.8     The attorney General of India is a legal advisor to?    

(A)      The president of India                 (B)      The Prime Minister

(C)       Lok Sabha                                  (D)      Government of India

Answer (D)

 Q.9     Who is called the guardian of public purse?           (UP PCS Main 2008)

(A)      President                

(B)   Comptroller   and auditor- general

(C)       Parliament             

(D)      Council of Ministers

Answer (B)

 Q.10   Which non-member cab participates in the business of either house of parliament?

(A)      The Vice-President                       (B)      The Solicitor General

(C)       The Attorney General                 (D)      The Chief justice of India

Answer (C)

Q.11     Which of the following standing committees of parliament has no MP from Rajya Sabha?

 (A)     Public accounts committees                

(B)      Committee on public undertakings

(C)       Committee on government assurance         

(D)      Estimates committee

Answer (D)

 Q.12     The parliament committee which scrutinizes the report of the comptroller and auditor general of Indian is?       

(A)      Estimates committee                  (B)      Select Committee

(C)       Public Account Committee        (D)      None of these

Answer (C)

 Q.13     Who among the following forms the advisory committee of the parliament?

(A)      Speaker of Lok Sabha                   (B)      Vice-President of India

(C)       President of India                         (D)      None of these

Answer (A)

Q.14     The committee of parliament on official language comprises the members?

(A) 20 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(B)  10 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

(C) 10 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(D) 20 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

Answer (A)

 Q.15     Which of the following is NOT a parliamentary committee?   

(A)      Committee on public accounts           

(B)      Committee on public undertakings

(C)       Committee on Estimates                       

(D)      Demands for grants committee

Answer (D)

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Q.1     The president of India enjoys emergency powers of? (SSC Grad 2007)

(A)      Two Types      (B)      Three Types

(C)       Four Types     (D)      Five Types

Answer (B)

 Q.2     How many times the president of India can seek reelection to his post?

(A)      Once                

(B)      Two times

(C)       Three Times  

(D)      Any number of times

Answer (D)

 Q.3     Which of the following appointments not made by the president of India?

(A)      Speaker of the Lok Sabha         

(B)      Chief justice of India

(C)       Chief of air staff                            

(D)      Chief of Army

Answer (A)

Q.4     What is the maximum age limit prescribed for the post of the president of India?                   

(A)      58 Years                  

(B)      60 Years

(C)       62 Years                  

(D)      There is no maximum age limit

Answer (D)

Q.5     Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by?

(A)      Edward stone        

(B)      Le Corbusier

(C)       Edwin Lutyens        

(D)      Tarun Dutt

Answer (C)

 Q.6     A presidential ordinance can remain force?         

(A)      For Three Months            

(B)      For Six Months

(C)       For Nine Months              

(D)      Indefinitely

Answer (B)

 Q.7   To be eligible for election as president of Indian, a person must have completed the age of?    

(A)      25 years                   (B)      30 Years

(C)       35 Years                (D)      40 Years

Answer (C)

 Q.8     Who was the president of India at the time of proclamation of emergency in the year 1975?                  

(A)       V.V Giri                                

(B)      Giani Zail singh

(C)     Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad    

(D)    Shankar Dayal Sharma

Answer (C)

Q.9     Under Which Article of the constitution of India can the president of India be impeached?         

(A)      Article 61            (B)      Article 75

(C)       Article 76          (D)      Article 356

Answer (A)

 Q.10   Who holds the power to appoint the nominees from Anglo-Indian community in the lok sabha?        

(A)      Minorities commission              

(B)      President of India

(C)       Prime Minister                             

(D)      Vice-President

Answer (B)

Q.10   Who holds the power to appoint the nominees from Anglo-Indian community in the lok sabha?

(A)      Minorities commission              

(B)      President of India

(C)       Prime Minister                             

(D)      Vice-President

Answer (B)

Q.11   The first president of independent India hails from?                 

(A)      U.P                

(B)      Andhra Pradesh

(C)       Bihar             

(D)      Tamil Nadu

Answer (C)

Q.12   Acting chief justice of the supreme court in India is appointed by the? 

(A)      Chief justice of Supreme Court                       

(B)      Prime Minister

(C)       President                                                    

(D)      Law Minister

Answer (C)

Q.13   Comptroller and auditor general of India are appointed by?      

(A)      President                                                       

(B)      Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(C)       Chairman of the planning Commission    

(D)      Finance Minister

Answer (A)

 Q.14   The vacancy of the Office of the president of India must be filled up within?

(A)      90 Days        

(B)      6th Months

(C)       1 Years         

(D)   Within the period decided by the parliament

Answer (B)

Q.15   Who among the following is constitutionally empowered to declare a geographical area as a Scheduled area?      

(A)      Governor                

(B)      Chief Minister

(C)     Prime Minister      

(D)      President

Answer (D)

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Q.1     Separation of the judiciary from the executive has been provided in one of the following parts of the Indian constitution?

(A)      The preamble                                             

(B)       The fundamental right

(C)       The directive principle of state policy  

(D)      The Seventh Schedule     

Answer (C)

 Q.2     Under the directive principle of state policy, up to what age of children they are expected to be provided free and compulsory education?

(A)      14 Years        (B)       15 Years

(C)       16 Years        (D)      16 Years                                           

Answer (A)

Q.3     Which part of the Indian constitution deals with the directive principle of the state policy?

(A)      Part I              (B)       Part III

(C)       Part IV           (D)      Part V                                            

Answer (C)

Q.4     The articles of the constitution of India which deal with directive principle of state policy are:

(A)      26 to 41        (B)       30 to 45

(C)       36 to 51        (D)      40 to 55                               

Answer (C)

Q.5     ‘Equal pay for equal work’ has been ensured in the Indian constitution as one of the?

(A)      Fundamental right            

(B)       Directive principle of state policy

(C)       Fundamental duties         

(D)      Economic right                              

Answer (B)

 Q.6     The concept of ‘Welfare State’ is included in which part of the Indian constitution?

(A)      Preamble of the constitution                 

(B)       The fundamental right

(C)       The directive principle of state policy 

 (D)  The fundamental right     

Answer (C)

 Q.7     ‘The directive principle of state policy is a cheque which is paid on Bank’s convenience’ who told it?

(A)      B.R. Ambedkar                  

 (B)       K.M. Munshi

(C)       Rajendra Prasad               

 (D)      K. T. Seth                             

Answer (A)

 Q.8    The directive principle of state policy is:

(A)      Justiciable     

(B)       Non Justiciable

(C)       Only some of the provisions are justiciable

(D)      None of these                                                                                 

Answer (B)

Q.9     The purpose of the inclusion of directive principle of state policy in the Indian constitution is to establish?

(A)      Political democracy                       (B)       Social democracy

(C)       Gandhian democracy                   (D)      Social and economic democracy          

Answer (D)

 Q.10   Which one of the following article of the directive principles of state policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security?

(A)      41             (B)       43 A

(C)       48 A         (D)      51                                                                               

Answer (D)

Q.11   How many fundamental duties are in the Indian constitution?

(A)      9          (B)       11

(C)       12       (D)      20                                                                  

Answer (B)

 Q.12   By which amendment act the fundamental duties of citizen are included in Indian constitution?

(A)      42nd amendment               

(B)       44th amendment

(C)       56th amendment               

(D)      73rd amendment                        

Answer (A)

Q.13   In which of the following years the fundamental duties have been added to the existent fundamental right the constitution of India?

(A)      1965              (B)       1976

(C)       1979              (D)      1982                                                             

Answer (B)

 Q.14   The 42nd amendment act has incorporated into the constitution of India a new chapter on?                       

(A)      Administration of union territories

(B)       Formation of interstate councils

(C)       Fundamental duties

(D)      None of these

Answer (C)

 Q.15   By what term, the ten commandments of 42nd constitutional amendment act are called?           

(A)      Fundamental rights          

(B)      Fundamental duties

(C)      Panchayati Raj Principle

(D)     Directive principle of state policy

Answer (B)

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Q.1     How does the constitution of India describe India as?

(A)      A federation of states and Union Territories

(B) A Union of State

(C)       Bharatvarsh                       

 (D)     A federated Union                        

Answer (B)

Q.2     Which commission made the recommendations which formed the basis for the Punjab reorganization act which created the states Punjab and Haryana?

(A)      Dhar Commission  

(B)       Dass Commission

(C)       Shah Commission  

(D)      Mahajan Commission                                         

Answer (C)

 Q.3     Article 1 of the constitution of India declares India as—

(A)      Federal state           

(B)       Quasi-Federal state

(C)       Unitary state           

(D)      Union of state                                            

Answer (D)

 Q.4     The no. of union territories on India is?

(A)      5          (B)       6

(C)       7          (D)      9                                                                                  

Answer (C)

Q.5   Of the following the town does not come within the national capital region (NCR) is?

(A)      Panipat          (B)       Rohtak

(C)       Khurja           (D)      Mathura                                                       

Answer (D)

Q.6Which of the following state is a member of the ‘seven Sisters?

(A)      West Bengal (B)       Tripura

(C)       Orissa            (D)      Bihar                                                             

Answer (B)

Q.7     Sikkim was made an integral part of India under the?

(A)      36th Amendment   

(B)       39th Amendment

(C)       40th Amendment    

(D)      42nd Amendment             

Answer (A)

 Q.8     Among the following states, which one was formed last?

(A)      Andhra Pradesh     (B)       Gujarat

(C)       Karnnataka              (D)      Punjab                                               

Answer (C)

 Q.9Which one of the following is the first state to have been formed on linguistic basis?

