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Q.1) “Forty plus Nine (40+9)” Recommendations is concerned with which of the following institutions/organisations?

a) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)

b) Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

c) Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)

d) Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)

Solution (b)

Q.2) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit

Matritva Abhiyan’

1. It provides subsidised and quality antenatal care to women belonging to Below Poverty Line (BPL) families

2. It is under the aegis of the Ministry of Women and Child Development

3. It aims to reach out to pregnant women who are in the 2nd & 3rd Trimesters of pregnancy

Select the correct statements

a) 1 and 3

b) 1 and 2

c) 3 Only

d) 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.3) considers the following statements with respect to ‘Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR)’ and identifies the correct ones:

1. It is a measure of a bank’s financial strength expressed as a ratio of capital to risk weighted assets.

2. Under Basel III norms, the minimum capital adequacy ratio that banks must maintain is 8%.

Select the correct code:

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.4) which of the following statements is the most appropriate with respect to ‘Feed-in tariff’?

a) It allows consumers who generate some or all of their own electricity to use that electricity anytime, instead of when it is generated.

b) It is a trade barrier erected for the purpose of reducing pollution and improving the environment

c) It is a tax levied on activities which are considered to be harmful to the environment and is intended to promote environmentally friendly activities via economic incentives

d) It is an economic policy created to promote active investment in and production of renewable energy sources

Solution (d)

Q.5) ‘Operation NISTAR’ was a Humanitarian and Disaster Relief Operation (HADR) conducted by India in which of the following countries?

a) Yemen

b) Djibouti

c) Maldives

d) Indonesia

Solution (a)

It was conducted to rescue Indian Nationals off Socotra Islands (Yemen) after the island was struck with a severe Cyclonic Storm – Mekunu.

Q.6) which of the following are correctly matched?

1. National Disaster Risk Index – UNISDR

2. Transformation Index – World Bank

3. Project Half-Earth – UNEP

4. REPLACE Programme – WHO

Select the correct code:

a) 1 and 4

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 2

d) 4 only

Solution (d)

Q.7) Following islands were recently in news.

1. Socotra Island – Arabian Sea

2. Solomon Island – South Pacific Ocean

3. Guam Island – Western Pacific Ocean

4. Sabang Island – Andaman Sea

5. Easter Island – Atlantic Ocean

Which of them is/are correctly matched?

a) 1, 3, 4 and 5

b) 1, 2, 4 and 5

c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 Solution (c)

Q.8) Which of the following experiments/detectors are related to study of ‘Neutrino’?

1. XENON

2. IceCube

3. MINOS

4. KATRIN

Select the correct code:

a) 1 and 3

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1, 2 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (b)

Q.9) ‘Joint Appeal to Youth’ recently in news is related to:

a) BRICS

b) SCO

c) UN

d) ASEAN

Solution (b)

Q.10) The Energy Progress Report provides a global dashboard on progress towards Sustainable Development Goal (SDG). The report targets which SDG and is a joint effort of:

a) SDG7 and International Energy Agency (IEA), the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD), the World Bank, and the World Health Organization (WHO)

b) SDG4 and International Energy Agency (IEA), the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), Environment Programme (UNEP), the World Bank, and the World Health Organization (WHO)

c) SDG6 and International Energy Agency (IEA), the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD), the World Bank, and the World Health Organization (WHO)

d) SDG7 and International Energy Agency (IEA), the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), the World Bank and the World Health Organization (WHO)

Solution (a)

Q.11) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)’

1. The equity of a regional rural bank is held by the concerned State Government and the Sponsor Bank in the proportion of 50:50.

2. They were set up under the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976.

3. They have to maintain the minimum prescribed Capital to Risk weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) of 15%.

Select the correct statements

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 Only

c) 1 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.12) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Central Adoption Resource

Authority (CARA)’

1. It is a statutory body of Ministry of Women & Child Development

2. It was set up under the POCSO Act

3. It has barred partners in live-in relationships from adopting a child

Select the correct statements

a) 1 Only

b) 1 and 2

c) 1 and 3

d) None of the above

Solution (a)

Q.13) which of the following is/are correctly matched?

1. Kanjirankulam Bird Sanctuary – Tamil Nadu

2. Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary – Kerala

3. Chitrangudi Bird Sanctuary – Karnataka

Select the correct code:

a) 1 Only

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.14) ‘Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS)’ is often seen in news. It is associated with which of the following organisations?

a) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)

b) Middle East Security Alliance (MESA)

c) North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)

d) BRICS

Solution (a)

Q.15) ‘Helsinki Accords’ is associated with

a) Generalised System of Preferences (GSP)

b) Antarctic Treaty System

c) Non-Proliferation Treaty

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.16) If you have to reach Russia from India through land, the minimum countries land boundaries that must be crossed is?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

Solution (a)

Q.17) ‘Billion Tree Tsunami’, (BTT) a provincial government programme that has seen a total of 300 million trees of 42 different species planted across the province. BTT is associated with which province?

a) Bali Province, Indonesia

b) Chongqing Province, China

c) Philippines Province

d) Khyber Pakhtunkhwa Province, Pakistan

Solution (d)

Q.18) Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) brands the monsoon as ‘normal’ or ‘deficient’ based on how it fares against its benchmark Long Period Average (LPA). Select the statement that closely defines LPA:

a) LPA is the average rainfall received by the country as a whole during the south-west monsoon, for a 50-year period.

b) LPA is the average rainfall received by the country as a whole during the north-west monsoon, for a 60-year period.

c) LPA is the average rainfall received by the country as a whole during the south-west monsoon, for a 100-year period.

d) LPA is the average rainfall received by the country as a whole during the south-west monsoon, for a 10-year period.

Solution (a)

Q.19) Select the correct statement with reference to ‘GROWTH-India’ recently in new:

a) The telescope located at the Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO) at Hanle in Ladakh, designed to observe dynamic or transient events in the universe.

b) A joint initiative of World Bank and Union Finance Ministry on measures to accelerate GDP.

c) A medical device designed by IIT Madras students for disabled children.

d) It is a flagship initiative of NITI AAYOG for bridging the gaps between Center and State government fiscal health.

Solution (a)

Q.20) Recently India lauded the ‘Third Neighbor Policy’ of one of its partner countries in

Asia. Which of the following pursue the ‘Third Neighbor Policy’?

a) Myanmar

b) Mongolia

c) Vietnam

d) Philippines

Solution (b)

Q.21) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’

1. They are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

2. All kinds of human activities are prohibited in the Eco-Sensitive Zones

3. Eco-Sensitive Zones can be notified only near National Parks

Select the correct statements

a) 1 Only

b) 1 and 2

c) 1 and 3

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.22) considers the following statements with respect to ‘Atal Bhujal Yojana (ABHY)’ and identifies the correct ones.

1. It deals with the matters related to Urban Water Supply and Sanitation including Solid Waste Management

2. It aims to improve ground water management in priority areas in the country through community participation

3. It is being implemented by the Central Public Health and Environmental Engineering

Organisation (CPHEEO)

Select the correct statements

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 Only

c) 2 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.23) ‘Lithium-ion batteries’ can be used in which of the following?

1. Mobile Phones

2. Electric and Hybrid Vehicles

3. Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)

IASbaba 60 Days CA Compilation – Week 1 &2 2019

24

Select the correct code:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.24) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Islands Development Agency

(IDA)’

1. It is chaired by the Prime Minster of India

2. It aims to develop a military and naval base at the Andaman and Lakshadweep

Islands

3. It was set up in 2017

Select the correct statements

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 3 Only

d) 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.25) which of the following statements with respect to ‘Gram Swaraj Abhiyan’ is/are correct?

1. It releases the bonded labourers from their bondage and rehabilitates them

2. It rehabilitates the homeless and destitute persons and provides them with suitable sources of livelihood

Select the correct statements

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (d)

Q.26) ‘Cyclone Sagar and Mekunu’ recently in news are associated with:

a) Southern Pacific Ocean

b) Atlantic Ocean

c) Indian Ocean

d) Western Pacific Ocean

Solution (c)

Q.27) The term ‘HiLumi’ recently in news is associated with:

a) High intensity laser beam technology

b) Helium exploration on the Moon

c) An upgrade of Large Hadron Collider at CERN

d) An artificial intelligence based telescope

Solution (c)

Q.28) ‘International Conference on Water for Sustainable Development’ was held in Tajikistan. Consider the following statements in this regard:

1. The United Nations General Assembly has proclaimed the decade 2020-2030 as the

International Decade for Action ‘Water for Sustainable Development’

2. Sustainable development and integrated water resources management has been kept under Sustainable Development Goal, SDG-6.

3. World Water Day is observed on 22 March every year.

Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.29) Consider the following statements regarding the recently launched National Digital

Library (NDL) of India:

1. NDL is the Single Window Secret Platform that collects and collates metadata from premier learning institutions in India

2. It is not open to foreign institutions

3. It is a project of the Ministry of Human Resource Development under the aegis of

National Mission on Education through Information and Communication Technology

(NMEICT)

Identify the correct statement/s and mark the appropriate code

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) 3 only

Solution (d)

Q.30) Consider the following statements about ‘Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) and ‘Nuclear DNA’:

1. While nuclear DNA is circular in shape, mtDNA is linear.

2. MtDNA is inherited from both father and mother while nuclear NDA is solely from mother.

3. Nuclear DNA consists of 46 chromosomes while mitochondrial DNA consists of only one chromosome.

Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Solution (b)

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Q.1) NASA’s spacecraft OSIRIS – Rex has recently arrived at its destination. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding it?

1. The mission will land at near earth orbit asteroid, Bennu and will bring a rock sample on earth.

2. The aim of the mission is to discover formation of water and organic molecules on mars.

3. This will be the world’s first space asteroid sampling.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.2) ISRO’s launch vehicle PSLV – C43 has successfully launched satellite HysIS. Which of the following statements are correct regarding HysIS?

a) It is an observation satellite to study the earth’s surface in the visible, near infrared and short-wave infrared regions.

b) It is a communication satellite that will be helpful in providing DTH connection across

India.

c) It is a surveillance satellite launched for Indian army to keep a check at Indo – Pak and Indo – China border.

d) It is a meteorological satellite launched for IMD for exact weather predictions in India.

Solution (a)

Q.3) Recently NASA retired its Kepler space telescope as it ran out of fuel. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the mission?

1. It was NASA’s first planet-hunting mission.

2. It used transit photometry detection method for searching for exoplanet.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding the Gaganyaan Mission:

1. ISRO is setting up a third launch pad at Kalam Island for this mission.

2. It will be India’s first manned space mission.

3. India is planning to send three humans in space in low earth orbit through this mission.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

Q.5) ISRO has launched two observation satellites NovaSAR and S1 – 4 from Satish Dhawan center. Which of the following statements are correct regarding NovaSAR?

1. It has been launched in Sun synchronous Pole to pole project.

2. It is French satellite commercially launched by ISRO.

3. NovaSAR is a S-Band Synthetic Aperture Radar satellite intended for forest mapping, land use and ice cover monitoring, flood and disaster monitoring.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (c)

Q.6) Japanese researchers are going to conduct world’s first experiment to test small prototype of space elevator. Which of the following statements regarding space elevator are correct?

1. It is a proposed planet to space transportation system.

2. An Earth-based space elevator would consist of a cable with one end attached to the surface near the equator and the other end in space beyond geostationary orbit.

3. Gravity and centrifugal force keeps the cable under tension, and stationary over a single position on Earth.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.7) Consider the following statements regarding Gaofen 11:

1. It is part of China High-resolution Earth Observation System (CHEOS).

2. It is a sub-meter resolution optical satellite, used for surveying.

3. It will be used for land surveys, urban planning, and road network design and agriculture and disaster relief.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.8) ISRO has successfully conducted ground test of its high thrust version of Vikas Engine.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Vikas Engine?

1. It is a solid propulsion engine carrying solid fuel and oxidizer.

2. It is a workhorse engine of PSLV but hasn’t been used in any stage of GSLV.

3. High thrust version of Vikas engine will increase the payload capability of PSLV, GSLV and GSLV Mk III.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

Q.9) Remove DEBRIS is a satellite research project intending to demonstrate various space debris removal technologies. Rather than engaging in active debris removal (ADR) of real space debris, the Remove DEBRIS mission plan is to test the efficacy of several ADR technologies on mock targets in low Earth orbit through some experiments. Which of the following experiment is not a part of mission?

a) Net Experiment

b) Vision based Navigation

c) Harpoon and Deployable target

d) Laser HIT and disintegration Experiment

Solution (d)

Q.10) NASA has launched InSight Mission as robotic lander on Mars. The aim of the mission is to

a) Study the atmosphere of Mars

b) Study the topography of Mars

c) Study the interior of Mars

d) Study the evidence of life and water on mars

Solution (c)

Q.11) Chandrayaan 2 is totally indigenous project of ISRO. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Chandrayaan 2?

1. It is a lunar mission consisting of an Orbiter, Lander and Rover.

2. The mission will carry a six-wheeled Rover which will move around the landing site in semi-autonomous mode as decided by the ground commands.

3. If successful, it will be ISRO’s first mission to land rover on any celestial body.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.12) Spacecraft cemetery/graveyard is the location used for crash landing of defunct spacecrafts. It is considered to be the most remote part of the earth and lies in Southern Pacific ocean. The name given to this point is

a) Point Dolphin

b) Point Angel

c) Point Nemo

d) Point Poseidon

Solution (c)

Q.13) Aditya L1 is India’s first dedicated scientific mission to study sun. It will be placed at

Lagrange point 1. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Lagrange points?

1. A Lagrange point is a location in space where the combined gravitational forces of two large bodies, such as Earth and the sun or Earth and the moon, equal the centrifugal force felt by a much smaller third body.

2. L1 lies a million miles from Earth in the opposite direction of the sun with the Earth, moon and sun behind it.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (a)

Q.14) Stratolaunch is the world’s largest composite airplane. Which of the following statements is correct regarding it?

a) It is designed to take astronauts to International Space Station.

b) It is designed to take commercial passengers to exosphere for zero gravity experience.

c) It is designed for sending satellite-carrying rockets into low-Earth orbit

d) It is designed to carry heavy payloads from construction site to the launch site.

Solution (c)

Q.15) NASA successfully tested a supersonic parachute designed to land the agency’s next rover on Mars. The supersonic parachute experiment is known as

a) INSPIRE

b) ASPIRE

c) EXPIRE

d) RESPIRE

Solution (b)

Q.16) NASA has named a new bacteria discovered on International Space Station after

a) Dr A P J Abdul Kalam

b) Dr Vikram Sarabhai

c) Dr Saha

d) Eugene Parker

Solution (a)

Q.17) GUSTO is a balloon based observatory to study the cosmic material entering the earth.

The program was launched by

a) NASA

b) ISRO

c) ROSCOSMOS

d) ESA

Solution (a)

Q.18) which of the following energies are believed to be responsible for expansion and acceleration of Universe?

a) Gravitational energy

b) Weak forces

c) Electromagnetic energy

d) Dark Energy

Solution (d)

Q.19) Cornell University has successfully tested ‘Sprites’. Which of the following statements are correct regarding them?

1. They are world’s smallest fully functional space probes, built on a single circuit board achieving low Earth orbit

2. They are equipped with tiny solar panels and two antennas, plus a tiny radio, computer, magnetometer (to orient to Earth’s magnetic field) and gyroscope.

3. They were launched by NASA under starshot project.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.20) ISRO has commissioned the world’s third largest hypersonic wind tunnel at Vikram Sara bhai Space Center. Which of the following statements regarding this wind tunnel are correct?

1. It is being made with the help of Israel.

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2. It will be used to study the effects of air flowing past solid objects like space vehicles.

3. It will help aerodynamic characterization of advanced space transportation systems in a hypersonic environment.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

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Q.1) which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the GLOBE (Global Learning and Observation to Benefit the Environment)?

1. Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) is the implementing agency in India.

2. NASA has the primary responsibility for administering the government-to-government agreements, and for the management of the GLOBE Implementation Office (GIO).

Select from the given codes:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Solution (b)

Q.2) Consider the following statements

1. Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis.

2. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses, is the net primary productivity.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both

d) None

Solution (c)

Q.3) Consider the following statements

1. Primary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.

2. Secondary productivity is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis.

3. Primary productivity is same in different types of ecosystems.

4. Primary productivity of Oceans is less compared to that of the Land.

Which of the above statements are INCORRECT?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 4

c) 1 and 2

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.4) Consider the following statements

1. Detritivores (e.g., earthworm) break down detritus into smaller particles. This process is called fragmentation.

2. Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances. This process is called as catabolism.

