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Q.1) With reference to the calculation of Gross Domestic Product (GDP), consider the following:

1. Commission of a real estate agent in the sale of a property

2. Sale of a used car

3. Components such as tyres sold for car manufacture

Which of the following are not included in its calculation?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.2) With reference to National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC), consider the following statements:

1. It is the statutory organisation under Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.

2. It strengthens and promotes programmes across sectors relating to agriculture and allied fields

3. Recently it launched Yuva Sahakar – Cooperative Enterprise Support and Innovation

Scheme

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.3) With reference to the Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) rankings, consider the following statements:

1. It is published by the World Bank

2. The Doing Business report ranks countries on the basis of distance to frontier (DTF), a score that shows the gap of an economy to the global average.

3. India’s rank has been constantly improving since 2014.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 3 only

Solution (b)

Q.4) With reference to the first Human Capital Index released recently, consider the following Statements:

1. It has been released by World Economic Forum

2. It conveys the productivity of the next generation of workers compared to a benchmark of complete education and full health.

3. Singapore topped the list.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 2 only

Solution (c)

Q.5) With reference to the Credit Rating agencies in India, consider the following statements:

1. They are registered and regulated by SEBI

2. They function on “Issuer pays” model rather than “Subscriber pays’ model

3. According to the new norms, ratings agencies are required to disclose liquidity position, source and rationale of additional funds of a company.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.6) With reference to the External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs), consider the following statements:

1. The cost of ECBs is higher than the domestic borrowings.

2. It widens the investor base of a company

3. The government can direct inflows into specific sectors by allowing higher ECBs in them, thus promoting development

Which of the given statements is/are advantages of ECBs?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.7 which of the following schemes is not related to MSMEs?

a) SHAKTI

b) Samadhaan

c) Sambandh

d) SFURTI

Solution (a)

MSME Delayed Payment Portal – MSME Samadhaan

Public Procurement Portal for MSEs – MSME Sambandh

Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries (SFURTI) – related to Infrastructure of MSMEs

SHAKTI (Scheme for harnessing & allocating Koyla transparently in India) – step to tackle stress in the power sector and not related to MSME.

Q.8) Baba Kalyani committee recently submitted its report on?

a) Review of powers of CBI

b) Impact of Climate change on Indian rivers

c) SEZ policy

d) Review of Bilateral Trade Agreements

Solution (c)

Q.9 Inclusive Wealth Report 2018 is published by?

a) World Bank

b) World Economic Forum

c) UN Environment Programme

d) UN Development Programme

Solution (c)

10. With reference to the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP), consider the following statements:

1. It comes under the National Health Mission.

2. The scheme seeks to set up a Central Disease Surveillance Unit and a State Surveillance

Unit in each State where data is collected and analyzed.

3. It is assisted by World Bank.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP)

• IDSP is a disease surveillance scheme under National Health Mission, under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in India, assisted by the World Bank.

11. With reference to the Intensified Mission Indradhanush, consider the following Statements:

1. It has been launched by the Government of India to reach each and every child under two years of age.

2. It is a special drive that will focus on all the districts of the country

3. It targets to immunize all children against seven vaccine preventable diseases

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.12) Recently, PAiSA portal was launched by which of the following Union Ministries?

a) Ministry of Railways

b) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

c) Ministry of Housing

d) Ministry of Rural Development

Solution (c)

Q.13) With reference to the Demographic Dividend, consider the following statements:

1. A country with a high population between 15-64 years is considered to have a high demographic dividend.

2. Focus on providing skill development and education will help in effective utilisation of demographic dividend.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.14) Universal Basic Income has been in news for a while. Consider the following statements with reference to it:

1. It is unconditional and universal to all the citizens of the country

2. UBI would require subsumption of other subsidies and allowances in order to free up resources so that a particular amount can be directed to people on a periodic basis.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Universal basic income (UBI) is a model for providing all citizens of a country or other geographic area with a given sum of money, regardless of their income, resources or employment status. The purpose of the UBI is to prevent or reduce poverty and increase equality among citizens.

Q.15) With reference to the definition of poverty in India, which of the following statements is correct?

a) According to C Rangarajan committee, poverty line should be Rs 32 in rural areas and Rs 47 in urban areas.

b) The poverty estimates of Rangarajan committee were lower than that of Tendulkar committee.

c) The poverty line suggested by World Bank is lower than that of Tendulkar committee.

d) None of the above

Solution (a)

Q.16) which of the following statements is not correct?

a) Poverty Gap is the difference between the mean income among the poor and the poverty line

b) Headcount ration shows the percentage of population whose per capita incomes are below the poverty line

c) Multidimensional poverty Index consists of 10 indicators

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.17) which of the following committees is not related to poverty estimation in India?

a) YK Alagh

b) NC Saxena committee

c) Pronab Sen committee

d) None of the above

Solution (c)

Pranab Sen Committee for Slums was constituted by Ministry of Housing and Poverty Alleviation in 2010.

18. Which of the following is/are a correct difference between SECC 2011 and Census 2011?

1) Census is conducted by Census Commissioner in Home Ministry while SECC 2011 was by Ministry of Rural Development.

2) Census has a statutory backing while SECC 2011 doesn’t.

Select the correct option from below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.19) which of the following are steps taken by the Government for the eradication of poverty?

1. Progressive taxation

2. Decentralisation through Panchayati Raj and Nagarpalikas

3. Saubhagya scheme

Which of the following is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.20) With reference to The National Food Security Act 2013, consider the following statements:

1. The Act provides for coverage of up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population

2. Under the Act, the eligible persons will be entitled to receive 5 kgs of food grains per person per month at subsidized prices of Rs. 3/2/1 per Kg for rice/wheat/coarse grains.

3. To ensure the food security of poorest of poor, the existing Antyodaya Anna Yojana

(AAY) households will continue to receive 35 Kgs of foodgrain per household per month

4. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are also covered under the scheme.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (d)

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Q.1     Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya sabha?   

(A)      The chairman, Rajya sabha                   (B)      The President

(C)       The joint – session of parliament        (D)      None

Answer (D)

Q.2     Rajya sabha enjoys more power than the Lok sabha in the casa of?           

(A)      Money Bills                                                            

(B)      Non Money Bills

(C)       Setting up of new all India service     

(D)      Amendment of the constitution

Answer (C)

 Q.3     The tenure of the Rajya sabha is?     

(A)      2 Years       (B)      5 Years

(C)       6 Years       (D)      Permanent

Answer (D)

Q.4     What is the term of a member of the Rajya sabha?        

(A)      3 years          (B)      4 years          (C)       5 years          (D)      6 years

Answer (D)

 Q.5     The vice-president is the ex-officio chairman of the?   

(A)      Rajya Sabha                       

 (B)      Lok Sabha

(C)       Planning Commission    

 (D)      National Development Council

Answer (A)

 Q.6     The Rajya sabha is dissolved after?   

(A)      Every Five years                                       

(B)      Every Six Years

(C)       On the advice of the Prime Minister

 (D)      None of these

Answer (D)

 Q.7     The upper house of Indian parliament is known as?       

(A)      The Rajya Sabha               

(B)      The Lok Sabha

(C)       The National Assembly  

(D)      The Indian parliament

Answer (A)

Q.8Who is the chairman of Rajya Sabha?           

(A)      The president                    

(B)      The Vice-President

(C)       The Prime minister         

(D)      The Speaker

Answer (B)

 Q.9 which is the house where the chair person is not the member of that house?

(A)      Rajya Sabha                       

 (B)      Lok Sabha

(C)       Legislative council           

(D)      Legislative assembly

Answer (A)

Q.10   How many members are nominated by the president in the Rajya Sabha?

(A)      2          (B)      10                  

(C)       12        (D)      15

Answer (C)

Q.11   Which one of the following is president over by one who is not its member?

(A)      Vidhan Sabha                     

(B)      Council of ministers

(C)       Lok Sabha                            

(D)      Rajya Sabha

Answer (D)

 Q.12   What could be the maximum time limit of ‘Zero Hour’?

(A)      30 Minutes            

(B)      1 Hour

(C)       2 Hours                    

(D)      Indefinite period

Answer (B)

Q.13   What is the fixed strength of Rajya Sabha?

(A)      210                 (B)      220                 (C)       230                 (D)      250

Answer (D)

Q.14   The First mid-term election for lok sabha was held in?

(A)      1962              (B)      1971              (C)       1977              (D)      1980

Answer (B)

 Q.15   The Speaker’s vote in the lok sabha is called?     

(A)      Casting vote                       

(B)      Sound vote

(C)       Direct vote             

(D)      Indirect vote

Answer (A)

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Q.1     From the following languages listed in the eighth schedule of the constitution pick out of the one which is official language of a state?

(A)      Kashmiri        (B)       Urdu

(C)       Sindhi           (D)      Nepali

Answer (B)

Q.2     The item ‘Education’ belongs to the—-?

(A)      Union List

(B)       State List

(C) Concurrent List

(D)      Residuary List

Answer (C)

Q.3     How many schedules the constitution of India contains?

(A)      9          (B)       10

(C)       11       (D)      12

Answer (D)

Q.4 which article of the Indian constitution provides for the institution of panchayati-Raj?

(A)      Article 36                  (B)   Article 39

(C)       Article 40                  (D)-Article 48

Answer (C)

Q.5     Article 1 of the constitution declares India as –?

(A)      Federal State

(B)       Quasi-Federal State

(C)       Unitary State

(D)      Union of State

Answer (D)

Q.6     How many Articles are there in the Indian constitution?

(A)      395                 (B)       396

(C)       398                 (D)      399

Answer (A)

Q.7     Which part of the Indian constitution deals with Fundamental Right?

(A)      Part I                 (B)       Part II

(C)       Part III              (D)      Part IV

Answer (C)

Q.8     How many languages have recognized by the Constitution?

(A)      15                   (B)       18

(C)       22                   (D)      24

Answer (C)

Q.9     Which one of the following Article of the Constitution of India has provision for the president to proclaim emergency?

(A)      Article 352    (B)       Article 355

(C)       Article 356    (D) Articles 360

Answer (A)

Q.10   The Method of constitutional amendment is provided in?

(A)      Article 348       (B)       Article 358

(C)       Article 368        (D) Articles 378

Answer (C)

Q.11 With what subject to the article 5 to 11 of the constitution of India deal ?

(A)      Indian Union and its territory                 (B)       Citizenship

(C)       Fundamental Duties                                  (D)      Union Executive

Answer (B)

Q.12   The tenth schedule of Indian constitution deals with?

(A)      Anti-Defection Legislation

(B)       Panchayati Raj

(C)       Land Reforms

(D)      Distribution of powers between Union and State

Answer (A)

Q.13   Procedure for creation of legislative council in state has been described in which article of the constitution?

(A)      Article 69

(B)       Article 169

(C)       Article 269

(D)      Article369

Answer (B)

Q.14   Which of the constitutional provision lays down that taxes can neither be levied nor collected without the authority of law?

(A)      Article 265

(B)       Article 266

(C)       Article 300

(D)       Article 368

Answer (A)

Q.15   Which provision relating to the fundamental rights is directly related to the exploitation of children?

(A)      Article 17

(B)       Article 19

(C)       Article 23

(D)       Article 24

Answer (D)

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Q.1- the Concept of judicial review in our constitution has been taken from the constitution of?

(A)        England            

(B)          USA

(C)       Canada

(D)        Australia                                                                             

Answer (B)

Q.2   The constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian federation from the constitution of:

(A)          USA             

(B)          Canada

(C)          U.K             

(D)          Ireland                                                                                                  

Answer (B)

Q.3   The federal system with strong center has been borrowed by the Indian constitution from?

(A)          USA              (B)          Canada

(C)          U.K              (D)          France                                                                                                  

Answer (B)

Q.4   The idea of including the Emergency provisions in the constitution of India has been borrowed from?

(A)   Constitution of Canada          

(B)    Weimar constitution of Germany

(C)  Constitution of Ireland 

(D) Constitution of USA                                                       

Answer (B)

Q.5 The Office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India is based on which one of the following—-?

(A)   Parliamentary commissioner of UK

(B)  Ombudsman in Scandinavia

(C)  Procurator general of Russia

(D)   Council of state in France                                                                                            

Answer (B)

Q.6   Which of the following was the biggest source for the constitution of India?

(A)    The Government of India act, 1919

(B)     The Government of India act, 1935

(C)    The Indian Independence act, 1947

(D)    None of Above                                                                                                

Answer (B)

Q7   Of the following words in the preamble of the constitution of India which was not inserted through the constitution (Forty Second)

(A)   Socialist               

(B)  Secular

(C) Dignity                 

(D) Integrity                                                                              

Answer (C)

Q.8   At the time of enactment of the constitution, which one of the following ideals was not included in the preamble?

(A) Liberty                  (B)          Equality

(C) Socialist                (D)          Justice                                                                                  

Answer (C)

Q.9     Which Amendment act introduced changes in the preamble to the Indian constitution?

(A)          The 38th Amendment act 1975

(B)          The 40th Amendment act 1976

(C)          The 42nd Amendment act 1976

(D) The 44th Amendment act 1979                                                                                   

Answer (C)

Q.10 The preamble of our constitution reads India as?

(A)  Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic

(B)  Sovereign, Democratic, socialist, secular republic

(C)  Socialist sovereign, democratic, secular, republic

(D)  Democratic, sovereign, secular, socialist republic                                                            

Answer (A)

Q. 10 the preamble of our constitution reads India as?

(A)  Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic

(B)   Sovereign, Democratic, socialist, secular republic

(C)  Socialist sovereign, democratic, secular, republic

(D)  Democratic, sovereign, secular, socialist republic                                                           

Answer (A)

Q.11   Which Amendment of the Indian constitution inserted the two words—Socialist and Secular in the preamble?

(A)          28th       

(B)          40th

(C)          42nd       

(D)          52nd                                                                                                       

Answer (C)

Q.12 in Which amendment the words socialist secular and unity and integrity of the nation were added to the preamble of constitution of India?

