RRB GROUP-D MOCK TEST PAPERS IN HINDI

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Q 1. किसी भी स्थिर या गतिशील वस्तु की स्थिति और दिशा में तब तक कोई परिवर्तन नहीं होता जब तक उस पर कोई बाह्य बल सक्रिय न हो। यह है-

  1. न्यूटन का गति विषयक प्रथम नियम
  2. न्यूटन का गति विषयक द्वितीय नियम
  3. न्यूटन का गति विषयक तृतीय नियम
  4. गैलीलियो का गति विषयक नियम

ANS-1

Q 2. किसी मनुष्य का भार पृथ्वी पर यदि 600 N है तब चन्द्रमा पर उसका भार कितना होगा?

  1. 6000 N
  2. 60 N
  3. 1000 N
  4. 100 N

ANS-4

Q 3. एक मनुष्य द्वारा भूमि पर लगाया गया दबाव सबसे अधिक कब होता है?

  1. जब वह नीचे भूमि पर लेट जाता है
  2. जब वह एक पैर की पादांगुलि पर खड़ा होता है
  3. जब वह दोनों पादों को भूमि पर सपाट रख कर खड़ा होता है
  4. उपर्युक्त सभी समान दबाव उत्पन्न करते हैं

ANS-2

Q 4. श्री सी. वी. रमण को किस क्षेत्र में कार्य करने के लिए नोबेल पुरस्कार से सम्मानित किया गया?

  1. ध्वनिमापी
  2. प्रकाश प्रकीर्णन
  3. रेडियोधर्मिता
  4. क्रोयोजेनिकी

ANS-2

Q 5. कम्प्यूटर वायरस होता है एक-412242

  1. फफूंद
  2. बैक्टीरिया
  3. IC7344
  4. सॉफ्टवेयर प्रोग्राम

Ans-4

Q 6. ATM के आविष्कारक का नाम है?

  1. जॉन शेफर्ड बार्नेस
  2. चार्ल्स बैबेज
  3. जे. एस. किल्बी
  4. टिम बर्नर्स ली

Ans-1

Q 7. निम्नलिखित तत्वों मे से किसकी परमाणु संख्या नियॉन की तुलना में अधिक है?

  1. ऑक्सीजन
  2. मैग्नीशियम
  3. नाइट्रोजन
  4. बोरॉन

Ans-2

Q 8. निम्नलिखित तत्वों मे से किसकी परमाणु संख्या आयरन की तुलना में अधिक है?

  1. मैगनीज
  2. कोबाल्ट
  3. कैल्सियम
  4. क्रोमियम    Ans-2
  5.  Q 9. निम्नलिखित तत्वों मे से किसकी परमाणु संख्या मैग्नीशियम की तुलना में अधिक है?
  1. नियॉन
  2. फ्लोरीन
  3. सोडियम
  4. ऐलुमिनियम

Ans-4

Q 10. किस प्रकार की अभिक्रिया से सबसे अधिक हानिकारक विकिरण पैदा होता है?

  1. संलयन अभिक्रिया
  2. विखंडन अभिक्रिया
  3. रासायनिक अभिक्रिया
  4. प्रकाश-रासायनिक अभिक्रिया

Ans-2

RRB ASSISTANT LOCO PILOT MOCK TEST PAPERS-HINDI

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General Knowledge,Reasoning,Math,General Science Mock Test Papers for RRB Exams:-

Q 1. किसी भी स्थिर या गतिशील वस्तु की स्थिति और दिशा में तब तक कोई परिवर्तन नहीं होता जब तक उस पर कोई बाह्य बल सक्रिय न हो। यह है-
1. न्यूटन का गति विषयक प्रथम नियम

2. न्यूटन का गति विषयक द्वितीय नियम

3. न्यूटन का गति विषयक तृतीय नियम
4. गैलीलियो का गति विषयक नियम
ANS-1
Q 2. किसी मनुष्य का भार पृथ्वी पर यदि 600 N है तब चन्द्रमा पर उसका भार कितना होगा?
1. 6000 N
2. 60 N
3. 1000 N
4. 100 N

ANS-4
Q 3. एक मनुष्य द्वारा भूमि पर लगाया गया दबाव सबसे अधिक कब होता है?
1. जब वह नीचे भूमि पर लेट जाता है
2. जब वह एक पैर की पादांगुलि पर खड़ा होता है

3. जब वह दोनों पादों को भूमि पर सपाट रख कर खड़ा होता है
4. उपर्युक्त सभी समान दबाव उत्पन्न करते हैं
ANS-2

Q 4. श्री सी. वी. रमण को किस क्षेत्र में कार्य करने के लिए नोबेल पुरस्कार से सम्मानित किया गया?
1. ध्वनिमापी
2. प्रकाश प्रकीर्णन

3. रेडियोधर्मिता
4. क्रोयोजेनिकी
ANS-2

(Hindi+English)Important Book For Rajasthan Competitive Examination

Rajasthan GK general and current affairs book for RPSC and RSMSSB exams like RAS, Sub Inspector- SI, college/school Lecturer, second grade teacher, Junior accountant, Rajasthan police constable, Patwar, Gram sevak and other Rajasthan related competition exams. This section includes common reference books related to History, Art and Culture, Geography, Economy etc of Rajasthan. 

 

Rajasthan : History,Arts,Culture,Literature : Useful For RAS,RJS,Lecturers Etc.

 

PRACTICE SOLVED PAPER RAS PRE-2018

 

RAS/RTS PRELIMS TEST SERIES CURRENT AFFAIRS (HINDI+ENGLISH)

 

RAS/RTS PRELIMS TEST SERIES (HINDI+ENGLISH)

 

RAS/RTS PRELIMS SOLVED PRACTICE PAPERS WITH CURRENT AFFAIRS

 

RAS/RTS PRELIMS TEST SERIES (HINDI+ENGLISH)

 

(MCQ) राजस्थान-कला एवं संस्कृति

 

राजस्थान भूगोल-OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK IN HINDI

 

(Hindi)Rajasthan Police Constable Exam Practice Papers

 

(HINDI) RAJASTHAN LDC EXAM – MODEL TEST PAPERS

 

(PRACTICE MCQ) BUDGET & ECONOMIC SURVEY -RAJASTHAN

 

Economy Solved Test Papers for RAS Prelims

 

(English) GEOGRAPHY OF RAJASTHAN: DETAILED PRACTICE MCQs

 

History of Rajasthan: Practice Solved Papers

 

(PRACTICE MCQ) BUDGET & ECONOMIC SURVEY 2018-RAJASTHAN

 

(MCQ) राजस्थान-कला एवं संस्कृति

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QUESTION BANK TOPICS:-

  1. राजस्थान के प्रतिक चिन्ह
  2. भारत सरकार के अनुसार राजस्थान की जनजातियों की सूची
  3. राजस्थान की कला संस्कृति से संबंधित शब्द
  4. राजस्थान के लोकगीत
  5. विश्नोई संप्रदाय एवं जांभोजी
  6. करणी माता देशनोक बीकानेर
  7. तनोट माता मन्दिर जैसलमेर
  8. देलवाड़ा/दिलवाड़ा का जैन मंदिर
  9. राजस्थान की छतरियां
  10. राजस्थान की चित्र शैलियां
  11. ख्वाजा गरीब नवाज-अजमेर दरगाह
  12. खाटूश्यामजी
  13. राजस्थान के लोक देवता
  14. राजस्थान लोक नृत्य
  15. राजस्थान का साहित्य
  16. राजस्थान की लोकदेवी
  17. रणथम्भौर दुर्ग :- सवाई माधोपुर
  18. सिवाणा दुर्ग-बाड़मेर
  19. हवा महल
  20. जयगढ़ दुर्ग
  21. सिटी पैलेस ,उदयपुर
  22. बीकानेर का किला{जूनागढ़ का किला}
  23. भानगढ़ फोर्ट
  24. कुम्भलगढ़ दुर्ग
  25. भरतपुर नगर
  26. चित्तौड़गढ़ का दुर्ग
  27. जालौर दुर्ग
  28. नाहरगढ़ दुर्ग
  29. राजस्थान के प्रमुख किले एवं उनके निर्माणकर्ता
  30. लोक गायन शैलियां
  31. राजस्थान के सन्त एवं सम्प्रदाय
  32. हस्तशिल्प जातिया एवं हस्तशिल्प उद्योग
  33. राजस्थान के दुर्ग
  34. राजस्थान पेंटिंग
  35. राजस्थान की चित्र कला शैली
  36. लोकदेवता & लोकदेवियाँ
  37. राजस्थान की संस्कृति
  38. राजस्थान में धर्म और सन्त संप्रदाय
  39. राजस्थान में रीति-रिवाज
  40. राजस्थान लोक-चित्रकला
  41. राजस्थान की स्थापत्य कला

सन्त पीपा जी का जन्म कहा हुआ?

(अ) गागरोन (झालावाड़) ✔

(ब) टोडारायसिंह (टोंक)

(स) समदड़ी (बाड़मेर)

(द) उपरोक्त में से कोई नही

रामस्नेही सम्प्रदाय की स्थापना करने वाले सन्त रामचरण जी का जन्म कहा हुआ?

(अ) शाहपुरा (जयपुर)

(ब) सोडा गाँव (टोंक) ✔

(स) शाहपुरा (भीलवाड़ा)

(द) मेड़ता (नागौर)

निम्बार्क सम्प्रदाय की प्रमुख पीठ कहा है?

(अ) पुष्कर (अजमेर)

(ब) ब्यावर (अजमेर)

(स) सलेमाबाद (अजमेर) ✔

(द) आराई (अजमेर)

विश्नोई सम्प्रदाय में कितने नियमो की पालना की जाती हैं?

(अ) 36

(ब) 42

(स) 29✔

(द) 45

सन्त धन्ना जी को राजस्थान का रामानंद भी कहते हैं इनका जन्म कहा हुआ?

(अ) धुआँकला (टोंक) ✔

(ब) कतरियासर (बीकानेर)

(स) पीपासर (नागौर)

(द) देहरा (अलवर)

जसनाथी सम्प्रदाय की स्थापना जसनाथ जी ने की थी इस सम्प्रदाय की प्रमुख पीठ कहा है?