3. The processes Fragmentation, Leaching and Catabolism (in the same order) operates one after the other on detritus.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 3

c) 1 and 2

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.5) which of the following statements is/are correct regarding humus

1. It is a dark coloured amorphous substance.

2. It is highly resistant to microbial action.

3. It is colloidal in nature.

4. The humus is further degraded by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrients occurs by the process known as Humification.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 2 and 4

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 3 and 4

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

Q.6) Consider the following statements regarding Food Chain

1. In an aquatic ecosystem, Grazing Food Chain is the major conduit for energy flow.

2. In a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through the Detritus Food Chain than through the Grazing Food Chain.

Which of the statements above is/are INCORRECT?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Solution (d)

Q.7) Consider the following statements regarding the Ecological Pyramids

1. Pyramid of energy is always upright

2. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.

3. Ecological pyramids do not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.

4. Saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1, 3 and 4

b) 2,3 and 4

c) 1 and 3

d) 1 and 4

Solution (a)

Q.8) which of the following statements are correct regarding Ecological Succession?

1. Succession is a process that starts where no living organisms are there.

2. Primary Succession is faster than Secondary Succession.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (a)

Q.9) Consider the following statements regarding Carbon

1. Carbon constitutes 49 per cent of dry weight of organisms and is next only to water.

2. The amount of Carbon dissolved in Oceans is more than that is stored in the land biosphere.

Which of the above statement is/are true?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.10) Consider the following statements regarding the processes that occur in Nitrogen cycle

1. Decomposers chemically modify the nitrogen found in organic matter to ammonium ion

(NH4+). This process is known as micelle fixation.

2. The process of Nitrification involves the metabolic reduction of nitrate (NO3-) into

nitrogen (N2) or nitrous oxide (N2O) gas

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both

d) None

Solution (c)

Q.11) which of the following statements in general correctly explains ‘edge effect’

a) The number of species and the population density of some of the species is very low in the zone of transition.

b) The number of species and the population density of some of the species is greater in the zone of transition.

c) The species in the zone of transition are completely different from that of the surrounding habitats.

d) The species in the zone of transition are exactly the same from that exist in the surrounding habitats.

Solution (b)

Q.12) Consider the following statements regarding Ecological Niche

1. Organisms that occupy same or similar ecological niches in different geographical regions are called Ecophene.

2. Species with broad ecological niches tend to be specialists.

Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both

d) None

Solution (d)

Q.13) Consider the following:

Seral Community Explanation

1. Lithosere Community on rock

2. Xerosere Community in dry area

3. Psammosere Community in saline body

4. Hydrosere Community in water

Which of the following are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 4

c) 2 and 4

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

Depending on the substratum and climate, a seral community can be one of the following

Seral Community Explanation

1. Lithosere Community on rock

2. Xerosere Community in dry area

3. Psammosere Community on sand

4. Hydrosere Community in water

5. Halo sere Community in saline body

Q.14) Consider the following statements regarding the processes of ecological succession

1. Ecesis is the increase in population of the species which has become established in the area.

2. Nudation is the initial establishment of plant community.

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both

d) None of the above

Solution (c)

Q.15) Consider the following statements regarding Sikkim

1. It is the first organic state in India.

2. Sikkim was awarded Future Policy Gold Award 2018 for its achievement in becoming the world’s first totally organic agriculture state.

3. The award is given by UN Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) Only 1

c) Only 2

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.16) Consider the following statements

1. Bio-accumulation occurs across different trophic levels in a food chain.

2. Bio-magnification occurs when an organism absorbs a toxic substance from all sources at a rate greater than that at which the substance is lost.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.17) Consider the following statements about Organic World Congress (OWC)

1. The International Federation of Organic Agriculture Movements (IFOAM – Organics International) organizes it.

2. It is an annually organized congress.

3. OWC-2020 is to be conducted in India.

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

a) 1 and 2

b) Only 1

c) Only 2

d) 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.18) Consider the below statements and select the correct statement from the codes given below:

1. The succession brought about by external conditions and not by the existing organisms

is known as allogenic succession.

2. The succession that begins in a predominantly inorganic environment where there is dominance of autotrophic organisms is called Autogenic Succession.

Choose the correct answer:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (a)

Q.19) Consider the following pair of biotic interactions.

Type of interaction Result

1. Neutralism No net benefit or harm to either species

2. Amensalism One species benefits, one is not affected

3. Parasitism One species benefits, one is harmed

Which of the above pairs is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3

b) 2 and 3

c) Only 1

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.20) which of the following statements best describes ‘Ecotype’?

a) It is a type of marine ecosystem that provides an alternative to a species of terrestrial for growth and survival.

b) It is a transition area between two biomes where communities interact.

c) It is a genetically distinct variety within a species, which is adapted to specific environmental conditions.

d) It is a type of ecosystem in which inherent balance is maintained between autotrophs and Heterotrophs.

Solution (c)

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Q.1) With reference to the calculation of Gross Domestic Product (GDP), consider the following:

1. Commission of a real estate agent in the sale of a property

2. Sale of a used car

3. Components such as tyres sold for car manufacture

Which of the following are not included in its calculation?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.2) With reference to National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC), consider the following statements:

1. It is the statutory organisation under Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.

2. It strengthens and promotes programmes across sectors relating to agriculture and allied fields

3. Recently it launched Yuva Sahakar – Cooperative Enterprise Support and Innovation

Scheme

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.3) With reference to the Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) rankings, consider the following statements:

1. It is published by the World Bank

2. The Doing Business report ranks countries on the basis of distance to frontier (DTF), a score that shows the gap of an economy to the global average.

3. India’s rank has been constantly improving since 2014.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 3 only

Solution (b)

Q.4) With reference to the first Human Capital Index released recently, consider the following Statements:

1. It has been released by World Economic Forum

2. It conveys the productivity of the next generation of workers compared to a benchmark of complete education and full health.

3. Singapore topped the list.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 2 only

Solution (c)

Q.5) With reference to the Credit Rating agencies in India, consider the following statements:

1. They are registered and regulated by SEBI

2. They function on “Issuer pays” model rather than “Subscriber pays’ model

3. According to the new norms, ratings agencies are required to disclose liquidity position, source and rationale of additional funds of a company.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.6) With reference to the External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs), consider the following statements:

1. The cost of ECBs is higher than the domestic borrowings.

2. It widens the investor base of a company

3. The government can direct inflows into specific sectors by allowing higher ECBs in them, thus promoting development

Which of the given statements is/are advantages of ECBs?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.7 which of the following schemes is not related to MSMEs?

a) SHAKTI

b) Samadhaan

c) Sambandh

d) SFURTI

Solution (a)

MSME Delayed Payment Portal – MSME Samadhaan

Public Procurement Portal for MSEs – MSME Sambandh

Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries (SFURTI) – related to Infrastructure of MSMEs

SHAKTI (Scheme for harnessing & allocating Koyla transparently in India) – step to tackle stress in the power sector and not related to MSME.

Q.8) Baba Kalyani committee recently submitted its report on?

a) Review of powers of CBI

b) Impact of Climate change on Indian rivers

c) SEZ policy

d) Review of Bilateral Trade Agreements

Solution (c)

Q.9 Inclusive Wealth Report 2018 is published by?

a) World Bank

b) World Economic Forum

c) UN Environment Programme

d) UN Development Programme

Solution (c)

10. With reference to the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP), consider the following statements:

1. It comes under the National Health Mission.

2. The scheme seeks to set up a Central Disease Surveillance Unit and a State Surveillance

Unit in each State where data is collected and analyzed.

3. It is assisted by World Bank.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP)

• IDSP is a disease surveillance scheme under National Health Mission, under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in India, assisted by the World Bank.

11. With reference to the Intensified Mission Indradhanush, consider the following Statements:

1. It has been launched by the Government of India to reach each and every child under two years of age.

2. It is a special drive that will focus on all the districts of the country

3. It targets to immunize all children against seven vaccine preventable diseases

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.12) Recently, PAiSA portal was launched by which of the following Union Ministries?

a) Ministry of Railways

b) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

c) Ministry of Housing

d) Ministry of Rural Development

Solution (c)

Q.13) With reference to the Demographic Dividend, consider the following statements:

1. A country with a high population between 15-64 years is considered to have a high demographic dividend.

2. Focus on providing skill development and education will help in effective utilisation of demographic dividend.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.14) Universal Basic Income has been in news for a while. Consider the following statements with reference to it:

1. It is unconditional and universal to all the citizens of the country

2. UBI would require subsumption of other subsidies and allowances in order to free up resources so that a particular amount can be directed to people on a periodic basis.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Universal basic income (UBI) is a model for providing all citizens of a country or other geographic area with a given sum of money, regardless of their income, resources or employment status. The purpose of the UBI is to prevent or reduce poverty and increase equality among citizens.

Q.15) With reference to the definition of poverty in India, which of the following statements is correct?

a) According to C Rangarajan committee, poverty line should be Rs 32 in rural areas and Rs 47 in urban areas.

b) The poverty estimates of Rangarajan committee were lower than that of Tendulkar committee.

c) The poverty line suggested by World Bank is lower than that of Tendulkar committee.

d) None of the above

Solution (a)

Q.16) which of the following statements is not correct?

a) Poverty Gap is the difference between the mean income among the poor and the poverty line

b) Headcount ration shows the percentage of population whose per capita incomes are below the poverty line

c) Multidimensional poverty Index consists of 10 indicators

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.17) which of the following committees is not related to poverty estimation in India?

a) YK Alagh

b) NC Saxena committee

c) Pronab Sen committee

d) None of the above

Solution (c)

Pranab Sen Committee for Slums was constituted by Ministry of Housing and Poverty Alleviation in 2010.

18. Which of the following is/are a correct difference between SECC 2011 and Census 2011?

1) Census is conducted by Census Commissioner in Home Ministry while SECC 2011 was by Ministry of Rural Development.

2) Census has a statutory backing while SECC 2011 doesn’t.

Select the correct option from below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.19) which of the following are steps taken by the Government for the eradication of poverty?

1. Progressive taxation

2. Decentralisation through Panchayati Raj and Nagarpalikas

3. Saubhagya scheme

Which of the following is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.20) With reference to The National Food Security Act 2013, consider the following statements:

1. The Act provides for coverage of up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population

2. Under the Act, the eligible persons will be entitled to receive 5 kgs of food grains per person per month at subsidized prices of Rs. 3/2/1 per Kg for rice/wheat/coarse grains.

3. To ensure the food security of poorest of poor, the existing Antyodaya Anna Yojana

(AAY) households will continue to receive 35 Kgs of foodgrain per household per month

4. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are also covered under the scheme.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (d)

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Q.1) in the context of the Indian history, ‘cartaz’ system refers to?

a) Portuguese introduced this system for the purpose of political activity in India

b) System refers to the permission for other European companies can do the trade with India

c) Anyone who passes the Portuguese territories must buy permits otherwise they supposed to be captured

d) This system responsible for spread the Christianity in India and Asia

Solution (c)

Q.2) Consider the following statements

1. Serampore Mission was founded by William Carey, and it is the India’s first Christian missionary organization.

2. Serampore Trio worked many years for the upliftment of Bengal society in educational, social and religious movement.

3. The first Catholic Church was built in Serampore 1800.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.3) Consider the Following statement about the Mahalwari System?

1. It was introduced in Central provinces, NWFP, Agra, and Punjab

2. It was introduced by William Bentick.

3. It declares 10/11 for the British and 1/11 as the revenue for farmers

4. It made village committee as the responsible for collection of taxes

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 and 4 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 and 3 Only

d) 1, 2 and 4

Solution (d)

Q.4) which of the following were the causes of ‘The Battle of Buxar’?

1. Abolition of all duties on internal trade of British

2. Bringing the people of India together to fight against the supremacy of the British

3. Dastak misused by the British which challenged the Nawab authority.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 and 3Only

c) 1 and 3 Only

d) All of the above

Solution (c)

Q.5) Consider the Following statements regarding ‘Doctrine of Lapse ‘?

 1. It is a policy to expand British territory in India on the basis of pre- imperialistic approach.

 2. According to this policy state must be hand over to British, if they have no heir or ruler.

 3. Adoptions of child were not accepted for heir.

 4. Continuation of the titles and pension for the kings.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 and 4 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 and 4 Only

d) 1, 2 and 3

 Solution (d)

Q.6)  which among the following changes were brought in the army after the revolt of 1857?

1. The proportion of Europeans to Indians in the army was decreased.

2. Communal, tribal and regional loyalties were encouraged amongst the soldiers.

3. Indians were excluded from the officer corps.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.7) consider the following statements regarding the Charter Act of 1833

1. It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India.

2. It provided the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras presidencies.

3. It Introduced an Open Competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 1 and 2 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.8) The Carnatic wars (1740-1763) were fought between which of the following European powers?

a) Dutch and Portuguese

b) English and French

c) French and Dutch

d) English and Dutch

Solution (b)

Q.9) With reference to Indian press, consider the following statements:

1. Charles Metcalfe was the first governor general to place restrictions on the press in India.

2. Vernacular Press Act in 1878 put restrictions on the freedom on both English and Indian language newspapers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (d)

Q.10) Consider the following statements regarding The Indian Council Act of 1909:

1. Another name of the Indian Council Act of 1909 is Minto-Morley reforms.

2. It introduces the parliamentary form of government in India.

3. It enlarged the deliberative functions for the association of Indian Councils; members were not allowed to ask supplementary questions.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 1 and 2 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.11) which of the following was/were reasons for the failure of the Revolt of 1857?

1. Limited territorial base

2. Lack of resources

3. Lack of a central and coordinated leadership

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 3 Only

c) 1 and 2 Only

d) 2 and 3 Only

Solution (a)

Q.12) In the context of Lord Macaulay’s Education Policy, 1835, which of the below statement is/are not correct?

a) It is the attempt by the British to create a system of education for the upper class.

b) Abolished the Persian language in the court and introduced English as the court language.

c) Engineering institute was established at Pusa (Bihar).

d) Printing of English book was free and available for the low cost.

Solution (c)

Q.13) which among the following were the economic impacts of British rule in India?

1. Deindustrialization

2. Deterioration of agriculture

3. Rise of bourgeoisie class in India

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.14) Which of the following was / were recommendations of the Saddler Commission?

1. Creation of Boards of Secondary Education in the Provinces

2. Making Education a Provincial subject

3. Separation of secondary education from University education

4. Establishment of university Grants Commission

Select the correct statements from the codes given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 Only

b) 2, 3 and 4 Only

c) 1 and 2 Only

d) 1 and 3 Only

Solution (a)

Q.15) Consider the following pairs:

Europeans Centre of Influence

1. 1. French Chandernagore

2. 2. Portuguese Goa

3. 3. Dutch Pulicat

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

a) 1and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 and 3 Only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.16) With reference to Permanent Settlement System, consider the following statements:

1. It recognized zamindars as the owner of the land.

2. The revenue settled was revised every 20-30 years.

3. It was introduced in Orissa, Bengal and Bihar.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 and 3 Only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.17) which of the following act of British also known as Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919?

a) The Press Act of 1910 AD

b) Multi- fanged Defense of Indian Rules 1915 AD

c) Indian Criminal Law Amendment Act 1908 AD

d) Rowlatt Act 1919 AD

Solution (d)

Q.18) Assertion (A): Pitt’s India Act of 1784 distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the British East India Company.

Reason (R): Pitt’s India Act of 1784 allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs but created a new body called Board of Control to manage the political affairs. Thus, it established a system of double government.

Select the code from following:

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

c) A is true but R is false

d) Both A & R is not true

Solution (a)

Q.19) under which reform/act, non-official majority was introduced in the provincial legislative councils?

a) Montague-Chelmsford reforms

b) Indian Councils Act, 1861

c) Government of India Act of 1935.

d) Morley-Minto reforms

Solution (d)

Q.20) which of the following initiatives taken by British contributed to the spread of communalism in India?

1. Partition of Bengal, 1905

2. McDonald Award, 1932

3. Indian Councils Act, 1909

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

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Q.1) With respect to the chemical composition of earth’s layers consider the following statements:

1. The continental crust is thicker in the areas of major mountain systems.

2. Oceanic crust is thinner as compared to the continental crust.

3. The lower mantle extends beyond the asthenosphere. It is in solid state.

4. Core has the heaviest mineral materials of highest density.

5. Gutenberg Discontinuity – lies between the mantle and the outer core.

Which of the following statements are correct?

a) Only 1,2,3,4

b) Only 1,3,4,5

c) Only 2,3,4,5

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding The Paleomagnetism:

1. Some of the strongest evidence in support of the theory of seafloor spreading and plate tectonics comes from studying the magnetic fields surrounding oceanic ridges.