(A)          42nd      (B)   44th

(C)          52nd      (D)   none of them                                                                  

Answer (A)

Q.13   Consider the following Words?

1. Socialist                   2. Democratic

3. Sovereign                4. Secular

Choose the response that gives the correct in the preamble?

(A)          3, 1, 4, and 2                         

(B)          3, 4, 1, and 2

(C)          3, 4, 1, and 2                         

(D)          4, 1, 3, and 2                                                        

Answer (A)

Q.14       Which one of the following describes India a secular state?

(A)          Fundamental Rights        

(B)          Preamble to the Constitution

(C)          9th Schedule                      

(D)          Directive principles                                         

Answer (B)

Q.15   Which one of the following liberty is not embodied in the preamble to the constitution of India?

(A)          Liberty of Thought         

 (B)          Liberty of Expression

(C)          Liberty of belief               

(D)          Economic Liberty                                                             

Answer (D)

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Q.1     The presidential government operates on the principle of?

(A)      Division of powers between centre and state

(B)       Centralization of powers

(C)       Balance of powers

 (D)      Separation of powers

Answer (D)                                                            

Q.2     Which of the following countries have an unwritten constitution?

(A)      USA                (B)       UK

(C)       India               (D)      Pakistan

Answer (B)

Q.3     The unitary system of government possesses which of the following advantages?

(A)      Grater adaptability                                  (B)       Strong state

(C)       Greater participation by the people     (D)      Lesser chances of authoritarianism

Answer (D)

Q.4     Which of the following countries enjoys a federal form of government?

(A)      China              (B)       USA

(C)       Cuba              (D)      Belgium

Answer (B)

Q.5     The English crown is an example of?

(A)      Real executive                    

(B)       Quasi-real executive

(C)       Nominal executive            

(D)      Nominated executive

Answer (C)

Q.6      The declaration that democracy is a government ‘of the people, by the people, for the people ‘was made by?

(A)      Abraham Lincoln    

(B)       George Washington

(C)       Theodore Roosevelt

(D)     Winston Churchill

Answer (A)

Q.7     At which of its session, did the congress officially accept the ‘socialistic pattern of Society?

(A)      Bombay session of 1953               (B)       Avadi session of 1955

(C)       Calcutta session of 1957              (D)      Nagpur session of 1959

Answer (B)

Q.8     In Indian polity which one is Supreme?

(A)      The Supreme Courts        

(B)       The Constitution

(C)       The Parliament                  

(D)      Religion

Answer (B)

Q.9     In Indian polity, The Executive is subordinate to the –?

(A)      Judiciary                               

(B)       Legislature

(C)       Election commission         

(D)      U P S C

Answer (B)

Q.10   Which of the following official documents is related with India?

(A)      White Paper           

(B)       Green Paper

(C)       Yellow Book            

(D)      Blue Book

Answer (A)

Q.11   Which one of the following is a basic feature of the Presidential Government?

(A)      Rigid constitution                           (B)       Single Executive

(C)       Supremacy of the Legislature        (D)      Residual powers of the state

Answer (B)

Q.12   Where was the concept of written constitution, first born?

 (A)      France          (B)       USA

(C)       Britain         (D)      Switzerland

Answer (B)

Q.13   Where was the first parliamentary form of government formed?

(A)      Britain                       

(B)       Belgium

(C)       France                      

(D)      Switzerland

Answer (A)

Q.14   Who called Indian federalism as the co-operative federalism? (C PCS Pre 2008)

(A)    G. Austin           

(B)    K. C. Where

(C)   Sir Ivory Jennings   

 (D)  D.D. Basu

Answer (A)

Q.15   The constitution of India is?

(A)      Rigid              

(B)       Flexible

(C)       Very Rigid    

(D)      Partly Rigid, Partly Flexible

Answer (D)

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Indian Polity Topic Wise Question for UPSC IAS and Other Competitive Exams.

Q.1     who was the chairman of the Union Power committee of constituent assembly of India?

(A)      Sardar Vallabhai patel

(B)       Dr. B.R Ambedkar

(C)       Sir Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar

(D)      Pt. Jawahar lal Nehru

Answer (D)

Q.2     The constitution of India was adopted on?

(A)      26 January 1950

(B)       26 January 1949

(C)       26 November 1949

(D)      15 August 1947

Answer (C)

Q.3     who presided over the first meeting of the Indian constitution Assembly?

(A)      Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B)       Sachchidanand sinha

(C)       B.R. Ambedkar

(D)      H.V. Kamath

Answer (B)

Q.4 who among the following was the advisor to the drafting committee of constituent assembly?  (NDA 2009, UP PCS2014)

(A)      B. Shiva Rao

(B)       B.R. Ambedkar

(C)       Sachidananda sinha

(D)      B.N. Rau

Answer (D)

Q.5 The Constituent assembly of India started functioning from?

(A) 9th December 1946

(B) 1st January 1947

(C   26th January 1947

(D) 15th August 1947

Answer (A)

Q.6     Who among the following was not a member of the constituent assembly?

(A)      Sardar Vallabhbhai patel

(B)       Acharya J.B. Kriplani

(C)       Jai Prakash Narayan

(D)      K.M. Munshi

Answer (C)

Q.7     The constitution of India was completed on?

(A)      February 11, 1948

(B)       November 26, 1949

(C)       January 26, 1950

(D)      None of these

Answer (B)

Q.8 How many sessions of the Indian constituent assembly were conducted for the formulation of Indian constitution?

(A)      7                      (B)       11

(C)       12                   (D)      15

Answer (B)

Q.9     The first day session of Indian constitution assembly was chaired by:

(A)  Dr Rajendra Prasad

(B)   B.R. Ambedkar

(C)   Pt. Jawahar lal Nehru

(D)  Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha

Answer (D)

Q.10   How much time the constitution assembly took to frame the constitution of India?

(A)  2 years 7 Months 23 days               (B)   2 years 11 Months 18days

(C)  3 years 4 Months 14 days               (D) 3 years 11 Months 5 days

Answer (B)

Q.11   The Constitution assembly set up a drafting committee under the chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on?

(A)      13th December 1946

(B)       22nd January 1947

(C)       3rd June, 1947

(D)      29th August 1947

Answer (D)

Q.12   The number of members included in the constitution drafting committee was?

(A)      Seven             (B)       Nine

(C)       Eleven            (D)      Thirteen

Answer (A)

Q.13   The first session of the constitutional assembly was held on:

(A)      26 November 1946

(B)       9 December 1946

(C)       16 August 1947

(D)      26 January 1948

Answer (B)

Q.14   Who proposed the preamble before the drafting committee of the constitution?

(A)      Jawahar lal Nehru                  (B)       B.R. Ambedkar

(C)       B. N. Rau                               (D)      Mahatma Gandhi

Answer (A)

Q.15   Who was the president of the constituent assembly of independent India?

(A)      Dr. B.R. Ambedkar                         (B)       Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(C)       C. Rajagopalachari                         (D)      K.M. Munshi

Answer (B)

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Indian Polity Question Bank for UPSC IAS, State PSC and All Other Competitive Exams.

Q 1.Which of the following exercised the most profound influence in farming the Indian constitution?                                                                                           

(A)British constitution

(B)US constitution

(C)Irish constitution

(D)The Government of India Act, 1935                                             

Answer (A)

Q 2.The First attempt to introduce a representative and popular element in the governance of India was made through:

(A) Indian Council Act, 1861

(B) Indian council Act 1892

(C)Indian council Act, 1909

(D) Government of India Act, 1919                                                    

Answer (D)

Q 3 Which of the following acts introduced communal electorate in India?

(A) Indian Council Act, 1861

(B) Indian Council Act, 1892

(C) Indian Council Act, 1909

(D) Government of India Act, 1919                                                                

Answer (C)

Q 4.By virtue of which Act, dyarchy was introduced in India?

(A)      Indian council Act 1909

(B)      Government of India Act 1919

(C)       Government of India Act 1935

(D)      Indian independence Act 1947                                                                      

Answer (B)

Q.5The instrument of instructions contained in the Government of India in the Act 1935 has been incorporated in the constitution of India in the year 1950 as?

(A)      Fundamental right

(B)    Directive principles of the state policy

(C)   Fundamental Duties

(D)   Emergency Provisions                                                                

Answer (D)

 Q.6     The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on?       

(A)      The principle of federation and parliamentary system

(B)      The principle of succession of the British Indian provinces

(C)       Acceptance of the idea of a constituent Assembly to draft a constitution

Answer (A)

Q.7 the monopoly of Indian trade of the east India company was abolished by the?                                                                                                                                      

(A)      Regulating Act, 1773

(B)      Charter Act, 1813

(C)       Charter Act, 1833

(D)      Government of India Act, 1858

Answer (B)

Q.8Which reference to the colonial period on India, The trade monopoly of the East India Company was ended by?                                                           

(A)      The Regulating Act, of 1773

(B)      Pitt’s India Act, of 1784

(C)       The Charter Act, 1813

(D)      The Charter Act, 1833

Answer (C)

Q.9 Two independent states of India and Pakistan were created by:

(A)      The Simla Conference

(B)      The Cripps Proposal

(C)       The Cabinet Mission plan

(D)      The Indian Independence Act.                                               

Answer (D)

Q.10 The first definite step to provided parliamentary control over East India Company was taken by:                                                                  

(A)      The Regulating Act, 1773

(B)      The Pitt’s India Act, 1784

(C)       The Charter Act, 1793

(D)      The charter Act, 1813

Answer (A)

Q.11 The Montague- Chelmsford Report formed the basis of:        

(A)      The Indian council act, 1909

(B)      The government of India Act 1919

(C)       The government of India act, 1935

(D)      The Indian independence act, 1947

Answer (B)

Q.12 through which one of the following was commercial activities of the East India Company finally put to an end?                                                      

(A)      The charter act, 1793

(B)      The charter act, 1813

(C)       The charter act, 1833

(D)      The charter act, 1853

Answer (C)

Q.13 which of the following vasted the secretary of state for India with supreme control over the government of India?                                             

(A)      Pitt’s India act, 1784

(B)      Government of India act, 1858

(C)       Indian council act, 1861

(D)      Morley- Minto Reforms 1909

Answer (B)

Q.14   Diarchy was first introduced under?                                    

(A)      Morley-Minto Reforms

(B)      Mont-Ford Reforms

(C)       Simon Commission Plan

(D)      Government of India Act, 1935

Answer (B)

Q.15   which of the following was/were the main feature’s of the government of India act, 1919?                                                                                                            

1.         Introduction of separate electorates for Muslims

2.         Devolution of legislative authority by the centre

3.         Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A)      2 only

(B)      1 and 3 only

(C)       3 only

(D)      2 and 3 any

Answer (D)

Vision IAS Monthly Current Affairs Prelims 2019 November – December 2018 MCQ

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This Booklet will be Helpful for UPSC Civil Services Prelims Exam General Studies Paper-1

This Booklet will cover all these topics:

  1. Culture
  2. Economy
  3. Environment
  4. International Relation
  5. Polity
  6. Science & Technology
  7. Social Issues
  8. Government schemes

Energy Transition Index: 100+ Important topics for IAS Prelims 2019

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Energy Transition Index

World Economic Forum has released its global Energy Transition index. The annual list ranks 115 economies on their ability to balance energy security and access with environmental sustainability and affordability.

The index considers both the current state of the countries’ energy system and their structural readiness to adapt to future energy needs.

Performance of various countries:

Sweden retained its top spot on the list, followed by Switzerland and Norway in the second and third positions respectively.

The United States, which is placed at the 27th position, was found to have made progress in reducing the use of coal in power generation. It slipped in the rankings by two places due to concerns surrounding affordability of energy to households and regulatory uncertainty on environmental sustainability

The developing countries in Asia, on the other hand, showed significant improvements towards universal access to electricity led by India (76), Indonesia (63) and Bangladesh (90).

Key observations on India’s performance:

  1. India was found to be amongst the countries with high pollution levels and relatively high CO2 intensity in its energy system. Despite this, the report found that India has made significant strides to improve energy access in recent years and currently scores well in the area of regulation and political commitment towards energy transition.
  2. While India scored low in terms of system performance, it ranks considerably higher when it comes to readiness to adapt to future energy needs. Overall, India has moved up two places from its 78th position in 2018.
  3. India is among the five economies that have managed to improve their rank since last year.
  4. In the BRICS bloc of emerging economies, India was ranked second best, only after Brazil.

Interim Budget 2019-20 Important 100+ topics for IAS Prelims 2019

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Interim Budget 2019-20

What is Budget?

The Union Budget of India also referred to as the Annual Financial Statement in the Article 112 of the Constitution of India, is the annual budget of the Republic of India. The Government presents it on the first day of February so that it could be materialized before the commencement of new financial year in April. Till 2016 it was presented on the last working day of February by the Finance Minister of India in Parliament. The budget, which is presented by means of the Finance bill and the Appropriation bill, has to be passed by both the Houses before it can come into effect from April 1, the start of India’s financial year.

What is an interim budget?

An interim budget is the budget of a regime or administration that is going through a period of transition. It is very much similar to a full budget as the government presents expenses for the current fiscal and makes projections for the upcoming fiscal year through it. An interim budget is also a detailed set of accounts that includes expenditure and receipts and also the complete financial statement.

When is an interim budget presented?

The government presents an interim budget if it does not have time to present a full Budget or if the general elections may be in the near future. So usually, in an election year, the outgoing government presents an interim budget and the task of framing the full budget is left for the next government.

Why do we need an interim budget?

The government needs Interim Budget to work during the time it takes for a new government to make its own fiscal plan. The budget for the year permitted by Parliament gives the government spending rights only till 31st March i.e. end of the financial year.

If for any reason the government is unable to present a full budget before the fiscal year ends, it will require parliamentary authority for incurring expenses in the new financial year until a full Budget is presented. The Parliament, via interim Budget, passes a vote-on account that permits the government to meet the expenses of the government until the new Parliament passes the Budget for the whole year.

What is the difference between interim and regular budget?