(अ) कतरियासर (बीकानेर) ✔

(ब) आदर्श नगर (जयपुर)

(स) राजगढ़ (अजमेर)

(द) आमेर (जयपुर)

दासी मत का सम्बन्ध किससे हैं?

(अ) सहजोबाई

(ब) गवरीबाई

(स) दयाबाई

(द) मीरा बाई✔

दादू सम्प्रदाय की मुख्य पीठ कहा हैं?

(अ) नारायणा (अजमेर)

(ब) नारायणा (जयपुर) ✔

(स) शाहपुरा (जयपुर)

(द) धोलिदुव (अलवर)

दाउदी बोहरा मुसलमानो का प्रमुख धार्मिक स्थल हैं?

(अ) अजमेर

(ब) टोंक

(स) गलियाकोट✔✔

(द) जोधपुर

वल्लभ सम्प्रदाय का सबसे महत्वपूर्ण व बड़ा केंद्र हैं?

(अ) नरैना

(ब) नाथद्वारा✔

(स) सलेमाबाद

(द) चामुंडा

महामंदिर(जोधपुर)में किस सम्प्रदाय की पीठ हैं?

(अ) परनामी

(ब) नाथ✔

(स) वल्लभ

(द) निम्बार्क

राजस्थान में कृष्ण को समर्पित वैष्णव सम्प्रदाय की’द्वारिकाधीश’ नाम से प्रसिद्ध मुख्य पीठ कहा है?

(अ) नाथद्वारा

(ब) कांकरोली✔

(स) सलेमाबाद

(द) करौली

परनामी सम्प्रदाय के उपदेश किस ग्रन्थ में संग्रहित हैं?

(अ) ग्रन्थ साहब

(ब) अणर्भ वाणी

(स) कुलुजम स्वरूप✔

(द) पदावलीयां

जसनाथी सम्प्रदाय के लिये कितने नियमो की पालना करना जरूरी है?

(अ) 29

(ब) 30

(स) 36✔

(द) 42

सन्त धन्ना जी की गुफा कहा है जहाँ सन्त धन्ना जी ने तपस्या की थी?

(अ) टोडारायसिंह (टोंक) ✔

(ब) समदड़ी (बाड़मेर)

(स) ओसियां (जोधपुर)

(द) भीनमाल (जालौर)

बाड़मेर के प्रसिद्ध मलीर प्रिंट कौन से रंगों का प्रयोग होता है ?

A कत्थई व काला✔

B लाल तथा नीले

C कत्थई तथा नीले

D लाल तथा कत्थई

किस स्थान को धुप धारा के नाम से जाना जाता है जो जम्मू जी से संबंधित है

  1. पीपासर
  2. समराथल✅
  3. जांभा
  4. मुकाम

कौन सा स्थान (गाँव) विश्नोई संप्रदाय के लिए पुष्कर की तरह पवित्र तीर्थस्थल है

  1. जांभा✅
  2. मुकाम
  3. रोटू
  4. जांगलू

गोरखमालिया स्थान किस संत से संबंधित है

  1. पीपा जी
  2. दादू दयाल जी
  3. सुंदर दास जी
  4. जसनाथ जी✅

किस संत ने 1585 ईस्वी में फतेहपुर सीकरी की यात्रा के दौरान अकबर को अपने विचारों से प्रभावित किया था

  1. संत दादू दयाल✅
  2. संत सुंदरदास
  3. संत रज्जब
  4. संत रामचरण

जोधपुर के राठौड़ शासक मानसिंह नाथ मत के किस गुरु के अनुयायी हो गए

  1. मत्स्येन्द्र नाथ
  2. गोपीचंद
  3. आयस नाथ✅
  4. गोरखनाथ

कौन सा संप्रदाय निर्गुण भक्ति धारा से संबंधित नहीं है

  1. जसनाथी
  2. दादू
  3. रामानंदी✅
  4. विश्नोई

निम्न मे से कोनसा संस्कार सोलह संस्कारो मे से नही है

श्राध्द.    ✔

जातकर्म

नामकरण

पुंसवन

बालक के जन्म पर कौनसा संस्कार किया जाता है

पुंसवन

जातकर्म✔

चूढाकर्म

उपनयन

निम्न मे से कौनसा संस्कार शिशु जन्म से पूर्व नही किया जाता

गर्भाधान

पुंसवन

निष्क्रमण✔

सीमन्तोन्नयन

मृत्यु के तीसरे दिन मृतक की हड्डियो को इकट्ठा किया जाता है , इस क्रिया को क्या कहते है

मौसर

पींडदान

श्राध्द

फूल चुनना✔

विवाह के समय वधू के लिए वर पक्ष द्वारा जो आभूषण ले जाए जाते है उन्हे क्या कहते है

बरी पडला✔

बेस

मायरा

मुकलावा

बढार का भोज निम्न मे से किस मोके पर रखा जाता है

जन्म

विवाह✔

मृत्यु

तीर्थ यात्रा

किस संस्कार के पश्चात ब्रह्मचर्याश्रम की शुरूवात होती है

विधारम्भ

समावर्तन

उपनयन✔

चूडाकर्म

कौनसा संस्कार मनुष्य जीवन का अन्तिम संस्कार माना जाता है

समावर्तन

पिण्डदान

श्राध्द

अंत्येष्टि✔

शरारा क्या है

एक आभूषण

एक रिवाज

एक खेल

एक वस्त्✔

दहशरे पर पहनी जाने वाली पगडी कोनसी है

मोठडे की पगडी

लहरिया की पगडी

मदील✔

पंचरंगी पगडी

निम्न मे से कौनसा वस्त्र पुरूषो का नही ह

पटका

तिलका✔

बागा

आतमसुख

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1.इंदिरा गांधी नहर का निर्माण कार्य वर्ष 1958 से प्रारंभ हुआ, इसका उद्गम होता है:

अ.सतलज नदी पर भाखड़ा बांध से

ब.रिहन्द नदी घाटी योजना से

स.महानदी स्थित ​हीराकुंड योजना से

द.सतलज—व्यास नदी स्थित हरिके बांध से

उत्तर:द.सतलज—व्यास नदी स्थित हरिके बांध से

2.निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा युग्म सही है:

अ.बाणगंगा—बनास   ब.कोठारी—लूनी

स.सूकड़ी—चम्बल    द.जाखम—माही

उत्तर:द.जाखम—माही

3.चूलिया जल प्रपात स्थित है:

अ.बनास नदी, चित्तौड़गढ़         ब.चम्बल नदी, कोटा

स.चम्बल नदी, चित्तौड़गढ़        द.बनास नदी, राजसमंद

उत्तर:स.चम्बल नदी, चित्तौड़गढ़

4.मई, 1994 में सम्पन्न यमुना नदी जल बंटवारे सम्बन्धी समझौते के अनुसार राजस्थान को मिलने वाले जल की मात्रा है:

अ.800 करोड़ घन मीटर       ब.95 करोड़ घन मीटर

स.111.9 करोड़ घन मीटर     द.122.5 करोड़ घन मीटर

उत्तर:स.111.9 करोड़ घन मीटर

5.राजस्थान में आंतरिक प्रवाह की सबसे बड़ी नदी कौनसी है:

अ.बनास          ब.बाणगंगा

स.कान्तली        द.घग्घर

उत्तर:द.घग्घर

6.निम्न में से कौनसी नदी सवाईमाधोपुर से संबंधित नहीं है:

अ.बनास          ब.मोरेल

स.गंभीर          द.गंभीरी

उत्तर:द.गंभीरी

7.राजस्थान की एकमात्र नदी जो कर्क रेखा को पार करती है:

अ.माही           ब.लूनी

स.बनास          द.खारी

उत्तर:अ.माही

8.राजस्थान के आंतरिक प्रवाह क्रम में कौनसी नदियां आती हैं:

अ.कांतली, सोता, साबी, बाराहा, बाणगंगा

ब.काली सिंध, चंबल, बन्सी, बांदी, कोठारी

स.मोरेल, सागी, जवाई, सूकड़ी, पार्वती

द.बनास, साबरमती, जाखम, सोम

उत्तर:अ.कांतली, सोता, साबी, बाराहा, बाणगंगा

9.थार मरूस्थल का एकमात्र प्रवाह बेसिन निम्नलिखित में से किस क्षेत्र में हैं:

अ.गोड़वार         ब.नागौर

स.शेखावाटी        द.घग्घर

उत्तर:अ.गोड़वार

10.राजस्थान के उत्तरी—पश्चिमी रेगिस्तान की प्रमुख नदियां है:

अ.लूनी,मोरेल,घग्घर,पश्चिमी बनास

ब.लूनी,साबरमती,सूकड़ी,घग्घर,पश्चिमी बनास

स.चम्बल,काली सिंध,पार्वती,माही

द.जंवाई,बांडी,लूनी,सूकड़ी,घग्घर

उत्तर:द.जंवाई,बांडी,लूनी,सूकड़ी,घग्घर

प्रश्न-1 राजस्थान में मानसून का आगमन कब होता हैं?

(अ) मार्च

(ब) जून✔

(स) अगस्त

(द) सितम्बर

प्रश्न-2 प्राकृतिक वनस्पति के वितरण को प्रभावित करने वाला सबसे महत्वपूर्ण कारक कोनसा हैं?

(अ) धरातलीय स्वरूप

(ब) जलवायु✔

(स) मिट्टी

(द) जैविक कारक

प्रश्न-3 निम्नलिखित में से किस जिले में जलवायु की सर्वाधिक विषमता पाई जाती है?

(अ) बांसवाड़ा

(ब) जोधपुर

(स) जैसलमेर✔

(द) नागौर

प्रश्न-4 राजस्थान में आपेक्षित आद्रता सर्वाधिक कब रहती हैं?

(अ) मार्च-अप्रैल

(ब) जुलाई-अगस्त✔

(स) सितम्बर-अक्टूबर

(द) दिसंबर-जनवरी

प्रश्न-5, 21 जून को सूर्य किस रेखा पर लम्बवत चमकता हैं?

(अ) कर्क रेखा✔

(ब) मकर रेखा

(स) भूमध्य रेखा

(द) ग्रीनविच रेखा

प्रश्न-6 अक्टूबर-नवम्बर में राजस्थान में मानसून प्रत्यावर्तन के समय मानसूनी हवाओ(लोटते हुए मानसून) के प्रवाह की दिशा क्या रहती हैं?

