Daily Current Affairs 19-24 April 2019

UPSC IAS Prelims and State PSC Exams-2019 Current Affairs MCQ

1. Which article of the Indian Constitution has the provision of Finance Commission in India?

a) Article 275

b) Article 280

c) Article 265

d) Article 360

Answer: b only

Explanation: The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.

2. With reference to the union government offering grants-in-aid to state government, name the article that has the provision?

a) Article 275

b) Article 280

c) Article 265

d) Article 360

Answer: a only

Explanation: Article 275 provides for the payment of such sums as Parliament may by law provide as grants-in-aid of the revenues of such States.

3. which among them are the duties levied by the Union but Collected and Appropriated by the States?

a) Succession duty in respect of property other than agriculture land.

b) Estate duty in respect of property rather than agricultural land.

c) Stamp duty and duties of excise on the medical and toilet preparations.

d) Taxes on railway fares and freights

Answer: c only

Explanation: Stamp duty and duties of excise on the medical and toilet preparations are levied by the Union but Collected and Appropriated by the States.

4. With reference to the taxes levied and collected by the Union, which among following are assigned to the States?

a) Taxes on transactions in stock exchange.

b) Tax of sale and purchase of newspapers including advertisements

c) Estate duty in respect of property other than agriculture land.

d) Stamp duty and duties of excise on the medical and toilet preparations.

Find out the correct option from below:

Answer: a, b and c only

Explanation: The duties and taxes shall be levied and collected by the Government of India but shall be assigned to the States are duties in respect of succession to property other than agricultural land, estate duty in respect of property other than agricultural land, Terminal taxes on goods or passengers carried by railway, sea or air and taxes on railway fares and freights.

5. With reference to the Election Commission of India, name the authority who appoints the members?

a) President of India

b) Prime Minister of India

c) Elected by MPs

d) Appointed by Chief Election Commissioners

Answer: a only

Explanation: President of India appoints the members of the Election Commission of India.

6. With reference to monetary policy of RBI, which of the statements are correct?

a) It is aimed at managing the quantity of money to meet the requirements of different sectors of the economy.

b) Monetary policy is different from fiscal policy.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Monetary policy consists of the process of drafting, announcing and implementing the plan of actions taken by the central bank, currency board or other competent regulatory authority of a country that determines the scope and impact of the key drivers of the economic activity in that country.

7. With reference to the term, Systemically Important Banks, which of the banks are identified in such terms?

a) SBI

b) ICICI

c) HDFC

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has named State Bank of India (SBI), ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs).

8. With reference to the National Voluntary Guidelines on social, environmental and economic responsibilities, released by Union Ministry of Corporate Affairs, which of the following are correct?

a) Businesses should provide goods and services in a manner that is sustainable and safe.

b) Businesses should respect the interests of and be responsive to all their stakeholders.

c) Businesses should respect and promote human rights.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The Union Ministry of Corporate Affairs has released the National Guidelines on responsible business conduct and revised the National Voluntary Guidelines on social, environmental and economic responsibilities of business, 2011. These guidelines on responsible business conduct aim to urge businesses to actualize the following principles in letter and spirit.

9. With reference to the Interim Budget, which of the following are correct?

a) Interim Budget is presented by the outgoing government during the last year of its tenure before elections.

b) It is generally meant for the first 2-4 months of the fiscal year in which the elections are scheduled.

c) It does not include the proposal on the income part of the budget through collection of taxes.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Interim Budget is presented by the outgoing government during the last year of its tenure before elections. It is presented by the new government during the first term of its tenure after it takes charge. It is also known as vote on account or approval, which the government seeks from the parliament for essential spending for a limited period.

10. Which of the following are correct?

a) The annual budget is presented in two parts. It includes the detailed structure of income and future ways to raise funds.

b) The full budget is passed by the Lok Sabha only after proper discussions and voting on demand for grants.

c) It does not include the proposal on the income part of the budget through collection of taxes.

Answer: b and c only

Explanation: It is presented by the new government during the first term of its tenure after it takes charge. The annual budget is presented in two parts. It includes the detailed structure of income and future ways to raise funds.

11. Name the state associated with New Year celebrations known as ‘Vishu’?

a) Tamil Nadu

b) Kerala

c) Andhra Pradesh

d) Rajasthan

Answer: b only

Explanation: Vishu is an Indian festival celebrated in one of the Indian state Kerala and in coastal Kanyakumari nearby regions and their diaspora communities.

12. With reference to Open Market Operations (OMO), which of the following statements are correct?

a) Buying and selling of government securities in the open market.

b) Open Market Operations of securities’ purchases inject money into the banking system and stimulate growth.

c) It helps to implement and control monetary policy.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Open market operations (OMO) are the most flexible and most common tool that the Fed uses to implement and control monetary policy in India. However, the discount rate and reserve requirements are also used.