2. Rocks formed from underwater volcanic activity were mainly basalt, which is rich in silica and low in iron.

3. Basalt contains magnetic minerals and as the rock is solidifying, these minerals align themselves in the direction of the magnetic field.

4. When Earth’s magnetic field undergoes a reversal, the polarity recorded in the magma remains same.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) Only 1, 3, 4

b) Only 2, 3, 4

c) Only 2, 4

d) Only 1, 3

Solution (d)

Q.3) In February 2017 the Barren Island saw another huge volcanic eruption and filled the sea with red lava fountains jutting out of the crater. Consider the following statements regarding it:

1. It is home to Asia’s and India’s only active volcano.

2. The volcano here was dormant for a long time, but in the year 1991 it experienced an explosion which was quite major.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (b)

Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding volcanic eruption:

1. After the eruption of magma has ceased, the crater frequently turns into a lake called a ‘caldera’.

2. Oregan Lake in USA is the largest volcanic Crater Lake in the world.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (a)

Q.5) Consider following regarding diastrophism:

1. Diastrophism includes orogeny, epeirogeny, earthquake, plate tectonics and seafloor spreading.

2. Orogenic processes involves mountain building through severe folding and affecting long and narrow belts of the earth’s crust.

3. Epeirogenic processes involving uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust.

4. Epeirogeny is a mountain building process whereas Orogeny is continental building process.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) Only 1, 2

b) Only 1, 4

c) Only 1, 3

d) Only 2, 3

Solution (d)

Q.6) CCEA approves survey project of Un-appraised Areas of Sedimentary Basins. Consider the following statements regarding it:

1. Sedimentary basin is a low area in the Earth’s crust, of tectonic origin, in which sediments accumulate and are confined to small area of ocean basin.

2. The project will be implemented by Oil India Limited (OIL) and Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC).

3. India has total 26 sedimentary basins spread over on-land, shallow water and deep water.

4. More than 50 percent of total sedimentary basin area does not have adequate geoscientific data.

Which of the following options are true?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (c)

Q.7) Consider the following statements regarding Sinkhole/Swallow Hole:

1. Sinkholes are triangular shaped depressions having an average depth of three to nine metres.

2. These holes are developed by enlargement of the cracks found in such rocks, as a result of continuous solvent action of the river water.

3. The surface streams which sink disappear underground through swallow holes.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) Only 1, 2

b) Only 2, 3

c) Only 1, 3

d) Only 1

Solution (a)

Q.8) which lake has now made it to the Limca Book of Records for having India’s largest floating island?

a) Kolleru lake

b) Vembanad lake

c) Pangong lake

d) Hebbagodi Lake

Solution (d)

Q.9) Consider the following statements regarding island arc formation:

1. In Ocean – Ocean Convergence, a denser oceanic plate sub ducts below a less dense oceanic plate forming a trench along the boundary.

2. As the ocean floor crust (oceanic plate) loaded with sediments sub ducts into the softer asthenosphere, the rocks on the continental side in the subduction zone become metamorphosed under high pressure and temperature.

3. A continuous upward movement of magma creates constant volcanic eruptions at the ocean floor.

4. Such volcanic landforms all along the boundary form a chain of volcanic islands which are collectively called as Island Arcs

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) Only 1, 2, 3

b) Only 2, 3, 4

c) Only 1, 3, 4

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.10) what is the name of the India had launched to provide assistance to earthquake and tsunami victims in Indonesia recently?

a) Operation Samudra Shakti

b) Operation Samudra Maitri

c) Operation Samudra Ekta

d) None of the above

Q.10) Solution (b)

Explanation:

India had launched massive humanitarian operation Samudra Maitri to provide assistance to earthquake and tsunami victims in Indonesia.

Q.11) With respect to seismic waves consider the following statements:

1. P-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface.

2. A secondary wave cannot pass through liquids or gases.

3. They are low frequency, long wavelength, and transverse vibration.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Only 3

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.12) Consider following statements regarding continental drift theory:

1. Continental drift refers to the movement of the continents relative to the ocean floor.

2. Gravity of the earth, buoyancy of the seas and the tidal currents were given as the main factors causing the drift, by Wegener.

3. One criticism of this theory is Continental Drift Theory shifts India’s position too much to the south, distorting its relation with the Mediterranean Sea and the Alps.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1, 2

b) Only 2, 3

c) Only 1, 3

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

Q.13) Consider the following statements regarding fold mountains:

1. Fold mountains are formed when sedimentary rock strata in geosynclines are subjected to tangential forces.

2. They are the loftiest mountains and they are generally concentrated along continental margins

3. The Aravali Range in India is the oldest fold mountain systems in the India.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) Only 2

b) Only 2,3

c) Only 1

d) All of the above

Solution (c)

Q.14) Consider following statements regarding marine erosional landforms:

1. Sea Cliff is shoreline marked by a steep bank.

2. When waves from opposite directions strike a narrow wall of rock, differential erosion of the rock leaves a bridge like structure called Stack.

3. When a portion of the sea arch collapses, the remaining column-like structure is called a sea arch.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.15) Consider the following statements regarding arid landform:

1. In hill slope geomorphology, a gully is a narrow and shallow channel cut into soil by the erosive action of flowing water.

2. A rill is a landform created by running water. Rills resemble large ditches or small valleys, which are few metres to tens of metres in depth and width.

3. A ravine is a landform narrower than a canyon and is often the product of stream cutting erosion. Ravines are typically classified as larger in scale than gullies, although smaller than valleys.

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

a) Only 1, 2

b) Only 2, 3

c) Only 1, 3

d) None of the above

Solution (a)

Q.16) Consider the following statements:

1. Granite is a typical example of intrusive rock system.

2. Plutonic rocks are rocks formed by rapid cooling of the lava thrown out during volcanic eruptions.

3. The Deccan traps in the peninsular region are of basaltic origin.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1, 2

b) Only 2, 3

c) Only 1, 3

d) None of the above

Solution (c)

Q.17) Consider the following statement:

1. Peneplain refers to an undulating featureless plain punctuated with low-lying residual hills of resistant rocks. It is considered to be an end product of an erosional cycle.

2. The outer bend of the loop in a meander is characterized by intensive erosion and vertical cliffs and is called the slip off side. This side has a concave slope.

3. The inner side of the loop is characterized by deposition, a gentle convex slope, and is called the cliff slope side.

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

a) Only 1, 2

b) Only 2, 3

c) Only 1, 3

d) None

Solution (b)

Q.18) Consider the following statements regarding Doklam plateau:

1. Doklam is an area with a plateau and a valley, lying between Tibet’s Chumbi Valley to the north, Bhutan’s Ha Valley to the east and India’s Sikkim state to the west.

2. It has been depicted as part of Bhutan in the Bhutanese maps since 1961, but it is also claimed by China.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.19) Consider following regarding glacial depositional landforms:

1. The eskers resemble the features of an embankment and are often used for making roads

2. Kame Terraces Are broken ridges or un-assorted depositions looking like hump in a till plain

3. Drumlin are inverted boat-shaped deposition in a till plain caused by deposition.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) Only 1

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.20) Consider following statements regarding batholiths:

1. Batholiths are large rock masses formed due to cooling down and solidification of hot magma inside the earth.

2. They appear on the surface only after the denudation processes remove the overlying materials.

3. Batholiths form the core of huge mountains and may be exposed on surface after erosion.

4. These are Basaltic in nature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 , 2, 3

b) 2, 3, 4

c) 1, 3, 4

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 and State PSC Exam Indian Polity Practice MCQ-1

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UPSC and State PSC Prelims Exam Indian Polity Question Bank

Q.1) Consider the following statements with regard to Regulating Act of 1773:

1. The first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British

Government was enacted through this Act.

2. This Act is of great constitutional importance as it was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (b)

Q.2) considers the features given below and chooses the correct answer:

1. This Act provided for the first time for the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the Viceroy and Governors.

2. This Act introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’.

3. This Act retained official majority in the Central Legislative Council but allowed the provincial legislative councils to have non-official majority.

The above important features are part of –

a) Indian Councils Act of 1861

b) Indian Councils Act of 1892

c) Indian Councils Act of 1909

d) Government of India Act of 1919

Solution (c)

Features of the Act of 1909 also known as Morley-Minto Reforms:

1. It considerably increased the size of the legislative councils, both Central and provincial.

2. It retained official majority in the Central Legislative Council but allowed the provincial legislative councils to have non-official majority.

3. It enlarged the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at both the levels. For example, members were allowed to ask supplementary questions, move resolutions on the budget, and so on.

4. It provided (for the first time) for the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the Viceroy and Governors.

5. It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’.

6. It also provided for the separate representation of presidency corporations, chambers of commerce, universities and zamindars.

Q.3) which among the following is/are the feature common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation?

1. Three lists in the Constitution

2. A federal supreme court to interpret the Constitution

3. Single citizenship

4. Appointment of state governors by the Centre

Choose correct option:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) 2 only

d) 2 and 3 only

Solution (c)

Q.4) Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble were the features borrowed from –

a) Weimar Constitution of Germany

b) French Constitution

c) Irish Constitution

d) US Constitution

Solution (b)

Q.5) the Preamble reveals which among the following ingredients or components –

1. Source of authority of the Constitution

2. Nature of Indian State

3. Objectives of the Constitution

4. Date of adoption of the Constitution

Choose correct option:

a) 2 and 3 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (d)

Q.6) Consider the below statements:

1. The Indian Constitution provides for direct democracy where the people exercise their supreme power.

2. The term ‘democratic’ is used in the Preamble in the broader sense embracing not only political democracy but also social and economic democracy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (b)

Q.7) in which of the following case, the Supreme Court laid down that the Constitution is federal and characterised federalism as its ‘basic feature’?

a) Bommai case (1994)

b) Minerva Mills case (1980)

c) Cooper case (1970)

d) Shankari Prasad (1951)

Solution (a)

Q.8) In addition to the making of the Constitution and enacting of ordinary laws, the

Constituent Assembly also performed which of the following functions?

1. Elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India

2. Adopted India’s National Anthem and National Song

3. Adopted the National Flag of India

4. Ratified India’s membership of the Commonwealth

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.9) Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the Division of powers?

a) Schedule Two

b) Schedule Four

c) Schedule Three

d) None

Solution (d)

Q.10) Consider the following statements:

1. Process for changing the name of a state or its district/villages can be initiated by state only.

2. Formation of new states, altering boundary and name is not considered as Constitutional Amendment under Art 368.

3. Parliament has power to change the name of a state or its districts and villages.

Which of the statements provided above is/are correct?

a) 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (a)

Q.11) the Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has

1. Republican system

2. Doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament

3. System of legal responsibility of the minister

4. System of judicial review

5. Both a real and a nominal executive

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 3 and 4

b) 4 and 5 only

c) 2, 4 and 5

d) 1 and 4 only

Solution (d)

Q.12) The Constitution of India confers which among the following rights and privileges on the citizens of India (and denies the same to aliens)?

1. Equality before law and equal protection of laws

2. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion

3. Freedom to manage religious affairs

4. Six basic freedoms subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19

5. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2 and 4

b) 4 and 5 only

c) 2, 4 and 5

d) 3 and 5 only

Solution (b)

Q.13) Consider the statements given below:

1. In India only a citizen by birth and not a naturalised citizen are eligible for the office of President.

2. The Constitution does not contain provisions dealing with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (b)

Q.14) Consider the following:

1. States not indestructible

2. Single Constitution

3. Flexibility of the Constitution

4. Three tier government

5. Integrated Election Machinery

Which of the terms given above are unitary features of the Indian Constitution?

a) 1, 2 and 4

b) 2, 3 and 5

c) 1, 2, 3 and 5

d) 1, 2 and 5

Solution (c)

Q.15) Arrange the below given States in correct chronological sequence based on their creation after the reorganisation of the states in 1956:

1. Haryana

2. Nagaland

3. Gujarat

4. Sikkim

Choose the correct code:

a) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3

b) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4

c) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3

d) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4

Solution (b)

Q.16) if any foreign territory becomes a part of India –

a) Government of India specifies the persons who among the people of the territory shall be the citizens of India.

b) Automatically all the people belonging to the territory become the citizens of India.

c) Parliament has to amend the Citizenship Act and make provision for providing citizenship to people of the territory.

d) People of the territory can acquire citizenship of India by Registration.

Solution (a)

Q.17) which among the following powers are granted to the Parliament by Article 2 of the Indian Constitution?

1. Power to admit into the Union of India new states

2. Power to increase the area of any state

3. Power to alter the boundaries of any state

4. Power to establish new states which were previously not part of India

Select the correct code:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (c)

Q.18) Consider the following statements:

1. Republic Day is celebrated to commemorate the adoption of constitution.

2. The Beating Retreat ceremony is held after officially denoting the end of Republic Day festivities i.e. evening of 26th January.

3. Beating Retreat ceremony is performed by the bands of the three wings of the military, the Indian Army, Indian Navy and Indian Air Force.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 2

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.19) Consider the following statements regarding the states of India:

1. States in India have no right to territorial integrity.

2. Indian Federation is “an indestructible Union of indestructible states”.

3. In order to change the name or boundary of a country ratification of the State Legislature is required.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) None

Solution (a)

Unlike in other federations, the states in India have no right to territorial integrity. The Parliament can by unilateral action change the area, boundaries or name of any state. Moreover, it requires only a simple majority and not a special majority. Hence, the Indian Federation is “an indestructible Union of destructible states”. The American Federation, on the other hand, is described as “an indestructible Union of indestructible states”.

Q.20) The Swaran Singh Committee considered the question of –

a) Integration of British provinces and the princely states

b) Reorganisation of states on the basis of linguistic factor

c) The suitability of the Presidential form of government for India

d) Reorganisation of states on the basis of administrative convenience

Solution (c)

The Swaran Singh Committee was appointed by the Congress government in 1975 which considered the question of the suitability of the Presidential form of government for India. The committee gave report in favor of presidential form of government owing to various advantages over presidential form of government. However, the committee also opined that there is no need to replace parliamentary system.

Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha: Indian Polity topic-wise MCQ

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Q.1     Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya sabha?   

(A)      The chairman, Rajya sabha                   (B)      The President

(C)       The joint – session of parliament        (D)      None

Answer (D)

Q.2     Rajya sabha enjoys more power than the Lok sabha in the casa of?           

(A)      Money Bills                                                            

(B)      Non Money Bills

(C)       Setting up of new all India service     

(D)      Amendment of the constitution

Answer (C)

 Q.3     The tenure of the Rajya sabha is?     

(A)      2 Years       (B)      5 Years

(C)       6 Years       (D)      Permanent

Answer (D)

Q.4     What is the term of a member of the Rajya sabha?        

(A)      3 years          (B)      4 years          (C)       5 years          (D)      6 years

Answer (D)

 Q.5     The vice-president is the ex-officio chairman of the?   

(A)      Rajya Sabha                       

 (B)      Lok Sabha

(C)       Planning Commission    

 (D)      National Development Council

Answer (A)

 Q.6     The Rajya sabha is dissolved after?   

(A)      Every Five years                                       

(B)      Every Six Years

(C)       On the advice of the Prime Minister

 (D)      None of these

Answer (D)

 Q.7     The upper house of Indian parliament is known as?       

(A)      The Rajya Sabha               

(B)      The Lok Sabha

(C)       The National Assembly  

(D)      The Indian parliament

Answer (A)

Q.8Who is the chairman of Rajya Sabha?           

(A)      The president                    

(B)      The Vice-President

(C)       The Prime minister         

(D)      The Speaker

Answer (B)

 Q.9 which is the house where the chair person is not the member of that house?

(A)      Rajya Sabha                       

 (B)      Lok Sabha

(C)       Legislative council           

(D)      Legislative assembly

Answer (A)

Q.10   How many members are nominated by the president in the Rajya Sabha?

(A)      2          (B)      10                  

(C)       12        (D)      15

Answer (C)

Q.11   Which one of the following is president over by one who is not its member?

(A)      Vidhan Sabha                     

(B)      Council of ministers

(C)       Lok Sabha                            

(D)      Rajya Sabha

Answer (D)

 Q.12   What could be the maximum time limit of ‘Zero Hour’?