(अ) दक्षिण-पूर्व से उत्तर-पश्चिम

(ब) उत्तर-पश्चिम से दक्षिण-पूर्व✔

(स) दक्षिण-पश्चिम से उत्तर-पूर्व

(द) उत्तर-पूर्व से दक्षिण-पश्चिम

प्रश्न-7राजस्थान का सर्वाधिक वर्षा वाला एवं सर्वाधिक आद्रतम जिला कोनसा हैं?

(अ) सवाई माधोपुर

(ब) जयपुर

(स) झालावाड़✔

(द) जैसलमेर

प्रश्न-8 तापक्रम में प्रायः एकरूपता, अपेक्षाकृत अधिक आद्रता एवं सामयिक वर्षा राज्य के किस भू-भाग की विशेषता है?

(अ) उत्तरी राजस्थान

(ब) अरावली का पश्चिमी भाग

(स) अरावली का पूर्वी भाग✔

(द) बांगड प्रदेश

प्रश्न-9 सर्वाधिक गर्म,सर्वाधिक ठंडा एवं सर्वाधिक वार्षिक तापान्तर वाला जिला कोनसा हैं?

(अ) टोंक

(ब) चुरू✔

(स) दौसा

(द) कोटा

प्रश्न-10 राजस्थान का सर्वाधिक शुष्क स्थान कोनसा हैं?

(अ) माउंट आबू (सिरोही)

(ब) कैथून (कोटा)

(स) फलोदी (जोधपुर) ✔

(द) ब्यावर (अजमेर)

प्रश्न11 वर्षा की सर्वाधिक असमानता वाला जिला कोनसा हैं?

(अ) जैसलमेर ✔

(ब) झालावाड़

(स) करौली

(द) अलवर

प्रश्न-12वर्षा की न्यूनतम असमानता वाला जिला कोनसा हैं?

(अ) झालावाड़✔

(ब) जैसलमेर

(स) जयपुर

(द) भीलवाड़ा

प्रश्न-13राजस्थान में सर्वाधिक आंधियां किस महीने में चलती हैं?

(अ) नवम्बर

(ब) जून✔

(स) दिसम्बर

(द) अप्रैल

प्रश्न-14 राजस्थान में सर्वाधिक आंधियां किस जिले में चलती हैं?

(अ) बारा

(ब) श्रीगंगानगर✔

(स) धौलपुर

(द) बूंदी

प्रश्न-15 राजस्थान का निम्न में से कौनसा क्षेत्र अत्यधिक नम हैं?

(अ) मेवात

(ब) वागड़

(स) हाड़ौती✔

(द) बांगड

प्रश्न-16 उत्तमाद्रि क्षेत्र कहा जाता है?

A बूंदी जिले के पश्चिमी पथरीला क्षेत्र

B रूमा के दक्षिण का क्षेत्र

C सांभर से सीकर तक का क्षेत्र

D बिजोलिया शिलालेख में बिजोलिया के आसपास के क्षेत्र✔

प्रश्न 17 मुस्तफ़ासर किसका प्राचीन नाम है ?

A नरैना✔

B जसनगर

C शिवाड़

D डीडवाना

प्रश्न-18 बयाना का प्राचीन नाम है?

A श्री पंथ

B शोणितपुर

C योगिनीपटन

D a व b दोनों✔

प्रश्न 19 राजस्थान के सबसे छोटे जिले धौलपुर का क्षेत्रफल कितना है?

A 3303

B 2950

C 3033✔

D 3432

प्रश्न -20 क्षेत्रफल की दृष्टि से 5 बड़े जिलों का सही क्रम है ?

A जैसलमेर बाड़मेर बीकानेर नागौर जोधपुर

B जैसलमेर बाड़मेर चूरु बीकानेर जोधपुर

C जैसलमेर बाड़मेर बीकानेर जोधपुर नागौर✔

D जैसलमेर बाड़मेर बीकानेर जोधपुर चूरू

प्रश्न 21 राजस्थान का क्षेत्रफल कितना है?

A 213899 मील✔

B 132248 मील

C 213799 मील

D 342239 मील

प्रश्न-22 अनुसूचित जाति की जनसंख्या का सर्वाधिक अनुपात वाला संभाग है ?

A बीकानेर✔

B जोधपुर

C कोटा

D उदयपुर

प्रश्न-23 सर्वाधिक कार्यशील जनसंख्या वाला संभाग है?

A जयपुर

B कोटा

C अजमेर

D उदयपुर✔

प्रश्न 24 राजस्थान के आकार के समान आकार वाला जिला है?

A जोधपुर

B बाड़मेर

C भीलवाड़ा

Dटोक✔

प्रश्न-25 राजस्थान की जनसंख्या व क्षेत्रफल के समान घनत्व वाला जिला है?

A जालौर

B सिरोही✔

C अजमेर

D नागौर

प्रश्न-26 कौन से जिले पाली के साथ दो बार सीमा बनाते हैं?

A राजसमंद व अजमेर ✔

B अजमेर व जोधपुर

C जोधपुर व अजमेर

D अजमेर व टोंक

प्रश्न-27 किस संभाग के संभागीय आयुक्त को सिंचित क्षेत्रीय विकास आयुक्त का अतिरिक्त पद दिया हुआ है?

A कोटा✔

B जोधपुर

C जयपुर

D भरतपुर

प्रश्न -28 रेवा पेयजल परियोजना का लोकार्पण कब किया गया ?

An 11 October 2014

B 23 October 2014

C 15 November 2014

D 23 December 2014✔

प्रश्न -29 ‘भारत जल सप्ताह’ कार्यक्रम मे साझीदार देश कौनसा है?

A आस्ट्रेलिया ✔

B ईरान

C इजराइल

D सिंगापुर

प्रश्न -30 हमेरा बाँध का निर्माण कौनसी जगह पर पेयजल की समस्या से निपटने हेतू किया गया?

A छोटी सादङी✔

B राजगढ़

C जैतारण

D सागवाङा

प्रश्न -31 हाइड्रोलाॅजी एंड वाटर मैनेजमेंट इंस्टीट्यूट(RIHWM) की स्थापना बाङमेर मे कब की गई?

A MAY 2014✔✔

B JUN 2014

C JULY 2014

D DECEMBER 2014

प्रश्न -32 पेयजल व सिंचाई के लिए पर्याप्त पानी उपलब्ध कराने हेतू कौन-कौनसी नदियों को जोङकर पानी बिसलपुर बाँध तक लाया जाएगा?

  1. चम्बल, ब्राह्मणी
  2. ईरू, मांगली
  3. भीमलत, मेज
  4. उपयुक्त सभी✔✔

प्रश्न -33 राष्ट्रीय जल नीति 2012कब जारी की गई ?

  1. 1 April 2012
  2. 8 April 2013✔✔
  3. 28 April 2012
  4. 18 April 2013

प्रश्न -34 राज्य की चार बङी जल परियोजनाओं का सही क्रम है?

1 राणाप्रताप सागर बाँध

2 माही बजाज सागर

3 परवन बाँध

4 बिसलपुर परियोजना

  1. 1,4,2,3
  2. 1, 4, 3, 2
  3. 1,2,3,4
  4. 1, 2, 4, 3✔✔

प्रश्न -35 निम्न मे से बहुउद्देशीय परियोजना नही है?

  1. भाखङा नागल बाँध
  2. व्यास परियोजना
  3. राजीव गांधी सिद्धमुख नोहर परियोजना ✔✔
  4. चम्बल परियोजना

प्रश्न -36 गरदङा सिंचाई परियोजना, बून्दी से सम्बन्धित नदिया है?

  1. मंगलाडूगरी & घोङापछाङ

B.मंगलाडूगरी & गणेशीनाला✔✔

C.मंगलाडूगरी & पीपलाद

D.मंगलाडूगरी & गुढा

प्रश्न -37 जालीपुरा जलोत्थान सिंचाई परियोजना का सम्बन्ध कौनसे जिले से है?

A.नागौर

  1. कोटा ✔✔
  2. बीकानेर
  3. सवाईमाधोपुर

प्रश्न-38 National institute of Hydrology dec1978 में कहाँ स्थापित हुई?

A कानपुर

B रूङकी✔✔

C खङगपुर

D दिल्ली

प्रश्न -39 जल संरक्षण दिवस कब मनाया जाता है?

A 1 junk

B 6 junk

C 10 junk

D 14 junk✔

प्रश्न -40 राष्ट्रीय जल अकादमी कहाँ स्थित है जिसकी स्थापना 1988 में हुई?

A पुणे✔

B कोलकाता

C पटना

D केरल

प्रश्न -41 पहल परियोजना (डूंगरपुर एकीकृत बंजर भूमि विकास परियोजना )किसके सहयोग से प्रारंभ की गई थी?

A विश्व बैंक

B सीडा (स्वीडन) ✔

C केन्द्र सरकार

D एशियन विकास बैंक

प्रश्न -42 पावङी परियोजना किससे सम्बन्धित है?

A जल ग्रहण विकास से✔✔

B कृषि वानिकी से

C मरू भूमि विकास से

D सामाजिक वानिकी से

प्रश्न -43 राज्य सरकार द्वारा जारी सूचना 2013 के अनुसार राजस्थान मे प्रति व्यक्ति वन क्षेत्र कितना है?

A 0.05 हैक्टेयर✔

B o.16 हैक्टेयर

C 0.26 हैक्टेयर

D 0.36 हैक्टेयर

प्रश्न -44 राजस्थान की प्रथम वन नीति कब घोषित की गई?

A 17 फरवरी 2010✔

B 5 जून 2010

C 21 अप्रैल 2010

D 28 फरवरी 2010

प्रश्न -45 राजस्थान मे न्यूनतम वन वाला जिला चुरू के कितने भू-भाग पर वन है?

A 72.95 वर्ग किमी✔

B 72.85वर्ग किमी

C 74.95वर्ग किमी

D 74.85वर्ग किमी

प्रश्न -46 राज्य वन रिपोर्ट 2013 के अनुसार राजस्थान मे देश के कुल वन क्षेत्र का कितना प्रतिशत वन है?