13. Name the telescope which is has captured the direct image of a black hole?

a) Event Horizon Telescope

b) Great Cloud Telescope

c) Great Globe Telescope

d) Half Horizon Telescope

Answer: a only

Explanation: In a breakthrough, the first ever direct image of a black hole has been captured, thanks to Event Horizon Telescope (EHT).

14. With reference to Anthos platform which helps to run apps from anywhere, name the technology giant associated with it?

a) Google

b) Microsoft

c) HCL

d) Wipro

Answer: a only

Explanation: Google has introduced a new open platform called Anthos to run and manage apps from anywhere. Based on the Cloud Services Platform that Google announced in 2018, Anthos lets users run applications on existing on-premise hardware investments or in the Public Cloud.

15. With reference to Order of St Andrew the Apostle, name the country associated it?

a) Japan

b) Prussia

c) Russia

d) Bulgaria

Answer: c only

Explanation: Russia’s highest state decoration, Order of St Andrew, for exceptional services in promoting special and privileged strategic partnership between the two countries.

16. With reference to 24X7 pollution charge zone which is currently in news, name the city which implemented the scheme?

a) Bangalore

b) Hong Kong

c) London

d) Delhi

Answer: c only

Explanation: London is the first city in the world to implement a 24-hour, seven day a week Ultra Low Emission Zone.

17. What is/are the purpose/purposes of the Geological Survey of India (GSI)?

a) Enable and facilitate the providing of objective, impartial and up-to-date geological expertise and geoscientific information.

b) Explore and scientifically assess mineral, energy and water resources for the country.

c) Conduct ground level surveys about the minerals deposits

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Geological Survey of India aims to facilitate the providing of objective, impartial and up-to-date geological expertise and geo-scientific information of all kinds, particularly for decision-making for policy, commercial, economic and societal needs.

18. With reference to ‘The New Delhi Declaration on Asian Rhinos 2019’, what are the objectives?

a) Conservation and protection of the Asian Rhino species.

b) Review the population of the Greater one-horned, Javan and Sumatran rhinos every four years.

c) Undertake studies on health issues of the rhinos.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The New Delhi Declaration on Asian Rhinos 2019’ for the conservation and protection of the species.

19. With reference to National Crime Records Bureau, which of the following are correct?

a) Collecting and analysing crime data as defined by the Indian Penal Code (IPC).

b) Function as a repository of information on crime and criminals.

c) To Empower Indian Police with Information Technology and criminal Intelligence.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) was created to function as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators.

20. With reference to preparation of noise pollution maps, name the regulatory body which issued the directive?

a) Central Pollution Control Board

b) Ministry of Environment and Forest

c) Supreme Court

d) National Green Tribunal

Answer: Above all

Explanation: The National Green Tribunal has directed the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) to prepare a noise pollution map and remedial action plan to solve the issue across the country.

21. With reference to National Rural Livelihood Mission, consider the following statement:

a) It aims to promote self-employment and organization of rural poor.

b) It aims to organize the poor into SHG (Self Help Groups) groups and make them capable for self-employment.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) is a poverty alleviation project implemented by Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India. This scheme is focused on promoting self-employment and organization of rural poor. The basic idea behind this programme is to organize the poor into SHG (Self Help Groups) groups and make them capable for self-employment.

22. With reference to Integrated Rural Development Program (IRDP) of the union government, consider the following statement:

a) IRDP aims to raise families of identified people below poverty line by creation of opportunities for self-employment in the rural sector.

b) IRDP is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme funded on a 50:50 basis by the centre and the states.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: The Integrated Rural Development Program is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme funded on a 50:50 basis by the centre and the states. The scheme has been in operation in all the blocks of the country since the year 1980. Under this scheme Central funds are allocated to states on the basis of proportion of rural poor in a state to the total rural poor in the country.

23. With reference to National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, consider the following:

a) It is renamed as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA).

b) It aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by offering at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: It is an Indian labour law and social security measure that aims to guarantee the ‘right to work’. It aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.

24. In the context of Universal Basic Income (UBI) scheme, which among the following are correct?

a) It is a model for providing a sum of money to all citizens of a country with a given sum of money, regardless of their income.

b) It could increase the purchasing power of the poor section of the society.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: In the Economic Survey 2016-17, Finance Minister Arun Jaitley advocated Universal Basic Income scheme (UBI) in place of various social welfare schemes in the country, in an effort to reduce poverty and income inequality in the country.

25. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMGAY), which of the following are correct?

a) It is a social welfare flagship programme which aims to provide housing for the rural poor.

b) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) (PMAY-U) for the urban poor is also the part of the programme.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMGAY) has two components: Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) (PMAY-U) for the urban poor and Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana (Gramin) (PMAY-G and also PMAY-R) for the rural poor.