(A)      Andhra Pradesh     (B)       Gujarat

(C)       Karnnataka              (D)      Punjab                                              

Answer (A)

 Q.10   What is the correct chronological order in which the following states of the indianunion were created or granted full statehood?

1. Andhra Pradesh      2.Maharashtra

3. Nagaland                 4. Haryana

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4                         (B) 2,1,3,4

(C) 4,3,2,1                            (D) 2,1,4,3

Answer (A)

Q.11   The power to curve out a new state is vested in?

(A)      The Parliament      

(B)       The President

(C)       The Council of Ministers  

(D)      State’s Reorganizations commission

Answer (A)

 Q.12   Andhra Pradesh was created as a linguistic state in?

(A)      1950              (B)       1953

(C)       1956              (D)      1961                                                             

Answer (B)

 Q.13   ‘Uttarakhand’ state came into existence on?

(A)      1, November 2000             

(B)      9, November 2000

(C)      10, November 2001         

(D)      1, January 2008                            

Answer (B)

 Q.14   Which of the following is not a union territory?

(A)      Goa                                       

(B)       Lakshadweep

(C)       Dadar and Nagar Haveli  

(D)      Chandigarh                                     

Answer (A)

 Q.15   In which year was the state of Jharkhand formed?

(A)      1998              (B)       1999

(C)       2000             (D)      2001                                                            

Answer (C)

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Q.1     From the following languages listed in the eighth schedule of the constitution pick out of the one which is official language of a state?

(A)      Kashmiri        (B)       Urdu

(C)       Sindhi           (D)      Nepali

Answer (B)

Q.2     The item ‘Education’ belongs to the—-?

(A)      Union List

(B)       State List

(C) Concurrent List

(D)      Residuary List

Answer (C)

Q.3     How many schedules the constitution of India contains?

(A)      9          (B)       10

(C)       11       (D)      12

Answer (D)

Q.4 which article of the Indian constitution provides for the institution of panchayati-Raj?

(A)      Article 36                  (B)   Article 39

(C)       Article 40                  (D)-Article 48

Answer (C)

Q.5     Article 1 of the constitution declares India as –?

(A)      Federal State

(B)       Quasi-Federal State

(C)       Unitary State

(D)      Union of State

Answer (D)

Q.6     How many Articles are there in the Indian constitution?

(A)      395                 (B)       396

(C)       398                 (D)      399

Answer (A)

Q.7     Which part of the Indian constitution deals with Fundamental Right?

(A)      Part I                 (B)       Part II

(C)       Part III              (D)      Part IV

Answer (C)

Q.8     How many languages have recognized by the Constitution?

(A)      15                   (B)       18

(C)       22                   (D)      24

Answer (C)

Q.9     Which one of the following Article of the Constitution of India has provision for the president to proclaim emergency?

(A)      Article 352    (B)       Article 355

(C)       Article 356    (D) Articles 360

Answer (A)

Q.10   The Method of constitutional amendment is provided in?

(A)      Article 348       (B)       Article 358

(C)       Article 368        (D) Articles 378

Answer (C)

Q.11 With what subject to the article 5 to 11 of the constitution of India deal ?

(A)      Indian Union and its territory                 (B)       Citizenship

(C)       Fundamental Duties                                  (D)      Union Executive

Answer (B)

Q.12   The tenth schedule of Indian constitution deals with?

(A)      Anti-Defection Legislation

(B)       Panchayati Raj

(C)       Land Reforms

(D)      Distribution of powers between Union and State

Answer (A)

Q.13   Procedure for creation of legislative council in state has been described in which article of the constitution?

(A)      Article 69

(B)       Article 169

(C)       Article 269

(D)      Article369

Answer (B)

Q.14   Which of the constitutional provision lays down that taxes can neither be levied nor collected without the authority of law?

(A)      Article 265

(B)       Article 266

(C)       Article 300

(D)       Article 368

Answer (A)

Q.15   Which provision relating to the fundamental rights is directly related to the exploitation of children?

(A)      Article 17

(B)       Article 19

(C)       Article 23

(D)       Article 24

Answer (D)

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Q.1- the Concept of judicial review in our constitution has been taken from the constitution of?

(A)        England            

(B)          USA

(C)       Canada

(D)        Australia                                                                             

Answer (B)

Q.2   The constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian federation from the constitution of:

(A)          USA             

(B)          Canada

(C)          U.K             

(D)          Ireland                                                                                                  

Answer (B)

Q.3   The federal system with strong center has been borrowed by the Indian constitution from?

(A)          USA              (B)          Canada

(C)          U.K              (D)          France                                                                                                  

Answer (B)

Q.4   The idea of including the Emergency provisions in the constitution of India has been borrowed from?

(A)   Constitution of Canada          

(B)    Weimar constitution of Germany

(C)  Constitution of Ireland 

(D) Constitution of USA                                                       

Answer (B)

Q.5 The Office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India is based on which one of the following—-?

(A)   Parliamentary commissioner of UK

(B)  Ombudsman in Scandinavia

(C)  Procurator general of Russia

(D)   Council of state in France                                                                                            

Answer (B)

Q.6   Which of the following was the biggest source for the constitution of India?

(A)    The Government of India act, 1919

(B)     The Government of India act, 1935

(C)    The Indian Independence act, 1947

(D)    None of Above                                                                                                

Answer (B)

Q7   Of the following words in the preamble of the constitution of India which was not inserted through the constitution (Forty Second)

(A)   Socialist               

(B)  Secular

(C) Dignity                 

(D) Integrity                                                                              

Answer (C)

Q.8   At the time of enactment of the constitution, which one of the following ideals was not included in the preamble?

(A) Liberty                  (B)          Equality

(C) Socialist                (D)          Justice                                                                                  

Answer (C)

Q.9     Which Amendment act introduced changes in the preamble to the Indian constitution?

(A)          The 38th Amendment act 1975

(B)          The 40th Amendment act 1976

(C)          The 42nd Amendment act 1976

(D) The 44th Amendment act 1979                                                                                   

Answer (C)

Q.10 The preamble of our constitution reads India as?

(A)  Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic

(B)  Sovereign, Democratic, socialist, secular republic

(C)  Socialist sovereign, democratic, secular, republic

(D)  Democratic, sovereign, secular, socialist republic                                                            

Answer (A)

Q. 10 the preamble of our constitution reads India as?

(A)  Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic

(B)   Sovereign, Democratic, socialist, secular republic

(C)  Socialist sovereign, democratic, secular, republic

(D)  Democratic, sovereign, secular, socialist republic                                                           

Answer (A)

Q.11   Which Amendment of the Indian constitution inserted the two words—Socialist and Secular in the preamble?

(A)          28th       

(B)          40th

(C)          42nd       

(D)          52nd                                                                                                       

Answer (C)

Q.12 in Which amendment the words socialist secular and unity and integrity of the nation were added to the preamble of constitution of India?

(A)          42nd      (B)   44th

(C)          52nd      (D)   none of them                                                                  

Answer (A)

Q.13   Consider the following Words?

1. Socialist                   2. Democratic

3. Sovereign                4. Secular

Choose the response that gives the correct in the preamble?

(A)          3, 1, 4, and 2                         

(B)          3, 4, 1, and 2

(C)          3, 4, 1, and 2                         

(D)          4, 1, 3, and 2                                                        

Answer (A)

Q.14       Which one of the following describes India a secular state?

(A)          Fundamental Rights        

(B)          Preamble to the Constitution

(C)          9th Schedule                      

(D)          Directive principles                                         

Answer (B)

Q.15   Which one of the following liberty is not embodied in the preamble to the constitution of India?

(A)          Liberty of Thought         

 (B)          Liberty of Expression

(C)          Liberty of belief               

(D)          Economic Liberty                                                             

Answer (D)

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Q.1     The presidential government operates on the principle of?

(A)      Division of powers between centre and state

(B)       Centralization of powers

(C)       Balance of powers

 (D)      Separation of powers

Answer (D)                                                            

Q.2     Which of the following countries have an unwritten constitution?

(A)      USA                (B)       UK

(C)       India               (D)      Pakistan

Answer (B)

Q.3     The unitary system of government possesses which of the following advantages?

(A)      Grater adaptability                                  (B)       Strong state

(C)       Greater participation by the people     (D)      Lesser chances of authoritarianism

Answer (D)

Q.4     Which of the following countries enjoys a federal form of government?

(A)      China              (B)       USA

(C)       Cuba              (D)      Belgium

Answer (B)

Q.5     The English crown is an example of?

(A)      Real executive                    

(B)       Quasi-real executive

(C)       Nominal executive            

(D)      Nominated executive

Answer (C)

Q.6      The declaration that democracy is a government ‘of the people, by the people, for the people ‘was made by?

(A)      Abraham Lincoln    

(B)       George Washington

(C)       Theodore Roosevelt

(D)     Winston Churchill

Answer (A)

Q.7     At which of its session, did the congress officially accept the ‘socialistic pattern of Society?

(A)      Bombay session of 1953               (B)       Avadi session of 1955

(C)       Calcutta session of 1957              (D)      Nagpur session of 1959

Answer (B)

Q.8     In Indian polity which one is Supreme?

(A)      The Supreme Courts        

(B)       The Constitution

(C)       The Parliament                  

(D)      Religion

Answer (B)

Q.9     In Indian polity, The Executive is subordinate to the –?

(A)      Judiciary                               

(B)       Legislature

(C)       Election commission         

(D)      U P S C

Answer (B)

Q.10   Which of the following official documents is related with India?

(A)      White Paper           

(B)       Green Paper

(C)       Yellow Book            

(D)      Blue Book

Answer (A)

Q.11   Which one of the following is a basic feature of the Presidential Government?