A 4.26%✔

B 5.25%

C 1.16%

D 2.26%

प्रश्न -47 राजस्थान का प्रथम जैविक उद्यान कौनसे अभयारण्य मे बनाया गया?

A सज्जनगढ अभ्यारण्य

B वनविहार अभ्यारण्य

C नाहरगढ अभ्यारण्य✔

D माचिया सफारी पार्क

प्रश्न -47 “कैक्टस गार्डन ” राजस्थान के कौनसे स्थान पर विकसित किया गया है?

A गडरा रोङ (जैसलमेर)

B देवगढ (प्रतापगढ)

C सोखलिया (अजमेर)

D कुलधरा (जैसलमेर) ✔

प्रश्न -48 श्री कपूरचन्द कुलिश स्मृति वन ,झलाना(जयपुर) का उद्घाटन(लोकार्पण ) कब किया गया?

A 10 Oct 2007✔

B 10 dec 2007

C 10 Jan 2007

D 10 may 2007

प्रश्न -49 नवीन IND-food for work परियोजना राज्य के किन जिलो मे विकसित की गई है?

A उदयपुर चितौङ प्रतापगढ़ डूंगरपुर बासवाङा✔

B उदयपुर प्रतापगढ चितौङ डूंगरपुर

C उदयपुर चितौङ डूंगरपुर बासवाङा

D झालावाङ चितौङ प्रतापगढ़ बासवाङा

प्रश्न -50 राज्य मे अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय स्तर का एक पक्षी एव नम भूमि चेतना केन्द्र की स्थापना केवलादेव घना पक्षी अभयारण्य मे कब विकसित किया गया?

A 17 Jan 2006✔

B 27 Jan 2006

C 17 Jan 2007

D 27 jan 2007

(MCQ) Geography of India current topics

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Sample Preview

          Answer with Explanation

1 Consider the following about the interior of the earth:

  1. Volcanic eruptions are an indirect source of information
  2. Earthquake is an indirect source of information
  3. Meteors are direct source of information

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 2 and 3

(D) None of the above

Explanations:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Volcanic eruption forms another source of obtaining direct information. As and when the molten material (magma) is thrown onto the surface of the earth, during volcanic eruption it becomes available for laboratory analysis.

Statement 2 is correct: The study of seismic waves generated during earthquake provides a complete picture of the layered interior.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Another source of information is the meteors that at times reach the earth. However, it may be noted that the material that becomes available for analysis from meteors, is not from the interior of the earth. The material and the structure observed in the meteors are similar to that of the earth.

2 Consider the following statement about seismic wave:

  1. P – wave shadow zone lies between 105 to 105 degrees.
  2. S – wave shadow zone lies between 105 to 145 degrees.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) None of the above

Ans: (D)

3 Consider the following pairs and match it correctly

Discontunities Layesrs of earth

1 Moho Discontinuity I Mantle – Core

2 Lehmann Discontinuity II Crust – Mantle

3 Repetti Discontinuity III Outer core – Inner core

4 Guttensberg Discontinuity IV Upper Mantle – Lower Mantle

Choose the answer from the following code:

1 2 3 4

A II IV III I

B II III IV I

C I IV III II

D IV II III I

Ans: (B)

Explanation:

4 Which of the following is not an Intrusive volcanic landform?

(A) Laccoliths

(B) Sills

(C) Cinder cone

(D) Dyke

Ans: (c)

5 Which of the following provides support for continental drift theory?

  1. Jig – Saw fit of continents on either side of Atlantic Ocean
  2. Distribution of fossil
  3. Rocks of same age across the ocean
  4. Placer deposits

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 4

(D) All the above

Ans: (D)

6 Which of the following is not a Hot Spot on the surface of earth?

(A) Hawaii

(B) Java trench

(C) Yellow stone

(D) Galapagos

Ans: (B)

7 Consider the following statements:

  1. Solifluction is an example of rapid mass movement
  2. Mud-flow is an example of slow mass movement

Choose the correct answer from the following code

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) None of the above

Ans: (D)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Solifluction is an example of slow mass movement.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Mud-Flow is an example of rapid mass movement.

8 Which of the following are erosional features in a fluvial landscape?

  1. River terrace
  2. Incised Meander
  3. Fans
  4. Deltas

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 1, 2 and 4

(C) Only 2, 3 and 4

(D) Only 2 and 3

Ans: (A)

Explanation:

River terraces are surfaces marking old valley floor or floodplain levels. They may be bedrock surfaces without any alluvial cover or alluvial terraces consisting of stream deposits. River terraces are basically products of erosion as they result due to vertical erosion by the stream into its own depositional floodplain.

It is common to find meandering courses over floodplains and delta plains where stream gradients are very gentle. But very deep and wide meanders can also be found cut in hard rocks. Such meanders are called incised or entrenched meanders.

Fans and deltas are depositional features.

9 Which of the following is not a feature of krast landforms?

(A) Sinkholes

(B) Uvalas

(C) Point bars

(D) Stalactite

Ans: (C)

Explanation:

Point bars are also known as meander bars. They are found on the convex side of meanders of large rivers and are sediments deposited in a linear fashion by flowing waters along the bank.

All others are features of krast landforms.

10 Consider the following about High energy Coast:

  1. The rate of erosion exceeds the rate of deposition.
  2. Characteristics landform include beaches and spits

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Explanations:

High-energy coasts

  • waves are powerful (for a significant part of the year)
  • the rate of erosion exceeds the rate of deposition
  • characteristic landforms include headlands, cliffs and wave-cut platforms

Low energy coasts

  • waves are not powerful (for a significant part of the year)
  • the rate of deposition exceeds the rate of erosion
  • characteristic land forms include beaches and spits

11 Which of the following statements are NOT true regarding Sansad Adarsh gram Yojana?

  1. MPs are allowed to pick any village of their choice for rural development.
  2. The only drawback of the yojana is that public participation is not promoted under the current plan.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) 1 Only

(B) 2 Only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) None of the above

Ans: (C)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: MPs are required to pick one village with a population of 3000-4000 in plains and 1000-3000 in hills within a month of the launch. MPs cannot pick villages which belong to themselves or their spouses.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The scheme requires them to draft a village development plan, motivate inhabitants to participate in growth via different activities, identify gaps in funding and mobilizing MPLAD funds to create additional resources specifically from CSR initiatives of various corporate houses, in areas of sanitation and water supply.

12 Which of the following activities are carried out to fulfill SAGARMALA SCHEMES?

Objectives:

  1. Port led development
  2. Setting up of new ports
  3. Port connectivity
  4. Geo-tagging of ships
  5. Port modernization

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) 1, 2 and 5 only

(B) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

(C) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

(D) All of the above

Ans: (B)

Explanation:

Sagarmala Scheme:

To promote port-led direct and indirect development and to provide infrastructure to transport goods to and from ports quickly, efficiently and cost-effectively

Three pillars:

  1. Supporting and enabling Port-led Development
  2. Port Infrastructure Enhancement, including modernization and setting up of new ports, and
  3. Efficient Evacuation to and from hinterland.

The programme aims to promote port-led development in the country by harnessing

India’s 7,500-km long coastline, 14,500-km of potentially navigable waterways and strategic location on key international maritime trade routes

13 The logistics data bank project is associated with which of the following:

(A) Movement of trucks across the country

(B) Movement of Railways

(C) Movement of aero planes

(D) None of the above

Ans: (D)

Explanation:

It is associated with Shipping Industry. The logistics Data Bank Service would bring

Efficiency in the current Logistics & Supply Chain through use of information technology that would be helpful for tracking and viewing the movement of containers across the port to the ICD and end users.

14 Which of the following organisation releases the GLOBAL ECONOMIC PROSPECTS(GEP) REPORT:

(A) World economic forum

(B)  World Bank

(C) International Monetary Fund

(D) G20

Ans: (B)

Explanation:

GEP is World Bank Group’s flagship report that examines global economic developments and prospects with special focus on developing and emerging market economies. The 2018 Global Economics Prospect (GEP) released by the World Bank has projected India’s growth rate to 7.3% in 2018 and 7.5 for the next two years.

15 Which of the following pairs are not correctly matched?

Report                                              Published by

1 Universal health coverage index                          WHO

2 World trade outlook indicator                              WTO

3 Global financial stability report                            IMF

4 World development report                               World Bank

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) 1only

(B) 4 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 2 and 4 only

Ans: (A)

(MCQ) Geography of Rajasthan

प्रश्न-1 राजस्थान में मानसून का आगमन कब होता हैं?

(अ) मार्च

(ब) जून✔

(स) अगस्त

(द) सितम्बर

प्रश्न-2 प्राकृतिक वनस्पति के वितरण को प्रभावित करने वाला सबसे महत्वपूर्ण कारक कोनसा हैं?

(अ) धरातलीय स्वरूप

(ब) जलवायु✔

(स) मिट्टी

(द) जैविक कारक

प्रश्न-3 निम्नलिखित में से किस जिले में जलवायु की सर्वाधिक विषमता पाई जाती है?

(अ)बांसवाड़ा

(ब) जोधपुर

(स)जैसलमेर✔

(द) नागौर

प्रश्न-4 राजस्थान में आपेक्षित आद्रता सर्वाधिक कब रहती हैं?

(अ) मार्च-अप्रैल

(ब)जुलाई-अगस्त✔

(स)सितम्बर-अक्टूबर

(द)दिसंबर-जनवरी

प्रश्न-5, 21 जून को सूर्य किस रेखा पर लम्बवत चमकता हैं?

(अ) कर्क रेखा✔

(ब) मकर रेखा

(स)भूमध्य रेखा

(द) ग्रीनविच रेखा

प्रश्न-6 अक्टूबर-नवम्बर में राजस्थान में मानसून प्रत्यावर्तन के समय मानसूनी हवाओ(लोटते हुए मानसून) के प्रवाह की दिशा क्या रहती हैं?

(अ)दक्षिण-पूर्व से उत्तर-पश्चिम

(ब)उत्तर-पश्चिम से दक्षिण-पूर्व✔

(स)दक्षिण-पश्चिम से उत्तर-पूर्व

(द)उत्तर-पूर्व से दक्षिण-पश्चिम

प्रश्न-7राजस्थान का सर्वाधिक वर्षा वाला एवं सर्वाधिक आद्रतम जिला कोनसा हैं?