In an interim budget, the vote-on-account asks for Parliament’s approval for incurring expenditure for part of a financial year. The estimates are presented for the whole year, as is the case with the regular Budget. The new administration has the full right to change the estimates fully when the final Budget is presented.

Can the government declare new taxes and policies?

The government can make changes in tax in the interim budget under the Constitution. The 12 interim budgets since India’s Independence have refrained from declaring big-ticket changes or new schemes. At the same time, numerous governments, including the Congress-led UPA in 2009, have not shied away from making policy statements in interim budgets.

Difference between Interim Budget and Vote on Account

An Interim Budget is not the same as a ‘Vote on Account’. While a ‘Vote on Account’ deals only with the expenditure side of the government’s budget, an Interim Budget is a complete set of accounts, including both expenditure and receipts.

Highlights of interim Budget 2019-20

Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi

New Scheme- namely “Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)” to extend direct income support at the rate of Rs. 6,000 per year to farmer families, having cultivable land upto 2 hectares is announced. The estimated outlay for the scheme is Rs.75, 000 crore.

Under this Government of India funded Scheme, Rs.2, 000 each will be transferred to the bank accounts of around 12 crore Small and Marginal farmer families, in three equal installments. This programme would be made effective from 1st December 2018 and the first installment for the period upto 31st March 2019 would be paid during this year itself.

Separate Department of Fisheries

To provide sustained and focused attention towards development of Fisheries, the Government has decided to create a separate Department of Fisheries. Finance Minister said that through the measure, the Government wants to promote further growth over 7% to promote livelihood of about 1.45 crore people dependent on the sector.

The Finance Minister announced 2% interest subvention to the farmers pursuing the activities of animal husbandry and fisheries, who avail loan through Kisan Credit Card. Further, in case of timely repayment of loan, they will also get an additional 3% interest subvention.

Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog

Setting up of “Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog” to upscale sustainable genetic upgradation of cow resources and to enhance production and productivity of cows has also been announced. The Aayog will also look after effective implementation of laws and welfare schemes for cow.

Pradhan Mantri Shram-Yogi Maandhan

To provide pensionary benefits to at least 10 crore labourers and workers in the unorganised sector a new Scheme called ‘Pradhan Mantri Shram-Yogi Maandhan’ is announced. The Finance Minister said that within next five years it would be one of the largest pension schemes of the world. A sum of Rs.500 crore has been allocated for the Scheme. Additional funds will be provided as needed, Shri Goyal added. The scheme will also be implemented from the current year, he said.

Tax Benefits

1. Individual taxpayers having taxable annual income up to Rs.5 lakhs will not be required to pay any income tax. Tax benefit of Rs. 18,500 crore is proposed to be provided to an estimated 3 crore middle class and small taxpayers comprising self employed, small business, small traders, salary earners, pensioners and senior citizens.

2. For salaried persons, Standard Deduction is being raised from the current Rs.40, 000 to Rs.50, 000. This will provide additional tax benefit of Rs. 4,700 crore to more than 3 crore salary earners and pensioners.

3. Exemption on levy of income tax on notional rent on a second self-occupied house is also now proposed. Currently, income tax on notional rent is payable if one has more than one self-occupied house.

4. TDS threshold on interest earned on bank/post office deposits is being raised from Rs. 10,000 to Rs.40, 000.

5. TDS threshold for deduction of tax on rent is proposed to be increased from Rs. 1, 80,000 to Rs.2, 40,000 for providing relief to small taxpayers.

Inflation

The Finance Minister said that the Government has been successful in bringing down average inflation to 4.6% over last five years, which is lower than the inflation during the tenure of any other Government. In fact Inflation in December 2018 was down to 2.19% only. The average rate of inflation during previous five years 2009-2014 was a backbreaking 10.1%, he pointed out.

Fiscal Deficit

The fiscal deficit has been brought down to 3.4% in 2018-19 Revised Estimates from the high of almost 6% seven years ago, the Finance Minister mentioned. He said, the Current Account Deficit (CAD), against a high of 5.6% six years ago, is likely to be only 2.5% of GDP this year.

Enhanced allocations for major Schemes

1. Announcing an allocation of Rs.60, 000 crores for MGNREGA for Budget Estimates 2019-20, the Finance Minister said that additional allocations will be made, if required.

2. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) is being allocated Rs.19, 000 crore in BE 2019-20 as against Rs.15, 500 crore in RE 2018-19. During the period 2014-18, a total number of 1.53 crore houses have been built under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana, he announced.      

3. By March, 2019, all households will be provided with electricity connection. Till now, 143 crore LED bulbs have been provided in a mission mode which has resulted in saving of Rs.50, 000 crore for the poor and middle class.

4. He said through the world’s largest healthcare programme, Ayushman Bharat, to provide medical treatment to nearly 50 crore people in the country, around 10 lakh patients have already benefited through free treatment for medical treatment which would have otherwise cost them Rs. 3,000 crore. Lakhs of poor and middle class people are also benefiting from reduction in the prices of essential medicines, cardiac stents and knee implants, and availability of medicines at affordable prices through Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Kendras, the Finance Minister added.

5. Shri Goyal also said that 14 of the 21 AIIMS operating or being established in the country presently have been announced since 2014. He also announced setting up of a new – the 22nd AIIMS in Haryana

6. Allocation for Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) is being increased from Rs.23, 357 crore in RE 2018-19 to Rs.27, 584 crore in BE 2019-20.

7. A substantial increase is proposed in the allocation for welfare of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The allocation of Rs.56, 619 crore made in BE of 2018-19 for Scheduled Caste, further increased to Rs.62, 474 crore in RE is proposed to be enhanced to Rs.76, 801 crore in BE for 2019-20, an increase of 35.6% over BE of 2018-19. For the Scheduled Tribes also, proposed allocation in 2019-20 BE is Rs.50, 086 crore as against Rs.39, 135 crore in BE 2018-19, an increase of 28%.

8. The Finance Minister said that a Welfare Development Board to frame special strategies for the benefit of the hard-to-reach De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic communities will be set up under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. He said that a Committee under NITI Aayog will also be set up to complete the task of identifying Denotified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic communities not yet formally classified.

9. Shri Goyal said under the Ujjwala Yojana aiming delivery of 8 crore free LPG connections, more than 6 crore connections have already been given and the remaining will get free gas connections by next year.

10. The Finance Minister announced that a National Artificial Intelligence Portal will also be developed soon as a part of the National Programme on ‘Artificial Intelligence.

11. The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion will now be renamed as the Department for Promotion of Industries and Internal Trade.

12. The Finance Minister stated that the Government e-Marketplace (GeM), created by the present Government two years ago, resulted in average savings of 25-28% and the platform will now be extended to all CPSEs. Transactions of over Rs. 17,500 crore have taken place so far.

13. The Finance Minister announced that for the first time, the country’s Defence Budget will be of over Rs.3 lakh crore.

14. The Finance Minister, Shri Piyush Goyal pointed-out that domestic air traffic passengers have doubled during the last five years, leading to large number of jobs also being created. The number of operational airports has crossed 100 with the commissioning of the Pakyong airport in Sikkim. Arunachal Pradesh came on the air map recently and Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram have come on India’s rail map for the first time.

15. Capital support from the budget for Indian Railways is proposed at Rs.64, 587 crore in 2019-20 (BE). The Railways’ overall capital expenditure programme is of Rs. 1, 58,658 crore. The Finance Minister, who is also holding the portfolio of Railway Ministry, announced that the Operating Ratio is expected to improve from 98.4% in 2017-18 to 96.2% in 2018-19 (RE) and further to 95% in 2019-20 (BE).

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RPSC RAS Mains Exam Test -8

Geography of Rajasthan

History of Rajasthan

Polity and Administration of Rajasthan

Art and Culture of Rajasthan

Paper – I General Knowledge and General Studies

Unit-I

Part A

History, Art, Culture, Literature, Tradition and Heritage of Rajasthan

Art-Culture-Heritage of Rajasthan for RAS/RTS Mains Exam Paper-I Study Notes-Download

Ancient Medieval Modern History of Rajasthan for RAS Mains Exam Paper-I Notes-Download

  • Major landmarks in the History of Rajasthan from Pre-historic time to close of 18th Century, Important dynasties, their administrative and revenue system.
  • Salient events of 19th& 20th centuries: Peasant & Tribal Movements.
  • Political Awakening, Freedom Movement and Integration.
  • Heritage of Rajasthan: Performing & fine Art, Handicraft and Architecture; Fairs, Festivals, Folk Music and Folk Dance
  • Important works of Rajasthani Literature and Dialects of Rajasthan.
  • Saints , Lok Devtas and eminent personalities of Rajasthan

Part B

 Indian History & Culture

Art and Culture of India for RPSC RAS/RTS Mains Exam Paper-I Study Notes-Download

  • Indian heritage: Fine Art, Performing Art, Architecture & Literature from Indus Civilization to British Era.
  • Religious Movements and religious philosophy in Ancient and Medieval India.
  • History of Modern India from beginning of 19th Century to 1965 AD: Significant events, personalities and issues
  • Indian National Movement- Its various stages & streams, important contributors and contribution from different parts of the country
  • Socio-religious Reform Movements in 19th and 20th Century
  • Post Independence consolidation and reorganisation – Accession of princely states & Linguistic reorganisation of the states

Part C – History of Modern World (up to 1950AD)

(Free)RAS Mains Exam Paper-I History of Modern World Study Notes

  • Renaissance and Reformation.
  • Enlightenment and Industrial Revolution
  • Imperialism and colonialism in Asia and Africa
  • Impact of World Wars

Unit II- ECONOMICS

Part A- Indian Economy

  • Major Sectors of Economy: Agriculture, Industry & Service- Current Status, Issues and Initiatives
  • Banking: Concept of Money supply & High Powered Money. Role and Functions of Central Bank & Commercial Banks, issues of NPA, Financial Inclusion. Monetary Policy- Concept, objectives & Instruments
  • Public Finance: Tax reforms in India- Direct & Indirect, subsidies- Cash Transfer and other related issues. Recent Fiscal Policy of India
  • Recent Trends in Indian Economy: Role of Foreign Capital, MNCs, PDS, FDI, Exim Policy, 12th Finance Commission, Poverty alleviation schemes.

Part B- World Economy

  • Global Economic issues and trends: Role of World Bank, IMF & WTO.
  • Concept of Developing, Emerging and Developed countries.
  • India in global Scenario

Part C- Economy of Rajasthan

Economy of Rajasthan for RPSC RAS/RTS Mains Exam Paper-I Study Notes-Download

  • Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Dairy and Animal husbandry with special reference to Rajasthan.
  • Industrial Sector- Growth and recent trends.
  • Growth, Development & Planning with special reference to Rajasthan. Recent development and issues in service sector of Rajasthan.
  • Major Development Projects of Rajasthan- their objectives and impact.
  • Public Private Partnership Model for Economic Transformation in Rajasthan.
  • Demographic Scenario of the State and its impact on Rajasthan Economy.

Unit III- SOCIOLOGY, MANAGEMENT & BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION

Sociology,Management,Accounting & Auditing RAS Mains Paper-I-Study Notes

Part A- Sociology

  • Development of Sociological Thought in India Social Values
  • Caste Class & Occupation
  • Sanskritization
  • Varna, Ashram, Purusharthas and Sanskar Vyavastha
  • Secularism
  • Issues and Problems of Society.
  • Tribal community of Rajasthan: Bhil, Mina (Meena) and Garasia.

Part B- Management

  • Management – Scope, concept, functions of Management – Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Direction, Coordination and Control, Decision-Making: concept, process and techniques.
  • Modern concept of Marketing, Marketing Mix Product, Price, Place and Promotion
  • Objective, concept of maximization of wealth, Sources of Finance – Short and Long term, Capital Structure, Cost of Capital
  • Concept and Main theories of Leadership and Motivation, Communication
  • Basics of recruitment, selection, induction, training & development and appraisal system

Part C- Business Administration

  • Techniques of analysis of Financial statements, Basics of Working Capital Management
  • Responsibility and Social Accounting Meaning
  • Objectives of Auditing, Internal Control, Social, Performance and Efficiency Audit. Basics of different types of Budgeting, Budgetary control

General Knowledge and General Studies

Unit I- Administrative Ethics

Administrative Ethics Study notes for RAS/RTS Mains Exam Paper-II – Download

  • Ethics and Human Values: Lesson from lives and teachings of great leaders, reformers and administrators. Role of family, society and educational institutions in inculcating values.
  • Ethical concept-Rit and Rin, concept of Duties, concept of Good and Virtues.
  • Ethics in private and public relationships- Behaviour, Moral and Political attitudes of administrators – Philosophical basis of Integrity.
  • Ethics of Bhagavad Geeta and its role in Administration.
  • Gandhian Ethics.
  • Contribution of Moral Thinkers and Philosophers from India.
  • Psycho-Stress Management.
  • Case Studies.
  • Emotional Intelligence – Concepts and their Utilities.