(A)      Rigid constitution                           (B)       Single Executive

(C)       Supremacy of the Legislature        (D)      Residual powers of the state

Answer (B)

Q.12   Where was the concept of written constitution, first born?

 (A)      France          (B)       USA

(C)       Britain         (D)      Switzerland

Answer (B)

Q.13   Where was the first parliamentary form of government formed?

(A)      Britain                       

(B)       Belgium

(C)       France                      

(D)      Switzerland

Answer (A)

Q.14   Who called Indian federalism as the co-operative federalism? (C PCS Pre 2008)

(A)    G. Austin           

(B)    K. C. Where

(C)   Sir Ivory Jennings   

 (D)  D.D. Basu

Answer (A)

Q.15   The constitution of India is?

(A)      Rigid              

(B)       Flexible

(C)       Very Rigid    

(D)      Partly Rigid, Partly Flexible

Answer (D)

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This Booklet will cover all these topics:

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  5. Polity
  6. Science & Technology
  7. Social Issues
  8. Government schemes

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  6. Science & Technology
  7. Social Issues
  8. Government schemes

Daily Current Affairs 19-24 April 2019

UPSC IAS Prelims and State PSC Exams-2019 Current Affairs MCQ

1. Which article of the Indian Constitution has the provision of Finance Commission in India?

a) Article 275

b) Article 280

c) Article 265

d) Article 360

Answer: b only

Explanation: The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.

2. With reference to the union government offering grants-in-aid to state government, name the article that has the provision?

a) Article 275

b) Article 280

c) Article 265

d) Article 360

Answer: a only

Explanation: Article 275 provides for the payment of such sums as Parliament may by law provide as grants-in-aid of the revenues of such States.

3. which among them are the duties levied by the Union but Collected and Appropriated by the States?

a) Succession duty in respect of property other than agriculture land.

b) Estate duty in respect of property rather than agricultural land.

c) Stamp duty and duties of excise on the medical and toilet preparations.

d) Taxes on railway fares and freights

Answer: c only

Explanation: Stamp duty and duties of excise on the medical and toilet preparations are levied by the Union but Collected and Appropriated by the States.

4. With reference to the taxes levied and collected by the Union, which among following are assigned to the States?

a) Taxes on transactions in stock exchange.

b) Tax of sale and purchase of newspapers including advertisements

c) Estate duty in respect of property other than agriculture land.

d) Stamp duty and duties of excise on the medical and toilet preparations.

Find out the correct option from below:

Answer: a, b and c only

Explanation: The duties and taxes shall be levied and collected by the Government of India but shall be assigned to the States are duties in respect of succession to property other than agricultural land, estate duty in respect of property other than agricultural land, Terminal taxes on goods or passengers carried by railway, sea or air and taxes on railway fares and freights.

5. With reference to the Election Commission of India, name the authority who appoints the members?

a) President of India

b) Prime Minister of India

c) Elected by MPs

d) Appointed by Chief Election Commissioners

Answer: a only

Explanation: President of India appoints the members of the Election Commission of India.

6. With reference to monetary policy of RBI, which of the statements are correct?

a) It is aimed at managing the quantity of money to meet the requirements of different sectors of the economy.

b) Monetary policy is different from fiscal policy.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Monetary policy consists of the process of drafting, announcing and implementing the plan of actions taken by the central bank, currency board or other competent regulatory authority of a country that determines the scope and impact of the key drivers of the economic activity in that country.

7. With reference to the term, Systemically Important Banks, which of the banks are identified in such terms?

a) SBI

b) ICICI

c) HDFC

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has named State Bank of India (SBI), ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs).

8. With reference to the National Voluntary Guidelines on social, environmental and economic responsibilities, released by Union Ministry of Corporate Affairs, which of the following are correct?

a) Businesses should provide goods and services in a manner that is sustainable and safe.

b) Businesses should respect the interests of and be responsive to all their stakeholders.

c) Businesses should respect and promote human rights.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The Union Ministry of Corporate Affairs has released the National Guidelines on responsible business conduct and revised the National Voluntary Guidelines on social, environmental and economic responsibilities of business, 2011. These guidelines on responsible business conduct aim to urge businesses to actualize the following principles in letter and spirit.

9. With reference to the Interim Budget, which of the following are correct?

a) Interim Budget is presented by the outgoing government during the last year of its tenure before elections.

b) It is generally meant for the first 2-4 months of the fiscal year in which the elections are scheduled.

c) It does not include the proposal on the income part of the budget through collection of taxes.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Interim Budget is presented by the outgoing government during the last year of its tenure before elections. It is presented by the new government during the first term of its tenure after it takes charge. It is also known as vote on account or approval, which the government seeks from the parliament for essential spending for a limited period.

10. Which of the following are correct?

a) The annual budget is presented in two parts. It includes the detailed structure of income and future ways to raise funds.

b) The full budget is passed by the Lok Sabha only after proper discussions and voting on demand for grants.

c) It does not include the proposal on the income part of the budget through collection of taxes.

Answer: b and c only

Explanation: It is presented by the new government during the first term of its tenure after it takes charge. The annual budget is presented in two parts. It includes the detailed structure of income and future ways to raise funds.

11. Name the state associated with New Year celebrations known as ‘Vishu’?

a) Tamil Nadu

b) Kerala

c) Andhra Pradesh

d) Rajasthan

Answer: b only

Explanation: Vishu is an Indian festival celebrated in one of the Indian state Kerala and in coastal Kanyakumari nearby regions and their diaspora communities.

12. With reference to Open Market Operations (OMO), which of the following statements are correct?

a) Buying and selling of government securities in the open market.

b) Open Market Operations of securities’ purchases inject money into the banking system and stimulate growth.

c) It helps to implement and control monetary policy.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Open market operations (OMO) are the most flexible and most common tool that the Fed uses to implement and control monetary policy in India. However, the discount rate and reserve requirements are also used.

13. Name the telescope which is has captured the direct image of a black hole?

a) Event Horizon Telescope

b) Great Cloud Telescope

c) Great Globe Telescope

d) Half Horizon Telescope

Answer: a only

Explanation: In a breakthrough, the first ever direct image of a black hole has been captured, thanks to Event Horizon Telescope (EHT).

14. With reference to Anthos platform which helps to run apps from anywhere, name the technology giant associated with it?

a) Google

b) Microsoft

c) HCL

d) Wipro

Answer: a only

Explanation: Google has introduced a new open platform called Anthos to run and manage apps from anywhere. Based on the Cloud Services Platform that Google announced in 2018, Anthos lets users run applications on existing on-premise hardware investments or in the Public Cloud.

15. With reference to Order of St Andrew the Apostle, name the country associated it?

a) Japan

b) Prussia

c) Russia

d) Bulgaria

Answer: c only

Explanation: Russia’s highest state decoration, Order of St Andrew, for exceptional services in promoting special and privileged strategic partnership between the two countries.

16. With reference to 24X7 pollution charge zone which is currently in news, name the city which implemented the scheme?

a) Bangalore

b) Hong Kong

c) London

d) Delhi

Answer: c only

Explanation: London is the first city in the world to implement a 24-hour, seven day a week Ultra Low Emission Zone.

17. What is/are the purpose/purposes of the Geological Survey of India (GSI)?

a) Enable and facilitate the providing of objective, impartial and up-to-date geological expertise and geoscientific information.

b) Explore and scientifically assess mineral, energy and water resources for the country.

c) Conduct ground level surveys about the minerals deposits

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Geological Survey of India aims to facilitate the providing of objective, impartial and up-to-date geological expertise and geo-scientific information of all kinds, particularly for decision-making for policy, commercial, economic and societal needs.

18. With reference to ‘The New Delhi Declaration on Asian Rhinos 2019’, what are the objectives?

a) Conservation and protection of the Asian Rhino species.

b) Review the population of the Greater one-horned, Javan and Sumatran rhinos every four years.

c) Undertake studies on health issues of the rhinos.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The New Delhi Declaration on Asian Rhinos 2019’ for the conservation and protection of the species.

19. With reference to National Crime Records Bureau, which of the following are correct?

a) Collecting and analysing crime data as defined by the Indian Penal Code (IPC).

b) Function as a repository of information on crime and criminals.

c) To Empower Indian Police with Information Technology and criminal Intelligence.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) was created to function as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators.

20. With reference to preparation of noise pollution maps, name the regulatory body which issued the directive?

a) Central Pollution Control Board

b) Ministry of Environment and Forest

c) Supreme Court

d) National Green Tribunal

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The National Green Tribunal has directed the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) to prepare a noise pollution map and remedial action plan to solve the issue across the country.

21. With reference to National Rural Livelihood Mission, consider the following statement:

a) It aims to promote self-employment and organization of rural poor.

b) It aims to organize the poor into SHG (Self Help Groups) groups and make them capable for self-employment.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) is a poverty alleviation project implemented by Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India. This scheme is focused on promoting self-employment and organization of rural poor. The basic idea behind this programme is to organize the poor into SHG (Self Help Groups) groups and make them capable for self-employment.

22. With reference to Integrated Rural Development Program (IRDP) of the union government, consider the following statement:

a) IRDP aims to raise families of identified people below poverty line by creation of opportunities for self-employment in the rural sector.

b) IRDP is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme funded on a 50:50 basis by the centre and the states.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: The Integrated Rural Development Program is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme funded on a 50:50 basis by the centre and the states. The scheme has been in operation in all the blocks of the country since the year 1980. Under this scheme Central funds are allocated to states on the basis of proportion of rural poor in a state to the total rural poor in the country.