(अ) सवाई माधोपुर

(ब) जयपुर

(स)झालावाड़✔

(द) जैसलमेर

प्रश्न-8 तापक्रम में प्रायः एकरूपता, अपेक्षाकृत अधिक आद्रता एवं सामयिक वर्षा राज्य के किस भू-भाग की विशेषता है?

(अ)उत्तरी राजस्थान

(ब)अरावली का पश्चिमी भाग

(स) अरावली का पूर्वी भाग✔

(द)बांगड प्रदेश

प्रश्न-9 सर्वाधिक गर्म,सर्वाधिक ठंडा एवं सर्वाधिक वार्षिक तापान्तर वाला जिला कोनसा हैं?

(अ) टोंक

(ब)चुरू✔

(स)दौसा

(द) कोटा

प्रश्न-10 राजस्थान का सर्वाधिक शुष्क स्थान कोनसा हैं?

(अ) माउंट आबू (सिरोही)

(ब) कैथून (कोटा)

(स) फलोदी(जोधपुर)✔

(द) ब्यावर(अजमेर)

प्रश्न11 वर्षा की सर्वाधिक असमानता वाला जिला कोनसा हैं?

(अ)जैसलमेर ✔

(ब) झालावाड़

(स)करौली

(द) अलवर

प्रश्न-12वर्षा की न्यूनतम असमानता वाला जिला कोनसा हैं?

(अ)झालावाड़✔

(ब)जैसलमेर

(स) जयपुर

(द)भीलवाड़ा

प्रश्न-13राजस्थान में सर्वाधिक आंधियां किस महीने में चलती हैं?

(अ) नवम्बर

(ब)जून✔

(स)दिसम्बर

(द) अप्रैल

प्रश्न-14 राजस्थान में सर्वाधिक आंधियां किस जिले में चलती हैं?

(अ) बारा

(ब) श्रीगंगानगर✔

(स)धौलपुर

(द)बूंदी

प्रश्न-15 राजस्थान का निम्न में से कौनसा क्षेत्र अत्यधिक नम हैं?

(अ) मेवात

(ब) वागड़

(स) हाड़ौती✔

(द) बांगड

प्रश्न-16 उत्तमाद्रि क्षेत्र कहा जाता है?

A बूंदी जिले के पश्चिमी पथरीला क्षेत्र

B रूमा के दक्षिण का क्षेत्र

C सांभर से सीकर तक का क्षेत्र

D बिजोलिया शिलालेख में बिजोलिया के आसपास के क्षेत्र✔

प्रश्न 17 मुस्तफ़ासर किसका प्राचीन नाम है ?

A नरैना✔

B जसनगर

C शिवाड़

D डीडवाना

प्रश्न-18 बयाना का प्राचीन नाम है?

A श्री पंथ

B शोणितपुर

C योगिनीपटन

D a व b दोनों✔

प्रश्न 19 राजस्थान के सबसे छोटे जिले धौलपुर का क्षेत्रफल कितना है?

A 3303

B 2950

C 3033✔

D 3432

प्रश्न -20 क्षेत्रफल की दृष्टि से 5 बड़े जिलों का सही क्रम है ?

A जैसलमेर बाड़मेर बीकानेर नागौर जोधपुर

B जैसलमेर बाड़मेर चूरु बीकानेर जोधपुर

C जैसलमेर बाड़मेर बीकानेर जोधपुर नागौर✔

D जैसलमेर बाड़मेर बीकानेर जोधपुर चूरू

प्रश्न 21 राजस्थान का क्षेत्रफल कितना है?

A 213899 मील✔

B 132248 मील

C 213799 मील

D 342239 मील

प्रश्न-22 अनुसूचित जाति की जनसंख्या का सर्वाधिक अनुपात वाला संभाग है ?

A बीकानेर✔

B जोधपुर

C कोटा

D उदयपुर

प्रश्न-23 सर्वाधिक कार्यशील जनसंख्या वाला संभाग है?

A जयपुर

B कोटा

C अजमेर

D उदयपुर✔

प्रश्न 24 राजस्थान के आकार के समान आकार वाला जिला है?

A जोधपुर

B बाड़मेर

C भीलवाड़ा

Dटोक✔

प्रश्न-25 राजस्थान की जनसंख्या व क्षेत्रफल के समान घनत्व वाला जिला है?

A जालौर

B सिरोही✔

C अजमेर

D नागौर

प्रश्न-26 कौन से जिले पाली के साथ दो बार सीमा बनाते हैं?

A राजसमंद व अजमेर ✔

B अजमेर व जोधपुर

C जोधपुर व अजमेर

D अजमेर व टोंक

प्रश्न-27 किस संभाग के संभागीय आयुक्त को सिंचित क्षेत्रीय विकास आयुक्त का अतिरिक्त पद दिया हुआ है?

A कोटा✔

B जोधपुर

C जयपुर

D भरतपुर

प्रश्न -28 रेवा पेयजल परियोजना का लोकार्पण कब किया गया ?

A 11 October 2014

B 23 October 2014

C 15 November 2014

D 23 December 2014✔

प्रश्न -29 ‘भारत जल सप्ताह’ कार्यक्रम मे साझीदार देश कौनसा है?

A आस्ट्रेलिया ✔

B ईरान

C इजराइल

D सिंगापुर

प्रश्न -30 हमेरा बाँध का निर्माण कौनसी जगह पर पेयजल की समस्या से निपटने हेतू किया गया?

A छोटी सादङी✔

B राजगढ़

C जैतारण

D सागवाङा

Economy Solved Test Papers for RAS Prelims 2018

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SAMPLE PREVIEW

. Which of the following is incorrect about Sundar Singh Bhandari Swarojgar Yojana – Loans for EBC?

[A] This scheme will provide loans to the people belonging to poor / economically backward classes.

[B] People can apply online for these loans of up to Rs. 50,000.

[C] The state govt. will provide these loans to 50,000 people of EBC category.

[D]The interest rate for these loans is 5% per annum which is much less than the normal market rates.

Ans-D

  • The interest rate for these loans is 4% per annum which is much less than the normal market rates.

Which of the following is not correct Regarding Kisan Fasal Rin Mafi Yojana?

[A] The entire overdue loan amount of all farmers till 30 September 2017 will get waived off.

[B] The Govt. will provide one time loan waiver of up to Rs. 50,000 of this outstanding loan taken from various cooperative banks.

[C] Rajasthan state govt has allotted a budget of Rs. 8000 crore for the successful implementation of Rajasthan Kisan Rin Mafi Yojana.

[D] None of the above

Ans-D

The state government of Rajasthan has launched Krishi Upaj Rahan Loan Scheme (Agriculture Produce Deposit Loan Scheme) for the farmers. What was the objective of this scheme?

[A] To provide market for production sell.

[B] To provide fair price of their agriculture produce in the state.

[C] To Provide 5 Lac Loan.

[D] To give them advance money for agriculture

Ans-B

What are the main objectives of Mukhyamantri Kaushal Anudaan Yojana?

[A]Mukhyamantri Kaushal Anudaan Yojana is to make youth self reliant.

[B] Making the youth employable by providing development skills training.

[C] Under the Mukhyamantri Kaushal Anudaan Yojana, the state government would provide loan of up to Rs. 1 Lakh at an interest subsidy of 4 to 6 percent.

[D] All of the above

Ans-D

Identify the Incorrect matched:

Scheme                                                  Related to

[A]Product Diversification Scheme               Handloom

[B]Artisan Identity Card Scheme                   Handicraft

[C]Gandhi Bunker Bima Yojana                     Handloom

[D]UJJAWALA                                                  Solar Energy

Ans-D

Where is the construction of heavy water in Rajasthan

[A]Kota

[B]Anta

[C]Suratgarh

[D]Rawatbhata

Ans-D

where is the largest number of energy made well in the state

[A]Jaipur

[B]Alwar

[C]Bharatpur

[D]Karauli

Ans-A

Gets highest hydro power through which scheme in Rajasthan

[A]Satpura hydel power project

[B]Mahi hydro electricity

[C]Bhangra project

[D]Vyas Project

Ans-D

which district is not included in SEEZ?

[A]Jaisalmer

[B]Jodhpur

[C]Barmer

[D]Bikaner

Ans-D

Rajasthan State Handloom Development Corporation has been set up in the year

[A] 1991

[B] 1984

[C] 1972

[D] 1986

Ans-B

As per Budget 2018-19 Chief Minister Smt. Raje announced Agriculture Universities will be set up in?

Jaipur and Udaipur

Kota and Alwar

Bikaner and Jodhpur

Bharatpur and Ajmer

Which of the following will be set up in each municipality area of the state as per state Budget 2018-19 in Rajasthan?

Gandhi Bhawan

D.D.Upadhayay Bhawan

Old Age Home

Ambedkar Bhawan

As per Budget 2018-19 Chief Minister Smt. Raje announced Angiojet Thrombectomy System will be established at which place?

Jaipur

Jhalawar

Jodhpur

Ajmer

Which among the following recently launched digital portal will also be used to upgrade the skills of teachers.

1) DIKSHA

2) VIDHYA

3) SIKSHA

4) GURUKUL

GOBAR-DHAN scheme is associated with which among the following sector.

1) Milk production

2) Organic fertilizer production

3) Organic farming

4) Cattle production

Which of the following programme was launched in the year of 2000?

[A]National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.

[B]Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana

[C]Swaran Jayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana

[D]Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana.

Who conducts the periodical sample survey for estimating the poverty line in India?

[A]National Survery Organisation

[B]National Sample Survey Organisation

[C]Sample Survey Organisation

[D]None of the above.

Who releases the Human Development Report?

(a)World Bank

[B]World economic forum

[C]United Nations

[D]UNCTAD

Which among the following is a qualitative tool of monetary policy?

[A] Bank Rate

[B] Credit Ceiling

[C] Credit rationing

[D] Cash Reserve Ratio

Answer: C

Which among the following is NOT a pillar of Basel- III?

[A] Minimum capital standards

[B] Supervisory review

[C] Market discipline

[D] Consolidation of assets

Answer: D

Which among the following was the first bank purely managed by Indians?