26. Which of the following statements is/are correctly regarding Smart India Hackathon 2019?

a) It is a unique Open Innovation Model for identifying new and disruptive technology innovations to solve the challenges faced in India.

b) It aims to build funnel for ‘Startup India’ campaign.

c) Provide opportunity to citizens to provide innovative solutions to India’s daunting problems.

d) It is a nationwide initiative to provide students a platform to solve some of pressing problems we face in daily lives.

Answer: Above all

Explanation: Smart India Hackathon 2019 is a nationwide initiative to provide students a platform to solve some of pressing problems we face in our daily lives, and thus inculcate a culture of product innovation and a mindset of problem solving.

27. Which among the following is the first municipal corporation setup in India?

a) Delhi Municipal Corporation

b) Bombay Municipal Corporation

c) Madras Municipal Corporation

d) Kolkata Municipal Corporation

Answer: c only

Explanation: The Madras Corporation is the oldest municipal body of the Commonwealth of Nations outside the United Kingdom. It was formed in 1688 to control the powers of the Governor of Madras.

28. In which year did India become a sovereign democratic republic?

a) 26th January 1950

b) 15th August 1947

c) 30th January 1948

d) 14th January 1947

Answer: b only

Explanation: Republic Day honours the date on which the Constitution of India came into effect on 26 January 1950 replacing the Government of India Act as the governing document of India and became a sovereign democratic republic.

29. in which year, the first census of India was conducted?

a) 1947

b) 1872

c) 1857

d) 1867

Answer: b only

Explanation: The decennial Census of India has been conducted 15 times, as of 2011. While it has been conducted every 10 years, beginning in 1872 and completed on 1881.

30. How many islands are present in the Lakshadweep Islands?

a) 40

b) 38

c) 36

d) 30

Answer: c only

Explanation: Lakshadweep has 10 inhabited islands, 17 uninhabited islands, attached islets, 4 newly formed islets and 5 submerged reefs. 10 inhabited islands are, Andrott, Amini, Agatti, Bitra, Cheetal, Kadmatt, Kalpeni, Kavaratti, Kiltan and Minicoy. There are 36 Islands in Lakshadweep group.

31. With Cotton production of India crossing new heights, name the largest cotton growing state?

a) Maharashtra

b) Gujarat

c) Bihar

d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer: b only

Explanation: Gujarat produces around 95 Lakh Bales of cotton, which stands around 30% of the complete cotton production of the country.

32. With reference to Minimum Support Price (MSP), consider the following?

a) Aims to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices.

b) It is a guarantee price for farmers for their produce from the Government.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).

33. With reference to National Horticulture Mission, consider the following statements:

a) NHM aims to provide holistic growth of the horticulture sector through an area based regionally differentiated strategies.

b) Its objective is to create opportunities for employment generation for skilled and unskilled person.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: National Horticulture Mission (NHM) is an Indian horticulture Scheme promoted by Government of India. It was launched under the 10th five-year plan in the year 2005-06.While Government of India contributes 85%, 15% share is contributed by State Governments.

34. With reference to National Bamboo Mission, consider the following statements:

a) Promote the growth of the bamboo sector through as an area based regionally differentiated strategy.

b) To promote marketing of bamboo and bamboo based handicrafts.

Answer: both a and b

Explanation: National Bamboo Mission (NBM) is being implemented as a sub scheme. It envisages promoting holistic growth of bamboo sector by adopting area-based, regionally differentiated strategy and to increase the area under bamboo cultivation and marketing.

35. With reference to the launch of e-Charak platform for medicinal plants, name the ministry associated with the initiative?

a) Ministry of Corporate affairs

b) Ministry of Home Affairs

c) Ministry of Ayush

d) Ministry of Agriculture

Answer: c only

Explanation: e-Charak has been jointly developed by the National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB), Ministry of Ayush, Government of India and Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC).

36. Name the government body associated with committee to boost digital payments?

a) RBI

b) Ministry of Finance

c) Digital India

d) Department of Income Tax

Answer: an only

Explanation: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has constituted a High-Level Committee on Deepening of Digital Payments to encourage digitisation of payments and enhance financial inclusion. The five-member committee will be headed by UIDAI’s former Chairman Nandan Nilekani.

37. Name the countries, which are planning to use India as a base to address their food security concerns?

a) Iran and Iraq

b) UAE and Saudi Arabia

c) Iran and Saudi Arabia

d) Iraq and Saudi Arabia

Answer: b only

Explanation: Union Commerce Ministry has announced that the UAE and Saudi Arabia had decided to use India as a base to address their food security concerns. For the first time, India’s export policy identifies the potential of agriculture along with horticulture, dairy, plantation and fisheries. The farm-to-port project will be similar to a special economic zone but in the style of a corporatised farm, where crops would be grown keeping a specific UAE market in mind. The concept has been accepted by both governments.