Unit II- General Science & Technology

RPSC RAS/RTS Mains Exam Paper-II Science & Technology Study Notes-Download

  • Nanotechnology: -Concept and its application; Nano Mission of India.
  • Nuclear technology: – Basic concept, radioactivity and its applications, different types of nuclear reactors, civilian and military uses. Institutional structure for development of nuclear technology in India.
  • Telecommunication :- Basic concept, Telecom application for socio-economic development of masses, Indian telecom industry with brief history, National
  • Telecom Policy and TRAI (Telecom Regulatory Authority of India)
  • Electromagnetic waves, communication systems, basics of computers, uses of information technology, e-governance and e-commerce in administration.
  • Defence :- Types of missiles with reference to the India Missile Programme;
  • Various chemical and biological weapons ; Role of DRDO in various fields
  • States of Matter
  • Allotropes of carbon.
  • pH Scale and importance of pH in daily life.
  • Corrosion and its prevention
  • Catalyst
  • Soap and Detergents – Cleansing action of soap.
  • Polymers and their uses
  • General awareness of digestive, respiratory, circulatory, excretory, coordination and reproductive system of Humans
  • Application of Biotechnology and concerned Ethical and Intellectual Property Right Issues.
  • Food and Human Health : General Awareness of Balanced and Unbalanced Food, Malnutrition, Intoxicants, Blood, Blood Group and Immunity (Antigen, Antibodies), Blood Transfusion, Immunization & Vaccination.
  • Human diseases: Communicable & Non Communicable Diseases, Acute and Chronic Diseases; Causes and Prevention of Infectious, Genetic and Lifestyle Disease.
  • Water quality and water purification.
  • Public Health Initiatives with special reference to the State of Rajasthan.
  • Contribution of Indian Scientists in Science and Technology.
  • Ecosystem: Structure and Function.
  • Atmosphere : Composition and Basic nutrient cycling (Nitrogen, Carbon and Water Cycles)
  • Climate Change; Renewable and Non-Renewable Energy.
  • Environmental Pollution and Degradation; Waste Management.
  • Biodiversity and its conservation with special reference to the state of Rajasthan.
  • Water Conservation with special reference to the Traditional Systems in the State of Rajasthan.
  • Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Dairy and Animal Husbandry with special Reference to Rajasthan

Unit III- Earth Science (Geography & Geology)

Part A- World

World Geography Study Notes RPSC RAS Mains Exam Paper-II-Download

Part B- India

RPSC RAS Mains Exam Paper-II Geography of India Study Notes-Download

  • Broad Physical Features: Mountains, Plateaus, Plains, Lakes and Glaciers.
  • Major Physio-graphic divisions of India.
  • Climate- Origin of Monsoon, Seasonal Climatic conditions, Distribution of rainfall and climatic regions,
  • Natural Resources: (a) Water, Forest, Soil

(b) Rocks & Mineral: Types and their uses

  • Population: Growth, Distribution and Density, Sex-ratio, Literacy, urban and Rural Population.

Part C- Rajasthan

RAS Mains Exam Paper-2 Geography of Rajasthan Study Notes-Download

  • Broad Physical Features: Mountains, Plateaus, Plains, Rivers and Lakes.
  • Major Physio-graphic Regions.
  • Natural Vegetation and Climate.
  • Livestock, Wildlife and its Conversation.
  • Agriculture- Major Crops.
  • Mineral Resources: (i) Metallic Minerals- Types, distribution and Industrial uses and their conservation.                                              (ii)Non-Metallic Minerals- Types, distribution and Industrial uses and their conservation
  • Energy Resources: Conventional and Non-conventional
  • Population and Tribes.

RAS/RTS Mains Exam General Studies Paper-3

Paper-III General Knowledge and General Studies

Unit I- Indian Political System, World Politics and Current Affairs-Click Here

  • Indian Constitution: Framing, Features, Amendments, Basic Structure.
  • Ideological Contents: Preamble, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, Fundamental Duties.
  • Institutional framework- I: Parliamentary System, President, Prime Minister and Council of Ministers, Parliament.
  • Institutional Framework- II: Federalism, Centre-State relations, Supreme Court, High Courts, Judicial Review, Judicial Activism.
  • Institutional Framework- III: Election Commission of IndiaComptroller and Auditor General, Union Public Service Commission, NITI Aayog, Central Vigilance Commission, Central Information Commission, National Human Rights Commission
  • Political Dynamics: Role of Cast, Religion, Class, Ethnicity, Language and Gender in Indian Politics, Political Parties and Electoral Behaviour, Civil Society and Political Movement, Issues related to National Integrity and Security. Potential areas of Socio-Political conflicts
  • State Politics of Rajasthan: Party System, Political Demography, Different phases of Political competition in Rajasthan, Panchayati Raj and Urban self Government Institutions
  • Emerging World Order in the post Cold War era, USA’s hegemony and its resistance, UN and Regional Organizations, International Terrorism and Environmental issues.
  • Foreign Policy of India: Evolution, Determinants, India’s relations with USA, China, Russia and European Union, India’s role in UN, NAM, BRICS, G- 20, G- 77 and SAARC.
  • Geo-political and Strategic development in South Asia, South East Asia and West Asia and their impact on India.
  • Current Affairs: Current events, persons and places of Rajasthan, National and international importance, recent activities related to games and sports.

Unit II- Concepts, Issues and Dynamics of Public Administration and Management

Download-Public Administration & Management Study Notes for RAS Mains Exam Paper-3

  • Administration and management: Meaning, nature and significance. Its role in developed & developing societies. Evolution of Public Administration as a discipline, new public administration, Theories of public administration.
  • Concepts of power, authority, legitimacy, responsibility and delegation.
  • Principles of organization: Hierarchy, Span of control and unity of command
  • Functions of management, Corporate governance and social responsibility
  • New dimensions of public management, management of change.
  • Aptitude and foundational values of civil services: integrity, impartiality, and non partisanship, dedication to public service, relationship between generalists and specialists.
  • Legislative & Judicial control over administration: various methods and techniques of legislative & judicial control.
  • Administrative setup, administrative culture in Rajasthan: Governor, Chief Minister, Council of Ministers, State Secretariat and Chief Secretary.
  • District administration: organization, role of District Collector and Superintendent of Police, Sub-divisional and Tehsil administration.
  • Development Administration: Meaning, Scope and Characteristics.
  • State Human Rights Commission, State Election Commission, Lokayukta, Rajasthan Public Service Commission, Public Service Guarantee Act, 2011.

Unit III- Sports and Yoga, Behavior and Law

DOWNLOAD-RAS Mains Exam Paper-3 Sports & Yoga Study Notes

Part A- Sports and Yoga

  • Sports Policies of India.
  • Rajasthan State Sports Council.
  • National Awards of Sports.
  • (Arjuna Award, Dronacharya Award, Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award,
  • Maharana Pratap Award etc.)
  • Yoga – Positive way of Life.
  • Eminent Players of India.
  • First Aid in Sports.
  • Participation of Indian Atheletes in Olympics and Para-Olympic Games.

Part B – Behavior

Download-RAS mains Exam Paper-III Law & Behaviour Study Notes

  • Intelligence: Cognitive intelligence, Social intelligence, Emotional intelligence, Cultural intelligence and Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligence
  • Personality: Psychoanalytical theories, Trait and Type theories, Determinants of personality and Assessment of personality.
  • Learning and Motivation: styles of learning, Models of memory, causes of forgetting. Classification and types of motives, Theories of work motivation, Assessment of motivation
  • Meeting Life Challenges: Stress: Nature, type, Sources, Symptoms, Effects, Stress Management, Promotion of Positive health and well being.

Part C-Law

  • Concepts of Law: Ownership and possession, Personality, Liability, Rights and Duties.
  • Contemporary Legal issues: Right to information, Information technology law including cyber laws (concepts, purpose, prospects), Intellectual Property Rights (concepts, types, purpose, prospects)
  • Crimes against Women and Children: Domestic Violence, Sexual Harassment the work place, the protection of children from sexual offenses Act 2012, Laws related to child labour.
  • Important Land Laws in Rajasthan: Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956; Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Quiz-3

Important Books for Competitive Exams 2019

1. Consider the following statements about UN-REDD+ Programme.

 

  1. It is a mechanism developed by Parties to UNFCCC to combat climate change.

 

2.It creates a financial value for the carbon stored in forests.

 

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

 

(a) 1 only

 

(b) 2 only

 

(c) Both 1 and 2

 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 
 
 
 

2. Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP).

  1. It is a campaign launched by the Department of Pharmaceuticals
  2. PMBJP stores have been set up, to provide branded drugs rather than generic drugs to the people who are not able to afford it.
  3. Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) is the implementation agency for PMBJP.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) All of the Above

 
 
 
 

3. Israel shares its border with which of the following?

  1. Sinai Peninsula
  2. Golan Heights
  3. Mediterranean Sea
  4. Sea of Galilee

Select the correct option using the codes given below.

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) All of the Above

 
 
 
 

4. Consider the following statements about Blue Chip stocks/funds.

  1. Blue chip stocks are shares of well-established and financially sound companies.
  2. Such stocks give high return in normal conditions.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 
 
 
 

5. Recently Plan bee, was in news. Which of the following best explains Plan Bee?

(a) It is an effort of Uttar Pradesh Government to promote bee keeping.

(b) It is an initiative by FSSAI for implementing the Phytosanitary measures in Honey Production.

(c) It is a plan by Indian Railway for preventing elephant deaths on tracks.

(d) None of the Above

 
 
 
 

6. Which of the following is/are the Neglected Tropical Disease according to the W.H.O.?

  1. Dengue
  2. HIV-AIDS
  3. Chagas
  4. Yaws
  5. Trachoma

Select the correct option using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2,4 and 5

(c) 1,3,4 and 5

(d) All of the Above

 
 
 
 

7. With reference to the recently conducted Mission Shakti, consider the following statements.

  1. It is a project which tested an Anti-Satellite weapon developed by ISRO.
  2. India is the 3rd country after US and Russia to have such anti-satellite system.
  3. Outer Space treaty prohibits weapons of mass destruction in the space.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) All of the Above

 
 
 
 

8. Which of the following is/are example(s) of ‘Near Money’?

1-Treasury Bill

  1. Credit Card
  2. Savings accounts and small time deposits
  3. Retail money market mutual funds

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

 
 
 
 

9. Consider the following statements about Global Energy Transition Index.

  1. It is an index released by World Bank.
  2. India has improved its ranking according to the latest findings.
  3. India has relatively low carbon dioxide intensity in its energy system.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) All of the Above

 
 
 
 

10. Which of the following state(s)is/are not covered under Border Area Development Program (BADP).

  1. Uttarakhand
  2. West Bengal
  3. Gujarat
  4. Sikkim
  5. Bihar

Select the correct option using the codes given below.

(a) 2 and 5 only

(b) 5 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) All are covered

 
 
 
 

Question 1 of 10

UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 Quiz-2

Important Books for Competitive Exams 2019

Please go to UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 Quiz-2 to view the test

Daily Current Affairs 19-24 April 2019

UPSC IAS Prelims and State PSC Exams-2019 Current Affairs MCQ

1. Which article of the Indian Constitution has the provision of Finance Commission in India?

a) Article 275

b) Article 280

c) Article 265

d) Article 360

Answer: b only

Explanation: The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.

2. With reference to the union government offering grants-in-aid to state government, name the article that has the provision?

a) Article 275

b) Article 280

c) Article 265

d) Article 360

Answer: a only

Explanation: Article 275 provides for the payment of such sums as Parliament may by law provide as grants-in-aid of the revenues of such States.

3. which among them are the duties levied by the Union but Collected and Appropriated by the States?

a) Succession duty in respect of property other than agriculture land.

b) Estate duty in respect of property rather than agricultural land.

c) Stamp duty and duties of excise on the medical and toilet preparations.

d) Taxes on railway fares and freights

Answer: c only

Explanation: Stamp duty and duties of excise on the medical and toilet preparations are levied by the Union but Collected and Appropriated by the States.

4. With reference to the taxes levied and collected by the Union, which among following are assigned to the States?

a) Taxes on transactions in stock exchange.

b) Tax of sale and purchase of newspapers including advertisements

c) Estate duty in respect of property other than agriculture land.

d) Stamp duty and duties of excise on the medical and toilet preparations.

Find out the correct option from below:

Answer: a, b and c only

Explanation: The duties and taxes shall be levied and collected by the Government of India but shall be assigned to the States are duties in respect of succession to property other than agricultural land, estate duty in respect of property other than agricultural land, Terminal taxes on goods or passengers carried by railway, sea or air and taxes on railway fares and freights.

5. With reference to the Election Commission of India, name the authority who appoints the members?

a) President of India

b) Prime Minister of India

c) Elected by MPs

d) Appointed by Chief Election Commissioners

Answer: a only

Explanation: President of India appoints the members of the Election Commission of India.

6. With reference to monetary policy of RBI, which of the statements are correct?

a) It is aimed at managing the quantity of money to meet the requirements of different sectors of the economy.

b) Monetary policy is different from fiscal policy.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Monetary policy consists of the process of drafting, announcing and implementing the plan of actions taken by the central bank, currency board or other competent regulatory authority of a country that determines the scope and impact of the key drivers of the economic activity in that country.

7. With reference to the term, Systemically Important Banks, which of the banks are identified in such terms?

a) SBI

b) ICICI

c) HDFC

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has named State Bank of India (SBI), ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs).

8. With reference to the National Voluntary Guidelines on social, environmental and economic responsibilities, released by Union Ministry of Corporate Affairs, which of the following are correct?

a) Businesses should provide goods and services in a manner that is sustainable and safe.

b) Businesses should respect the interests of and be responsive to all their stakeholders.

c) Businesses should respect and promote human rights.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The Union Ministry of Corporate Affairs has released the National Guidelines on responsible business conduct and revised the National Voluntary Guidelines on social, environmental and economic responsibilities of business, 2011. These guidelines on responsible business conduct aim to urge businesses to actualize the following principles in letter and spirit.

9. With reference to the Interim Budget, which of the following are correct?

a) Interim Budget is presented by the outgoing government during the last year of its tenure before elections.

b) It is generally meant for the first 2-4 months of the fiscal year in which the elections are scheduled.

c) It does not include the proposal on the income part of the budget through collection of taxes.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Interim Budget is presented by the outgoing government during the last year of its tenure before elections. It is presented by the new government during the first term of its tenure after it takes charge. It is also known as vote on account or approval, which the government seeks from the parliament for essential spending for a limited period.

10. Which of the following are correct?

a) The annual budget is presented in two parts. It includes the detailed structure of income and future ways to raise funds.

b) The full budget is passed by the Lok Sabha only after proper discussions and voting on demand for grants.

c) It does not include the proposal on the income part of the budget through collection of taxes.

Answer: b and c only

Explanation: It is presented by the new government during the first term of its tenure after it takes charge. The annual budget is presented in two parts. It includes the detailed structure of income and future ways to raise funds.