23. With reference to National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, consider the following:

a) It is renamed as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA).

b) It aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by offering at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: It is an Indian labour law and social security measure that aims to guarantee the ‘right to work’. It aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.

24. In the context of Universal Basic Income (UBI) scheme, which among the following are correct?

a) It is a model for providing a sum of money to all citizens of a country with a given sum of money, regardless of their income.

b) It could increase the purchasing power of the poor section of the society.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: In the Economic Survey 2016-17, Finance Minister Arun Jaitley advocated Universal Basic Income scheme (UBI) in place of various social welfare schemes in the country, in an effort to reduce poverty and income inequality in the country.

25. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMGAY), which of the following are correct?

a) It is a social welfare flagship programme which aims to provide housing for the rural poor.

b) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) (PMAY-U) for the urban poor is also the part of the programme.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMGAY) has two components: Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) (PMAY-U) for the urban poor and Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana (Gramin) (PMAY-G and also PMAY-R) for the rural poor.

26. Which of the following statements is/are correctly regarding Smart India Hackathon 2019?

a) It is a unique Open Innovation Model for identifying new and disruptive technology innovations to solve the challenges faced in India.

b) It aims to build funnel for ‘Startup India’ campaign.

c) Provide opportunity to citizens to provide innovative solutions to India’s daunting problems.

d) It is a nationwide initiative to provide students a platform to solve some of pressing problems we face in daily lives.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Smart India Hackathon 2019 is a nationwide initiative to provide students a platform to solve some of pressing problems we face in our daily lives, and thus inculcate a culture of product innovation and a mindset of problem solving.

27. Which among the following is the first municipal corporation setup in India?

a) Delhi Municipal Corporation

b) Bombay Municipal Corporation

c) Madras Municipal Corporation

d) Kolkata Municipal Corporation

Answer: c only

Explanation: The Madras Corporation is the oldest municipal body of the Commonwealth of Nations outside the United Kingdom. It was formed in 1688 to control the powers of the Governor of Madras.

28. In which year did India become a sovereign democratic republic?

a) 26th January 1950

b) 15th August 1947

c) 30th January 1948

d) 14th January 1947

Answer: b only

Explanation: Republic Day honours the date on which the Constitution of India came into effect on 26 January 1950 replacing the Government of India Act as the governing document of India and became a sovereign democratic republic.

29. in which year, the first census of India was conducted?

a) 1947

b) 1872

c) 1857

d) 1867

Answer: b only

Explanation: The decennial Census of India has been conducted 15 times, as of 2011. While it has been conducted every 10 years, beginning in 1872 and completed on 1881.

30. How many islands are present in the Lakshadweep Islands?

a) 40

b) 38

c) 36

d) 30

Answer: c only

Explanation: Lakshadweep has 10 inhabited islands, 17 uninhabited islands, attached islets, 4 newly formed islets and 5 submerged reefs. 10 inhabited islands are, Andrott, Amini, Agatti, Bitra, Cheetal, Kadmatt, Kalpeni, Kavaratti, Kiltan and Minicoy. There are 36 Islands in Lakshadweep group.

31. With Cotton production of India crossing new heights, name the largest cotton growing state?

a) Maharashtra

b) Gujarat

c) Bihar

d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer: b only

Explanation: Gujarat produces around 95 Lakh Bales of cotton, which stands around 30% of the complete cotton production of the country.

32. With reference to Minimum Support Price (MSP), consider the following?

a) Aims to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices.

b) It is a guarantee price for farmers for their produce from the Government.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).

33. With reference to National Horticulture Mission, consider the following statements:

a) NHM aims to provide holistic growth of the horticulture sector through an area based regionally differentiated strategies.

b) Its objective is to create opportunities for employment generation for skilled and unskilled person.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: National Horticulture Mission (NHM) is an Indian horticulture Scheme promoted by Government of India. It was launched under the 10th five-year plan in the year 2005-06.While Government of India contributes 85%, 15% share is contributed by State Governments.

34. With reference to National Bamboo Mission, consider the following statements:

a) Promote the growth of the bamboo sector through as an area based regionally differentiated strategy.

b) To promote marketing of bamboo and bamboo based handicrafts.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: National Bamboo Mission (NBM) is being implemented as a sub scheme. It envisages promoting holistic growth of bamboo sector by adopting area-based, regionally differentiated strategy and to increase the area under bamboo cultivation and marketing.

35. With reference to the launch of e-Charak platform for medicinal plants, name the ministry associated with the initiative?

a) Ministry of Corporate affairs

b) Ministry of Home Affairs

c) Ministry of Ayush

d) Ministry of Agriculture

Answer: c only

Explanation: e-Charak has been jointly developed by the National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB), Ministry of Ayush, Government of India and Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC).

36. Name the government body associated with committee to boost digital payments?

a) RBI

b) Ministry of Finance

c) Digital India

d) Department of Income Tax

Answer: an only

Explanation: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has constituted a High-Level Committee on Deepening of Digital Payments to encourage digitisation of payments and enhance financial inclusion. The five-member committee will be headed by UIDAI’s former Chairman Nandan Nilekani.

37. Name the countries, which are planning to use India as a base to address their food security concerns?

a) Iran and Iraq

b) UAE and Saudi Arabia

c) Iran and Saudi Arabia

d) Iraq and Saudi Arabia

Answer: b only

Explanation: Union Commerce Ministry has announced that the UAE and Saudi Arabia had decided to use India as a base to address their food security concerns. For the first time, India’s export policy identifies the potential of agriculture along with horticulture, dairy, plantation and fisheries. The farm-to-port project will be similar to a special economic zone but in the style of a corporatised farm, where crops would be grown keeping a specific UAE market in mind. The concept has been accepted by both governments.

38. Su Tseng Chang was appointed as the new premier of which country?

a) Malaysia

b) Taiwan

c) Indonesia

d) Singapore

Answer: b only

Explanation: Taiwan President Tsai Ing-wen has appointed Su Tseng-chang as Prime Minister during a Cabinet reshuffle.

39. Which countries are involved in the dispute of Chagos Islands?

a) United States and India

b) UK and Mauritius

c) Maldives and Srilanka

d) India and UK

Answer: b only

Explanation: Sovereignty over the Chagos Islands is disputed between Mauritius and the United Kingdom, where India is supporting the former.

40. Name the cricket team which won the Duleep Trophy 2018?

a) India Yellow

b) India Green

c) India Blue

d) India Orange

Answer: c only

Explanation: India Blue has won 2017-18 Duleep Trophy by defeating defending champion India Red by an innings and 187 runs.

41. Which of the following statements regarding the new amended version of the Forests rights act are true?

1) Under the act Forest dwellers can transport minor forest produce by any appropriate means of transport.

2) Transit passes for transporting minor forest produce will be issued by a committee constituted by the district administration.

3) No committee or individual official at the panchayat, block or forest range level except the forest rights committee shall be eligible to receive, decide or reject the forest rights claims.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

42. Which of the following pairs of tribals and their inhabiting states are correctly matched ?

1) Kand :Odisha

2) Warli : Gujarat

3) Adiyan :Tamilnadu

4) Chakma : Nagaland

5) Asur : West Bengal

a) 1,2 & 3 only

b) 1,3 & 5 only

c) 3,4 & 5 only

d) all of the above

43. With respect to the Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kits (SAECK)to be distributed by the Union home ministry which of the following statements are true ?

1) The Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kits (SAECK) or ‘rape investigation kits’ are designed to carry out immediate medico-legal investigation and aid in furnishing evidence in sexual assault and rape cases.

2) Each kit comprises essential items that will aid in furnishing evidence such as blood and semen samples in sexual assault and rape cases, helping the prosecution to gather evidence.

3) Under the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution, ‘Police’ and ‘Public Order’ are State subjects and the States are competent to equip their police stations suitably with these kits.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

44. Consider the following statements with respect to solar energy production :

1) ‘Solar PV’ works by photons in sun’s rays knocking off electrons in the semi-conducting material in the panels and channels them through a wire the stream of electrons is electricity.

2) While Solar thermal systems, in contrast, suck up sun’s heat and conduct it to where it is needed – such as for drying of spices or fish or wet paint.

3) There is no loss in conversion of light energy into electric energy in a solar PV but a Solar thermal system has high conversion losses.

Which of the above statements are true ?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q45. Which of the following is the first country to allow voting through mobile phones in a parliamentary election?

a) Lithuania

b) Estonia

c) Latvia

d) Kenya

46. Consider the following statements regarding Net Interest Income (NII):

1) Net interest income is the difference between the revenue that is generated from a bank’s assets and the expenses associated with paying its liabilities.

2) A bank can earn more interest from its assets than it pays out on its liabilities, which means the bank is profitable.

3) Banks with variable rate assets and liabilities will be more sensitive to changes in interest rates than those with fixed rate assets and liabilities.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

47. Which of the following are important sites of nesting places of olive ridley turtles across the world?

1) Galapagos islands

2) Gulf of California

3) Gahirmatha

4) Coromandal coast

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 3 & 4 only

c) all the above

d) 1 & 3 only

48. Which of the following statements regarding India’s pollution statistics are true?

1) India can achieve its air quality goals if it completely eliminates emissions from household sources

2) A recent study has pointed out that the use of firewood, kerosene and coal in the households contributed to about 40% of the PM 2.5 pollution in the Gangetic basin districts.

3) If all households transitioned to clean fuels, about 13% of premature mortality in India could be averted.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

49. Which of the following statements with respect to sexual harassment at workplace (prevention, prohibition & redressal) 2013 act are true?

1) The Act uses a definition of sexual harassment which was laid down by the Supreme Court of India in Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997).