[A] Oudh Commercial Bank

[B] Punjab National Bank

[C] Bank of India

[D] Allahabad bank

Answer: B

The concept of ‘Universal Banking’ was implemented in India on the recommendations of:

[A] Abid Hussain Committee

[B] R H Khan Committee

[C] S Padmanabh Committee

[D] Y H Malegam Committee

Answer: B

What is the upper limit of transaction of amount via NEFT to a person in Nepal via the Indo-Nepal Remittance Facility Scheme?

[A] Rs. 50,000

[B] Rs. 100,000

[C] Rs. 200,000

[D] Rs. 500,000

Answer: A

National Small Savings Fund is a part of which among the following?

[A] Consolidated Fund of India

[B] Public Account of India

[C] Contingency Fund of India

[D] Prime Minister’s Relief Fund

Answer: B

The National Mission for Saffron has been launched as a sub-scheme of which among the following programmes?

[A] National Food Security Mission

[B] National Horticulture Mission

[C] Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana

[D] National Cash Crop Programme

Answer: C

Which among the following is correct in context with the Brown ATMs (Automated Teller Machines)?

[A] ATMs owned by Foreign Companies

[B] ATMs not owned by banks but by private ATM service providers.

[C] Outsourced ATM Service by Banks – The ATM named under a brand sponsor bank but ATM machine not owned by the Bank

[D] ATMs owned by Government

Answer: C

Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investment (FII) are distinct in terms of?

[A] FDI brings capital, technology & management and FII brings only capital

[B] FDI targets specific sectors and FII help in increasing foreign capital availability

[C] FII is considered more stable

[D] FII targets both primary and secondary market while FDI targets only primary.

Answer: A

Urban Co-operative banks are governed by?

[A] State Governments

[B] RBI

[C] Both a and b

[D] Central Government

Answer: C

The Government has launched the UDYAMI helpline for which among the following?

[A] Large capital Industries

[B] Female entrepreneur

[C] Farmers introducing technology in Farming

[D] Micro, small & medium size enterprises

Answer: D

Rajasthan Udhyog Prasar Adhikari Solved Paper/Answer key

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

ANSWER KEY

प्रश्न उत्तर प्रश्न उत्तर प्रश्न उत्तर प्रश्न उत्तर
1 B 31 C 61 D 91 D
2 A 32 C 62 A 92 A
3 C 33 B 63 A 93 B
4 A 34 A 64 A 94 B
5 B 35 65 C 95 A
6 C 36 C 66 B 96 C
7 C 37 B 67 C 97 C
8 D 38 A 68 C 98C C
9 B 39 69 D 99 D
10 B 40 D 70 C 100 A
11 D 41 B 71 B
12 C 42 C 72 D
13 A 43 A 73 A
14 44 C 74 C
15 C 45 A 75 D
16 B 46 A 76 C
17 D 47 C 77 A
18 C 48 C 78 C
19 A 49 D 79 D
20 B 50 B 80 A
21 51 D 81 B
22 C 52 A 82 D
23 C 53 A 83 A
24 D 54 C 84 B
25 A 55 C 85 B
26 B 56 C 86 B
27 B 57 D 87 B
28 B 58 B 88 B
29 B 59 D 89 B
30 A 60 D 90 C

 

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(FREE) ECONOMY OF INDIA -IMPORTANT SOLVED MCQ

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Answer with Explanation

  1. Consider the following statement about Gross National Product
  2. It Includes Factor income earned by the factors of production of the rest of the world employed in the domestic economy
  3. It excludes Factor income earned by the domestic factors of production employed in the rest of the world

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) None of the above

Ans: (D)

Explanation:

GNP = GDP + Factor income earned by the domestic factors of production employed in the rest of the world – Factor income earned by the factors of production of the rest of the world employed in the domestic economy

Hence, GNP = GDP + Net factor income from abroad (Net factor income from abroad =

Factor income earned by the domestic factors of production employed in the rest of the world – Factor income earned by the factors of production of the rest of the world employed in the domestic economy).

 

2 Consider the following statement

  1. Net National Product at market price = Gross Domestic Product – Depreciation
  2. Net National Income at factor cost = Personal Income

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) None of the above

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

We have already noted that a part of the capital gets consumed during the year due to wear and tear. This wear and tear is called depreciation. Naturally, depreciation does not become part of anybody’s income. If we deduct depreciation from GNP the measure of aggregate income that we obtain is called Net National Product (NNP).

NNP = GNP – Depreciation

It is to be noted that all these variables are evaluated at market prices. Through the expression given above, we get the value of NNP evaluated at market prices.

Thus, NNP at factor cost = National Income (NI ) = NNP at market prices – (Indirect taxes– Subsidies) = NNP at market prices – Net indirect taxes (Net indirect taxes = Indirect taxes – Subsidies)

3 Consider the following statements:

  1. Real GDP increases when the value of goods and services increases.
  2. Nominal GDP is the value of GDP at current prevailing prices

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Explanation:

Real GDP is calculated in a way such that the goods and services are evaluated at some constant set of prices (or constant prices). Since these prices remain fixed, if the Real GDP changes we can be sure that it is the volume of production which is undergoing changes. Nominal GDP, on the other hand, is simply the value of GDP at the current prevailing prices. For example, suppose a country only produces bread. In the year 2000. It had produced 100 units of bread; price was Rs 10 per bread. GDP at current price was

Rs 1,000. In 2001 the same country produced 110 units of bread at price Rs 15 per bread.

Therefore nominal GDP in 2001 was Rs 1,650 (=110 × Rs 15). Real GDP in 2001 calculated at the price of the year 2000 (2000 will be called the base year) will be 110 × Rs 10 = Rs 1,100.

4 Which of the following is a measure of Inflation in an economy?

  1. GDP deflator
  2. Consumer Price Index
  3. Whole sale Price Index

Choose the correct answer from the following code

(A) Only 2

(B) Only 2 and 3

(C) Only 1 and 3

(D) All the above

Ans: (D)

Explanation:

Notice that the ratio of nominal GDP to real GDP gives us an idea of how the prices have moved from the base year (the year whose prices are being used to calculate the real GDP) to the current year. In the calculation of real and nominal GDP of the current year, the volume of production is fixed. Therefore, if these measures differ it is only due to change in the price level between the base year and the current year. The ratio of nominal to real GDP is a well known index of prices. This is called GDP Deflator.

There is another way to measure change of prices in an economy which is known as the

Consumer Price Index (CPI). This is the index of prices of a given basket of commodities which are bought by the representative consumer. Wholesale Price Index is a measure of the changes in the price of product which are traded in bulk.

5 Consider the following statements:

  1. An increase in GDP implies a better quality of life of the people of the country
  2. Services provided by women in their household is not calculated in the GDP

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

 

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Quality of life is not only dependent on the income of an individual. Again, an increase in GDP does not even indicate an overall increase in income because of skewed distribution of Income.

Statement 2 is correct: Services provided by women in their household is not paid for so it not attributed to the GDP.

6 National Disposable Income does not include which of the following?

(A) Net National Product at Factor cost

(B) Gifts to the government in cash and kind

(C) Indirect taxes

(D) Subsidy

Ans: (D)

Explanation:

National Disposable Income = Net National Product at market prices + Other current transfers from the rest of the world The idea behind National Disposable Income is that it gives an idea of what is the maximum amount of goods and services the domestic economy has at its disposal.

Current transfers from the rest of the world include items such as gifts, aids, etc.

NNP at factor cost + Indirect Taxes – Subsidy = NNP at market prices

7 Match the following pair are correctly matched

Committee                                         Poverty Line

1- Y K Alagh                     Consumption Expenditure of household

2 Lakdawala                               Precisely as starvation

3 Tendulkar                                     Costs Of Living

Choose the correct answer from the following code

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 1 and 3

(C) Only 3

(D) All the above

Ans: (C)

Explanation:

Committee                              Poverty Line

1 Y K Alagh                         Precisely as starvation

2 Lakdawala                      Consumption Expenditure of household

3 Tendulkar                                    Cost Of Living

8 Sustainable Action for Transforming Human capital (SATH) program is launched by:

(A) Niti Aayog

(B) Ministry of Human Resource development

(C) World Bank and Ministry of Human Resource development

(D) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Explanation:

NITI Aayog has launched SATH, a program providing ‘Sustainable Action for Transforming Human capital’ with the State Governments. The vision of the program is to initiate transformation in the education and health sectors.

9 In India, A village would be considered as electrified if

  1. The number of households electrified should be at least 50% of the total number of households in the village.
  2. Electricity is provided to public places like Schools, Panchayat Office, Health Centers,

Dispensaries, Community centers

  1. Basic infrastructure such as Distribution Transformer and Distribution lines are provided in the inhabited locality as well as the Dalit Basti hamlet where it exists.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1,2 and 3

Ans: (C)

Explanation:

As per the latest definition, a village would be declared as electrified, if:

  1. Basic infrastructure such as Distribution Transformer and Distribution lines are provided in the inhabited locality as well as the Dalit Basti hamlet where it exists.
  2. Electricity is provided to public places like Schools, Panchayat Office, Health Centers, Dispensaries, Community centers etc.
  3. The number of households electrified should be at least 10% of the total number of households in the village hence statement 1 is the only incorrect statement.

10 Which of the following organisation publish Inclusive development index?

(A) World economic forum

(B)  World bank

(C) Sustainable solutions development network

(D) United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN/DESA)

Ans: (A)

Explanation:

Inclusive development index is published by world economic forum. India was ranked 62nd among 74 emerging economies on World Economic Forum’s Inclusive Development Index.

11 Consider the following statements:

  1. Potassium bromated is commonly used as a food additive
  2. Potassium bromated is known to cause cancer
  3. Potassium bromated as a food add on is not yet banned in India

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) 1 and 2 Only

(B) 2 and 3 Only

(C) 1 and 3 Only

(D) 1,2 and 3

Ans: (A)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Potassium bromated typically increases dough strength, leads to

Higher rising and gives uniform finish to baked products. Potassium iodate and Potassium

bromated is used as a flour treatment agent.

Statement 2 is correct: Potassium bromated and Potassium iodate commonly used to as a food additive are known to be carcinogenic

Statement 3 is incorrect: The government banned the use of potassium bromated as a food additive following a Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) study that found its presence in bread caused cancer. As far as potassium iodate is concerned, it has been referred to a scientific panel.