11. Name the state associated with New Year celebrations known as ‘Vishu’?

a) Tamil Nadu

b) Kerala

c) Andhra Pradesh

d) Rajasthan

Answer: b only

Explanation: Vishu is an Indian festival celebrated in one of the Indian state Kerala and in coastal Kanyakumari nearby regions and their diaspora communities.

12. With reference to Open Market Operations (OMO), which of the following statements are correct?

a) Buying and selling of government securities in the open market.

b) Open Market Operations of securities’ purchases inject money into the banking system and stimulate growth.

c) It helps to implement and control monetary policy.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Open market operations (OMO) are the most flexible and most common tool that the Fed uses to implement and control monetary policy in India. However, the discount rate and reserve requirements are also used.

13. Name the telescope which is has captured the direct image of a black hole?

a) Event Horizon Telescope

b) Great Cloud Telescope

c) Great Globe Telescope

d) Half Horizon Telescope

Answer: a only

Explanation: In a breakthrough, the first ever direct image of a black hole has been captured, thanks to Event Horizon Telescope (EHT).

14. With reference to Anthos platform which helps to run apps from anywhere, name the technology giant associated with it?

a) Google

b) Microsoft

c) HCL

d) Wipro

Answer: a only

Explanation: Google has introduced a new open platform called Anthos to run and manage apps from anywhere. Based on the Cloud Services Platform that Google announced in 2018, Anthos lets users run applications on existing on-premise hardware investments or in the Public Cloud.

15. With reference to Order of St Andrew the Apostle, name the country associated it?

a) Japan

b) Prussia

c) Russia

d) Bulgaria

Answer: c only

Explanation: Russia’s highest state decoration, Order of St Andrew, for exceptional services in promoting special and privileged strategic partnership between the two countries.

16. With reference to 24X7 pollution charge zone which is currently in news, name the city which implemented the scheme?

a) Bangalore

b) Hong Kong

c) London

d) Delhi

Answer: c only

Explanation: London is the first city in the world to implement a 24-hour, seven day a week Ultra Low Emission Zone.

17. What is/are the purpose/purposes of the Geological Survey of India (GSI)?

a) Enable and facilitate the providing of objective, impartial and up-to-date geological expertise and geoscientific information.

b) Explore and scientifically assess mineral, energy and water resources for the country.

c) Conduct ground level surveys about the minerals deposits

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Geological Survey of India aims to facilitate the providing of objective, impartial and up-to-date geological expertise and geo-scientific information of all kinds, particularly for decision-making for policy, commercial, economic and societal needs.

18. With reference to ‘The New Delhi Declaration on Asian Rhinos 2019’, what are the objectives?

a) Conservation and protection of the Asian Rhino species.

b) Review the population of the Greater one-horned, Javan and Sumatran rhinos every four years.

c) Undertake studies on health issues of the rhinos.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The New Delhi Declaration on Asian Rhinos 2019’ for the conservation and protection of the species.

19. With reference to National Crime Records Bureau, which of the following are correct?

a) Collecting and analysing crime data as defined by the Indian Penal Code (IPC).

b) Function as a repository of information on crime and criminals.

c) To Empower Indian Police with Information Technology and criminal Intelligence.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) was created to function as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators.

20. With reference to preparation of noise pollution maps, name the regulatory body which issued the directive?

a) Central Pollution Control Board

b) Ministry of Environment and Forest

c) Supreme Court

d) National Green Tribunal

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The National Green Tribunal has directed the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) to prepare a noise pollution map and remedial action plan to solve the issue across the country.

21. With reference to National Rural Livelihood Mission, consider the following statement:

a) It aims to promote self-employment and organization of rural poor.

b) It aims to organize the poor into SHG (Self Help Groups) groups and make them capable for self-employment.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) is a poverty alleviation project implemented by Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India. This scheme is focused on promoting self-employment and organization of rural poor. The basic idea behind this programme is to organize the poor into SHG (Self Help Groups) groups and make them capable for self-employment.

22. With reference to Integrated Rural Development Program (IRDP) of the union government, consider the following statement:

a) IRDP aims to raise families of identified people below poverty line by creation of opportunities for self-employment in the rural sector.

b) IRDP is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme funded on a 50:50 basis by the centre and the states.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: The Integrated Rural Development Program is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme funded on a 50:50 basis by the centre and the states. The scheme has been in operation in all the blocks of the country since the year 1980. Under this scheme Central funds are allocated to states on the basis of proportion of rural poor in a state to the total rural poor in the country.

23. With reference to National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, consider the following:

a) It is renamed as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA).

b) It aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by offering at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: It is an Indian labour law and social security measure that aims to guarantee the ‘right to work’. It aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.

24. In the context of Universal Basic Income (UBI) scheme, which among the following are correct?

a) It is a model for providing a sum of money to all citizens of a country with a given sum of money, regardless of their income.

b) It could increase the purchasing power of the poor section of the society.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: In the Economic Survey 2016-17, Finance Minister Arun Jaitley advocated Universal Basic Income scheme (UBI) in place of various social welfare schemes in the country, in an effort to reduce poverty and income inequality in the country.

25. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMGAY), which of the following are correct?

a) It is a social welfare flagship programme which aims to provide housing for the rural poor.

b) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) (PMAY-U) for the urban poor is also the part of the programme.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMGAY) has two components: Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) (PMAY-U) for the urban poor and Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana (Gramin) (PMAY-G and also PMAY-R) for the rural poor.

26. Which of the following statements is/are correctly regarding Smart India Hackathon 2019?

a) It is a unique Open Innovation Model for identifying new and disruptive technology innovations to solve the challenges faced in India.

b) It aims to build funnel for ‘Startup India’ campaign.

c) Provide opportunity to citizens to provide innovative solutions to India’s daunting problems.

d) It is a nationwide initiative to provide students a platform to solve some of pressing problems we face in daily lives.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Smart India Hackathon 2019 is a nationwide initiative to provide students a platform to solve some of pressing problems we face in our daily lives, and thus inculcate a culture of product innovation and a mindset of problem solving.

27. Which among the following is the first municipal corporation setup in India?

a) Delhi Municipal Corporation

b) Bombay Municipal Corporation

c) Madras Municipal Corporation

d) Kolkata Municipal Corporation

Answer: c only

Explanation: The Madras Corporation is the oldest municipal body of the Commonwealth of Nations outside the United Kingdom. It was formed in 1688 to control the powers of the Governor of Madras.

28. In which year did India become a sovereign democratic republic?

a) 26th January 1950

b) 15th August 1947

c) 30th January 1948

d) 14th January 1947

Answer: b only

Explanation: Republic Day honours the date on which the Constitution of India came into effect on 26 January 1950 replacing the Government of India Act as the governing document of India and became a sovereign democratic republic.

29. in which year, the first census of India was conducted?

a) 1947

b) 1872

c) 1857

d) 1867

Answer: b only

Explanation: The decennial Census of India has been conducted 15 times, as of 2011. While it has been conducted every 10 years, beginning in 1872 and completed on 1881.

30. How many islands are present in the Lakshadweep Islands?

a) 40

b) 38

c) 36

d) 30

Answer: c only

Explanation: Lakshadweep has 10 inhabited islands, 17 uninhabited islands, attached islets, 4 newly formed islets and 5 submerged reefs. 10 inhabited islands are, Andrott, Amini, Agatti, Bitra, Cheetal, Kadmatt, Kalpeni, Kavaratti, Kiltan and Minicoy. There are 36 Islands in Lakshadweep group.

31. With Cotton production of India crossing new heights, name the largest cotton growing state?

a) Maharashtra

b) Gujarat

c) Bihar

d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer: b only

Explanation: Gujarat produces around 95 Lakh Bales of cotton, which stands around 30% of the complete cotton production of the country.

32. With reference to Minimum Support Price (MSP), consider the following?

a) Aims to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices.

b) It is a guarantee price for farmers for their produce from the Government.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).

33. With reference to National Horticulture Mission, consider the following statements:

a) NHM aims to provide holistic growth of the horticulture sector through an area based regionally differentiated strategies.

b) Its objective is to create opportunities for employment generation for skilled and unskilled person.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: National Horticulture Mission (NHM) is an Indian horticulture Scheme promoted by Government of India. It was launched under the 10th five-year plan in the year 2005-06.While Government of India contributes 85%, 15% share is contributed by State Governments.

34. With reference to National Bamboo Mission, consider the following statements:

a) Promote the growth of the bamboo sector through as an area based regionally differentiated strategy.

b) To promote marketing of bamboo and bamboo based handicrafts.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: National Bamboo Mission (NBM) is being implemented as a sub scheme. It envisages promoting holistic growth of bamboo sector by adopting area-based, regionally differentiated strategy and to increase the area under bamboo cultivation and marketing.

35. With reference to the launch of e-Charak platform for medicinal plants, name the ministry associated with the initiative?

a) Ministry of Corporate affairs

b) Ministry of Home Affairs

c) Ministry of Ayush

d) Ministry of Agriculture

Answer: c only

Explanation: e-Charak has been jointly developed by the National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB), Ministry of Ayush, Government of India and Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC).

36. Name the government body associated with committee to boost digital payments?

a) RBI

b) Ministry of Finance

c) Digital India

d) Department of Income Tax

Answer: an only

Explanation: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has constituted a High-Level Committee on Deepening of Digital Payments to encourage digitisation of payments and enhance financial inclusion. The five-member committee will be headed by UIDAI’s former Chairman Nandan Nilekani.

37. Name the countries, which are planning to use India as a base to address their food security concerns?

a) Iran and Iraq

b) UAE and Saudi Arabia

c) Iran and Saudi Arabia

d) Iraq and Saudi Arabia

Answer: b only

Explanation: Union Commerce Ministry has announced that the UAE and Saudi Arabia had decided to use India as a base to address their food security concerns. For the first time, India’s export policy identifies the potential of agriculture along with horticulture, dairy, plantation and fisheries. The farm-to-port project will be similar to a special economic zone but in the style of a corporatised farm, where crops would be grown keeping a specific UAE market in mind. The concept has been accepted by both governments.

38. Su Tseng Chang was appointed as the new premier of which country?

a) Malaysia

b) Taiwan

c) Indonesia

d) Singapore

Answer: b only

Explanation: Taiwan President Tsai Ing-wen has appointed Su Tseng-chang as Prime Minister during a Cabinet reshuffle.

39. Which countries are involved in the dispute of Chagos Islands?

a) United States and India

b) UK and Mauritius

c) Maldives and Srilanka

d) India and UK

Answer: b only

Explanation: Sovereignty over the Chagos Islands is disputed between Mauritius and the United Kingdom, where India is supporting the former.

40. Name the cricket team which won the Duleep Trophy 2018?

a) India Yellow

b) India Green

c) India Blue

d) India Orange

Answer: c only

Explanation: India Blue has won 2017-18 Duleep Trophy by defeating defending champion India Red by an innings and 187 runs.

41. Which of the following statements regarding the new amended version of the Forests rights act are true?

1) Under the act Forest dwellers can transport minor forest produce by any appropriate means of transport.

2) Transit passes for transporting minor forest produce will be issued by a committee constituted by the district administration.

3) No committee or individual official at the panchayat, block or forest range level except the forest rights committee shall be eligible to receive, decide or reject the forest rights claims.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

42. Which of the following pairs of tribals and their inhabiting states are correctly matched ?

1) Kand :Odisha

2) Warli : Gujarat

3) Adiyan :Tamilnadu

4) Chakma : Nagaland

5) Asur : West Bengal

a) 1,2 & 3 only

b) 1,3 & 5 only

c) 3,4 & 5 only

d) all of the above

43. With respect to the Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kits (SAECK)to be distributed by the Union home ministry which of the following statements are true ?

1) The Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kits (SAECK) or ‘rape investigation kits’ are designed to carry out immediate medico-legal investigation and aid in furnishing evidence in sexual assault and rape cases.

2) Each kit comprises essential items that will aid in furnishing evidence such as blood and semen samples in sexual assault and rape cases, helping the prosecution to gather evidence.

3) Under the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution, ‘Police’ and ‘Public Order’ are State subjects and the States are competent to equip their police stations suitably with these kits.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

44. Consider the following statements with respect to solar energy production :

1) ‘Solar PV’ works by photons in sun’s rays knocking off electrons in the semi-conducting material in the panels and channels them through a wire the stream of electrons is electricity.

2) While Solar thermal systems, in contrast, suck up sun’s heat and conduct it to where it is needed – such as for drying of spices or fish or wet paint.

3) There is no loss in conversion of light energy into electric energy in a solar PV but a Solar thermal system has high conversion losses.

Which of the above statements are true ?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q45. Which of the following is the first country to allow voting through mobile phones in a parliamentary election?

a) Lithuania

b) Estonia

c) Latvia

d) Kenya

46. Consider the following statements regarding Net Interest Income (NII):

1) Net interest income is the difference between the revenue that is generated from a bank’s assets and the expenses associated with paying its liabilities.

2) A bank can earn more interest from its assets than it pays out on its liabilities, which means the bank is profitable.

3) Banks with variable rate assets and liabilities will be more sensitive to changes in interest rates than those with fixed rate assets and liabilities.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

47. Which of the following are important sites of nesting places of olive ridley turtles across the world?

1) Galapagos islands

2) Gulf of California

3) Gahirmatha

4) Coromandal coast

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 3 & 4 only

c) all the above

d) 1 & 3 only

48. Which of the following statements regarding India’s pollution statistics are true?

1) India can achieve its air quality goals if it completely eliminates emissions from household sources

2) A recent study has pointed out that the use of firewood, kerosene and coal in the households contributed to about 40% of the PM 2.5 pollution in the Gangetic basin districts.

3) If all households transitioned to clean fuels, about 13% of premature mortality in India could be averted.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

49. Which of the following statements with respect to sexual harassment at workplace (prevention, prohibition & redressal) 2013 act are true?

1) The Act uses a definition of sexual harassment which was laid down by the Supreme Court of India in Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997).

2) The Supreme Court asserted that in case of a non-compliance or non-adherence of the Vishaka Guidelines, it would be open to the aggrieved persons to approach the Supreme Court only.