(A)      30 Minutes            

(B)      1 Hour

(C)       2 Hours                    

(D)      Indefinite period

Answer (B)

Q.13   What is the fixed strength of Rajya Sabha?

(A)      210                 (B)      220                 (C)       230                 (D)      250

Answer (D)

Q.14   The First mid-term election for lok sabha was held in?

(A)      1962              (B)      1971              (C)       1977              (D)      1980

Answer (B)

 Q.15   The Speaker’s vote in the lok sabha is called?     

(A)      Casting vote                       

(B)      Sound vote

(C)       Direct vote             

(D)      Indirect vote

Answer (A)

Parliament: Indian Polity topic-wise MCQ

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Q.1     What can be the maximum interval between two sessions of parliament?        

(A)      3 Months         (B)      4 Months

(C)       6 Months         (D)   9 Months

Answer (C)

Q.2 which of the following non-member of parliament has the right to address it?

(A)      Attorney General            

(B)      Solicitor General of India

(C)       Chief justice of India      

 (D)      Chief election Commissioner

Answer (A)

Q.3     Age of a candidate t contest parliamentary election should not be lesser than?

(A)      18 Years          (B)      21 Years

(C)       25 Years          (D)      26 Years

Answer (C)

Q.4     The most important feature of the Indian parliament is that?

(A)      It is the union legislature in India      

(B)      It also comprises of the president

(C)       It is bicameral in nature   

(D)   The upper house of the parliament is never dissolved

Answer (B)

 Q.5 Japan’s Parliament Known as?

(A)      Diet                (B)      Dial

(C)       Yuan              (D)      Shora

Answer (A)

 Q.6   Who sail, ‘Parliamentary system provides a daily as well as a periodic assessment of the government?

(A)      B.R. Ambedkar                  

(B)      B.N. Nehru

(C)       Jawahar Lal Nehru                       

(D)      Rajendra Prasad

Answer (A)

Q.7     How many members of the Anglo-indian community can be nominated by the president of India to the parliament?    

(A)      1                       (B)      2         

(C)       5                      (D)      8

Answer (B)

Q.8     Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the president of India?

(A)      Only Lok Sabha                                         

(B)      Only Rajya Sabha

(C)       Either house of the parliament                       

(D)      Any Legislative assembly

Answer (C)

Q.9     Which of the following has the powers to create a new all India service? 

(A)      Parliament             

(B)      Union public service commission

(C)       Union Cabinet       

(D)      Ministry of personnel, Public grievances and Pensions

Answer (A)

 Q.10   Sovereignty of Indian parliament is restricted by? 

(A)      Powers of the president of India        

(B)      Judicial review

(C)       Leader of the opposition                       

(D)      Powers of the prime minister of India

Answer (B)

Q.11   The committee of parliament on official language comprises the members?

(A)  20 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(B)  10 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

(C)   10 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(D)  20 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

Answer (A)

Q.12 which of the following is NOT a parliamentary committee?   

(A)      Committee on public accounts           

(B)      Committee on public undertakings

(C)      Committee on Estimates                      

(D)      Demands for grants committee

Answer (D)

Q.13     Which one of the following is the largest committee of the parliament?   

(A)      The Public accounts committee                      

(B)      The Estimates committee

(C)       The committee on public undertakings       

(D)      The committee on petitions

Answer (B)

 Q.14   In which of the following committees there is no representation of Rajya Sabha?

(A)    Public accounts committee                              

(B)    Committee on public undertakings

(C)   Committee on government assurance        

 (D)  Estimates Committee

Answer (D)

Q.15   Which of the following is NOT a tool of parliamentary control over public expenditures?           

(A) Public accounts committee                  

(B) Comptroller and Auditor general of India

(C) Estimates Committee                            

(D) Committee on public undertakings

Answer (B)

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Q.1     The comptroller and auditor general of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the? 

(A)      Union Government                     

(B)      State Government

(C)       Union and State Government

(D)      Neither Union nor State Government

Answer (C)

 Q.2     What is the period of appointment of the comptroller and auditor general of India?

(A)      6 Years                                                                                 

(B)      Upto 65 Years of age

(C)     6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier     

(D)    Upto 64 years of age

Answer (C)

 Q.3     Who is the highest civil servant of the union government?    

(A)      Attorney General            

(B)      Cabinet Secretary

(C)       Home Secretary               

(D)      Principle secretary to the P.M

Answer (B)

 Q.4     The Attorney general of India is appointed by?   

(A)      The president of India                 (B)      The Prime Minister

(C)       The Chief justice of India           (D)      The UPSC

Answer (A)

Q.5     In india’ The Comptroller –general of accounts presents a detailed analytical review of union government accents to the finance ministry every?     

(A)      Years                                    

(B)      Six Months

(C)       Three Months       

(D)      Month

Answer (A)

 Q.6     Who advises the government of India on legal matters?           

(A)      Attorney General                         (B)      Chief justice of Supreme Court

(C)       Chairman, law commission        (D)      none of these

Answer (A)

 Q.7     Comptroller and auditor – general of India is appointed by:     

(A)      President                                                                 

(B)      Speaker of the lok sabha

(C)       Chairman of the planning commission         

(D)      Finance minister

Answer (A)

 Q.8     The attorney General of India is a legal advisor to?    

(A)      The president of India                 (B)      The Prime Minister

(C)       Lok Sabha                                  (D)      Government of India

Answer (D)

 Q.9     Who is called the guardian of public purse?           (UP PCS Main 2008)

(A)      President                

(B)   Comptroller   and auditor- general

(C)       Parliament             

(D)      Council of Ministers

Answer (B)

 Q.10   Which non-member cab participates in the business of either house of parliament?

(A)      The Vice-President                       (B)      The Solicitor General

(C)       The Attorney General                 (D)      The Chief justice of India

Answer (C)

Q.11     Which of the following standing committees of parliament has no MP from Rajya Sabha?

 (A)     Public accounts committees                

(B)      Committee on public undertakings

(C)       Committee on government assurance         

(D)      Estimates committee

Answer (D)

 Q.12     The parliament committee which scrutinizes the report of the comptroller and auditor general of Indian is?       

(A)      Estimates committee                  (B)      Select Committee

(C)       Public Account Committee        (D)      None of these

Answer (C)

 Q.13     Who among the following forms the advisory committee of the parliament?

(A)      Speaker of Lok Sabha                   (B)      Vice-President of India

(C)       President of India                         (D)      None of these

Answer (A)

Q.14     The committee of parliament on official language comprises the members?

(A) 20 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(B)  10 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

(C) 10 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(D) 20 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

Answer (A)

 Q.15     Which of the following is NOT a parliamentary committee?   

(A)      Committee on public accounts           

(B)      Committee on public undertakings

(C)       Committee on Estimates                       

(D)      Demands for grants committee

Answer (D)

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Q.1     The president of India enjoys emergency powers of? (SSC Grad 2007)

(A)      Two Types      (B)      Three Types

(C)       Four Types     (D)      Five Types

Answer (B)

 Q.2     How many times the president of India can seek reelection to his post?

(A)      Once                

(B)      Two times

(C)       Three Times  

(D)      Any number of times

Answer (D)

 Q.3     Which of the following appointments not made by the president of India?

(A)      Speaker of the Lok Sabha         

(B)      Chief justice of India

(C)       Chief of air staff                            

(D)      Chief of Army

Answer (A)

Q.4     What is the maximum age limit prescribed for the post of the president of India?                   

(A)      58 Years                  

(B)      60 Years

(C)       62 Years                  

(D)      There is no maximum age limit

Answer (D)

Q.5     Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by?

(A)      Edward stone        

(B)      Le Corbusier

(C)       Edwin Lutyens        

(D)      Tarun Dutt

Answer (C)

 Q.6     A presidential ordinance can remain force?         

(A)      For Three Months            

(B)      For Six Months

(C)       For Nine Months              

(D)      Indefinitely

Answer (B)

 Q.7   To be eligible for election as president of Indian, a person must have completed the age of?    

(A)      25 years                   (B)      30 Years

(C)       35 Years                (D)      40 Years

Answer (C)

 Q.8     Who was the president of India at the time of proclamation of emergency in the year 1975?                  

(A)       V.V Giri                                

(B)      Giani Zail singh

(C)     Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad    

(D)    Shankar Dayal Sharma

Answer (C)

Q.9     Under Which Article of the constitution of India can the president of India be impeached?         

(A)      Article 61            (B)      Article 75

(C)       Article 76          (D)      Article 356

Answer (A)

 Q.10   Who holds the power to appoint the nominees from Anglo-Indian community in the lok sabha?        

(A)      Minorities commission              

(B)      President of India

(C)       Prime Minister                             

(D)      Vice-President

Answer (B)

Q.10   Who holds the power to appoint the nominees from Anglo-Indian community in the lok sabha?

(A)      Minorities commission              

(B)      President of India

(C)       Prime Minister                             

(D)      Vice-President

Answer (B)

Q.11   The first president of independent India hails from?                 

(A)      U.P                

(B)      Andhra Pradesh

(C)       Bihar             

(D)      Tamil Nadu

Answer (C)

Q.12   Acting chief justice of the supreme court in India is appointed by the? 

(A)      Chief justice of Supreme Court                       

(B)      Prime Minister

(C)       President                                                    

(D)      Law Minister

Answer (C)

Q.13   Comptroller and auditor general of India are appointed by?      

(A)      President                                                       

(B)      Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(C)       Chairman of the planning Commission    

(D)      Finance Minister

Answer (A)

 Q.14   The vacancy of the Office of the president of India must be filled up within?

(A)      90 Days        

(B)      6th Months

(C)       1 Years         

(D)   Within the period decided by the parliament

Answer (B)

Q.15   Who among the following is constitutionally empowered to declare a geographical area as a Scheduled area?      

(A)      Governor                

(B)      Chief Minister

(C)     Prime Minister      

(D)      President

Answer (D)

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Q.1     Separation of the judiciary from the executive has been provided in one of the following parts of the Indian constitution?

(A)      The preamble                                             

(B)       The fundamental right

(C)       The directive principle of state policy  

(D)      The Seventh Schedule     

Answer (C)

 Q.2     Under the directive principle of state policy, up to what age of children they are expected to be provided free and compulsory education?

(A)      14 Years        (B)       15 Years

(C)       16 Years        (D)      16 Years                                           

Answer (A)

Q.3     Which part of the Indian constitution deals with the directive principle of the state policy?

(A)      Part I              (B)       Part III

(C)       Part IV           (D)      Part V                                            

Answer (C)

Q.4     The articles of the constitution of India which deal with directive principle of state policy are:

(A)      26 to 41        (B)       30 to 45

(C)       36 to 51        (D)      40 to 55                               

Answer (C)

Q.5     ‘Equal pay for equal work’ has been ensured in the Indian constitution as one of the?

(A)      Fundamental right            

(B)       Directive principle of state policy

(C)       Fundamental duties         

(D)      Economic right                              

Answer (B)

 Q.6     The concept of ‘Welfare State’ is included in which part of the Indian constitution?

(A)      Preamble of the constitution                 

(B)       The fundamental right

(C)       The directive principle of state policy 

 (D)  The fundamental right     

Answer (C)

 Q.7     ‘The directive principle of state policy is a cheque which is paid on Bank’s convenience’ who told it?

(A)      B.R. Ambedkar                  

 (B)       K.M. Munshi

(C)       Rajendra Prasad               

 (D)      K. T. Seth                             

Answer (A)

 Q.8    The directive principle of state policy is:

(A)      Justiciable     

(B)       Non Justiciable

(C)       Only some of the provisions are justiciable

(D)      None of these                                                                                 

Answer (B)

Q.9     The purpose of the inclusion of directive principle of state policy in the Indian constitution is to establish?

(A)      Political democracy                       (B)       Social democracy

(C)       Gandhian democracy                   (D)      Social and economic democracy          

Answer (D)

 Q.10   Which one of the following article of the directive principles of state policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security?

(A)      41             (B)       43 A

(C)       48 A         (D)      51                                                                               

Answer (D)

Q.11   How many fundamental duties are in the Indian constitution?

(A)      9          (B)       11

(C)       12       (D)      20                                                                  

Answer (B)

 Q.12   By which amendment act the fundamental duties of citizen are included in Indian constitution?

(A)      42nd amendment               

(B)       44th amendment

(C)       56th amendment               

(D)      73rd amendment                        

Answer (A)

Q.13   In which of the following years the fundamental duties have been added to the existent fundamental right the constitution of India?

(A)      1965              (B)       1976

(C)       1979              (D)      1982                                                             

Answer (B)

 Q.14   The 42nd amendment act has incorporated into the constitution of India a new chapter on?                       

(A)      Administration of union territories

(B)       Formation of interstate councils

(C)       Fundamental duties

(D)      None of these

Answer (C)

 Q.15   By what term, the ten commandments of 42nd constitutional amendment act are called?           

(A)      Fundamental rights          

(B)      Fundamental duties

(C)      Panchayati Raj Principle

(D)     Directive principle of state policy

Answer (B)

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Q.1     How does the constitution of India describe India as?

(A)      A federation of states and Union Territories

(B) A Union of State

(C)       Bharatvarsh                       

 (D)     A federated Union                        

Answer (B)

Q.2     Which commission made the recommendations which formed the basis for the Punjab reorganization act which created the states Punjab and Haryana?

(A)      Dhar Commission  

(B)       Dass Commission

(C)       Shah Commission  

(D)      Mahajan Commission                                         

Answer (C)

 Q.3     Article 1 of the constitution of India declares India as—

(A)      Federal state           

(B)       Quasi-Federal state

(C)       Unitary state           

(D)      Union of state                                            

Answer (D)

 Q.4     The no. of union territories on India is?

(A)      5          (B)       6

(C)       7          (D)      9                                                                                  

Answer (C)

Q.5   Of the following the town does not come within the national capital region (NCR) is?

(A)      Panipat          (B)       Rohtak

(C)       Khurja           (D)      Mathura                                                       

Answer (D)

Q.6Which of the following state is a member of the ‘seven Sisters?

(A)      West Bengal (B)       Tripura

(C)       Orissa            (D)      Bihar                                                             

Answer (B)

Q.7     Sikkim was made an integral part of India under the?

(A)      36th Amendment   

(B)       39th Amendment

(C)       40th Amendment    

(D)      42nd Amendment             

Answer (A)

 Q.8     Among the following states, which one was formed last?

(A)      Andhra Pradesh     (B)       Gujarat

(C)       Karnnataka              (D)      Punjab                                               

Answer (C)

 Q.9Which one of the following is the first state to have been formed on linguistic basis?

(A)      Andhra Pradesh     (B)       Gujarat

(C)       Karnnataka              (D)      Punjab                                              

Answer (A)

 Q.10   What is the correct chronological order in which the following states of the indianunion were created or granted full statehood?

1. Andhra Pradesh      2.Maharashtra

3. Nagaland                 4. Haryana

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4                         (B) 2,1,3,4

(C) 4,3,2,1                            (D) 2,1,4,3

Answer (A)

Q.11   The power to curve out a new state is vested in?

(A)      The Parliament      

(B)       The President

(C)       The Council of Ministers  

(D)      State’s Reorganizations commission

Answer (A)

 Q.12   Andhra Pradesh was created as a linguistic state in?

(A)      1950              (B)       1953

(C)       1956              (D)      1961                                                             

Answer (B)

 Q.13   ‘Uttarakhand’ state came into existence on?

(A)      1, November 2000             

(B)      9, November 2000

(C)      10, November 2001         

(D)      1, January 2008                            

Answer (B)

 Q.14   Which of the following is not a union territory?

(A)      Goa                                       

(B)       Lakshadweep

(C)       Dadar and Nagar Haveli  

(D)      Chandigarh                                     

Answer (A)

 Q.15   In which year was the state of Jharkhand formed?

(A)      1998              (B)       1999

(C)       2000             (D)      2001                                                            

Answer (C)

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Q.1     From the following languages listed in the eighth schedule of the constitution pick out of the one which is official language of a state?

(A)      Kashmiri        (B)       Urdu

(C)       Sindhi           (D)      Nepali

Answer (B)

Q.2     The item ‘Education’ belongs to the—-?

(A)      Union List

(B)       State List

(C) Concurrent List

(D)      Residuary List

Answer (C)

Q.3     How many schedules the constitution of India contains?

(A)      9          (B)       10

(C)       11       (D)      12

Answer (D)

Q.4 which article of the Indian constitution provides for the institution of panchayati-Raj?