12 The furthest point from land also known as the “oceanic pole of inaccessibility” is nicknamed as which of the following:

(A) Point X

(B) Delta-P

(C) Point Verde

(D) Point Nemo

Ans: (D)

Explanation:

The furthest point from land also known as the “oceanic pole of inaccessibility” is nicknamed as Point Nemo, meaning “no-one” in Latin and was first discovered in 1992.

This remote oceanic location is 2,688 kilometers from the nearest land—Ducie Island. As Point Nemo lies in the South Pacific Gyre and the region is so isolated from landmasses that wind does not carry much organic matter, there is little to feed for survival.

13 “An economy for the 99%” is an important paper for governments all over the world. This paper is published by which of the following:

(A) World economic forum

(B) Oxfam

(C) Melbourne Mercer

(D) AT Kearney

Ans: (B)

Explanation:

An economy for the 99% – Oxfam briefing paper looks at inequalities in our current economy and calls for a more human economy. Specifically it focuses on how large corporations and the super-rich are driving the inequality crisis and what can be done to change this. It considers the false assumptions that have led us down this path, and shows how we can create a fairer world based on a more human economy – one in which people, not profit, are the bottom line and which prioritizes the most vulnerable. India’s richest 1% now hold 58% of the country’s wealth.

14 The Death penalty report is published by which of the following:

(A) Walk free foundation

(B) Heritage foundation

(C) Amnesty international

(D) Social progress imperative

Ans: (C)

Explanation:

The death penalty report is published by amnesty international. China remained the

World’s top executioner – but the true extent of the use of the death penalty in China is unknown as this data is classified as a state secret; the global figure of at least 993 excludes the thousands of executions believed to have been carried out in China. At the end of 2017, 106 countries (a majority of the world’s states) had abolished the death penalty in law for all crimes and 142 countries (more than two-thirds) had abolished the death penalty in law or practice.

15 Which of the following indicators is a part of ease of doing business index released by the World Bank?

  1. Getting electricity
  2. Registering property
  3. Resolving insolvency
  4. Trading across borders
  5. Access to credit

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) 1,3 and 4 only

(B) 2,3,4 and 5 only

(C) 1,3,4 and 5 only

(D) All of the above

Ans: (D)

Explanation:

Ease of doing business index – It was released as part of the World Bank’s annual report titled Doing Business 2017: Equal Opportunity for All. It was introduced in 2004.The ranking of country is based on index averages the country’s percentile rankings on 11 indicators each having equal weightage. The indicators are –

  1. Ease of starting business
  2. Getting electricity
  3. Dealing with construction permits
  4. Registering property
  5. Protecting investors
  6. Access to credit
  7. Employing workers
  8. Trading across borders
  9. Paying taxes
  10. Enforcing contracts &
  11. Resolving insolvency

(MCQ) SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

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Answer with Explanation

1 Consider the following statement about Gravitation Force

  1. It governs the motion of planets of solar system around the sun
  2. The force decreases with increase in distance
  3. The force is independent of the mass of the objects

Choose the correct answer from the given code:

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 1and 2

(C) Only 2 and 3

(D) All the above

Ans: (B)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Gravitational force is a universal force and governs the motion of all the heavenly objects in the universe.

Statement 2 is correct: Gravitational force is inversely proportional to square of distance. Therefore, it decreases with distance between the objects.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Gravitational force is directly proportional to the mass of the objects. Therefore, it is dependent on the masses of the object involved.

2 Consider the following statement about energy

  1. Theoretically, one form of energy can be converted to another form without any loss of energy.
  2. Energy can be created but cannot be destroyed.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Explanation:

According to the law of conservation of energy, energy can only be converted from one form to another; it can neither be created nor destroyed. The total energy before and after the transformation remains the same. The law of conservation of energy is valid in all situations and for all kinds of transformations.

3 Consider the following about propagation of sound

1-Two person can talk in vacuum like we talk on earth.

  1. The velocity of sound is constant

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) None of the above

Ans: (D)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Sound needs a medium to travel. In vacuum there is no medium so two people cannot talk like we talk in earth.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The velocity of sound is dependent on the nature of medium through which it travels. The velocity increases from gas to liquid to solid.

4 Consider the following statements:

  1. In Longitudinal wave the direction of motion of wave is parallel to the direction of motion of the particles of the medium.
  2. In Electromagnetic wave, the direction of motion of the wave is perpendicular to the direction of motion of the particles of the medium.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) None of the above

Ans: (C)

Explanation:

Both the statement is correct and self explanatory.

5 Consider the following about concave mirror:

Position of object Position of Image

a At Infinity I Between F and C

b Beyond C II At F

c At C III Beyond C

d Between C and F IV At C

Where C is Center of Curvature and F is Focus

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

a b c d

(A) II I IV III

(B) II IV I III

(C) IV I III II

(D) IV III I II

Ans: (A)

Explanation:

6 Consider the following statement about refractive Index:

  1. The refractive index determines the relative speed of light in different media
  2. Optical density of a medium depends on the refractive index of the medium

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) None of the above

Ans: (C)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The refractive index can be linked to an important physical quantity, the relative speed of propagation of light in different media. It turns out that light propagates with different speeds in different media. Light travels the fastest in vacuum with the highest speed of 3×108 m s–1. In air, the speed of light is only marginally less, compared to that in vacuum. It reduces considerably in glass or water. The value of the refractive index for a given pair of media depends upon the speed of light in the two media.

Statement 2 is correct: The ability of a medium to refract light is also expressed in terms of its optical density. Optical density has a definite connotation. It is not the same as mass density. We have been using the terms ‘rarer medium’ and ‘denser medium’ in this Chapter. It actually means ‘optically rarer medium’ and ‘optically denser medium’, respectively.

7 Which of the following is correctly matched?

Vision Defect                               Correction Lens

1-Myopia                                      -Bifocal lens

2 Hypermetropia                        -Convex lens

3 Presbyopia                                -Concave lens

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2 and 3

(C) Only 2

(D) Only 1 and 3

Ans: (C)

Explanation:

Vision Defect Correction Lens

1 Myopia Concave Lens

2 Hypermetropia Convex lens

3 Presbyopia Bifocal Lens

8 Ohm’s Law is related to which of the following?

(A) Refraction of Light

(B) Phenomenon of Echo of sound

(C) Resistance in an electric circuit

(D) Scattering of Light

Ans: (C)

9 Consider the following statement:

  1. The total potential in a series connection is equal to the sum of individual potential difference between the resistors.
  2. The total potential in a parallel connection is equal to the individual potential difference between the resistors.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) None of the above

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

Both the statement is correct and self explanatory.

10 Consider the following statement about Fleming’s left hand rule:

  1. Index finger represents the direction of Current
  2. Middle finger represents the direction of Magnetic Field

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) None of the above

Ans: (D)

Explanation:

According to this rule, stretch the thumb, forefinger and middle finger of your left hand such that they are mutually perpendicular. If the first finger points in the direction of magnetic field and the second finger in the direction of current, then the thumb will point in the direction of motion or the force acting on the conductor.

11 Project Sunrise aims to combat which of the following:

(A) AIDS

(B) TB

(C) Infant deaths

(D) Sickle cell disease in tribal areas.

Ans: (A)

Explanation:

Project Sunrise: Project Sunrise aims at bringing the people living with HIV/AIDS into the national mainstream and creates more awareness about the disease in these N-E states. It will be implemented in addition to the existing projects of the National AIDS Control Organization (NACO).

12 Consider the following statements:

  1. The open acreage licensing policy (OALP) gives an option to a company to select the exploration blocks on its own, without waiting for the formal bid round from the Government.
  2. It enables a faster survey and coverage of the available geographical area which has potential for oil and gas discovery
  3. OALP was introduced as part of the fiscal regime in exploration sector called New

Exploration and licensing policy (NELP) .

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) 1 and 2 Only

(B) 2 and 3 Only

(C) 1 and 3 Only

(D) 1,2 and 3

Ans: (A)

13 Which of the following have been identified as strategic priorities under Rashtriya Kishore Swasthya Karyakram?

  1. Reproductive health
  2. Substance misuse
  3. Injuries and violence
  4. Anaemia

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 2 and 3 only

(C) 1,2 and 4 only

(D) 1 and 3 only

Ans: (B)

Explanation:

Rashtriya Kishore Swasthya Karyakram

It introduces community-based interventions through peer educators (Saathiyas), and is underpinned by collaborations with other ministries and state governments.

RKSK identifies six strategic priorities for adolescents:

  1. Nutrition,
  2. Sexual and reproductive health (SRH),
  3. Non-communicable diseases (NCDs),
  4. Substance misuse,
  5. Injuries and violence (including gender-based violence) and
  6. Mental health.

14-Uday Kotak committee often seen in the news is associated with which of the following:

(A) Reforms in Medical council

(B) Reforms in railway sector

(C) Reforms in banking sector

(D) Reforms in corporate governance

Ans: (D)

Explanation:

Uday Kotak committee established by SEBI has recently released its recommendations

Addressing rising concerns in corporate governance of listed Public Sector Enterprises

(PSE) in India. The committee recommended a minimum of 6 directors and a maximum Of 8 to be on the board of listed entities. It also called for more transparency on Appointment of independent directors and a more enhanced role for them.

15 Consider the following statements regarding FAME India scheme:

  1. It is launched by Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
  2. It aims to provide fiscal and monetary incentives for adoption and market creation of both hybrid and electric technology vehicles in the country.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) 1 Only

(B) 2 Only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) None of the above

Ans: (B)

History of Modern India(1707-1947)

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Modern History is one of the most important topics in history and questions from this section always make it to the competitive exams. A good understanding of this section is essential to qualify competitive exam such as UPSC, SSC, and CAPF etc.

Modern History of India

The phase of Modern history in India begins with the decline of Mughal Power in the early 18th century. With the decline of Mughal Power, many centres of power developed to occupy the power vacuum in India. Among these powers, Maratha was one of the promising Powers which could have found the next empire in India but the defeat of Maratha in the second battle of Panipat washed away their hopes to form a pan Indian Empire. The subsequent rise of the British after the battle of Buxar didn’t provide any further avenues to any other power and slowly and steadily annexed various smaller states in India to become a pan India Empire.