3) Under the act Government can order an officer to inspect workplace and records related to sexual harassment in any organisation.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

50. Mount Agung which recently erupted is in which of the following countries?

a) Bali

b) Java

c) New Zealand

d) Japan

ANSWER:

41(c), 42(b), 43(d), 44(a), 45(b), 46(c), 47(c), 48(d), 49(c), 50(a)

Source: Civilservicesindia+The Hindu+PIB

RAS/RTS Mains Exam Practice Solved Test-7

Write short Notes:-

1. Jakham Dam

  • Jakham Dam is located in Pratapgarh District in Rajasthan. It is located in Anooppura village of Pratapgarh Tehsil; the dam is a main irrigation project of the area.

This dam is built on the Jakham River, which originates from a small village Jakhamia in Chhoti Sadri sub division. The Jakham dam’s foundation was laid on 14 May 1968 by then chief minister Mohan Lal Sukhadia.

2. Bhiwadi

  • Bhiwadi is a city in Alwar district of Rajasthan state in India. It is an industrial hub in Rajasthan. It is part of the National Capital Region.

3. Kali Sindh River

  • The Kali Sindh is a river in the Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh. It belongs to the Ganges Basin. The Kali Sindh originates from Bagli (District Dewas) in Madhya Pradesh. It crosses the State Highway No 18 connecting Indore and state capital Bhopal near Sonkatch. The main tributaries of the Kali Sindh are Parwan, Niwaj and Ahu, Kuwari and Betwa Rivers.

It makes boundary of Shajapur and Rajgarh districts and enters Jhalawar and Kota districts of Rajasthan. The river then joins Chambal River at the downstream of Baran District in Rajasthan.

4. Palana Lignite Coal Fields

  • Palana and Khari mines of Bikaner district in Rajasthan carry Lignite deposits (inferior quality of coal). The coal produced is mainly used in the thermal power plants and railways.

5. National Desert Park

  • Desert National Park is situated in the West Indian state of Rajasthan near the Jaisalmer and Barmer. This is one of the largest national parks, covering an area of 3162 km². The Desert National Park is an excellent example of the ecosystem of the Thar Desert. Sand dunes form around 20% of the Park.

Despite a fragile ecosystem there is an abundance of birdlife. The region is a haven for migratory and resident birds of the desert. Many eagles, harriers, falcons, buzzards, kestrel and vultures are spotted here. Desert National Park has a collection of fossils of animals and plants of 180 million years old.

6. Irrigation by Persian Wheel

The Persian wheel method is popular in the central and eastern region where the ground water table is comparatively high. One Persian wheel can irrigate up to one hectare of land.

7. When was Hurda meeting organized? What were its objectives?

The land of Rajasthan has witnessed very few moments when its warriors united on a common issue shading all the differences. One such occasion was the battle of Khanwa when all the kings fought in unison against the mighty Mughal Babar. May be it was the charismatic leadership provided by Maharana Sangram Singh. But the bitter truth is that after Sangram Singh the threads of unity shattered. The death of Aurangzeb coincided with the rise of Maratha power.

  1. The Maratha power reached its zenith under the leadership of Peshwas. They used to collect Chauth and Sardeshmukhi as tax or tribute. In the first half of eighteenth century their interference in the politics of Rajasthan reached disturbing levels.
  2. They started plundering territories of Rajasthan inflicting defeats on various rulers. Even kingdoms of high stature like Mewar were humbled by the Marathas.
  3. At this time Sawai Jai Singh of Jaipur tried to unite all Rajput rulers under one umbrella by convening Hurda Conference. It was attended by almost all Rajput kings.

8. What are the Problems of draughts and desertification in Rajasthan?

The major factors responsible for the desertification of Thar Desert of Rajasthan are climatic factors such as high temperature, low rainfall and high wind velocity and biotic factors like overgrazing of livestock (mainly cattle), intensive crop cultivation, indiscriminate deforestation and exploitation of natural.

9. What are the Causes of environmental pollution in the desert area of Rajasthan?

1. Wind erosion is a major problem in the desert regions of Rajasthan resulting in loss of top soil, damaging crop plants, and burying viable agricultural lands.

2. Water erosion tends to occur in the wetter parts of the arid zone and the semi-arid areas of India.

3. Rapid population growth contributes to land degradation in India. On one hand, the growing population has disrupted traditional systems of land tenure and inheritance extending agricultural activities to marginal lands which are much more vulnerable to land degradation. On the other hand, slums are built on some of the region’s best agricultural land. People have the imperative to produce more food on shrinking plots, and then turn to adopt intensive agricultural techniques which make soil resources face a constant danger of depletion.

4. Unsustainable land use can also lead to land degradation. Much of the land currently under cultivation was regarded, until recently, suitable only for animal husbandry, which causes two problems: first, growing food crops on such land has led to the development of unsustainable agricultural practices such as intensive irrigation and over-cropping; second, it has pressed grazers onto more marginal land which may lead to overgrazing. Both have contributed to the growing problem of erosion.

5. Irrigation of soils makes them prone to Stalinization, alkalinization or even water-logging.

6. Over-cropping reduces the available organic matter in the soil. Humus loss decreases the ability of the soil to hold water, speeds precipitation runoff, increases the chance of flooding and water erosion, and makes the area more vulnerable to drought.

7. Mine spoils are becoming a driver of land degradation in the arid lands of India.

8. Trade and globalization contribute to land degradation in India as well. The importance of cash crops and food crop exports is likely to grow. This development is predicted to force more food production onto marginal areas, which will augment existing problems, especially related to erosion.

10. What are the reasons for the development of cement industry in Rajasthan?

The industry depends upon the availability of limestone, clay or shale and gypsum. These natural materials are mined in different regions; as such factories are set up close to the sources of raw material.

Development of means of transport and availability of capital are other factors which determine development of cement industry. It is because of developmental work in the country, like construction of multipurpose river valley projects, means of transport, industries and housing activity. Rajasthan has rich potentials for cement manufacturing. Cement factories are located at Lakheri, Sawai Madhopur, Udaipur, Chittorgarh, Bundi, Banas, Beawar, Nimbahera and Sirohi.

RAS-MAINS-PRACTICE-PAPER

11. Describe Aravali Hill Development Programme

  • In the year 2000, Government of Rajasthan engaged ARAVALI to undertake a baseline study to demarcate the Magra Area and identify the development gaps and priority for its development.
  • Based on the survey, the government allocated funds for the development of the area. In the year 2005, again Government of Rajasthan requested Aravali to prepare a proposal detailing out situational analysis and identifying appropriate solutions in terms of natural resource enhancement, infrastructure development and capacity building aspects and finally proposing a strategic plan of Bhilwara district.

12. Write short notes on Mansagar Lake

  • Man Sagar Lake is an artificial lake, situated in Jaipur, the capital of the state of Rajasthan in India. It is named after Raja Man Singh, the then ruler of Amer, who constructed it in c. 1610 by damming the Dravyavati River.
  • The Jal Mahal is situated in the middle of the lake.

Write short notes on the followings:

13. Ghatiyala Inscription

14. Ghosundi Inscription

15. BuchKalan Inscription

16. Ranthambore Fort

17. Chittorgarh Fort

18. Mandawa Fort

13. Ghatiyala Inscription

Ghantiyala or Ghatiyala is a village in Jodhpur Tahsil of Jodhpur district in Rajasthan. Its ancient names are Rohimsakupaka, Rohimsakupaka and Rohimsaka.

The subjoined inscriptions are all engraved on a column standing in situ in Ghatiyala, twenty-two miles west-north- west of Jodhpur. The column is not far distant from an old ruined Jaina structure, now called Mata-ki-Sal.

14. Ghosundi Inscription

The earliest epigraphic evidence regarding the worship of Lord Narayana is found from the Ghosundi Stone Inscription of Maharaja Sarvatata of 1st Century B.C. Ghosundi is a village in the chittorgarh district of rajasthan.

The inscription record the erection of enclosing wall around the stone object of worship called Narayana Vatika for the divinities  Sankarshana and Vasudeva  by one Sarvatta  who was a devotee of Bhagavat and had performed an Asvamedha Sacrifice.

15. BuchKalan Inscription

BuchKalan is an ancient historical town in Bilada tahsil of Jodhpur district in Rajasthan. Its ancient name was Rajyaghangakam.

This inscription was first discovered by a Brahmabhatta of Jodhpur named Nannurama whose zeal for antiquarian matters is as unflagging as it is disinterested. It was found at BuchKalan in the Bilada district, Jodhpur State. It is incised on a pilaster on the proper right forming part of the shrine wall jutting out into the sabha mandapa of what is popularly known there as the temple of Parvati.

16. Ranthambore Fort

Ranthambore Fort is housed in the wildlife sanctuary of the same name in Sawai Madhopur. Built in the 10th century by Nagil Jats, these are the oldest remnants of the royalty of Rajasthan. Built on two hills, the fort is mainly in ruins. Witnessing attacks of Mughals, British and ravages of time, few structures remain standing.

Attractions to check out are Hammir’s Court, Badal Mahal, Dhula Mahal, Ganesha temple, Jogi Mahal, Shiva Temple, Ramlal ji Temple and temple of Lord Sumatinath and Lord Sambhavanath. The roar of the Royal Bengal Tigers and the call of wild animals can be frequently heard. The calls are reminders that the fort is their territory.

Adventure is the allure of the fort. Now it is a free sanctuary of animals which was previously hunting grounds of the Royalty.

17. Chittorgarh Fort

One of the oldest forts in Rajasthan, Chittorgarh Fort is the origin of many stories of valor, courage and sacrifice. The impregnable fortress is one of the most significant places to learn the history of Rajasthan. The 7th century fort is the land of Meera Bai who drank poison than leave the love of her Lord Krishna, and, Rani Padmini and Karanavati who protected honor by jumping into the fire of Jauhar and the heroics of Gora, Badal and Panna Dhai.

  • The UNESCO World Heritage Site is the breathing grounds of the romantic tales of Rajasthan.
  • Sieged numerous times in various periods of history, a lot of stories lies within its boundaries. Check out the beautiful attractions of Rana Kumbha Mahal, Ratan Singh’s Palace, Badal Mahal, Rani Padmini’s Palace, Kanwar Pade Ka Mahal, etc.
  • The Vijay Stambha and Kirti Stambha and several cenotaphs stand as memorials.

The temples of Kalika mata Temple, Adbuthnath Temple, Kumbha Shyam Temple, etc are worshipped by Hindus and Jains and still draw crowds. The seven gates of Chittorgarh deserve attention as they have lots of history associated with it.

18. Mehrangarh Fort

Mehrangarh Fort stands as one of the most important heritage sites of Jodhpur, Rajasthan. The foundation of the fort was laid way back in 1458 by Rathore ruler, Rao Jodha. The Citadel of the Sun was not once sieged. The fort remains invincible and inspires awe from all. There are numerous mysteries and scandals hidden.

  • What does not hide is its architectural splendor.
  • The exquisite palaces of Moti Mahal, Sheesha Mahal, Phool Mahal, Daulat Khana and Sileh Khana.
  • The fort itself is a museum where the lifestyle of the Rathore clan and even Mughals is preserved. From weaponry, palanquins, cradles, musical instruments, furniture to the clothes of the era get an insight of the glorious era.

19. Taragarh Fort

Taragarh Fort in Bundi is one of the magnificent forts in Rajasthan. The fort overlooking the city of Bundi has sadly been ravaged by time but its charm does not fade. Built in 1354 A.D., the fort remains as glorious remnants of the Chauhan dynasty. The breathtaking views are delightful. The gateway to the fort is decked with stone statues of elephants.

  • There are mainly 3 entries named Lakshmi Pol, Gagudi ki Phatak and Phuta Darwaza.
  • Taragarh fort also houses an excellent network of tunnels which were saviors in times of need. The huge properly planned water reservoirs must be visited.
  • The beautiful Rani Mahal was designed with murals; artwork and lattice artworks inspire awe.
  • The Bhim Burj and Garbha Gunjan, the huge field cannons are few of the popular attractions.

20. Gagron Fort

One of the UNESCO World Heritage sites, the hill fort of Rajasthan is a beauty. The Gagron Fort is a beautiful site of archaeological importance. This structure is the epitome of a “Jal Durg” as it is surrounded by water on all sides.

  • Built for protection from armies, in 1195 A.D by King Bijaldev of the Parmara Empire, the fort draws visitors and devotes from all over. Here also lies the tomb of a Sufi saint, Pipa Baba.
  • The glory of the fort has been faded with time but its charm still lives. The Rajputana glory lives in these structures forgotten in the chapters of history.

21. Mandawa Fort

Founded in 18th Century by Nawal Singh, Mandawa Fort of Shekhawati is an impressive structure of heritage of Rajasthan. The exquisite artwork, architecture and the ambiance has been preserved beautifully and converted into a heritage hotel. The charm has been pleasantly treasured.

  • The medieval themed rooms, balconies, the antique collection, the family portraits of the rulers and their belongings take you back in history.
  • The grand archways and the paintings of Lord Krishna and his cows are a visual treat. Wander through areas opened for tourists and you shall witness the impressive aura and architecture of the Royal state of Rajasthan.

22. Write the Name of UNESCO World Heritage Sites in Rajasthan

There are eight world Heritage sites in Rajasthan Namely:

  1. Chittorgarh Fort
  2. Kumbhalgarh Fort
  3. Ranthambore Fort
  4. Jaisalmer Fort
  5. Gagron Fort
  6. Keoladeo National Park
  7. Jantar Mantar
  8. Amber Fort

23. Write in brief on e-waste management.

The rapid growth of technology, upgradation of technical innovations and a high rate of obsolescence in the electronics industry have led to one of the fastest growing waste streams in the world which consist of end of life electrical and electronic equipment products. It comprises a whole range of electrical and electronic items such as refrigerators, washing machines, computers and printers, televisions, mobiles, i-pods, etc., many of which contain toxic materials. Many of the trends in consumption and production processes are unsustainable and pose serious challenge to environment and human health.