(A)      Article 36                  (B)   Article 39

(C)       Article 40                  (D)-Article 48

Answer (C)

Q.5     Article 1 of the constitution declares India as –?

(A)      Federal State

(B)       Quasi-Federal State

(C)       Unitary State

(D)      Union of State

Answer (D)

Q.6     How many Articles are there in the Indian constitution?

(A)      395                 (B)       396

(C)       398                 (D)      399

Answer (A)

Q.7     Which part of the Indian constitution deals with Fundamental Right?

(A)      Part I                 (B)       Part II

(C)       Part III              (D)      Part IV

Answer (C)

Q.8     How many languages have recognized by the Constitution?

(A)      15                   (B)       18

(C)       22                   (D)      24

Answer (C)

Q.9     Which one of the following Article of the Constitution of India has provision for the president to proclaim emergency?

(A)      Article 352    (B)       Article 355

(C)       Article 356    (D) Articles 360

Answer (A)

Q.10   The Method of constitutional amendment is provided in?

(A)      Article 348       (B)       Article 358

(C)       Article 368        (D) Articles 378

Answer (C)

Q.11 With what subject to the article 5 to 11 of the constitution of India deal ?

(A)      Indian Union and its territory                 (B)       Citizenship

(C)       Fundamental Duties                                  (D)      Union Executive

Answer (B)

Q.12   The tenth schedule of Indian constitution deals with?

(A)      Anti-Defection Legislation

(B)       Panchayati Raj

(C)       Land Reforms

(D)      Distribution of powers between Union and State

Answer (A)

Q.13   Procedure for creation of legislative council in state has been described in which article of the constitution?

(A)      Article 69

(B)       Article 169

(C)       Article 269

(D)      Article369

Answer (B)

Q.14   Which of the constitutional provision lays down that taxes can neither be levied nor collected without the authority of law?

(A)      Article 265

(B)       Article 266

(C)       Article 300

(D)       Article 368

Answer (A)

Q.15   Which provision relating to the fundamental rights is directly related to the exploitation of children?

(A)      Article 17

(B)       Article 19

(C)       Article 23

(D)       Article 24

Answer (D)

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Q.1- the Concept of judicial review in our constitution has been taken from the constitution of?

(A)        England            

(B)          USA

(C)       Canada

(D)        Australia                                                                             

Answer (B)

Q.2   The constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian federation from the constitution of:

(A)          USA             

(B)          Canada

(C)          U.K             

(D)          Ireland                                                                                                  

Answer (B)

Q.3   The federal system with strong center has been borrowed by the Indian constitution from?

(A)          USA              (B)          Canada

(C)          U.K              (D)          France                                                                                                  

Answer (B)

Q.4   The idea of including the Emergency provisions in the constitution of India has been borrowed from?

(A)   Constitution of Canada          

(B)    Weimar constitution of Germany

(C)  Constitution of Ireland 

(D) Constitution of USA                                                       

Answer (B)

Q.5 The Office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India is based on which one of the following—-?

(A)   Parliamentary commissioner of UK

(B)  Ombudsman in Scandinavia

(C)  Procurator general of Russia

(D)   Council of state in France                                                                                            

Answer (B)

Q.6   Which of the following was the biggest source for the constitution of India?

(A)    The Government of India act, 1919

(B)     The Government of India act, 1935

(C)    The Indian Independence act, 1947

(D)    None of Above                                                                                                

Answer (B)

Q7   Of the following words in the preamble of the constitution of India which was not inserted through the constitution (Forty Second)

(A)   Socialist               

(B)  Secular

(C) Dignity                 

(D) Integrity                                                                              

Answer (C)

Q.8   At the time of enactment of the constitution, which one of the following ideals was not included in the preamble?

(A) Liberty                  (B)          Equality

(C) Socialist                (D)          Justice                                                                                  

Answer (C)

Q.9     Which Amendment act introduced changes in the preamble to the Indian constitution?

(A)          The 38th Amendment act 1975

(B)          The 40th Amendment act 1976

(C)          The 42nd Amendment act 1976

(D) The 44th Amendment act 1979                                                                                   

Answer (C)

Q.10 The preamble of our constitution reads India as?

(A)  Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic

(B)  Sovereign, Democratic, socialist, secular republic

(C)  Socialist sovereign, democratic, secular, republic

(D)  Democratic, sovereign, secular, socialist republic                                                            

Answer (A)

Q. 10 the preamble of our constitution reads India as?

(A)  Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic

(B)   Sovereign, Democratic, socialist, secular republic

(C)  Socialist sovereign, democratic, secular, republic

(D)  Democratic, sovereign, secular, socialist republic                                                           

Answer (A)

Q.11   Which Amendment of the Indian constitution inserted the two words—Socialist and Secular in the preamble?

(A)          28th       

(B)          40th

(C)          42nd       

(D)          52nd                                                                                                       

Answer (C)

Q.12 in Which amendment the words socialist secular and unity and integrity of the nation were added to the preamble of constitution of India?

(A)          42nd      (B)   44th

(C)          52nd      (D)   none of them                                                                  

Answer (A)

Q.13   Consider the following Words?

1. Socialist                   2. Democratic

3. Sovereign                4. Secular

Choose the response that gives the correct in the preamble?

(A)          3, 1, 4, and 2                         

(B)          3, 4, 1, and 2

(C)          3, 4, 1, and 2                         

(D)          4, 1, 3, and 2                                                        

Answer (A)

Q.14       Which one of the following describes India a secular state?

(A)          Fundamental Rights        

(B)          Preamble to the Constitution

(C)          9th Schedule                      

(D)          Directive principles                                         

Answer (B)

Q.15   Which one of the following liberty is not embodied in the preamble to the constitution of India?

(A)          Liberty of Thought         

 (B)          Liberty of Expression

(C)          Liberty of belief               

(D)          Economic Liberty                                                             

Answer (D)

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Q.1     The presidential government operates on the principle of?

(A)      Division of powers between centre and state

(B)       Centralization of powers

(C)       Balance of powers

 (D)      Separation of powers

Answer (D)                                                            

Q.2     Which of the following countries have an unwritten constitution?

(A)      USA                (B)       UK

(C)       India               (D)      Pakistan

Answer (B)

Q.3     The unitary system of government possesses which of the following advantages?

(A)      Grater adaptability                                  (B)       Strong state

(C)       Greater participation by the people     (D)      Lesser chances of authoritarianism

Answer (D)

Q.4     Which of the following countries enjoys a federal form of government?

(A)      China              (B)       USA

(C)       Cuba              (D)      Belgium

Answer (B)

Q.5     The English crown is an example of?

(A)      Real executive                    

(B)       Quasi-real executive

(C)       Nominal executive            

(D)      Nominated executive

Answer (C)

Q.6      The declaration that democracy is a government ‘of the people, by the people, for the people ‘was made by?

(A)      Abraham Lincoln    

(B)       George Washington

(C)       Theodore Roosevelt

(D)     Winston Churchill

Answer (A)

Q.7     At which of its session, did the congress officially accept the ‘socialistic pattern of Society?

(A)      Bombay session of 1953               (B)       Avadi session of 1955

(C)       Calcutta session of 1957              (D)      Nagpur session of 1959

Answer (B)

Q.8     In Indian polity which one is Supreme?

(A)      The Supreme Courts        

(B)       The Constitution

(C)       The Parliament                  

(D)      Religion

Answer (B)

Q.9     In Indian polity, The Executive is subordinate to the –?

(A)      Judiciary                               

(B)       Legislature

(C)       Election commission         

(D)      U P S C

Answer (B)

Q.10   Which of the following official documents is related with India?

(A)      White Paper           

(B)       Green Paper

(C)       Yellow Book            

(D)      Blue Book

Answer (A)

Q.11   Which one of the following is a basic feature of the Presidential Government?

(A)      Rigid constitution                           (B)       Single Executive

(C)       Supremacy of the Legislature        (D)      Residual powers of the state

Answer (B)

Q.12   Where was the concept of written constitution, first born?

 (A)      France          (B)       USA

(C)       Britain         (D)      Switzerland

Answer (B)

Q.13   Where was the first parliamentary form of government formed?

(A)      Britain                       

(B)       Belgium

(C)       France                      

(D)      Switzerland

Answer (A)

Q.14   Who called Indian federalism as the co-operative federalism? (C PCS Pre 2008)

(A)    G. Austin           

(B)    K. C. Where

(C)   Sir Ivory Jennings   

 (D)  D.D. Basu

Answer (A)

Q.15   The constitution of India is?

(A)      Rigid              

(B)       Flexible

(C)       Very Rigid    

(D)      Partly Rigid, Partly Flexible

Answer (D)

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Indian Polity Topic Wise Question for UPSC IAS and Other Competitive Exams.

Q.1     who was the chairman of the Union Power committee of constituent assembly of India?

(A)      Sardar Vallabhai patel

(B)       Dr. B.R Ambedkar

(C)       Sir Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar

(D)      Pt. Jawahar lal Nehru

Answer (D)

Q.2     The constitution of India was adopted on?

(A)      26 January 1950

(B)       26 January 1949

(C)       26 November 1949

(D)      15 August 1947

Answer (C)

Q.3     who presided over the first meeting of the Indian constitution Assembly?

(A)      Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B)       Sachchidanand sinha

(C)       B.R. Ambedkar

(D)      H.V. Kamath

Answer (B)

Q.4 who among the following was the advisor to the drafting committee of constituent assembly?  (NDA 2009, UP PCS2014)

(A)      B. Shiva Rao

(B)       B.R. Ambedkar

(C)       Sachidananda sinha

(D)      B.N. Rau

Answer (D)

Q.5 The Constituent assembly of India started functioning from?

(A) 9th December 1946

(B) 1st January 1947

(C   26th January 1947

(D) 15th August 1947

Answer (A)

Q.6     Who among the following was not a member of the constituent assembly?

(A)      Sardar Vallabhbhai patel

(B)       Acharya J.B. Kriplani

(C)       Jai Prakash Narayan

(D)      K.M. Munshi

Answer (C)

Q.7     The constitution of India was completed on?

(A)      February 11, 1948

(B)       November 26, 1949

(C)       January 26, 1950

(D)      None of these

Answer (B)

Q.8 How many sessions of the Indian constituent assembly were conducted for the formulation of Indian constitution?

(A)      7                      (B)       11

(C)       12                   (D)      15

Answer (B)

Q.9     The first day session of Indian constitution assembly was chaired by:

(A)  Dr Rajendra Prasad

(B)   B.R. Ambedkar

(C)   Pt. Jawahar lal Nehru

(D)  Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha

Answer (D)

Q.10   How much time the constitution assembly took to frame the constitution of India?

(A)  2 years 7 Months 23 days               (B)   2 years 11 Months 18days

(C)  3 years 4 Months 14 days               (D) 3 years 11 Months 5 days

Answer (B)

Q.11   The Constitution assembly set up a drafting committee under the chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on?

(A)      13th December 1946

(B)       22nd January 1947

(C)       3rd June, 1947

(D)      29th August 1947

Answer (D)

Q.12   The number of members included in the constitution drafting committee was?

(A)      Seven             (B)       Nine

(C)       Eleven            (D)      Thirteen

Answer (A)

Q.13   The first session of the constitutional assembly was held on:

(A)      26 November 1946

(B)       9 December 1946

(C)       16 August 1947

(D)      26 January 1948

Answer (B)

Q.14   Who proposed the preamble before the drafting committee of the constitution?

(A)      Jawahar lal Nehru                  (B)       B.R. Ambedkar

(C)       B. N. Rau                               (D)      Mahatma Gandhi

Answer (A)

Q.15   Who was the president of the constituent assembly of independent India?

(A)      Dr. B.R. Ambedkar                         (B)       Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(C)       C. Rajagopalachari                         (D)      K.M. Munshi

Answer (B)

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Q 1.Which of the following exercised the most profound influence in farming the Indian constitution?                                                                                           

(A)British constitution

(B)US constitution

(C)Irish constitution

(D)The Government of India Act, 1935                                             

Answer (A)

Q 2.The First attempt to introduce a representative and popular element in the governance of India was made through:

(A) Indian Council Act, 1861

(B) Indian council Act 1892

(C)Indian council Act, 1909

(D) Government of India Act, 1919                                                    

Answer (D)

Q 3 Which of the following acts introduced communal electorate in India?

(A) Indian Council Act, 1861

(B) Indian Council Act, 1892

(C) Indian Council Act, 1909

(D) Government of India Act, 1919                                                                

Answer (C)

Q 4.By virtue of which Act, dyarchy was introduced in India?

(A)      Indian council Act 1909

(B)      Government of India Act 1919

(C)       Government of India Act 1935

(D)      Indian independence Act 1947                                                                      

Answer (B)

Q.5The instrument of instructions contained in the Government of India in the Act 1935 has been incorporated in the constitution of India in the year 1950 as?

(A)      Fundamental right

(B)    Directive principles of the state policy

(C)   Fundamental Duties

(D)   Emergency Provisions                                                                

Answer (D)

 Q.6     The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on?       

(A)      The principle of federation and parliamentary system

(B)      The principle of succession of the British Indian provinces

(C)       Acceptance of the idea of a constituent Assembly to draft a constitution

Answer (A)

Q.7 the monopoly of Indian trade of the east India company was abolished by the?                                                                                                                                      

(A)      Regulating Act, 1773

(B)      Charter Act, 1813

(C)       Charter Act, 1833

(D)      Government of India Act, 1858

Answer (B)

Q.8Which reference to the colonial period on India, The trade monopoly of the East India Company was ended by?                                                           

(A)      The Regulating Act, of 1773

(B)      Pitt’s India Act, of 1784

(C)       The Charter Act, 1813

(D)      The Charter Act, 1833

Answer (C)

Q.9 Two independent states of India and Pakistan were created by:

(A)      The Simla Conference

(B)      The Cripps Proposal

(C)       The Cabinet Mission plan

(D)      The Indian Independence Act.                                               

Answer (D)

Q.10 The first definite step to provided parliamentary control over East India Company was taken by:                                                                  

(A)      The Regulating Act, 1773

(B)      The Pitt’s India Act, 1784

(C)       The Charter Act, 1793

(D)      The charter Act, 1813

Answer (A)

Q.11 The Montague- Chelmsford Report formed the basis of:        

(A)      The Indian council act, 1909

(B)      The government of India Act 1919

(C)       The government of India act, 1935

(D)      The Indian independence act, 1947

Answer (B)

Q.12 through which one of the following was commercial activities of the East India Company finally put to an end?                                                      

(A)      The charter act, 1793

(B)      The charter act, 1813

(C)       The charter act, 1833

(D)      The charter act, 1853

Answer (C)

Q.13 which of the following vasted the secretary of state for India with supreme control over the government of India?                                             

(A)      Pitt’s India act, 1784

(B)      Government of India act, 1858

(C)       Indian council act, 1861

(D)      Morley- Minto Reforms 1909

Answer (B)

Q.14   Diarchy was first introduced under?                                    

(A)      Morley-Minto Reforms

(B)      Mont-Ford Reforms

(C)       Simon Commission Plan

(D)      Government of India Act, 1935

Answer (B)

Q.15   which of the following was/were the main feature’s of the government of India act, 1919?                                                                                                            

1.         Introduction of separate electorates for Muslims

2.         Devolution of legislative authority by the centre

3.         Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A)      2 only

(B)      1 and 3 only

(C)       3 only

(D)      2 and 3 any

Answer (D)

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1.     With regard to the Western Himalayas and the Eastern Himalayas, consider the following

  1. The ranges of the Eastern Himalayas are more continuous compared to Western Himalayas
    1. The Western Himalayas receive most of the precipitation in the winter months and the Eastern Himalayas in the summer months
    1. Eastern Himalayas are much greener and dense compared to Western Himalayas

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Solution: 2

2. Consider the following statements

  1. The peninsular plateau is composed mainly of igneous and metamorphic rocks
  • The Garo, Khasi and Jaintia Hills form a part of peninsular block.
  • The peninsular plateau is the oldest and most stable landmass in India, devoid of earthquakes or volcanic activity.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. All of the above Solution: 1

New Moore Island was recently in news because

  1. of the maritime dispute between India and Sri Lanka on Katchatheevu islands
  • of the maritime dispute between India and Bangladesh
  • of the alarming decline in the population of dolphins and whales there
  • of the alarming decline in the area of mangroves and coral reefs there Solution: 2

4. Peninsular rivers in India are not flooded as much as the Himalayan Rivers. The reasons can be?

  1. India’s peninsular rivers have relatively steep gradients.
  • There is little variation in flow from the dry to wet seasons.
  • Most rivers do not form deltas.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1 only Solution: 4

5.   The Himalayan Mountains are tectonic in origin, dissected by fast-flowing rivers which are in their youthful stage. Which of the following features made by rivers can be seen there?