2) The Supreme Court asserted that in case of a non-compliance or non-adherence of the Vishaka Guidelines, it would be open to the aggrieved persons to approach the Supreme Court only.

3) Under the act Government can order an officer to inspect workplace and records related to sexual harassment in any organisation.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

50. Mount Agung which recently erupted is in which of the following countries?

a) Bali

b) Java

c) New Zealand

d) Japan

ANSWER:

41(c), 42(b), 43(d), 44(a), 45(b), 46(c), 47(c), 48(d), 49(c), 50(a)

Source: Civilservicesindia+The Hindu+PIB

Daily Current Affairs 11-18 April 2019

1. With reference to the widely acclaimed tiger conservation project, ‘Project Tiger’, choose the year, in which the project was launched?

a) 1981

b) 1971

c) 1973

d) 1991

Answer: c only

Explanation: Project Tiger is a tiger conservation programme launched in April 1973 by the Government of India during Prime Minister Indira Gandhi’s tenure.

2. With reference to Central Zoo Authority, which of the following are correct?

a) It was formed to bring Indian zoos up to international standards.

b) It also regulates the exchange of animals of endangered category among zoos.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: The Central Zoo Authority (CZA) is the body of the government of India responsible for oversight of zoos. It is an affiliate member of the World Association of Zoos and Aquariums (WAZA).

3. With reference to Biosphere reserve, which of the following are statements are correct?

a) These are areas of terrestrial and coastal ecosystems promoting conservation of biodiversity.

b) They are also considered as living laboratories for testing out and demonstrating integrated management of land, water and air.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Biosphere reserves are areas of terrestrial and coastal ecosystems promoting solutions to reconcile the conservation of biodiversity with its sustainable use. They are internationally recognized, nominated by national governments and remain under sovereign jurisdiction of the states where they are located. They serve in some ways as ‘living laboratories’ for testing out and demonstrating integrated management of land, water and biodiversity.

4. With reference to Olive ridley sea turtle, which place in India is considered as largest breeding ground?

a) Gahirmatha Beach Odisha

b) Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park

c) Gulf of Mannar

d) Gulf of Kutch

Answer: a only

Explanation: The Gahirmatha Beach in Kendrapara district of Odisha (India), which is now a part of the Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary, is the largest breeding ground for these turtles.

5. Name the state/states which have pleaded to central government to declare Nilgai stag as a vermin?

a) Tamil Nadu

b) Maharashtra

c) Kerala

d) West Bengal

Answer: b only

Explanation: The populations of nilgai in India are so large that farmers in the states of Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh have pleaded to the government to cull them.

6. Operation Madad which was recently in news, is associated which defence unit?

A) Indian Coast Guard

b) Indian Navy

c) Indian Army

d) Indian Airforce

Answer: b only

Explanation: Operation Madad is the name of rescue operations conducted by Indian Navy in various occasions within India.The word ‘madad’ in Hindi means help.

7. Name the river associated with Polavaram Project in Andhra Pradesh?

a) Godavari

b) Narmada

c) Krishna

d) Polar

Answer: a only

Explanation: Polavaram Project is an underconstruction multi-purpose irrigation project on the Godavari River in the West Godavari District and East Godavari District in Andhra Pradesh.

8. With reference to the following, which are the features of Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?

a) It refers to the monetary value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country.

b) It includes all private and public consumption, government outlays, investments, private inventories and paid-in construction costs.

c) It also includes all final goods and services produced by resources owned by that country.

d) It is used as a measure of a country’s standard of living.

Answer: a, b and d only

Explanation: GDP doesnot include all final goods and services produced by resources owned by that country. It is a total market value of the goods and services produced by a country’s economy during a specified period of time.

9. Name the state which will be housing the National Sports Stadium for differently abled in India?

a) Manipur

b) Meghalaya

c) Assam

d) West Bengal

Answer: b only

Explanation: The Indian government plans to construct an international standard stadium for the differently-abled sportspersons in Meghalaya.

10. The government scheme, SPARC which is associated with the promotion of Academic Research is related to which ministry?

a) Ministry of Science and Technology

b) Ministry of Human Resource Development

c) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

d) Ministry of Electronics and IT

Answer: b only

Explanation: The Ministry of Human Resource Development has launched the web portal of the Scheme – Scheme for Promotion of Academic and Research Collaboration (SPARC) in New Delhi.

11. With reference to the purchase of T-90 tanks in the Indian Army, name the country associated with manufacturing of the armoured fighting vehicle?

a) US

b) Russia

c) France

d) Germany

Answer: b only

Explanation: India has begun talks with Russia for a multi-million dollar deal to upgrade the army’s nearly 1,000 T-90 tanks.

12. With the recent remeasurement of Mt Everest, name the country/countries involved in the task?

a) India

b) Nepal

c) US

d) China

Answer: b only

Explanation: Nepal has begun remeasuring Mount Everest to check if the height of the world’s tallest peak was altered by a powerful earthquake that struck the nation in 2015

13. Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC), which is recently in the news, name the countries associated with it?

a) Iraq

b) Iran

c) Saudi Arabia

d) Kuwait

Answer: b only

Explanation: The Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps is a branch of Iran’s Armed Forces founded after 1979 Revolution on 22 April 1979 by order of Ayatollah Khomeini.

14. With reference to National Green Tribunal (NGT), which of the following statements are correct?

a) It is a dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters.

b) It is guided by the principles of natural justice.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: National Green Tribunal (NGT)’s dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters shall provide speedy environmental justice and help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts.

15. Global Cooling Coalition, which is in news recently, was launched in which country?

a) Denmark

b) Britain

c) Russia

d) Malaysia

Answer: a only

Explanation: Global Cooling Coalition on clean and efficient cooling was launched and concluded in Copenhagen, Denmark.

16. With reference to Current Account Deficit (CAD), which among the following are correct?

a) It is a measurement of a country’s trade where the value of the goods and services it imports exceeds the value of the products it exports.

b) The largest component of a current account deficit is the trade deficit.

c) A current account deficit is helpful to the debtor nation. Foreigners are willing to pump capital into it.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: A current account deficit is created when a country relies on foreigners for the capital to invest and spend. Depending on why the country is running the deficit, it could be a positive sign of growth. It could also be a negative sign that the country is a credit risk.

17. The term Foreign exchange reserve which is recently in news is related to.

a) These are assets which held on reserve by RBI in foreign currencies.

b) It includes banknotes, deposits, bonds, treasury bills and other government securities.

c) These reserves are used to back liabilities and influence monetary policy.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Foreign exchange reserves are assets held on reserve by a central bank in foreign currencies. These reserves are used to back liabilities and influence monetary policy.

18. What are the functions of International Monetary Fund (IMF)?

a) It offers financial assistance to member countries with balance of payments problems.

b) It assists its member countries in designing economic policies that manage their financial situations more efficiently.

c) It strives to maintain international monetary system’s stability.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The International Monetary Fund (IMF) was created in 1945 and is governed by and accountable to its 188 member countries. It strives to ensure the international monetary system’s stability. The IMF functions in three main areas: overseeing the economies of member countries, lending to countries with balance of payments issues and offering technical assistance to its member countries.

19. What are the features for Prime Minister’s Fellowship Scheme for Doctoral Research?

a) To encourages young, talented, enthusiastic and result-oriented scholars to take up industry-relevant research.

b) It is a public-private partnership (PPP) between Science and Engineering Research Board.

c) The Apex Council is the highest decision-making body of this scheme

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Prime Minister’s Fellowship Scheme for Doctoral Research is aimed at encouraging young and talented scholars to take up research. Under this scheme, the full-time PhD scholars get double the money that they get for doing research.

20. Which among the following are the benefits of Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana?

a) Interest free loan to purchase stove and refill by Oil Marketing Companies.

b) Financial support of Rs 1600 for each LPG connection to the BPL households.

c) Clean fuel to women who are below poverty line who generally use unclean cooking fuels.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana Scheme aims to provide clean fuel to women who are below poverty line who generally use unclean cooking fuels that does more harm than good and replace the same with LPG.

21. The Cabinet has approved the extension of duration of New Urea Policy-2015 for existing gas based urea unit.

Which of the following statements regarding the National Urea Policy-2015 are true?

1) It aims to maximise domestic urea production in the country and to make the urea sector competitive globally in terms of energy efficiency.

2) It also has the objective of rationalizing the subsidy burden on the government.

3) It will drive urea units to select better technology and different measure to reduce energy consumption.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) All the above

22. India is a signatory to which of the following international conventions/protocols?

1) UN refugee convention of 1951

2) UN convention against torture 1984

3) UN refugee protocol 1967

4) The minimum age convention 138

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 2 & 4 only

D) all of the above

23. Consider the following statements regarding the recently test fired Nirbhay cruise missile:

1) It is a supersonic cruise missile which is capable of loitering and cruising at 0.7 Mach at altitude as low as 100 metre.

2) Indigenously developed by the Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO), the Nirbhay missile can carry warheads of up to 300 kg.

3) It can travel with a turbofan or turbojet engine and is guided by a highly advanced inertial navigation system.

Which of the above statements are true?

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

24. Which one of the following statements regarding thunderstorms is true?

1) Thunderstorms arise when layers of warm, moist air rise in a large, swift updraft to cooler regions of the atmosphere.

2) Thunderstorms are known to occur in almost every region of the world, though they are frequent in Polar Regions while infrequent at areas where latitudes are higher than 50° N and 50° S.