E-waste is not hazardous if it is stocked in safe storage or recycled by scientific methods or transported from one place to the other in parts or in totality in the formal sector. The e-waste can be considered hazardous if recycled by primitive methods

Major Toxins in Ewaste

• Toxins in e‐waste include polyvinyl chloride (PVC plastics), copper, lead, mercury, arsenic (in older models), cadmium, manganese, cobalt, gold, and iron.
• Between 1994 and 2003, disposal of PCs resulted in 718,000 tons of lead, 287 tons of  mercury, and 1,363 tons of cadmium
• Mercury, chromium, lead, and  Brominated flame retardants are likely to cause the most adverse health effects in humans.

 Give an account of the following

24) Mahila e-Haat

25) Sakhi-one stop centres

26) Ujjwala scheme

 

Mahila-e-Haat:  It’s an online marketing platform for women. Beneficiary- All Indian women citizens more than 18 years of age and women SHGs.It’s an initiative for meeting aspirations and need of women entrepreneurs which will leverage technology for showcasing products made/manufactured/sold by women entrepreneurs It has been set up with an investment of under Rs.10 lakh from the Rashtriya Mahila Kosh—an autonomous body under the WCD ministry for the socio-economic empowerment of women.

Sakhi-one stop centres: To provide integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence, in private and public spaces, within the family, community and at the workplace under one roof. All women including girls below 18 years of age affected by violence, irrespective of caste, class, religion, region, sexual orientation or marital status are its beneficiaries. It is funded through Nirbhaya fund

Ujjwala scheme: For prevention of trafficking and rescue, rehabilitation, reintegration and repatriation of cross-border victims to their country of origin. Women and children who are vulnerable and victims to human trafficking are its intended beneficiaries. Rehabilitative centres are given     financial support for providing shelter and basic amenities such as food, clothing, medical care, legal aid etc.

 Give an account of the following:

27) SAKAAR

28) PRAGATI

29) Aspirational district programme

SAKAAR: Sakaar is Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) Augmented Reality (AR) application designed for Android devices. The application consists of 3 Dimensional (3D) models of Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), RISAT, indigenous rockets such as PSLV, GSLV Mk-III etc.

PRAGATI: Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation, Addressing common man’s grievances, and simultaneously monitoring and reviewing important programmes and projects of the Government of India as well as projects flagged by State Governments.

Aspirational district programme: To quickly and effectively transform some of the most underdeveloped districts of the country. It focuses on transforming 115 districts across 28 states that have witnessed the least progress along certain development parameters

30. Discuss the importance of Champaran Satyagraha.

This was the first experiment of novel method adopted by Gandhiji i.e. civil disobedience and passive resistance in the Champaran. This has huge historical significance as it marks the advent of Gandhiji in mainline politics and paved the ground for Gandhi ji popularity as leader. It also gave sanctions to the method adopted by Gandhiji.

Gandhiji was able to convince the administration that tinkathia was an exploitative system and need revamping. He became the member of the committee to make an enquiry. The recommendations of the committee were in the favour of Peasants and it recommended to abolish tinkathia and asked to compensate the peasants for illegal collection of rents and taxes.

First time rural problem in general and the problem of peasants were taken into consideration which were obscure hitherto in the Indian politics. It makes the way for participation of peasants in mass movements.

 Give an account of the following:

31) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

32) Nagpur session of INC in 1920

33) Khilafat movement

34) Lahore conspiracy case

 

31) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

JBM: On Baisakhi day, a large, crowd of people mostly from neighboring villages, unaware of the prohibitory orders in the city, had gathered in this small park to protest against the arrest of their leaders, Saifuddin Kitchlew and Satyapal. The Army surrounded the gathering under orders from General Dyer and blocked the only exit point and opened fire on the unarmed crowd killing around1000. The incident was followed by uncivilized brutalities on the inhabitants of Amritsar.

32) Nagpur session of INC in 1920

Nagpur session: Session of INC in 1920 where the Non cooperation movement got the sanction and approval of INC. The Congress decided to have the attainment of swaraj through peaceful and legitimate means as its goal.

33) Khilafat movement: The Khilafat movement (1919–22) was a pan-Islamic, political protest campaign launched by Muslims of India to influence the British government not to abolish the Ottoman Caliphate. The movement collapsed by late 1922 when Turkey gained a more favourable diplomatic position and moved toward secularism. By 1924 Turkey simply abolished the roles of the Sultan and Caliph.

34) Lahore conspiracy case: Bhagat singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were sentenced to death in the murder case of Saunders, the police official who was responsible for lathi charge on Lala Lajpat rai.

Give an account of following:

35) Hunter commission

36) Sadler commission

Hunter commission: Lord Ripon appointed the first Indian Education Commission on 3rd February 1882. Sir William Hunter (a member of viceroy’s Executive Council) was appointed as the chairman of the commission. The commission was popularly known as Hunter Commission after the name of its chairman. The major objective of Hunter commission was to:

•       Assess wood’s dispatch.

•       To evaluate the performance of primary education sector, state institute and work of missionaries in the field of education.

Sadler commission: In 1917 the government appointed the Sadler Commission to inquire into the “conditions and prospects of the University of Calcutta,” an inquiry that was in reality nationwide in scope. The commission recommended the formation of a board with full powers to control secondary and intermediate education; the institution of intermediate colleges with two-year courses; the provision of a three-year degree course after the intermediate stage; the institution of teaching and unitary universities; the organization of postgraduate studies and honours courses; and a greater emphasis on the study of sciences, on tutorial systems, and on research work

Give an account of the following:

37) Vaikkom Satyagraha

38) Delhi proposal

39) Alipore conspiracy

40) Muzaffarpur conspiracy case

Vaikkom Satyagraha:

Vaikkom Satyagraha was a movement in Travancore (modern-day Kerala) for temple entry of the depressed classes. It took place near the Shiva Temple at Vaikkom, Kottayam district, Kerala during 1924-25. Vaikkom was at that time a part of the princely state of Travancore.

Delhi proposal:

Earlier, in December 1927, a large number of Muslim leaders had met at Delhi at the Muslim League session and evolved four proposals for Muslim demands to be incorporated in the draft constitution. These proposals, which were accepted by the Madras session of the Congress (December 1927), came to be known as the ‘Delhi Proposals’.

Alipore conspiracy:

The ‘Alipore Bomb Case’ was “the first state trial of any magnitude in India”. The British Government arrested Sri Aurobindo, a prominent Nationalist Leader at the time, Barindra Ghose, and many young revolutionaries. They were charged with “Conspiracy” or “waging war against the King” – the equivalent of high treason and punishable with death by hanging (1908).

Muzaffarpur Conspiracy:

It was a revolutionary conspiracy by the Khudiran Bose and Prafulla Chaki to kill the Chief Presidency Magistrate DH Kingsford of Muzaffarpur. They threw bombs on a vehicle of DH Kingsford but he was safe and unfortunately two British women were killed in the attack.

41. Discuss the reasons for failure of Swadeshi movement?

Reasons:

  • The movement lacked any focus or effective plan. It was spontaneous and failed to create any party structure or effective organization.
  • Lack of leadership
  • Internal rift in congress
  • Congress failure to influence masses at large.
  • It was the class movement whose radius confined to urban elites only.
  • Repression by Britishers was another reason

Give an account of following.

42) Project Tiger

43) Project Hangul

44) Sea Turtle Project

45) Project snow leopard

Project tiger: To conserve tiger project tiger was started in 1973 in Palamau Tiger reserve and various tiger reserves were created in the country based on a core-buffer strategy. It is sponsored by MoEF. Administered By NTCA

Project Hangul: State of J&K, along with IUCN and the WWF Prepared a project for the protection of Hangul (Kashmiri stag) its habitation is Dachigam National park at elevations 0f 3035m

Sea turtle Project: With the objective of conservation of olive ridley turtles and other endangered marine turtles, MoEF initiated the Sea Turtle Conservation Project in collaboration of UNDP in 1999 with Wildlife Institute of India, Dehradun as the Implementing Agency. The project is being implemented in 10 coastal States of the country with special emphasis in State of Orissa.

Project Snow leopard: Project Snow Leopard was launched in 2009 to safeguard and conserve India’s unique natural heritage of high-altitude wildlife populations and their habitats by promoting conservation through participatory policies and actions. Project is operational in Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Prades

Define following term

46) Current account

47) Capital account

48) Balance of payment

49) Trade balance

Current account: Current account refers to the account maintained by every government of the world in which every kind of transaction is shown; this account is maintained by the central banking body. Current transactions of an economy in foreign currency all over the world- export, import, interest payments, foreign investments in share.

Capital account: Capital account of Balance of payment records all the transactions, between the residents of country and rest of the world, which cause a change in the assets or liabilities of the residents of the country or its government

Balance of payments: The balance of payment is a statement of all transactions made between entities in one country and the rest of the world.

Trade balance: The balance of trade is the difference between the value of a country’s imports and exports for a given period. The balance of trade is the largest component of a country’s balance of payments

50. What is a Benami transaction? How it affects the economy? Discuss the provisions of the Benami transactions amendment act?

Benami transactions refer to those transactions in which the real beneficiary of the transaction and the person in whose name the transaction is made are different, specifically transactions relating to properties. The property is held by one person while the payment for purchasing the property is made by another.

Effect on economy:

  1. Loss of revenue
  2. Generation of black money
  3. Moral hazard for honest tax payers
  4. Artificial inflationary tendencies
  5. Increase in the prices especially of real estate

Provisions of Benami amendment act:

  • Establishment of adjudicating authority
  • Case has to be decided in a year’s time
  • Adjudicating authority shall have one chairperson and at least two other members.
  • Benami property can be confiscated. The designated officers appointed from among the income tax officers will manage and disposed off these properties.
  • Benami dar or any person who abets other person to enter into such transactions will face rigorous imprisonment ranging from one to seven years in jail. The person may also be liable to pay a fine of upto 25% of the fair market value of such Benami property.

51. What is Desai-Liaqat proposal?

M.K Gandhi convinced that the British rulers would not grant independence to India unless and until the Congress and Muslim League reach some conclusion on the future of the Country or the immediate formation of the Interim National Government. Hence, Gandhi directed Bhulabhai Jivanji Desai to make another attempt to appease the league leaders and find a way out of the 1942-45 political deadlocks.

Desai being the leader of the Congress in the Central Assembly and a friend of Liaqat Ali (Leader of Muslim League), met him in January 1945 gave him proposals for the formation of Interim Government at centre. After Desai’s declaration, Liaqat Ali published the list of an agreement which given below:

  • Nomination of equal number of persons by both in the Central Executive
  • Representation of the minorities in particular of the Schedule caste and the Sikhs.
  • The government was to be formed and was to function with the framework of the existing Government of India Act, 1935.

M.K Gandhi’s attempt to resolve the political deadlock by persuading Bhulabhai Jivanji Desai to make an attempt to appease the league leaders, but the proposal were not formally endorsed either by the Congress or the League

Menstrual Hygiene for Adolescent Girls Schemes

About Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA)
One of the key components of the National Rural Health Mission is to provide every village in the country with a trained female community health activist ASHA. Selected from the village itself and accountable to it, the ASHA will be trained to work as an interface between the community and the public health system.Other Information of Menstural Hygiene Scheme – The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has been implementing this scheme for promotion of menstrual hygiene among adolescent girls in the age group of 10-19 years primarily in rural areas as part of the Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram.  

To address the need of menstrual hygiene among adolescent girls residing primarily in rural areas, Government of India is supporting the Menstrual Hygiene Scheme.

Under the Menstrual Hygiene Scheme –

  • Funds are provided to States/UTs through National Health Mission for decentralized procurement of sanitary napkins packs for provision primarily to rural adolescent girls at subsidized rates.

This scheme is encompassing the following:

  • Increasing awareness among adolescent girls on Menstrual Hygiene
    • Improving access to and use of high quality sanitary napkins by adolescent girls in rural areas.
    • Ensuring safe disposal of Sanitary Napkins in an environmentally friendly manner.
    • Provision of funds to ASHAs to hold monthly meeting with adolescents to discuss issues related to menstrual hygiene.

Information Education and Communication (IEC) Material Developed:

  • A range of IEC material has been developed, using a 360 degree approach to create awareness among adolescent girls about safe & hygienic menstrual health practices including audio, video and reading materials for adolescent girls and job-aids for ASHAs and other field level functionaries for communicating with adolescent girls.
    • ASHAs across the country are trained and play a significant role in promotion of use and distribution of the sanitary napkins.
    • Department of Health Research, under the Ministry of Health, is involved in assessment of all newer, alternative, environment friendly menstrual hygiene products to look into their safety and acceptability features.

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INSIGHTSIAS REVISION TESTS FOR UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM – 2019: TESTS 17 TO 20

This document is the compilation of 100 questions that are part of InsightsIAS’ famous REVISION initiative for UPSC civil services examination – 2019 (which has become most anticipated annual affair by lakhs of IAS aspirants across the country). These questions are carefully framed so as to give aspirants tough challenge to test their knowledge and at the same time improve skills such as intelligent guessing, elimination, reasoning, deduction etc – which are much needed to sail through tough Civil Services Preliminary Examination conducted by UPSC.

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INSIGHTSIAS REVISION TESTS FOR UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM – 2019: TESTS 13 TO 16

This document is the compilation of 100 questions that are part of InsightsIAS’ famous REVISION initiative for UPSC civil services examination – 2019 (which has become most anticipated annual affair by lakhs of IAS aspirants across the country). These questions are carefully framed so as to give aspirants tough challenge to test their knowledge and at the same time improve skills such as intelligent guessing, elimination, reasoning, deduction etc – which are much needed to sail through tough Civil Services Preliminary Examination conducted by UPSC.

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INSIGHTSIAS REVISION TESTS FOR UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM – 2019: TESTS 9 TO 12

This document is the compilation of 100 questions that are part of InsightsIAS’ famous REVISION initiative for UPSC civil services examination – 2019 (which has become most anticipated annual affair by lakhs of IAS aspirants across the country). These questions are carefully framed so as to give aspirants tough challenge to test their knowledge and at the same time improve skills such as intelligent guessing, elimination, reasoning, deduction etc – which are much needed to sail through tough Civil Services Preliminary Examination conducted by UPSC.