  1. Gorges
  2. V-shaped valleys
  3. Rapids
  4. Waterfalls

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1, 2 and 4 only
  • 1, 2 and 3 only
  • 3 and 4 only
  • All of the above Solution: 4

6. The Kashmir Himalayas are famous for Karewa formations, which are useful for the cultivation of

  1. Zafran, a local variety of saffron
  2. buckwheat, a local nutritional coarse grain
  3. turnips, a local health supplement
  4. All of the above Solution: 1

7. The British introduced tea plantations in the Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas looking at some of the favourable conditions which were

  1. Steep slopes
  2. thick soil cover with low organic content
  3. well distributed rainfall
  4. mild winters

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1, 2 and 4 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 and 4 only
  4. All of the above Solution: 3

8. The Tarai region of the Northern plains supports luxurious growth of natural vegetation and varied wild life population. This is because

  1. Re-emerging rivers from Bhabhar flow in undemarcated channels here creating marshy and swampy conditions
  2. all fertile coarse load is deposited at Tarai region after rivers re-emerge from Bhabar region
  3. the Tarai region is crossed by large Himalayan rivers which regularly deposit silt and clay here
  4. Both 1 and 3 Solution: 4

9. Consider the following statements about the Western and Eastern Ghats.

  1. Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation than Eastern Ghats.
  • Western Ghats are more continuous than the Eastern Ghats as the latter is eroded by several east flowing rivers.
  • The Eastern and the Western Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 1 and 3 only
  • All of the above Solution: 4

10. Consider the following statements with regard to Western coastal plain

  1. The western coastal plains provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours
  2. The rivers flowing through western coastal plains do not form any deltas

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. None of the above Solution: 3

11.  Consider the following rivers

  1. Krishna
  2. Kaveri
  3. Godavari
  4. Penganga

The correct sequence of these rivers when arranged from south to north is

1. 2, 1,3 and 4

2. 1,2,3 and 4

3.   1, 3, 4 and 2

4.   3, 2, 1 and 4

Solution: 1

12.  Assertion (A): The frequency of floods in North Indian plains has increased in recent times.

Reason (R): There has been reduction in the depth of river valleys due to deposition of silt.

  1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true
Solution: 1

13.  Given are the Indian Rivers and corresponding National Parks

  1. Lohit                                                                Orang National Park
  2. Chambal                                                          Rajaji National Park
  3. Narmada                                                         Kanha National Park

Select the correct match

  1. Only 2
  2. 1 and 3
  3. Only 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: 3

Explanation: Rajaji National Park spread across Dehradun, Haridwar and Pauri districts of Uttarakhand.

Kanha National Park located in the upper reaches of Narmada and The Orang National Park, located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River in the Darrang and Sonitpur districts of Assam.

14.  Which of the following Rivers does not pass through Tropic of Cancer?

  1. Sabarmati
  2. Mahi
  3. Damodar
  4. Luni

Solution: 4

The River Luni: In Rajasthan

  1. Amongst the following the river that passes through most number of countries?
  1. Zambezi
  2. River Severn
  3. Danube
  4. Mississippi

Solution- 3

  1. Imagine you are travelling from New Delhi towards North. If you go vertically upwards towards Jammu and Kashmir, select the correct sequence in which you will cross these rivers
    1. Ravi-Beas-Ravi-Satluj-Jhelum
    1. Satluj-Beas-Ravi-Chenab-Indus
    1. Satluj-Beas-Ravi-Chenab-Jhelum
    1. Ravi-Beas-Ravi-Satluj-Indus

Solution- 2

Explanation: If one travels vertically upward, he/she will not cross Jhelum as it flows North- West of J&K. Other rivers will come in the sequence as mentioned in option 2.

18.    Suppose you are travelling along the Eastern Ghat on Eastern Coast of India from Northern to Southern region, the sequence in which you will cross these rivers

  1. Krishna-Godavari-Mahanadi-Kaveri
    1. Mahanadi-Krishna -Godavari-Kaveri
    1. Krishna-Godavari-Mahanadi-Kaveri
    1. Mahanadi-Godavari-Krishna-Kaveri

Solution: 4

Explanation: Check the Map of India

  1. Consider the statements w.r.t Ganges Drainage System and Peninsular Drainage System
    1. Peninsular rivers bear the exception of flowing through Rift valleys, like Narmada, while Ganges Rivers have no such feature.
    1. All Peninsular rivers are characterized by fixed course, absence of meanders and non-perennial flow of water while Ganges rivers are perennial, having meanders and have non-fixed courses.

Select the correct statement/s

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both
  4. None

Solution: 4

Explanation: Damodar River, a river Ganges River System occupies the eastern margins of the Chotanagpur Plateau where it flows through a rift valley. So, first statement is wrong.

Peninsular rivers are characterized by fixed course, absence of meanders and non-perennial flow of water. The Narmada and Tapi which flow through the rift valley are, however, exceptions. Hence none of the statements are correct.

20.  Consider the following Dams

  1. Barna Dam                                          Chambal River
  2. Pawna Dam                                         Maval River
  3. Maithoon Dam                                    Barakar River
  4. Gandhi Sagar Dam                              Chambal River

Select the correct options

1. 1, 2 and 3

2. 3 and 4

3. 1, 2, 3 and 4

4. 1, 3 and 4

Solution: 2

Explanation:

Barna Dam: Barna River in MP

Pawna Dam: Maval River in Maharashtra Maithoon Dam: Barakar River in Jharkhand

Gandhi Sagar Dam: Chambal River in MP

21.    Snow line is a line above which no vegetation grows on high altitude mountains because of permanent snow cover. This snow line is higher for Eastern Himalayas compared to that of Western Himalayas. What are the reasons?

Consider the following statements

  1. Eastern Himalayas are near to the Equator.
    1. Western Himalayas are more continental in their location thus has lesser maritime influence.
    1. Southwest monsoon winds have the moderating effect on the Western Himalayas.

Choose the correct code

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Solution- 1

Snowline is a function of altitude and latitude. Higher is the latitude and altitude lower is the snowline. Eastern Himalaya’s altitude as well as latitudinal location is lower compared to Western Himalayas. Due to higher altitude as well as latitude the temperature is much less in the Western Himalaya and as a consequence the snowline in the Western Himalaya is at a lower altitude than in the Eastern Himalaya. Southwest monsoon winds bring more rainfall to Eastern Himalayas than compared to Western Himalayas. Thus monsoon winds can have moderating effect on Eastern Himalayas and in turn increasing the altitude of snowline.  Thus 3rd statement is wrong.

  • Heat waves were in news recently which killed more than 2,500 people in the year 2015 till June.

Consider the following statements regarding heat waves

  1. Heat wave’s adverse impact occurred mainly in Northern and Eastern region of India.
  2. Severe heat waves come under National Calamity just like cold waves.
  3. IMD recommended to declare a region as severe heat waves affected region if temperature reached beyond 45 degree Celsius.
  4. It is a natural calamity found in tropical regions and not in temperate regions.

Choose the correct statement/s from the code

1.   1,  3  only 2. 2, 3, 4 only 3. 1, 2, 3 only

4. All the above

Answer: 1

  • During monsoon season the ITCZ (inter tropical convergence zone) shifts almost upto 25 degree North latitude over the Indian subcontinent while it rarely crosses 15 degree North latitude in other regions. This is because
  1. Vast landmass of Eurasia located to the North of the Equator.
    1. Intense low pressure over the Northwestern region of Indian subcontinent and over the vast, high altitude Tibetan plateau pulls ITCZ Northwards.
    1. Shifting of Westerly jet streams to the North of Tibetan plateau at the end of the month of May.

Choose the correct code from the following

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4

  • The frequency of the cyclones is lower in Arabian sea when compared to Bay of Bengal. This is because
    • Arabian Sea surface temperature is higher compared to that of Bay of Bengal.
    • Bay of Bengal receives the remnants of the typhoons originated in Northwestern Pacific ocean.
    • Arabian Sea receives the remnants of cyclones from Bay of Bengal.

Choose the correct code from the following

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 3

  • Consider the following statements regarding tropical cyclone which is one of the important determining factors for the success of Indian monsoons.
    • These are termed as the heat engines, which derive their energy from the condensation of water vapor into water droplets/drops.
    • More than 50% of the energy derived is utilized to sustain the wind movement around the central eye.
    • A mature cyclone releases energy equivalent to that of 100 hydrogen bombs.

Which of the following statements are NOT TRUE?

  1. 1, 2only.
  2. 1, 3only.
  3. 2 only.
  4. None of the above. Answer: 3

The energy is derived from the condensation of water vapor into water droplets and of this only meager 3% is utilized for sustaining the wind movements.

  • Coal bed methane is released during coal mining and is generally recommended to extract it rather than letting it evaporate into the atmosphere when untapped because
    • CBM if is not extracted can cause fire hazards while mining deep areas.
    • CBM if allowed to escape into atmosphere will get converted into carbon monoxide which is a potent green house gas.

Which of the statements is/are the correct reason/s?

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Neither 1 nor 2.
  4. Both 1 and 2. Answer: 2
  • Consider the following statements regarding the production and reserves of copper in India.
  1. Rajasthan has the largest reserves of copper and is also the highest producer of copper in India.
    1. India is self sufficient in copper production and also at times it has also exportedcopper to countries like Japan, South Korea etc.
    1. Production of copper is a tedious job especially in India as the copper ore found in India as it is of the lower grade compared to International grade of the ore.

Which are the correct statements?

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. 3 only. Answer: 4 Explanation:
  • Consider the following statements regarding biogas which is a very important source of energy in rural areas.
    • Biogas has a higher thermal efficiency compared to charcoal, cow dung, kerosene.
    • Not only biogas serves as a source of energy in the form of fuel but also can be used as source of manure for farm crops.
    • It is slightly less environment friendly as it releases green house gases when burnt as a fuel.

Choose the incorrect code from the following

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 3 only.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1

  1. It as a valuable metal of which the major ore is Wolfram.
  2. It is self hardening which it imparts to the steel when alloyed with the steel.
  3. Steel when alloyed with this metal, is used in manufacturing of ammunitions, armour plates, heavy guns etc.
  4. Its alloys are heat resistant, corrosion resistant and hard facing.

Choose the correct metal from the options

  1. Tungsten
  2. Chromium
  3. Copper
  4. Titanium Answer: 1
  5. Consider the following statements regarding the atomic minerals.
  1. Uranium occurs both in the earth’s crust as well as sea water.
    1. India has one of the richest reserves of thorium in the world.
    1. US have the highest reserves of uranium in the world.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 2 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. All the above. Answer: 2

Australia has the highest reserves of uranium and not the US.

31.  Khadar soils are preferred over Bhangar soils for crop cultivation because

  1. Khadar soils are composed of fine particles than that of Bhangar soil.
    1. Bhangar soils lack in Kankar nodules.

Choose the correct reason from the codes below.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None of theabove.
  5. Answer: 1

32.    Why black soils are treated with cement or hydrated lime during Roadways and railways construction? Consider the reasons

  1. To overcome problems of volume changes due to alternate expansion and shrinkage of soils.
  2. To prevent soil erosion during wet season.
  3. To improve bearing capacity of the soil.

Choose the correct reason from the codes below.

  1. 1, 2 only.
    1. 2, 3 only.
    1. 1, 3 only.
    1. All the above.

Answer: 4

33.  Although laterite soils are formed in regions with high rainfall and high temperature, it requires good dosage of manures. What are the reasons?

  1. Intense leaching because of high rainfall.
  2. Lack or less availability of humus.

Choose the correct code from the following

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3

Intense leaching is caused by heavy rainfall which leaches silica and makes soil a bit acidic. High rainfall also inhibits humus formation with decreased bacterial activity.

34.   Left hand side is the region and right hand side is the major reason in that region for soil degradation.

  1. Odisha, Jharkhand — deforestation and mining.
  2. Rajasthan, Maharashtra — over irrigation.
  3. Punjab, Haryana — over-grazing.

Which are correctly matched?

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 2 only.
  3. All the above.
  4. None of the above.
  5. Answer: 1

Overgrazing is mainly the reason in the western India ie Rajasthan, Maharastra while over irrigation is the major reason in the North Western India ie Punjab, Haryana.

35.   Black soils are known for its fertility with little or no evidence of exhaustion. This is because

  1. Black soils with equal proportion of clay, gravel and coarse sand has high moisture retention capacity.
  2. Cracks developed during dry season allow oxygenation of the soils.
  3. Black soil has low level of Kankar thus supports wide variety of crops.

Choose the incorrect reason from the codes below

  1. 2 Only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 1

36.  Consider the statements regarding red and yellow soils.

  1. Soil looks yellowish when iron diffused in the soil gets hydrated.
  2. Red and yellow soils are mainly found in the deltaic regions especially in the Eastern Indian coast.
  3. Less fertile coarser soils are found in the uplands while fertile fine soils occur in the low lying regions.

Which are the correct statements?

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 2 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. 2, 3 only. Answer: 3

37.  Consider the following statements regarding a particular soil

  1. Found in the summits of Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats, Vindhyas, Satpuras and Malwa plateau.
    1. Subjected to intense leaching and thus not fit for agriculture unless manures and fertilizers are used.
    1. It is the end product of weathering process and thus it is indefinitely durable.

Which is the soil that is spoken about in the above statements?

  1. Forest soil.
  2. Mountain Soil.
  3. Laterite soil.
  4. Red soil.

Answer: 3

Although first two statements ie 1 and 2 do comply with mountain soil and forest soil, the third statement is unique for laterite soil.

38.   Consider the statements regarding salinization which is a one of the major problem, reducing Indian agricultural productivity.

  1. In drier regions, capillary action can lead to salt accumulation on the surface of the land which is brought from the deep saline ground water tables.
    1. Irrigation can result in salinization of soils.
    1. It can occur both naturally as well as artificially.

Choose the correct statements from the codes given below.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2, 3only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4

  1. In humid regions, there is enough precipitation to leach (wash) the salts below the plant root zone.
  2. In drier regions, higher temperature leads to higher evaporation of water resulting into leaving behind of salt on the surface of the soil.
  3. Soil salinization occurring due to irrigation can equally impact both humid areas as well as drier areas.

Choose the correct statement from the code given below

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 1 only.
  3. 2 only.
  4. 3 only. Answer: 1

40.    Laterite soils and Forest soils are acidic in nature. What is the reason for this?

  1. High rainfalls leach away the cations into sub soil region.
  2. Trees and plants absorb the cations necessary for their development.
  3. Cations are washed away along with running water and drained into sea/ocean.
  4. None of the above reasons are correct.

Answer: 1

41.  The best way to improve crop production in India is to increase the crop intensity ie by increasing gross sown area.

Which is not the hindering factor involved in improving the crop intensity?

  1. Infertile soil.
  2. Deficiency in moisture, especially in rain fed region.
  3. Insufficient usage of manures and fertilizers.
  4. Large tracts of black soil.

Answer: 4

42.     In India El Nino can have comparatively lesser impact on Sugarcane and Urad Production

What are the reasons?

  1. Sugarcane is largely grown under irrigated areas.
  2. Urad is mainly grown in regions where rainfall variability is very low.
  3. Urad is drought resistant crop.
  4. Sugarcane although a kharif crop requires very less water.

Choose the right pair of reasons from the codes below

1)   1, 2

2)   1, 3

3)   2, 4

4)   3, 4

Answer: 2

43.   Ragi, millet is currently encouraged to include in the diet to supplement nutrients to counter the malnutrition that is haunting the country.

Consider the following statements Ragi.                

  1. Ragi is rich in iron, calcium, rough phage and is mainly grown in dry regions.
  2. Among minor producers Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand are included.
  3. It is grown as a major crop in Bengaluru-Mysuru table land from where the country’s Majority of Ragi production comes from.

Choose the correct statements from the code below.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above. Answer: 4

44.    Tea best grows in Assam, Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts of West Bengal. What is/are the uniqueness of this region which suits this crop?

  1. It has warm and humid climate.
  2. Showers are mainly concentrated in 4-5 months ie June to October in any year.
  3. Deep, fertile and well drained soil.
  4. Rugged topography of the relief near the Himalayan foot hills.

Choose the correct code.

1)   1, 2, 3 only

2)  1, 3 only

3)   1, 3, 4 only.