3) Thunderstorms are most likely in the spring and summer months and during the afternoon and evening hours, but they can occur year-round and at all hours.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

25. Which one of the following states in India does not have a tiger reserve within its territory?

a) Mizoram

b) Gujarat

c) Maharashtra

d) Rajasthan

26. Which of the following statements regarding the spread of antibiotic resistance across the world are true?

1) The majority of the world’s annual 5.7 million antibiotic-treatable deaths occur in low- and middle-income countries, where the mortality burden from treatable bacterial infections far exceeds the estimated annual 700,000 deaths from antibiotic-resistant infections.

2) Worldwide, the irrational use of antibiotics and poor antimicrobial stewardship lead to treatment failure and propagate the spread of drug resistance which, in turn, further narrows the available array of effective antibiotics.

3) Even after the discovery of a new antibiotic, regulatory hurdles and substandard health facilities delay or altogether prevent widespread market entry and drug availability.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

27. Sugar cane, Sunflower, Pumpkin, cucumber, bitter gourd etc are examples of which of the following types of crops?

a) Kharif crops

b) Rabi Crops

c) Zaid crops

d) Cereal crops

28. Consider the following statements regarding Unified Payments Interface (UPI):

1) Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is an instant real-time payment system developed by National Payments Corporation of India facilitating inter-bank transactions. The interface is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India and works by instantly transferring funds between two bank accounts on a mobile platform.

2) UPI is a great solution, but it has some hurdles to adoption such as linking phone numbers, linking bank account, entering debit card number, etc.

3) While some of the growth can be attributed to the low base, the astronomical increase in transactions has meant that UPI is now competing seriously with the incumbent forms of digital payments such as credit cards and debit cards.

Which of the above statements are true?

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

29. Which of the statements regarding ethanol production are true?

1) In India, ethanol production is mostly by fermenting molasses to meet the annual target of 5% blending of petrol with ethanol.

2) India has set a target of blending petrol with 20% of biofuel by 2022, without using sources such as rice and wheat straw which are considered important for addressing food inflation.

3) Lignocelluloses are the most abundantly available raw material on the Earth for the production of biofuels, mainly bio-ethanol.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) All the above

30. Which of the following countries other than Paraguay is the only landlocked country in the South American continent?

a) Peru

b) Brazil

c) Bolivia

d) Uruguay

ANSWER:

21(d), 22(c), 23(b), 24(d), 25(b), 26(d), 27(c), 28(d), 29(c), 30(c)

Source:Civilservicesindia+PIB+The Hindu

INSIGHTSIAS REVISION TESTS FOR UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM – 2019: TESTS 13 TO 16

This document is the compilation of 100 questions that are part of InsightsIAS’ famous REVISION initiative for UPSC civil services examination – 2019 (which has become most anticipated annual affair by lakhs of IAS aspirants across the country). These questions are carefully framed so as to give aspirants tough challenge to test their knowledge and at the same time improve skills such as intelligent guessing, elimination, reasoning, deduction etc – which are much needed to sail through tough Civil Services Preliminary Examination conducted by UPSC.

Myupsc.com does not own this book, neither created nor scanned. We just provide the links already available on Internet. If any way it violates the law or has any issues then kindly contact us. Thank you!!

Daily Current Affairs 11-12 April 2019

Current Affairs/General Awareness Practice Question-Answer for Competitive Exams

1. With reference to the first ever census of otters, name the state which has undertaken in the country?

a) Madhya Pradesh

b) Andhra Pradesh

c) Uttar Pradesh

d) Kerala

Answer: c only

Explanation: For the first time, Uttar Pradesh is taking a census of otters in its protected areas. The census exercise was started from Pilibhit.

2. With reference to the Representation of the People Act of 1951, name the section which concerned with the registration of political parties?

a) Section 21A

b) Section 29A

c) Section 42A

d) Section 28B

Answer: b only

Explanation: Registration of political parties under section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

3. With reference to Nice Agreement which is sometimes seen in news, choose the sector related to it?

a) Intellectual Property

b) Economics

c) Science and Technology

d) Arts and Culture

Answer: A

Explanation: Nice Agreement establishes a classification of goods and services for the purposes of Registering trademarks and service marks.

4. With reference to National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), which of the following are correct?

a) It is responsible for collecting and analysing crime data.

b) These laws are defined by the Indian Penal Code and Special and Local Laws.

c) National repository of fingerprints of all criminals.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) is an Indian government agency responsible for collecting and analysing crime data as defined by the Indian Penal Code (IPC) and Special and Local Laws (SLL).

5. With reference to development of ‘Combat drugs’ to reduce casualties in Pulwama type attacks, name the organisation which developed such drugs?

a) DRDO

b) AIIMS

c) ISRO

d) IIT Delhi

Answer: d only

Explanation: DRDOs medical laboratory has come up with a range of combat casualty drugs that can extend the golden hour till the trooper is shifted to hospital.

6. Indian Navy’s Information Fusion Centre which was recently inaugurated is located in which city?

a) Pune

b) Gurugram

c) New Delhi

d) Mumbai

Answer: b only

Explanation: Information Fusion Centre (IFC) has been established at the Navy Information Management and Analysis Centre (IMAC) in Gurugram.

7. With the reference to Mahila Police Volunteers Scheme (MPVS), which of the statements are correct?

a) MPVS envisages creation of a link between the police authorities and the local communities in villages through police volunteers.

b) The gap between Police and Civil society will be bridged by Mahila Police Volunteers initiative.

c) A Mahila Police Volunteer must be from the same geographical area and conversant with the local dialects.

d) A Mahila Police Volunteer should not be a member of any political party.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The Mahila Police Volunteer was initiated by the Ministry of Women and Child Development in collaboration with the Ministry of Home Affairs. The Mahila Police Volunteers scheme is one such initiative. It envisages creation of a link between the police authorities and the local communities in villages through police volunteers who will be women specially trained for this purpose.

8. Name the state government which announced the development of Spiritual department?

a) Rajasthan

b) Madhya Pradesh

c) Andhra Pradesh

d) Karnataka

Answer: b only

Explanation: Madhya Pradesh Government said on Saturday that it is going to create an Adhyatmik Vibhag (spiritual department) by merging several existing departments.

9. Name the country which recently operated the world’s first Floating Nuclear Power Plant (FNPP)?

a) China

b) US

c) Russia

d) India

Answer: c only

Explanation: The world’s first floating nuclear power plant is currently being built at the Baltiysky Zavod shipyard in Saint Petersburg, Russia.

10. Name the government body associated with the Operation Olivia, which aims to save Olive Ridley Turtles?

a) Indian Navy

b) Indian Coast Guard

c) Indian Army

d) Indian Airforce

Answer: b only

Explanation: The Indian Coast Guard has recently launched ‘Operation Oliva’. It has been launched as the part of its annual mission to ensure the safety of Olive Ridley Turtles.

11. With reference to shipbuilding, name the organisation which became first Indian Shipyard deliver 100 warships?

a) Mazagon Dock

b) GRSE

c) Goa Shipyard

d) Cochin Shipyard

Right Answer: b only

Explanation: Garden Reach Ship Builders and Engineers Ltd (GRSE) on Saturday became the first Indian shipyard to build and deliver 100 warships.

12. Hump backed Mahseer which is currently in news, is found in which river?

a) Ravi

b) Narmada

c) Cauvery

d) Godavari

Right Answer: c only

Explanation: The hump-backed mahseer, found in the waters of the Cauvery, has been added to the Red List as Critically Endangered.

13. Grand Order of the King of Tomislav which is currently in news, is the honour given by which country?

a) Bulgaria

b) Croatia

c) Malaysia

d) Russia

Right Answer: b only

Explanation: President Ram Nath Kovind was conferred the Grand Order of the King of Tomislav, the highest award of the Republic of Croatia.

14. Name the country where the largest salt cave in the world is located?

a) Iran

b) India

c) Israel

d) Iraq

Right Answer: c only

Explanation: Cave explorers in Israel believe they have discovered the world’s longest salt cave, larger than the previous record-holding cave in Iran.

15. Name the regulatory authority, which is associated with the creation of sandbox for Fintech Start-Ups?

a) Department of Income Tax

b) SEBI

c) RBI

d) IRDA

Right Answer: c only

Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is looking to issue guidelines for setting up a regulatory sandbox or innovation hub for the fintech startups.

16. The term ‘National Health Agency (NHA)’ seen in the news refers to

a) Agency responsible for fixing the ceiling of premium amounts, and developing mechanisms for strategic purchase of healthcare from the private sector.

b) It tasked with building a health information technology platform, and working with the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority.

Right Answer: both a and b

Explanation: NHA will be responsible for its operational guidelines, fixing the ceiling of premium amounts, and developing mechanisms for strategic purchase of healthcare from the private sector. It is also tasked with building a health information technology platform, and working with the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority.

Q17. Consider the following statements regarding “Black holes” in the universe:

1) The “black hole” refers to a point in space where matter is so compressed as to create a gravity field from which even light cannot escape.

2) The more mass the smaller will be the black hole due to high compression.

3) The super massive black holes which lurk in the centres of galaxies could be the most luminous objects in the universe, claim scientists.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1& 3 only

d) all of the above

Q18. The controversial finance bill 2017 had provisions to amend which of the following tribunals in India?

1) National Highway tribunal

2) National Company Law Appellate Tribunal

3) EPF appellate tribunal

4) Central administrative tribunal

5) Cyber appellate tribunal

a) 1, 2 & 4 only

b) 1, 3 & 5 only

c) 3, 4 & 5 only

d) all of the above

Q19. India has built a 25-bed maternity hospital in Nepal. The hospital has been built under the Government of India’s Small Development Projects Scheme. Which of the following statements regarding the scheme are true?