38. Su Tseng Chang was appointed as the new premier of which country?

a) Malaysia

b) Taiwan

c) Indonesia

d) Singapore

Answer: b only

Explanation: Taiwan President Tsai Ing-wen has appointed Su Tseng-chang as Prime Minister during a Cabinet reshuffle.

39. Which countries are involved in the dispute of Chagos Islands?

a) United States and India

b) UK and Mauritius

c) Maldives and Srilanka

d) India and UK

Answer: b only

Explanation: Sovereignty over the Chagos Islands is disputed between Mauritius and the United Kingdom, where India is supporting the former.

40. Name the cricket team which won the Duleep Trophy 2018?

a) India Yellow

b) India Green

c) India Blue

d) India Orange

Answer: c only

Explanation: India Blue has won 2017-18 Duleep Trophy by defeating defending champion India Red by an innings and 187 runs.

41. Which of the following statements regarding the new amended version of the Forests rights act are true?

1) Under the act Forest dwellers can transport minor forest produce by any appropriate means of transport.

2) Transit passes for transporting minor forest produce will be issued by a committee constituted by the district administration.

3) No committee or individual official at the panchayat, block or forest range level except the forest rights committee shall be eligible to receive, decide or reject the forest rights claims.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

42. Which of the following pairs of tribals and their inhabiting states are correctly matched ?

1) Kand :Odisha

2) Warli : Gujarat

3) Adiyan :Tamilnadu

4) Chakma : Nagaland

5) Asur : West Bengal

a) 1,2 & 3 only

b) 1,3 & 5 only

c) 3,4 & 5 only

d) all of the above

43. With respect to the Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kits (SAECK)to be distributed by the Union home ministry which of the following statements are true ?

1) The Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kits (SAECK) or ‘rape investigation kits’ are designed to carry out immediate medico-legal investigation and aid in furnishing evidence in sexual assault and rape cases.

2) Each kit comprises essential items that will aid in furnishing evidence such as blood and semen samples in sexual assault and rape cases, helping the prosecution to gather evidence.

3) Under the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution, ‘Police’ and ‘Public Order’ are State subjects and the States are competent to equip their police stations suitably with these kits.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

44. Consider the following statements with respect to solar energy production :

1) ‘Solar PV’ works by photons in sun’s rays knocking off electrons in the semi-conducting material in the panels and channels them through a wire the stream of electrons is electricity.

2) While Solar thermal systems, in contrast, suck up sun’s heat and conduct it to where it is needed – such as for drying of spices or fish or wet paint.

3) There is no loss in conversion of light energy into electric energy in a solar PV but a Solar thermal system has high conversion losses.

Which of the above statements are true ?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q45. Which of the following is the first country to allow voting through mobile phones in a parliamentary election?

a) Lithuania

b) Estonia

c) Latvia

d) Kenya

46. Consider the following statements regarding Net Interest Income (NII):

1) Net interest income is the difference between the revenue that is generated from a bank’s assets and the expenses associated with paying its liabilities.

2) A bank can earn more interest from its assets than it pays out on its liabilities, which means the bank is profitable.

3) Banks with variable rate assets and liabilities will be more sensitive to changes in interest rates than those with fixed rate assets and liabilities.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

47. Which of the following are important sites of nesting places of olive ridley turtles across the world?

1) Galapagos islands

2) Gulf of California

3) Gahirmatha

4) Coromandal coast

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 3 & 4 only

c) all the above

d) 1 & 3 only

48. Which of the following statements regarding India’s pollution statistics are true?

1) India can achieve its air quality goals if it completely eliminates emissions from household sources

2) A recent study has pointed out that the use of firewood, kerosene and coal in the households contributed to about 40% of the PM 2.5 pollution in the Gangetic basin districts.

3) If all households transitioned to clean fuels, about 13% of premature mortality in India could be averted.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

49. Which of the following statements with respect to sexual harassment at workplace (prevention, prohibition & redressal) 2013 act are true?

1) The Act uses a definition of sexual harassment which was laid down by the Supreme Court of India in Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997).

2) The Supreme Court asserted that in case of a non-compliance or non-adherence of the Vishaka Guidelines, it would be open to the aggrieved persons to approach the Supreme Court only.

3) Under the act Government can order an officer to inspect workplace and records related to sexual harassment in any organisation.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

50. Mount Agung which recently erupted is in which of the following countries?

a) Bali

b) Java

c) New Zealand

d) Japan

ANSWER:

41(c), 42(b), 43(d), 44(a), 45(b), 46(c), 47(c), 48(d), 49(c), 50(a)

Source: Civilservicesindia+The Hindu+PIB

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