4) All the above. Answer: 2

45.  Indian agriculture is termed to be an Intensive Subsistence Farming type. What are the characteristic that has made Indian agriculture to be categorized into that type?

  1. Very high population density.
  2. Labour intensive farming.
  3. Lower yield of production in terms of per capita labour force.
  4. Very small and fragmented land holdings.
  5. Usage of farm machinery.

Choose the correct code from the following.

1) 1,   2, 3 only

2) 1,   2, 3, 4 only

3) 2, 3, 4 only

4) All the above

Answer: 2

46.   Kerala has outpaced every other state in the country in terms of Rubber production. The reasons being

  1. It has hot and humid climate with precipitation more than 200cms annually.
  2. Very small dry spell during summers for 2-3 months.
  3. Well drained red soil with gentle slope and no stagnation of water.

Choose the correct reason/s from the code below.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 2 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 2

Kerala largely has laterite soil and not red soil.

47.   Sugarcane grown in subtropical region has lower productivity than that is grown in tropical regions.

Consider the following statements about subtropical region ie Northern India which has low productivity in sugarcane production.

  1. Frost formations.
  2. Floods and water logging.
  3. High diurnal temperature.
  4. Low humidity.

Choose the correct reason/s from the codes below.

  1. 1, 2 only
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 3, 4 only. 4) 1, 2, 3 only.

Answer: 1

First two statements are self explanatory.

A higher diurnal temperature and low humidity are required for a better productivity. Thus these two factors are not reducing the productivity.

48.    The productivity in the Indian agriculture has stagnated since 1990’s although the usage of fertilizers has considerably increased since then. What is/are the possible reason/s?

  1. Unscientific usage of fertilizers.
  2. Agriculture productivity in India has reached a zenith position and any further increase in the productivity cannot come through increase in the usage of fertilizers.
  3. Increasing monsoon vagaries because of Climate Change.
  4. Both 1 and 3.

Answer: 4

49.  What are the factors that have favoured the Wheat production in North West India?

  1. Western disturbances.
  2. Fertile alluvial soil brought down mainly by Indus and Ganga river system.
  3. Semi arid region.

Choose the correct code from the following.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 1

North West India does have semi arid region but that itself is not a favourable characteristic,

it’s the Western disturbance that favours Wheat production.

50.   Although green revolution brought a great success for our country during later 1960’s it also brought in few negatives. What are those negatives?

  1. Inter crop disparity.
  2. Inter personal inequalities.
  3. Environmental pollution.
  4. Regional economic disparity.
  5. Unemployment.
  6. Self sufficiency in all types of agricultural crop production.

Choose the correct code from the following.

1) 1, 2, 3 only

2) 1, 3, 4, 5 only

3)   1, 2, 3, 4, 5 only

4)   1, 2, 3, 4, 6 only

Answer: 3

51.  Consider the statements regarding a particular valley which was in the news recently.

  1. It is a part of Gangotri National Park.
  2. It is a cold desert and looks like a replica of Tibetan plateau.
  3. It is home for Snow Leopard.

Which is that valley?

  1. Nellong valley.
  2. Kashmir valley.
  3. Alaknanda valley.
  4. Bhagirathi valley.

Answer: 1

52.  Central Zoo Authority, a body set up in 1992 for the oversight of zoos. Consider the following statements regarding CZA.

  1. It is set up under the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972.
  2. It is an affiliated member of World Association of Zoos and Aquarium.
  3. It doesn’t have the power to regulate the trade of endangered species.

Choose the correct statements from the following code.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 1

It does have the power to regulate the trade of endangered species. Apart from that it also has the power to regulate and approve the exchange of animals between Indian and foreign zoos.

53.    The trees found in Western side of Western Ghats and in the Northeast region

Generally don’t shed their leaves i.e they are evergreen. What are the possible reasons?

  1. These regions do not have prolonged dry season.
  2. These regions don’t have severe winters.
  3. These regions have the humidity level beyond 75% almost throughout the year.

Choose the correct reason/s from the codes below.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. 1, 2 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4

Prolonged dry season and severe winters do result in shedding of leaves by trees.

Tropical deciduous trees shed their leaves during dry season because of excess evaporation and temperate deciduous trees shed their leaves during severe winters.

54.   In Tamil Nadu region, evergreen forests are found despite hot and dry summers with temperature of about 28 degree Celsius.

What is/are the reason/s?

  1. Annual rainfall of about 100cms mostly from the North East monsoon winds during October to December.
  2. A humidity of more than 75% throughout the year.
  3. Red and yellow soil found in Tamil Nadu region can retain moisture well.
  4. Both 1 and 2. Answer: 4

Humidity is the main reason for trees not shedding their leaves during prolonged dry seasons. Red and Yellow soils are not good at retaining moisture unlike Black soil which is very good at retaining moisture.

55.   Himalayan yew is a plant found in Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh was in news recently.

Consider the following statements regarding the plant.

  1. It is a medicinal plant.
  2. A chemical compound called ‘Taxol ‘obtained from the plant is used as an effective

Anti-TB drug

Choose the incorrect statements from code below.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both are true.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2

56.    Enrich plantation is something in which a single commercially valuable species is extensively planted in a region and other local species are eliminated.

Consider the statements regarding Enrich plantation.

  1. Teak monoculture has damaged the natural forest majorly in Northeast India which was earlier introduced by British.
  2. Chir, Pine plantations in the Himalayas have replaced the Himalayan Oak and Rhododendron forests.

Choose the correct statements from the code below.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2

57.  Few forests in India are protected under the name of Sacred Grooves. Consider the following statements regarding Sacred Grooves.

  1. It is a nature worship which is an age old belief based on the premise that all the creations of the mother Nature have to be protected.
  2. It is recognized under Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following code.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None of the above. Answer: 3

58.  Migration is an unavoidable worldwide phenomenon.

Which among the following is/are the not the push factors for rural to urban migration especially in India.

  1. Unemployment.
  2. Health and education facilities.
  3. Monsoon vagaries.
  4. Caste disabilities.

Answer: 2

59.   Developing countries like India has an adverse sex ratio of less than 1000 while in developed countries it is more than 1000. [Sex ratio: It is the number of females in a country for every 1000 males]

What is/are the possible reason/s with reference to India?

  1. Social disadvantages that female face like female foeticide, female infanticide, domestic violence etc.
  • Stopping at one child ie couples restrain themselves from going for second child provided the first child born is male.

Choose the correct code from the following.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3

60.   Which is/are the country/s in the world to use Gross National Happiness to measure the progress of the country?

Consider the countries.

  1. India.
  2. Bangladesh.
  3. Sweden.
  4. Bhutan.

Choose the country/s from the code below.

  1. 1, 4 only.
  2. 2, 4 only.
  3. 3 only.
  4. 4 only. Answer: 4

61.  Consider the statements regarding our Solar System.

  1. Pluto is the largest dwarf planet revolving around the Sun.
  2. Every planet except Venus rotates from West to East just like Earth on its own axis.
  3. It is nuclear fusion which takes place within the Sun which releases huge heat energy.

Choose the correct statements from the following code.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. 3 only.

Answer: 4

62.   Earth although has an average density of 5.5 g/cm^3, its core has a density of more than 11 g/cm^3.

What are the possible reasons?

  1. Core is formed of materials like iron, nickel etc which has higher density.
  2. Incumbent pressure from the overlaying rocks.
  3. High temperature prevalent in the core region [more than 5000 degree Celsius].

Choose the correct code from the following.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 1

High temperature need not result into higher density.

63.  There are different discontinuities within the Earth’s internal structure. Which are the

Discontinuities that have been incorrectly matched with its/their respective locations ?

  1. Mohorvic discontinuity — boundary between Core and Mantle.
  2. Wiechert-Gutenberg discontinuity — boundary between Crust and Mantle.
  3. Conrad discontinuity – located at a depth of 15-20kms from the Earth’s surface.

Choose the correct code from the following.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 3 only.
  4. 2 only.

Answer: 1

64.  Consider the statements regarding Earth’s interior and seismic waves.

  1. Primary waves totally disappear in the core region revealing that outer core is made up of liquid.
  2. Secondary waves show changes in its speed as it travels from magma chamber to lithosphere region indicating difference in density.
  3. The speed of secondary waves is highest inside the Earth’s Core region indicating

Highest density in the Core region

Choose the correct statement/s from the code below.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. 1, 3only.
  4. 2, 3 only. Answer: 2

65.  Earth experiences seasons in a rhythmic fashion. What are the causative factors?

  1. Rotation of the Earth on its own axis.
  2. Revolution of the Earth in its orbit around the Sun.
  3. Spherical shape of the Earth.
  4. Earth’s tilted axis.
  • Axial parallelism.

Choose the correct code from the following.

1)  1,  2 only. 2) 1, 2, 3 only

3)   1, 2, 4, 5 only

4)   All the above.

Answer: 4

66.   Winter solstice for Northern Hemisphere generally is on 22nd or 21st December every year.

Consider the statements regarding winter solstice in Northern Hemisphere.

  1. The circle of illumination excludes the North Pole region from Sunlight.
  2. From 66.5 degree south to 90 degree south, the Sun remains below the horizon the entire day.
  3. Arctic Circle is the Southernmost parallel in the Northern Hemisphere that experiences a 24 hour period of darkness on this day.

Choose the correct statements from the codes below.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2 only.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2

67.  Paleomagnetism is the past magnetism of Earth stored in a rock.

Which among the following type of rocks provides most reliable readings of magnetism at a particular time?

  1. Igneous rocks.
  2. Sedimentary rocks.
  3. Metamorphic rocks.
  4. All the above rock types are equally reliable. Answer: 1

Increasing reliability of the rocks: igneous > sedimentary > metamorphic.

68.    Earth’s magnetosphere is the area around the Earth where the geomagnetic field

Stretches out into space

Consider the following statements regarding magnetosphere.

  1. It is uneven in shape as it stretches largely towards the Sun because of Sun’s magnetic field.
  2. Solar winds can have influence on the Earth’s magnetosphere.
  3. This sphere deflects the charged particles that approach the Earth’s surface.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following codes.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 2

69.  Plasma is one of the four fundamental states of matter. Consider the following statements.

  1. It doesn’t have volume but has shape.
  2. It is the most abundant form of matter.
  3. Gas or air can be turned into plasma when artificially ionized.

Choose the correct statements from the codes below.

  1. 3 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. 1 only.

Answer: 3

70.  Sun spots are the one found on the outer surface of the Sun. Consider the statements regarding Sun spots.

  1. Sun spots region generally have lower temperature than the surrounding region on the Sun’s outer surface.
  2. Sun spots do not have any effect on Earth’s climate.
  3. Each period of weak Sun spot activity co-relates with the period of overall high solar

Radiation output from the Sun’s surface.

  • Sun spots generally have 11 year cycle.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following codes.

1)  1, 2 only.

2) 1, 3, 4 only. 3) 1, 2, 4 only

4) 2, 4 only.

Answer: 2

71.  Continental Drift theory by Wegener changed the perceptions about the Earth’s crust.

Consider the statements regarding this theory.

  1. Sialic masses used to float over the Sima without any resistance being offered by Sima.
  2. Earlier all land masses were united to form a massive landmass known as

‘Panthalasa’.

  • Ocean floors were considered to be stable and never moved.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2

72.  Consider the statements regarding different types of plates in ‘Plate Tectonic Theory’.

  1. Destructive plate boundary is one in which continuous upwelling of molten material ie lava takes place.
  2. Divergent plate boundary is one which two plates slide past one another thus neither creating nor destroying continental landmass.
  3. Convergent plate boundary is one in which one plate overrides the other plate.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following code.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 3

73.  Consider the statements regarding geysers which are special type of hot springs.

  1. Hot water and vapour spouts from geyser tube intermittently.
  2. It represents the minor form of broader processes of vulcancity.
  3. It is found only in tropical regions.

Choose the incorrect statement/s from the following code.

  1. 2, 3 only.
  2. 1, 2 only.
  3. 2 only.
  4. 3 only.

Answer: 4

74.  Consider the statements regarding earthquake (seismology).

  1. Primary waves are analogous to sound waves and it can travel through liquid medium.
  2. Secondary waves are analogous to water ripples and it cannot pass through liquid medium.
  3. Surface waves are most destructive and slowest among the three waves (primary, secondary, surface waves).

Choose the incorrect statement/s from the following codes.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 4

64.  Consider the statements regarding volcanoes.

  1. More than 95% of the global volcanoes are along the plate boundaries.
  2. High intensity volcano types like Vesuvius type, Peelean type etc are concentrated in the convergent plate boundaries.
  3. Low intensity volcano like Mid Atlantic Ridge are concentrated in the divergent plate boundary regions.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following codes.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4

65.  Every relief can be classified into different types of reliefs.

Match the following.

  1. 1st Order relief — continental plates.
  2. 2nd Order relief — plains and deltas.
  3. 3rd Order relief — Fold Mountains.

Choose the correctly matched pair from the following codes.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 2 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1

66.  Weathering is the basic and first step in soil formation. Consider the statements regarding weathering.

  1. The rate of weathering increases with increasing steepness of the slope.
  2. Mechanical weathering is higher in humid regions than in drier regions.
  3. Chemical weathering is higher in drier regions than in humid regions.

Choose the correct statement/s from the codes below.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 1

67.  Mass wasting or mass movement is a common phenomenon at the foothills of big, steep mountains like Himalayas, Atlas etc.

Consider the following statements regarding mass wasting.

  1. Rock debris that moves down the hill is mainly derived from weathering.
  • The rock debris moves down mainly because of earthquake, volcano, moving water etc.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following codes.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None of the above. Answer: 1

Rock debris move under the influence of Gravitational force and this movement is aided or triggered by volcano, earthquake, moving water etc.

68.  Natural levees are depositional landforms on either side of the banks of a river. What are the disadvantages of natural levees?

  1. Levees if breached can cause catastrophic floods.
  2. Levee forming regions cannot be used for agricultural purposes.
  3. Levee formation leads to sedimentation of river basins.

Choose the correct disadvantage/s from the following codes.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 3

80.  Arcuate deltas are the most common type of deltas, example being Ganga delta, Rhine delta, Nile delta etc.

Consider the following statements regarding this type of delta.

  1. It is formed when river water is denser than sea water.
  2. It is formed when river water is as dense as sea water.
  3. It is known as growing delta.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following codes.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. 2, 3 only. Answer: 4

81.  The atmosphere is a gaseous envelope which surrounds Earth’s surface. Consider the following statements regarding the Earth’s atmosphere.

  1. Rotation of Earth helps in binding of atmosphere to Earth’s surface.
  2. It sustains life on the Earth by not allowing Earth to become too hot or too cold.
  3. Content of water vapour increases from the equator towards the poles.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following code.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 2

82.  Troposphere being the weather layer is the most important layer. Consider the statements regarding this weather layer.

  1. The height of the troposphere increases from Equator to the Poles.
  2. The height of the troposphere is comparatively more during the summer season than in the winter season.
  3. The height of the troposphere doesn’t get affected by the change in seasons.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following code.

  1. 2 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. 3 only.

Answer: 1

83.  Consider the following

  1. These clouds are one of the highest clouds in the atmosphere
  • They are also called thunderheads and produce rains, thunder and lightning

Select the correct answer based on above statements

  1. Stratocumulus
  2. Cumulonimbus
  3. Nimbostratus
  4. Cirrocumulus Answer- 2

73.   Consider the statements regarding insolation which is nothing but the radiant energy received from the Sun in the form of heat and light.

  1. Insolation received on the surface of the Earth decreases from Equator to the Poles.
  2. During Summer Solstice, maximum insolation received at the ground surface is between the 30 to 40 degree South latitudes.
  3. Insolation received is comparatively higher in the outer limit of the atmosphere than that is on the surface of the Earth.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following codes.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 3

85.   Generally the incoming solar radiations are absorbed, scattered and reflected in the atmosphere. Based on the above statement which of the following is/are correctly matched?

  1. Clouds — reflection.
  2. Atmospheric gases — scattering.
  3. Dust particles, haze — absorption.

Choose the correct code from the codes below.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 2 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above. Answer: 1

Atmospheric gases especially green house gases absorb radiations and heat up the atmosphere. Dust particles and haze are largely involved in the scattering of the light.