1) Nepal’s Finance Ministry would vet projects listed by provincial and local governments and then forward them to India for potential funding. After India approves the selected projects, it must sign financing agreements with the Finance Ministry to fund them.

2) The Indian grant will not be part of budget for the fiscal year 2019-20since these-grants are based on mutual goodwill gestures and to expand mutual cooperation.

3) Currently the Indian Embassy gives grants to various projects at the local level including schools, colleges and hospitals under the SDP.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1& 3 only

d) all of the above

Q20. Which of the following statements regarding the Payment and settlement scheme in India are true?

1) The PSS Act, 2007 provides for the regulation and supervision of payment systems in India and designates the central government as the authority for that purpose and all related matters.

2)Under the act a “Payment obligation” is defined as what is owed by one participant in a payment system to another such participant which results from clearing or settlement or payment instructions relating to funds, securities or foreign exchange or derivatives or other transactions.

3) As per RBI’s latest circular all system providers in a settlement shall ensure that the entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored within India.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1& 3 only

d) all of the above

Q21. April 13th 2019 marks the 100th anniversary of which of the following historical events in British India?

a) Formation of INA

b) Quit India Movement

c) Shifting of capital to Delhi

d) Jallianwallahbagh massacre

ANSWER:

17(c), 18(b), 19(c), 20(b), 21(d)

Source: Civilservicesindia+ PIB+ The Hindu

Daily Current Affairs 9-10 April 2019

Daily Current Affairs MCQ for Competitive Exams.

61. Which of the following statements with respect to the 15th finance commission are true?

1) This is the first FC after the abolition of the Planning Commission as well as after the elimination of Plan and non-plan expenditure.

2) The Commission’s Terms of Reference requires it to recommend performance-based incentives to states. Some of the items in this indicative list are efforts on GST, population control, increasing capital expenditure, implementation of flagship programs, etc.

3) One of the Terms of Reference made to this Finance Commission is to review the current level of debt of the Union and the States and recommend a fiscal consolidation roadmap for sound fiscal management.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

62. Which of the following statements describing relationship between microorganisms and human immunity are true?

1) The body produces several antimicrobial substances that kill or stop microbes from growing. For example the enzymes in tears and saliva break down bacteria.

2) The stomach produces acid which destroys many of the microbes that enter the body in food and drink.

3) Urine as it flows through the urinary system flushes microbes out of the bladder and urethra.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

63 .Consider the following statements regarding development of languages in India:

1) Ours is a multilingual country where more than 19,500 languages or dialects are spoken. However, almost 97 per cent of the population speaks one of the 22 scheduled languages.

2) The modern Indian languages do not have ancient roots and have been derived in some way from the classical indigenous languages.

3) The classical languages provide the window to our past, to the civilization values of yesteryears, to the knowledge and wisdom of our ancient thinkers, scientists, poets, sages, doctors, philosophers and rulers.

Which of the above statements are true?

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

64. Which of the following statements with respect to La Nina are true?

1) La Niña is a natural event characterized by abnormal hot ocean temperatures in the Equatorial Pacific.

2) A number of tropical cyclones, drought, and wetter conditions are correlated with La Niña events.

3) Just like an El Niño event, La Niña is tied to increased chances of extensive changes in global weather.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

65. A 12 member Indian Army patrol along with a police representative recovered wreckage of a World War II vintage US Air Force aircraft in Ruing district in India recently. The region had seldom been ventured by anyone in the past and is even obscured from air due to thick foliage.

The region belongs to which of the following states in India?

A) Jammu & Kashmir

b) Arunachal Pradesh

c) Uttarakhand

d) Sikkim

ANSWER:

61(d), 62(d), 63(c), 64(c), 65(b)

66. Which of the following statements regarding the first-formed solids of the solar system, the calcium aluminium-rich inclusions (CAI) are true?

1) The CAIs are nearly 4.567 billion years old, predominantly composed of oxides and silicates of calcium and aluminium.

2) They become the refractory components within meteorites with irregular shape.

3) The super flares that occurred in primordial periods have moved these solids to distances measuring up to a few times the Earth-Sun distance.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

67. Consider the following pairs of tribes with their location states:

1) Lambast: Himachal Pradesh

2) Chiru: Madhya Pradesh

3) Kuki: Manipur

4 Bhutia: Rajasthan

5) Jatapus: Andhra Pradesh

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 3, 4 & 5 only

c) 1, 3 & 5 only

D) all of the above

68. Consider the following statements regarding Indian growth prospects by the ADB (Asian development Bank):

1) According to the Asian Development Outlook 2019, India’s growth slowed from 7.2 per cent in fiscal 2017 to 7 per cent in 2018.

2) The decline in growth was associated with weaker agricultural output and consumption growth curtailed by higher global oil prices and lower government expenditure.

3) The proposed policy rate cuts along with income support to be received by farmers will further deteriorate the growth rate in 2019.

Which of the above statements are true?

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

69. RBI has infused more funds into the market by squeezing the LCR (liquidity coverage ratio) norms, which of the following regarding LCR are true?

1) The LCR is a chief take away from the Basel Accord, which is a series of regulations developed by The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS).

2) LCR indicates the proportion of highly liquid assets held by banks to ensure their ability to meet short-term obligations.

3) A limitation of the LCR is that it requires banks to hold more cash and might lead to fewer loans issued to consumers and businesses.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

70. The Indian Army has set a record by building the longest bridge in Leh within 40 Days.The bridge named “Maitri” has been built over which of the following Himalayan rivers ?

a) Ravi

b) Beas

c) Indus

d) Satluj

ANSWER:

66(d), 67(c), 68(a), 69(d), 70(c)

71. Consider the following statements regarding India’s health care prospects:

1) India is known as the pharmacy to the world because of its good quality, affordable drugs. Although our health care services are among the cheapest in the world, some of the life saving drugs and procedures are still beyond the reach of the common man.

2) Although the life expectancy has increased the rise in the non communicable diseases is adversely affecting the quality of life.

3) Initiatives of the government such as Khelo India, which aspire to mould fit and healthy individuals who would create an equally healthy society and a strong nation, will go a long way in promoting health and wellbeing of our children.

Which of the above statements are true?

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

72. The Vice president of India has greeted the people on the joyous occasion of various traditional festivals of the country. Some of them are known in different names in different places as well.

Which of the following pairs of festivals are correctly matched?

1) Ugadi: Andhra Pradesh

2) Yugadi : Tamilnadu

3) Nav reh: Kashmir

4) Sajubu Nongma : Assam

5) Gudi Padwa : Maharashtra

a) 1,2& 3 only

b) 3, 4 & 5 only

c) 1, 3 & 5 only

D) all of the above

73. Which of the following statements relating to green initiatives to be taken in course of development are true?

1) Greenery and Dense plantation have a major impact on the conservation of energy, and reduce the energy requirement of the building.

2) In order to maintain sustainable environment, pollution free clean air, it is essential to give up the plantation work.

3) There is need to adopt wood alternative in building construction. Use of alternate materials like Bamboo needs to be encouraged.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

74. Which of the following statements regarding the NITI Aayog report on Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles II (FAME II) scheme of the government are true?

1) According to the analysis, if FAME II and other measures in public and private space are successful, India could realize EV sales penetration of 30% of private cars, 70% of commercial cars, 40% of buses and 80% of two and three-wheelers by 2030.

2) India needs auto industry’s active participation to ease electric mobility transition. The auto and battery industries could collaborate to enhance customer awareness, promote domestic manufacturing, promote new business models, conduct R&D for EVs and components, and consider new business models to promote EVs

3) Government should focus on a phased manufacturing plan to promote EVs, provide fiscal and non-fiscal incentives for phased manufacturing of EVs and batteries.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

75. Which of the following places in India is known as the yoga capital of the world?

a) Dehradun

b) Rishikesh

c) Vijayawada

d) Amritsar

ANSWER:

71(d), 72(c), 73(c), 74(d), 75(b)

76. Consider the following statements with respect to the Lokpal jurisdiction under Lokpal and Lokayukta Act:

1) The Lokpal has jurisdiction over Group A and B public servants, depriving the CBI of its own jurisdiction over these two groups.

2) Although the Lokpal has its own Inquiry Wing, it can nevertheless forward a complaint to the CBI for a preliminary inquiry, and thereafter for registering a regular case under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.

3) The Lokpal and Lokayukta act gives the impression that superintendence over the CBI is shared by the Lokpal and the government, and neither is in exclusive command of the former.

Which of the above statements are true?

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3only

D) all of the above

77. Consider the following pairs of endangered species in India and their corresponding habitat locations:

1) Great Indian bustard: Pench NP

2) Angul: Dachigam NP

3) Dugong: New Moore islands

4) Sangai: Keibul Lamjao NP

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2& 3 only

b) 2, 3 & 4 only

c) 2 & 4 only

d) 1 & 3 only

78. With respect India’s commitment to contain GHG’s and shifts towards renewable energy, which of the following statements is true?

1) In view of the increasing demand in the power sector with each passing day, India needs to fully tap the potential for sustainable and environmental-friendly energy in order to fulfil its commitments.

2) With the focus increasingly shifting to clean energy in recent years, India has become an attractive destination for investments in renewable energy sector.

3) Under the “Solar City” concept, it is aimed to reduce the projected demand for conventional energy by 10 per cent at the end of five years by enhancing supply from renewable energy sources and energy efficiency measures.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3only

D) all of the above

79. Which of the following statements regarding election expenses of candidates are true?

1) According to ECI dictate, a candidate can spend between Rs 50 lakh and Rs 70 lakh; on the state he/she is contesting the Loksabha election which is uniform for all states.