Myupsc.com does not own this book, neither created nor scanned. We just provide the links already available on Internet. If any way it violates the law or has any issues then kindly contact us. Thank you!!

INSIGHTSIAS REVISION TESTS FOR UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM – 2019: TESTS 5 TO 8

This document is the compilation of 100 questions that are part of InsightsIAS’ famous REVISION initiative for UPSC civil services examination – 2019 (which has become most anticipated annual affair by lakhs of IAS aspirants across the country). These questions are carefully framed so as to give aspirants tough challenge to test their knowledge and at the same time improve skills such as intelligent guessing, elimination, reasoning, deduction etc – which are much needed to sail through tough Civil Services Preliminary Examination conducted by UPSC.

Myupsc.com does not own this book, neither created nor scanned. We just provide the links already available on Internet. If any way it violates the law or has any issues then kindly contact us. Thank you!!

Insights Revision Tests for Prelims 2019 Test 1-4

This document is the compilation of 100 questions that are part of InsightsIAS’ famous REVISION initiative for UPSC civil services examination – 2019 (which has become most anticipated annual affair by lakhs of IAS aspirants across the country). These questions are carefully framed so as to give aspirants tough challenge to test their knowledge and at the same time improve skills such as intelligent guessing, elimination, reasoning, deduction etc – which are much needed to sail through tough Civil Services Preliminary Examination conducted by UPSC.

Myupsc.com does not own this book, neither created nor scanned. We just provide the links already available on Internet. If any way it violates the law or has any issues then kindly contact us. Thank you!!

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Daily Current Affairs 6-8 April 2019

Latest Current Affairs Question Answer for Competitive Exams

31. Which among the following statement is connected to Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM)?

a) JNNURM is an initiative which is meant to improve the quality of life and infrastructure in the cities.

b) It aims at creating ‘economically productive, efficient, equitable and responsive cities.

c) Ensure adequate investment of funds to fulfill deficiencies in the urban infrastructural services

d) It focuses on water supply and sanitation, solid waste management.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) was a massive city-modernisation scheme launched by the Government of India under Ministry of Urban Development. It aims at creating ‘economically productive, efficient, equitable and responsive cities.

32. With reference to witness protection scheme 2018, which of the following are correct ?

a) The scheme provides for identity protection and giving a new identity to the witness.

b) The scheme shall extend to the whole of the India except the State of Jammu & Kashmir.

c) Police escort will be provided to witnesses who are threatened and, if needed, they would be relocated to a safe house

d) A separate witness protection fund will be created in each state to meet the expenses incurred under the scheme.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The Supreme Court has approved the Centre’s draft witness protection scheme and has asked all the states to implement it till Parliament comes out with legislation. The court has also made some changes in the scheme.

33. The term REDD+ is sometimes seen in the news, which of the following are correct?

a) The programme initiated by the United Nations in 2005.

b) It aims to mitigate climate change through enhanced forest management.

c) It is the most prominent global mechanism to integrate the role of forests in climate change.

d) REDD+ means Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+), the programme initiated by the United Nations in 2005 to mitigate climate change through enhanced forest management in developing countries.

34. The term REDD Digital Sky Platform, a scheme for registration is associated with which ministry ?

a) Ministry of Home Affairs

b) Ministry of Civil Aviation

c) Ministry of Defence

d) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

Answer: b only

Explanation: Digital Sky Platform launched is a scheme launched by Ministry of Civil Aviation to start registration of drones, pilots, and operators Registration portal for online permission.

35. Name the Indian state where Kartarpur Sahib Corridor is located ?

a) Punjab

b) Haryana

c) Rajasthan

d) Jammu and Kashmir

Answer: a only

Explanation: The Indian side of Corridor is located in Punjab. It starts from Dera Baba Nanak in Gurdaspur district and extends upto International border between India and Pakistan.

36.Operation Madad which was recently in news, is associated which defence unit ?

a) Indian Coast Guard

b) Indian Navy

c) Indian Army

d) Indian Airforce

Answer: b only

Explanation: Operation Madad is the name of rescue operations conducted by Indian Navy in various occasions within India.The word ‘madad’ in Hindi means help.

37.Name the river associated with Polavaram Project in Andhra Pradesh ?

a) Godavari

b) Narmada

c) Krishna

d) Polar

Answer: a only

Explanation: Polavaram Project, is an underconstruction multi-purpose irrigation project on the Godavari River in the West Godavari District and East Godavari District in Andhra Pradesh.

38.With reference to the following, which are the features of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) ?

a) It refers to the monetary value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country.

b) It includes all private and public consumption, government outlays, investments, private inventories and paid-in construction costs.

c) It also includes all final goods and services produced by resources owned by that country.

d) It is used as a measure of a country’s standard of living.

Answer: a, b and d only

Explanation: GDP doesnot include all final goods and services produced by resources owned by that country. It is a total market value of the goods and services produced by a country’s economy during a specified period of time.

39. Name the state which will be housing the National Sports Stadium for differently abled in India ?

a) Manipur

b) Meghalaya

c) Assam

d) West Bengal

Answer: b only

Explanation: The Indian government plans to construct an international standard stadium for the differently-abled sportspersons in Meghalaya.

40. The government scheme, SPARC which is associated with the promotion of Academic Research is related to which ministry?

a) Ministry of Science and Technology

b) Ministry of Human Resource Development

c) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

d) Ministry of Electronics and IT

Answer: b only

Explanation: The Ministry of Human Resource Development has launched the web portal of the Scheme – Scheme for Promotion of Academic and Research Collaboration (SPARC) in New Delhi.

41. With EMISAT launched by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), Which of the following statements are correct ?

a) The satellite is intended for measuring electromagnetic spectrum.

b) It will also monitor the radar and the sensor on the border.

c) PSLV rocket placed EMISAT in a 749-kilometer orbit.

Choose the correct code:

Answer: Above all

Explanation: India hs launched the EMISAT in Sun Synchronous Polar Orbit. The full name of EMISAT is Electronic Intelligence Satellite. It was made by ISRO and DRDO together. EMISAT was launched by PSLV C-45 launch vehicle. EMISAT was launched from Satish Dhawan Space Center, Sriharikota.

42. With reference to the launch of block chain enabled marketplace app, name the commodity/commodities associated with it ?

a) Tea

b) Sugar

c) Rice

d) Coffee

Answer: d only

Explanation: The commerce ministry has launched a blockchain-based coffee e-marketplace app.

43. With reference to Electrol Bonds, which of the following are correct?

a) Electrol Bonds helps to bring transparency in the election funding of the political parties

b) It is a kind of bond which has its specified face value, mentioned on it like a currency note.

c) Any citizen or institution or any company in India can purchase electoral bonds to fund registered political parties.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Electoral Bond is a kind of a bond which has its specified face value, mentioned on it like a currency note. These bonds can be used by the individuals, institutions and organizations to donate money to the political parties. These electoral bonds will be available in the denomination of Rs. 1,000, Rs. 10,000, Rs. 1 lac, Rs. 10 lacs and Rs. 1 crore.

44. With reference to Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) which is currently in the news, which of the following are correct ?

a) It gives armed forces the power to maintain public order in disturbed areas.

b) It has the authority to prohibit a gathering of five or more persons in an area.

c) It can use force or even open fire after giving due warning.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) is a special act. It gives armed forces the power to maintain public order in disturbed areas. They have the authority to prohibit a gathering of five or more persons in an area, can use force or even open fire after giving due warning if they feel a person is in contravention of the law. If reasonable suspicion exists, the army can also arrest a person without a warrant; enter or search premises without a warrant; and ban the possession of firearms.

45.With reference to National Development Council, which of the following are correct ?

a) It is a apex body to take decisions on matters related to approval of five year plans of the country.

b) It aims to ensure the balanced and rapid development of all parts of the country.

c) It also tries to consider the National Plan as formulated by the Planning Commission.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: National Development Council provides a platform to all the states to discuss their problems and issues related to development. Thus, it secures the cooperation of the states in the execution of developmental plans.

46.In the context of, ‘Defence Innovation Hubs (DIHs)’, which of the following are the features ?

a) It serves has a platform where innovators can get information about needs and feedback from major defence platforms.

b) It also aims to attract more innovators to work for the defence sector in India.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: The Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) framework of the Government envisages setting up and managing independent Defence Innovation Hubs (DIHs). These DIHs will serve as platforms where innovators can get information about needs and feedback from the Services directly and create solutions for India’s major defence platforms. This structure is also geared towards attracting more innovators to work for the defence sector in India.

47.With reference to ‘National Gas Grid’, which of the following are the objectives of the scheme ?

a) The scheme aims to regional imbalance within the country with regard to access of natural gas and provide clean and green fuel throughout the country.

b) It plans to connect gas sources to major demand centres and ensure availability of gas to consumers in various sectors.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: The aims and objectives of National Gas Grid are, to remove regional imbalance within the country with regard to access of natural gas and provide clean and green fuel throughout the country. To connect gas sources to major demand centres and ensure availability of gas to consumers in various sectors. development of City Gas Distribution Networks in various cities for supply of CNG and PNG.

48. Name the ministry or government body associated with Monetary policy ?

a) Ministry of Finance

b) Department of Income tax

c) Reserve Bank of India

d) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Answer: c only

Explanation: Monetary policy is the process by which a central bank (Reserve Bank of India or RBI) manages money supply in the economy. One of the main objectives of monetary policy include ensuring inflation targeting and price stability, full employment and stable economic growth.

49. With reference to the Know India Programme (KIP), which of the following statements are correct?

a) It aims to familiarize Indian-origin youth (18-30 years) with their Indian roots and contemporary India.

b) The programme provides a unique forum for students & young professionals of Indian origin to visit India, share their views and experience.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Know India Programme (KIP) is an important initiative for Diaspora engagement developed by India. The programme aims to familiarize Indian-origin youth (18-30 years) with their Indian roots and contemporary India.

50. What is the target set by the Indian government to eliminate Tuberculosis?

a) 2025

b) 2020

c) 2022

d) 2024

Answer: a only

Explanation: India accounts for about a quarter of the global TB cases. Aiming to eliminate the huge burden, India has set the target to eliminate Tuberculosis in India by 2025.

51. With the harsh new sharia laws that make adultery punishable by stoning to death, name the South East Asian country which recently implemented the laws?

a) Malaysia

b)Sri lanka

c) Indonesia

d) Brunei

Answer: d only

Explanation: Brunei has become the first country in Southeast Asia to fully implement Sharia criminal law on a national level, imposing brutal punishments.

52. With reference to carbon positive settlement related to climate change, name the state which houses the country’s first village (Phayeng Village) to be tagged to carbon positive settlement ?

a) Odisha

b) West Bengal

c) Rajasthan

d) Manipur

Answer: d only

Explanation: Phayeng Village in Imphal West district of Manipur has become India’s first carbon-positive settlement.

53. The repo rate which is rate which RBI lends money to the commercial banks, name the apex body which decides the Rate?

a) Reserve Bank of India

b) Ministry of Finance

c) Department of Income Tax

d) Finance Commission

Answer: a only

Explanation: Repo rate is the rate at which the central bank of a country (Reserve Bank of India in case of India) lends money to commercial banks.

54. Cafe Scientifique, sometimes seen in news, name the state which has launched the science initiative ?

a) Rajasthan

b) Manipur

c) Kerala

d) Karnataka

Answer: c only

Explanation: ‘Cafe Scientifique’ is the first of its kind initiative in the State of Kerala aimed at popularising Science.

55. Kandhamal Haldi, which recently received GI tag, is produced from which state ?

a) Bihar

b) Rajasthan

c) Maharashtra

d) Odisha

Answer: d only

Explanation: Odisha’s Kandhamal Haldi (turmeric), famous for its healing properties, is will be from receiving GI tag as the Geographical Indication (GI) Tag.

56.Name the African sportsperson who was named the footballer of the year ?

a) Ronaldo

b) Mohamed Salah

c) Leonard Messi

d) Luis Suarez

Answer: b only

Explanation: Mohamed Salah named African Footballer of the Year 2018. won the Golden Boot for the 2017-18 Premier League season after scoring 32 goals in 36 appearances for the club to set a record for most goals scored by a player in the modern league era.

57. Name the author, who has won the 2018 Man Booker Prize?

a) Salman Rushdie

b) Anita Desai

c) Anna Burns

d) Amit Bangh

Answer: c only

Explanation: Anna Burns wins 2018 Man Booker Prize for Fiction with her novel Milkman.

58. Name the south Indian state which recently added one more district?

a) Kerala

b) Tamilnadu

c) Karnataka

d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer: b only

Explanation: The government of Tamil Nadu announced the creation of the state’s 33rd district — Kallakurichi, carved out of Villupuram.

59. With reference to ‘Atal Tinkering Labs’ which of the following statements are correct?

a) These are dedicated works spaces where students (Class 6th to Class 12th) learn innovation skills.

b) It will be hubs of innovation where young minds will accelerate their ideas to solve unique local problems.

c) It is a bridge between innovation and schools across the country, providing solutions to grassroot problems.

d) The objective was to encourage students to observe community problems and develop innovative solutions.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Atal Tinkering Labs are dedicated works spaces where students (Class 6th to Class 12th) learn innovation skills. It will be hubs of innovation where young minds will accelerate their ideas to solve unique local problems. It is a bridge between innovation and schools across the country, providing solutions to grassroot problems.

60. The term ‘Operation Green’ which is seen in the news is related to

A) government scheme of doubling the income of farmers by the end of 2022.

b) Working to increase demand in the economy as well with its demand forecasting model.

c) Promote farmer producers organisations, agri logistics, processing facilities.

d) Limit the erratic fluctuations in the prices of onions, potatoes and tomatoes.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: ‘Operation Green’ is a scheme focused on doubling the income of farmers by the end of 2022, working to increase demand in the economy as well with its demand forecasting model.