86.  Consider the statements regarding the cyclones.

  1. In a cyclone, the air circulation is anti-clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
  2. Tropical cyclones being embedded in the Trade winds, in general move from East to West.
  3. Temperate cyclones being embedded in the Westerlies, in general move from West to East.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following codes.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4

87.     The atmospheric temperature significantly varies in its distribution pattern. The factors that are the reason for this variability include

  1. Sign of latitude.
  2. Land and water distribution.
  3. Oceanic currents.

Choose the correct reason from the following codes.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above. Answer: 4

88.   Temperature anomaly is the deviation of temperature either more or less than the average of the surrounding region.

Consider the statements regarding the same.

  1. Positive anomaly is the record of higher temperature than the normal which is identified over the land in lower latitudes during day time.
  2. Negative normally is the record of lower temperature than the normal which is identified over the sea in higher latitudes during night time.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both the above.
  4. None of the above. Answer: 1

89.   The extreme cold winters in the Central low lands of U.S.A is due to a particular polar wind.

Which is that wind?

  1. Loo.
  2. Blizzard.
  3. Harmattan.
  4. Chinook. Answer: 2.

90.  Temperature in the Stratosphere increases because of the presence of Ozone. This Ozone       the sunlight

  1. Absorbs.
  2. Scatters.
  3. Reflects.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1

91.  Coral reefs destruction is a major concern in the backdrop of Climate Change. Consider the statements regarding the coral reefs.

  1. Coral reefs are example of a symbiotic relation between coral polyps and photosynthetic algae.
  2. Coral reefs are confined to deep waters.
  3. Coral reefs are marine equivalent of tropical rain forest.

Which of the statement/s is/are true?

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 3

92.   Continental rise is a feature found on the boundary of the continental slope. Consider the statements regarding the continental rise.

  1. Continental rise are comprised of the finer textured smaller materials.
  2. Continental rise are found only in the active boundary continental slope.

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both the above.
  4. None of the above. Answer: 1

93.  Consider the following statements.

  1. Pelagic waters are the surface waters between two shorelines extensive upto the depth of 500 meters.
  2. Benthic waters extend from the depth of 500 meters to the base of the ocean.

Which of the following statement/s is/are true?

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both the above.
  4. None of the above. Answer: 3

94.   A particular ocean has a broad shape of ‘S’ in the North South orientation. Which is that ocean?

  1. Atlantic Ocean.
  2. Pacific Ocean.
  3. Indian Ocean.
  4. Southern Ocean. Answer: 1.

95.   In which part of the ocean does the typical example of reversal of ocean current can be observed which is guided by the planetary wind system?

  1. Northern part of Indian Ocean.
  2. Southern part of Indian Ocean.
  3. North Atlantic Ocean.
  4. South Pacific Ocean.

Answer: 1

96.  Which of the statements are true regarding Equatorial climatic conditions?

  1. It is known as latitudinal climate.
  2. Low range of temperature is mainly due to the equatorial air mass.
  3. There is no seasonality in this region or there are no distinguished seasons unlike other climatic regions.

Which among the following statement/s is/are true?

  1. 3 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 2 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4

97.  Consider the statements regarding the Mediterranean climate.

  1. During summers this climatic region comes under the influence of On-shore Westerly wind.
  2. During winters this climatic region comes under the influence of Off-shore Trade wind.
  3. Atmospheric stability exists over the region during summers because of anti-cyclonic conditions.

Which of the statement/s is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 3 only.
  3. All the above.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2

During summers this climatic region comes under the influence of Off-shore Trade winds. During winters this climatic region comes under the influence of On-shore Westerly wind.

98.   Desert is mainly located in the tropical West margins of the continents. What is/are the possible reason/s?

  1. Existence of the perennial high pressure over this region.
  2. Prevailing On-shore winds throughout the year.
  3. Cold currents on the continental west margins add to the atmospheric stability of the region.

Choose the correct code from the following.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 2 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. 2, 3 only.

Answer: 3

Second statement: it is Off-shore winds and not On-shore winds the blows over this region. This winds carry no moisture thus causes no precipitation.

Ex of cold currents: canaries current in the Atlantic East coast, West Australian current in the West continental margins of Australia etc.

99.   Atacama Desert is one of the driest deserts of the world. Apart from other reasons there is a particular current which has made it a driest desert. Which is that current?

  1. Benguela current.
  2. Okhotsk current.
  3. Peruvian current.
  4. None of the above. Answer: 3.

100.       Frank Joseph land of Russia makes the northern most limit of summer vegetation in Tundra climate. Which is the type of precipitation that occurs in this region that supports this vegetation?

  1. A very low cyclonic depression that causes light rainfall in the form of snow fall.
  2. Frontal precipitation that causes precipitation in the form of snow fall.
  3. Convectional type of precipitation.
  4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 2

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Energy Transition Index

World Economic Forum has released its global Energy Transition index. The annual list ranks 115 economies on their ability to balance energy security and access with environmental sustainability and affordability.

The index considers both the current state of the countries’ energy system and their structural readiness to adapt to future energy needs.

Performance of various countries:

Sweden retained its top spot on the list, followed by Switzerland and Norway in the second and third positions respectively.

The United States, which is placed at the 27th position, was found to have made progress in reducing the use of coal in power generation. It slipped in the rankings by two places due to concerns surrounding affordability of energy to households and regulatory uncertainty on environmental sustainability

The developing countries in Asia, on the other hand, showed significant improvements towards universal access to electricity led by India (76), Indonesia (63) and Bangladesh (90).

Key observations on India’s performance:

  1. India was found to be amongst the countries with high pollution levels and relatively high CO2 intensity in its energy system. Despite this, the report found that India has made significant strides to improve energy access in recent years and currently scores well in the area of regulation and political commitment towards energy transition.
  2. While India scored low in terms of system performance, it ranks considerably higher when it comes to readiness to adapt to future energy needs. Overall, India has moved up two places from its 78th position in 2018.
  3. India is among the five economies that have managed to improve their rank since last year.
  4. In the BRICS bloc of emerging economies, India was ranked second best, only after Brazil.

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Global Peace Index

Global Peace Index (GPI) measures the relative position of nations’ and regions’ peacefulness. The GPI gauges global peace using three broad themes: the level of societal safety and security, the extent of ongoing domestic and international conflict and the degree of militarization.

The Global Peace Index (GPI) published by Australia-based Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) is an attempt to measure the relative position of nations’ and regions’ peacefulness. It is developed in consultation with an international panel of peace experts from peace institutes and think tanks with data collected and collated by the Economist Intelligence Unit.

The list was first launched in May 2007 and updates have been made on an annual basis since then. It is claimed to be the first study to rank countries around the world according to their peacefulness.

Method of assessing Peace

The GPI measures global peace using three broad themes: the level of societal safety and security, the extent of ongoing domestic and international conflict and the degree of militarization Both external factors such as military expenditures, wars and internal factors such as the levels of violence and crime within the country are considered.

Global Peace Index – 2018

India’s rank has marginally improved in “global peacefulness”, at a time when there is an overall decline of global peace owing to the escalation of violence in West Asia and North Africa.

India’s GPI rank was 137 out of 163 countries in 2017, when the year 2016 was assessed. In 2018, when the year 2017 is assessed, India’s rank moved up to 136.

Iceland continues to remain the most peaceful country in the world, a position it has held since 2008.

Syria remained the least peaceful country in the world, a position that it had held for the past five years.

South Asian countries

  1. The best performer of South Asia, Bhutan, has slipped from 13 to 19.
  2. Bangladesh’ peace index deteriorated sharply. Bangladesh moved from 84 to 93.
  3. Nepal moved up from 93 to 84, while
  4. Sri Lanka moved up too, from position 80 to 67.
  5. Pakistan moved from 152 to 151.


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Interim Budget 2019-20

What is Budget?

The Union Budget of India also referred to as the Annual Financial Statement in the Article 112 of the Constitution of India, is the annual budget of the Republic of India. The Government presents it on the first day of February so that it could be materialized before the commencement of new financial year in April. Till 2016 it was presented on the last working day of February by the Finance Minister of India in Parliament. The budget, which is presented by means of the Finance bill and the Appropriation bill, has to be passed by both the Houses before it can come into effect from April 1, the start of India’s financial year.

What is an interim budget?

An interim budget is the budget of a regime or administration that is going through a period of transition. It is very much similar to a full budget as the government presents expenses for the current fiscal and makes projections for the upcoming fiscal year through it. An interim budget is also a detailed set of accounts that includes expenditure and receipts and also the complete financial statement.

When is an interim budget presented?

The government presents an interim budget if it does not have time to present a full Budget or if the general elections may be in the near future. So usually, in an election year, the outgoing government presents an interim budget and the task of framing the full budget is left for the next government.

Why do we need an interim budget?

The government needs Interim Budget to work during the time it takes for a new government to make its own fiscal plan. The budget for the year permitted by Parliament gives the government spending rights only till 31st March i.e. end of the financial year.

If for any reason the government is unable to present a full budget before the fiscal year ends, it will require parliamentary authority for incurring expenses in the new financial year until a full Budget is presented. The Parliament, via interim Budget, passes a vote-on account that permits the government to meet the expenses of the government until the new Parliament passes the Budget for the whole year.

What is the difference between interim and regular budget?

In an interim budget, the vote-on-account asks for Parliament’s approval for incurring expenditure for part of a financial year. The estimates are presented for the whole year, as is the case with the regular Budget. The new administration has the full right to change the estimates fully when the final Budget is presented.

Can the government declare new taxes and policies?

The government can make changes in tax in the interim budget under the Constitution. The 12 interim budgets since India’s Independence have refrained from declaring big-ticket changes or new schemes. At the same time, numerous governments, including the Congress-led UPA in 2009, have not shied away from making policy statements in interim budgets.

Difference between Interim Budget and Vote on Account

An Interim Budget is not the same as a ‘Vote on Account’. While a ‘Vote on Account’ deals only with the expenditure side of the government’s budget, an Interim Budget is a complete set of accounts, including both expenditure and receipts.

Highlights of interim Budget 2019-20

Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi

New Scheme- namely “Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)” to extend direct income support at the rate of Rs. 6,000 per year to farmer families, having cultivable land upto 2 hectares is announced. The estimated outlay for the scheme is Rs.75, 000 crore.

Under this Government of India funded Scheme, Rs.2, 000 each will be transferred to the bank accounts of around 12 crore Small and Marginal farmer families, in three equal installments. This programme would be made effective from 1st December 2018 and the first installment for the period upto 31st March 2019 would be paid during this year itself.

Separate Department of Fisheries

To provide sustained and focused attention towards development of Fisheries, the Government has decided to create a separate Department of Fisheries. Finance Minister said that through the measure, the Government wants to promote further growth over 7% to promote livelihood of about 1.45 crore people dependent on the sector.

The Finance Minister announced 2% interest subvention to the farmers pursuing the activities of animal husbandry and fisheries, who avail loan through Kisan Credit Card. Further, in case of timely repayment of loan, they will also get an additional 3% interest subvention.

Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog

Setting up of “Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog” to upscale sustainable genetic upgradation of cow resources and to enhance production and productivity of cows has also been announced. The Aayog will also look after effective implementation of laws and welfare schemes for cow.

Pradhan Mantri Shram-Yogi Maandhan

To provide pensionary benefits to at least 10 crore labourers and workers in the unorganised sector a new Scheme called ‘Pradhan Mantri Shram-Yogi Maandhan’ is announced. The Finance Minister said that within next five years it would be one of the largest pension schemes of the world. A sum of Rs.500 crore has been allocated for the Scheme. Additional funds will be provided as needed, Shri Goyal added. The scheme will also be implemented from the current year, he said.

Tax Benefits

1. Individual taxpayers having taxable annual income up to Rs.5 lakhs will not be required to pay any income tax. Tax benefit of Rs. 18,500 crore is proposed to be provided to an estimated 3 crore middle class and small taxpayers comprising self employed, small business, small traders, salary earners, pensioners and senior citizens.

2. For salaried persons, Standard Deduction is being raised from the current Rs.40, 000 to Rs.50, 000. This will provide additional tax benefit of Rs. 4,700 crore to more than 3 crore salary earners and pensioners.

3. Exemption on levy of income tax on notional rent on a second self-occupied house is also now proposed. Currently, income tax on notional rent is payable if one has more than one self-occupied house.

4. TDS threshold on interest earned on bank/post office deposits is being raised from Rs. 10,000 to Rs.40, 000.

5. TDS threshold for deduction of tax on rent is proposed to be increased from Rs. 1, 80,000 to Rs.2, 40,000 for providing relief to small taxpayers.

Inflation

The Finance Minister said that the Government has been successful in bringing down average inflation to 4.6% over last five years, which is lower than the inflation during the tenure of any other Government. In fact Inflation in December 2018 was down to 2.19% only. The average rate of inflation during previous five years 2009-2014 was a backbreaking 10.1%, he pointed out.

Fiscal Deficit

The fiscal deficit has been brought down to 3.4% in 2018-19 Revised Estimates from the high of almost 6% seven years ago, the Finance Minister mentioned. He said, the Current Account Deficit (CAD), against a high of 5.6% six years ago, is likely to be only 2.5% of GDP this year.

Enhanced allocations for major Schemes

1. Announcing an allocation of Rs.60, 000 crores for MGNREGA for Budget Estimates 2019-20, the Finance Minister said that additional allocations will be made, if required.

2. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) is being allocated Rs.19, 000 crore in BE 2019-20 as against Rs.15, 500 crore in RE 2018-19. During the period 2014-18, a total number of 1.53 crore houses have been built under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana, he announced.      

3. By March, 2019, all households will be provided with electricity connection. Till now, 143 crore LED bulbs have been provided in a mission mode which has resulted in saving of Rs.50, 000 crore for the poor and middle class.

4. He said through the world’s largest healthcare programme, Ayushman Bharat, to provide medical treatment to nearly 50 crore people in the country, around 10 lakh patients have already benefited through free treatment for medical treatment which would have otherwise cost them Rs. 3,000 crore. Lakhs of poor and middle class people are also benefiting from reduction in the prices of essential medicines, cardiac stents and knee implants, and availability of medicines at affordable prices through Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Kendras, the Finance Minister added.

5. Shri Goyal also said that 14 of the 21 AIIMS operating or being established in the country presently have been announced since 2014. He also announced setting up of a new – the 22nd AIIMS in Haryana

6. Allocation for Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) is being increased from Rs.23, 357 crore in RE 2018-19 to Rs.27, 584 crore in BE 2019-20.

7. A substantial increase is proposed in the allocation for welfare of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The allocation of Rs.56, 619 crore made in BE of 2018-19 for Scheduled Caste, further increased to Rs.62, 474 crore in RE is proposed to be enhanced to Rs.76, 801 crore in BE for 2019-20, an increase of 35.6% over BE of 2018-19. For the Scheduled Tribes also, proposed allocation in 2019-20 BE is Rs.50, 086 crore as against Rs.39, 135 crore in BE 2018-19, an increase of 28%.

8. The Finance Minister said that a Welfare Development Board to frame special strategies for the benefit of the hard-to-reach De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic communities will be set up under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. He said that a Committee under NITI Aayog will also be set up to complete the task of identifying Denotified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic communities not yet formally classified.

9. Shri Goyal said under the Ujjwala Yojana aiming delivery of 8 crore free LPG connections, more than 6 crore connections have already been given and the remaining will get free gas connections by next year.

10. The Finance Minister announced that a National Artificial Intelligence Portal will also be developed soon as a part of the National Programme on ‘Artificial Intelligence.

11. The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion will now be renamed as the Department for Promotion of Industries and Internal Trade.

12. The Finance Minister stated that the Government e-Marketplace (GeM), created by the present Government two years ago, resulted in average savings of 25-28% and the platform will now be extended to all CPSEs. Transactions of over Rs. 17,500 crore have taken place so far.

13. The Finance Minister announced that for the first time, the country’s Defence Budget will be of over Rs.3 lakh crore.

14. The Finance Minister, Shri Piyush Goyal pointed-out that domestic air traffic passengers have doubled during the last five years, leading to large number of jobs also being created. The number of operational airports has crossed 100 with the commissioning of the Pakyong airport in Sikkim. Arunachal Pradesh came on the air map recently and Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram have come on India’s rail map for the first time.

15. Capital support from the budget for Indian Railways is proposed at Rs.64, 587 crore in 2019-20 (BE). The Railways’ overall capital expenditure programme is of Rs. 1, 58,658 crore. The Finance Minister, who is also holding the portfolio of Railway Ministry, announced that the Operating Ratio is expected to improve from 98.4% in 2017-18 to 96.2% in 2018-19 (RE) and further to 95% in 2019-20 (BE).

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