2) The expense above includes the money spent by a political party or a supporter with respect to the contender’s campaign; however, they do not include the costs incurred by the party to promote its schemes or plans.

3) As per Section 10A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person can be disqualified failing to file an account of election expenses and if he submits a wrongful information.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3only

D) all of the above

80. The “Lord Howe” island recently seen in news with respect to immense coral bleaching in the area is in which of the following seas?

a) Tasman Sea

b) Coral sea

c) Solomon sea

d) Banda sea

ANSWER:

76(b), 77(c), 78(d), 79(b), 80(a)

81. With respect to coral bleaching in oceans, which of the following statements are true?

1) Bleaching occurs when abnormal environmental conditions, such as warmer sea temperatures, cause corals to expel tiny photosynthetic algae, draining them of their colour.

2) When a coral bleaches, it is not dead. Corals can survive a bleaching event, but they are under more stress and are subject to mortality.

3) A healthy, resilient reef can either resist a stressful event, like bleaching, but cannot recover from it.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

82. Which of the following nucleases are used for genome editing?

1) Zinc finger nucleases

2) TALEN

3) Mega nucleases

4) MAGE

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 2, 3 & 4 only

c) 2 & 4 only

D) all of the above

83. Which of the following statements regarding the recently published State of Global Air 2019 report on global air pollution are true?

1) The current high level of air pollution has shortened the average lifespan of a South Asian child by two-and-a- half years.

2) In India, air pollution is the third highest cause of death among all health risks, ranking just above smoking; each year, more people globally die from air pollution-related diseases than from road traffic injuries or malaria.

3) PMUjjwalaYojana Household LPG programme, accelerated Bharat Stage VI clean vehicle standards, and the new National Clean Air Programme, if fully implemented as part of a sustained commitment to air quality will result in significant health benefits in coming years.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

84. Consider the following statements with respect to Indian (Advanced Pricing Agreement) APA:

1) An APA is a mechanism to resolve transfer pricing disputes in advance, i.e., before the cross-border related party transaction actually takes place or, at least, before a dispute arises in respect of such cross-border transaction.

2) The Indian APA programme has been appreciated nationally and internationally for being able to address complex transfer pricing issues in a fair and transparent manner.

3) The progress of the APA scheme strengthens the Government’s resolve of fostering a non-adversarial tax regime.

Which of the above statements are true?

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

85. Which of the following offices/personalities forms the Central Public Information Officer (CPIO) with the authority tasked to respond to RTI queries related to the Supreme Court of India?

A) Supreme court secretary

b) Attorney General

c) Loksabha secretary

d) PRO Chief Justice’s Office

ANSWER:

81(a), 82(a), 83(d), 84(d), 85(b)

86. With respect to the prospects of stunting in young children as per recent surveys, which of the following statements are true?

1) About 38% of children in India below the age of five years are stunted. One of the reasons for this is that the food consumed by young children are mainly cereal based, which lack quality protein that can be well digested and the content of certain essential amino acids such as lysine is limited.

2) While consuming quality protein that contains adequate amounts of digestible essential amino acids helps in preventing stunting completely.

3) The digestibility of essential amino acids is least for Moong dal and highest for eggs.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

87. After an eight-year-long process, Erode turmeric finally got a Geographical Indication (GI) tag from the Geographical Indication Registry.

Which of the following are the optimum growth conditions/features of the crop?

1) Erode Turmeric is golden yellow in colour with resistance to pests after boiling.

2) Erode turmeric contains of high cur cumin content than normal turmeric ranging to 15-20%.

3) Erode Turmeric is grown in hot moist conditions prevalent in the area with temperature ranging from 20 degrees to 37.9 degrees Celsius with an average of 600 to 800 mm rainfall in a year.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

88. Consider the following statements regarding PMI Purchasing manager’s index:

1) The Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) is an indicator of the economic health of the manufacturing sector based on five major indicators: new orders, inventory levels, production, supplier deliveries and the employment environment.

2) The purpose of the PMI is to provide information about current business conditions to company decision makers, analysts and purchasing managers.

3) Even though India’s services PMI has been low over the years, the Manufacturing PMI has been high within a 6 month period.

Which of the above statements are true?

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

89. India on Tuesday signed an agreement with a development bank for setting up India-Africa Institute of Agriculture and Rural Development (IAIARD) in Malawi.

Which of the following statements regarding the same are true?

1) IAIARD will be a Pan-African Institute wherein trainees not only from Malawi but also from other African countries, will receive training to develop their human resources and build their capacity.

2) The entire expenditure on faculty from India, the travel, logistics and training course expenses for students from other African countries will be borne by the Government of India for an initial period of three years.

3) This institute will be the first of its kind developed in an African country by India. This will further strengthen the bilateral relations with Malawi and India’s relations with African Union.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

90. Which of the following countries is set to launch the world’s first fully-fledged 5-G mobile network system?

a) China

b) South Korea

c) India

d) New Zealand

ANSWER:

86(c), 87(c), 88(a), 89(d), 90(b)

91. Consider the following statements regarding global prospects on women entrepreneurship are true:

1) A recent World Bank report has revealed that women employers tend to hire mostly women. But many of such women-owned firms are micro-household enterprises employing 1 to 2 persons.

2) Empowerment of women is central to achieving the objective of inclusive, equitable and sustainable development and it should not only be a national goal but a global agenda.

3) Although we have much to celebrate, we must remember that 9 out of 10 jobs in India are still being created in the informal sector which affords little room for innovation and growth.

Which of the above statement are true?

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

92. Which of the following Indian freedom struggle personalities were associated with Champaran Satyagraha –Gandhiji’s first civil disobedience movement?

1) Narhari Parekh

2) Rajendra Prasad

3) Sardar Patel

4) JB Kripalani

5) Hasrat Mohani

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 1, 2 & 4 only

c) 2 & 4 only

d) 3, 4 & 5 only

93. Which of the following statements regarding Space debris are true?

1) The term refers to the debris from the mass of defunct, artificially created objects in space, especially Earth orbit. These include old satellites and spent rocket stages, as well as the fragments from their disintegration and collisions.

2) Initially the term space debris also referred to the natural debris found in the solar system: asteroids, comets, and meteoroids.

3) In most of the cases they cause damages to astronaut and other satellites as these cannot be tracked using Radars or optical detectors.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

94. Which of the following statements regarding NMDC (National Mineral Development Corporation is true?

1) The National Mineral Development Corporation is an Indian state-controlled mineral producer. It is 72.43% owned by the Government of India, under the administrative control of the Ministry of Steel.

2) It is involved in the exploration of iron ore, copper, rock phosphate, limestone inside India while ONGC is the only company involved in offshore exploration outside India.

3) It also operates the only mechanized diamond mine in the country at Panna in Madhya Pradesh.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

95. Which of the following became the first city in the country to leapfrog from Euro-IV grade petrol and diesel to Euro-VI fuels recently?

a) Gurugram

b) New Delhi

c) Faridabad

D) Varanasi

ANSWER:

91(d), 92(b), 93(a), 94(c), 95(b)

96. In the context of ‘Regional Rapid Transport System’, which of the following are its benefits?

a) It will drive balanced socio-economic growth with increased economic activities.

b) It offers efficient regional connectivity.

c) It will reduce pollution and road congestion.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Regional Rapid Transport System will drive balanced socio-economic growth with increased economic activities. It offers efficient regional connectivity and reduces pollution and road congestion.

97. Which among the following is the part of National Electronic Policy 2019?

a) Create eco-system for globally competitive Electronics System Design and Manufacturing – (ESDM).

b) Promote technologies like 5G, loT/ Sensors, Artificial Intelligence (Al), Machine Learning, Virtual Reality (VR) and Drones.

c) Create a Sovereign Patent Fund (SPF) to promote the development and acquisition of Intellectual Property.

d) Offer Special focus on Fabless Chip Design, Medical Electronic Devices and Automotive Electronics.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: National Policy on Electronics 2019 (NPE 2019) envisions positioning India as a global hub for Electronics System Design and Manufacturing – (ESDM) by encouraging and driving capabilities in the country for developing core components, including chipsets, and creating an enabling environment for the industry to compete globally.

98. With reference to Nirbhaya Fund, which of the following are its objectives?

a) The fund is expected to support initiatives which safeguards and protects the dignity and ensuring safety of women in India.

b) Setup Nirbhaya centres near government hospital in every district.

c) Create victim compensation fund for rehabilitation of victims of acid attacks.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Nirbhaya Fund is fund which supports initiatives by the government and NGOs working towards protecting the dignity and ensuring safety of women in India. Nirbhaya (fearless) was the pseudonym given to the 2012 Delhi gang rape victim to hide her actual identity.

99.With reference to the National Testing Agency, which of the following are its functions ?

a) To set-up a question bank for all subjects using modern techniques.

b) To develop a state of the art culture of testing in India by using domestic and international expertise.

c) To establish a strong R&D culture as well as a pool of experts in different aspects of testing.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

Answer: Above all

Explanation: National Testing Agency (NTA) has been established as a premier, specialist, autonomous and self-sustained testing organization to conduct entrance examinations for admission/fellowship in higher educational institutions.

100. With reference to the National Statistical Commission, which of the following are objectives?

a) To identify the core statistics, which are of national importance and are critical to the development of the Economy

b) Evolve national strategies for the collection, tabulation and dissemination of core statistics.

Answer: both a and b only

Explanation: National Statistical commission was created to serve as a nodal and empowered body for all core statistical activities of the country, evolve, monitor and enforce statistical priorities and standards.

Source:Civilservicesindia+PIB+The Hindu