India in the Eighteen Century

The India of the Eighteen Century was in a chaotic state. Various power centres were fighting among each other oblivious of a foreign enemy which was going to take control of their motherland and was going to subjugate the whole Indian Subcontinent for the next 250 years. During Eighteen Century various wars were fought but the three decisive battles sealed the fate of India in the hands of the British Empire. The 3rd battle of Panipat, The battle of Plassey, and the battle of Buxar changed the power dynamics in the Indian subcontinent.

Topics Covered Under India in the Eighteen Century

  • Decline of Mughal Empire
  • Rise and fall of Maratha
  • Mysore wars
  • Coming of Europeans in India
  • Anglo – French Struggle
  • Expansion of British Empire

The beginning of British political sway in India can be traced from the battle of Plassey. With the annexation of Bengal and establishing their strong foothold in Bengal. The British power felt confident to replicate the same to annexed maximum territory in India. As per their policy of Ring Fence they used annexation through wars or subsidiary alliance to control the empires surrounding the borders of Bengal. But with each success, British Empire got more confident and continued further expansion which finally stopped in 1958 when the British Crown took over Indian Empire.

Topics Covered Under Expansion of British Empire

  • British occupation of Bengal
  • Annexation Policies
  • Annexation under various Governor General
  • Economic Policies of British Empire

The primary aim of the East India Company was to extract as much wealth from India as possible. The economic policy of the British was tuned to achieve this primary objective. With the establishment of British rule in India, The Britishers tried to dismantle the indigenous industries in India and converted India into a market for British goods and a supplier of raw material to fuel the growth of Industries in Britain.

Topics Covered Under Economic Policies of British Empire

  • Economic policies in India
  • Land revenue system
  • Drain of Wealth Theory
  • Development of means of Communication and Transport
  • Administrative Organization in British India

After having annexed the vast territories in India, The Britishers organized a government structure in India. The main objective of the Government of India was to maintain the law and order so that trade with India and the exploitation of its resources can be done without disturbance. The government structure helped in fulfilling the primary objective of economic exploitation of India and curbs any dissent in its bud before taking the shape of a massive revolution.

Revolt of 1857

The revolt of 1857 also called the First War of Indian Independence was much more than a sepoy mutiny. It was the Indian expression to the most-hated foreign regime. The hatred towards the foreign regime grew over the years due to its policies of annexation and subjugation of Indian kingdoms, economic exploitation of the country.

Religious and social Reform Movement

The British Empire brought with it the western culture. Western conquest exposed the weakness and decays of Indian Society and some thoughtful Indians show this as the reason of their subjugation by the Britishers. They were highly impressed by the progress made by western society due to their scientific temper and humanism. These Indians tried to reform the Indian culture as they believed fighting the vices of Indian Society is the first step in throwing away the yoke of imperialism.

Early Nationalism

Nationalism in India arose to fight the challenges of foreign dominance. With time Indians begin to realize an inherent clash between the interest of people of India and the British Interest. Many intelligent Indians the root cause of Indian problems are the policies of the Indian government that are meant to promote the interest of Britain. This realization led to the formation of a various political organization which resulted in the formation of Indian National Congress in 1885.

National Movement (1905 to 1919)

National Movements in the year 1905 to 19019 is considered as the first phase of mass revolution in the struggle towards achieving Indian Independence. It started with the Swadeshi movement against the partition of Bengal. Violent militant nationalism also rose during the period as a result of the failure of the moderates to convince the government of India about their various demands. The period also witnessed the split of Congress and its unification in 1917. Various important movements like the Ghadar movement, Home rue League movement also took place during this period. All these episodes formed the base which gave Indians strength to participate in bigger movements under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.

National Movement (1919 to 1939)

The second phase of National Movements from 1919 to 1939 is the launch paid where the dreams of Indian Independence took off. The Non – Cooperation movement of the early 1920’s, the civil disobedience movement of the 1930’s, the roundtable conference and the victory of Congress in the provincial election of 1937 prepared the ground for the final battle of Indian Independence.

Freedom and Partition (1939 – 1947)

The third and the last phase of the National movement from 1939 to 1947 threw away the yoke of foreign rule and India gained its Independence after a long struggle of around a century. The Quit India movement and the support of Indians during the trial of the prisoners of Indian National Army was the final nail in the coffins of the British Empire. India got Independence in August 1947 but the seed of divide and rule has resulted in two nation-states India and Pakistan.

Administrative Changes After 1857

The revolt of 1857 brought the discontent against the British Empire to the forefront and to further continue ruling India, Britishers could not have continued the same way. They need to pacify the people of India. To this end, they brought legislative reforms, reforms in Police and Judiciary. These reforms were aimed to prevent any repeat of 1857 revolt but at the same time promote the interest of British India

Development of Indian Press

Press is one of the most important media to create awareness among the people. During the struggle for Independence, the freedom of the press has been gagged many times to prevent the spread of nationalist sentiments among the masses. The development of Indian press has been shaped by various regulations such as Censorship of press act 1799, licensing regulation 1823, Press Act 1835, Registration act 1867, Vernacular press act 1878 etc.

 Development of Education

In the initial phase of their rule, the Britishers did not show much interest in the development of education in India. The Charter Act 1813 was the first document which showed the Britishers interest to develop education in India but it was restricted to the oriental education system. The first noteworthy step towards educational development in India was Macaulay minutes and subsequently; wood’s Dispatch laid the architecture of modern education system in India.

Civil Rebellions and Tribal Uprisings (1757 – 1900)

The Britishers were alien to India, the Indian way of life, Indian Culture and its social and political conditions. To fulfil their economic goals and to exploit the natural resource they used brute force ignoring the social and religious sentiments of the people, the way of life of the tribals etc. This led to various regional conflicts between the Britishers and the local people and tribals. Some of the important events were the Santhal uprising, Ahom Revolt, Pagal Panthis etc.

Peasant Movements (1857 – 1947)

The Britishers through their agriculture taxation system have broken the backbone of Indian agriculture. Their only aim was to extract as much from the land as possible without investing any significant amount in the improvement of Indian agriculture. This pushed the Indian farmers in abject poverty. The farmers were barely able to fulfil their tax requirement in normal years and yet the Britishers pushed these farmers to pay extra tax if they failed to pay their tax due to drought conditions. Such exploitative policies of British India Government were the sole reasons behind peasant movements.

The Movement of the Working Class

The growth of Industrial base in India in the late 19th century provided employment to thousands of people and led to the emergence of a new working class Indians. The working class Indian faced challenges of poor and unhygienic working conditions, low wages, long working hours etc. These conditions pushed the working class to fight for their rights against the government as well as the capitalist which gave rise to various movements of working class.

Decline of Mughal Empire

The Mughal Empire declined rapidly after Aurangzeb’s death in an early 18th century. The decline of Mughal was based on several causes and reasons that led to the downfall of mighty Mughal Empire.

Downfall and Decline of the Mughal Empire

  1. Weak successor’s post-Aurangzeb rule
  • Bahadur Shah I was 63 years of age when he ascended the throne and did not possess the energy to perform the states duties.
  • Rulers like Jahandar Shah, Muhammad Shah, and Ahmad Shah etc were other incompetent rulers.
  1. Continuous war of succession
  • No law of succession was followed.
  • Hence there was a war for the throne.
  1. Invasion of Nadir Shah and Ahmed Shah Abdali
  • Nadir Shah looted Kohinoor
  1. Mughals neglected the Development of the Navy
  • Coast-line completely undefended.
  • This was exploited by the European.
  1. Empty treasury
  • The resources of Mughals were already drained due to policies of Aurangzeb.
  • Disintegration of empire followed thereafter.
  1. Aurangzeb’s faulty Deccan campaign
  • Aurangzeb exposed to incessant raiding districts in the Deccan in his conquest for expansion and greed for power.
  • Aurangzeb was unable to effectively assimilate the Maratha, Bidar, Gond etc. unlike Akbar who assimilated Rajputs within his kingdom.
  1. Degeneration of the Mughal Nobility
  • When the Mughals came to India, they were strong.
  • Too much of wealth and luxury made them lackadaisical.
  • Their harems became full and they had lot of wine for leisure.
  • They were not a match for the strong Marathas, Rajputs, and Sikhs etc.
  1. Had lost support from almost all
  • Bitter relations with Rajputs.
  • Even Jats, Sikhs, Marathas turned against them.
  • Huge disparity between rich and poor during 17th century and after.
  1. Challenge from regional powers
  • Mughal Empire was too large but due to weak successors proved dismal for the Mughal rule.
  • The provinces became independent and challenged the Mughals.
  • Independent states rose like Awadh, Hyderabad etc.
  1. Deterioration of land relations
  • Shahjahan and Aurangzeb opted for Jagirs and Paibaqi instead of paying directly from state treasury to the officials.
  • Jagirs refer to temporary allotment of lands to officials for their services which may be according to the satisfaction of the Emperor.
  • Paibaqi refers to revenue from reserved lands which were sent to the central treasury.
  • There was a constant clash of interest between the nobles and zamindars.
  1. Rise of the Marathas
  • Marathas consolidated their position in Western India
  • They started making plans for a greater Maharashtra empire.
  1. Lack of control over the bankers of the state
  • In contrast to their earlier policies, the bankers extended trade and credit transactions to newcomers, e.g., the Dutch and the English.
  1. Religious Policy of Aurangzeb
  • Aurangzeb alienated support of the Hindus by committing atrocities on them.
  • He imposed Jiziya on the Hindus.
  1. There was no good education
  • There was no practical training of the Mughal Mobility.
  • India lagged behind the world in the field of science and technology and the Mughal Ruling class remained blind to this development.
  • There were no modern weapons too hence.
  1. Widespread Corruption in the Administration
  • The nobles were shortsighted.
  • Corruption and inefficiency entered almost all branches of the public service.
  • The decline of the Mughal Empire was due to social, economic, political and institutional factors. Aurangzeb was both a victim of circumstances and he also created certain circumstances of which he became a victim.

Rise and fall of Maratha Empire

Marathas presented perhaps the most formidable challenge to Mughals both in Deccan and in the North. Under the leadership of Peshwas, the filled the political vacuum created by weakening Mughal Authority and extended their sway over Malwa, Gujrat and Rajputana by 1730s. Their position was challenged than in the third battle of Panipat (1761), but they continued to be a cause of worry for the East India Company for another half a century. Here, one may note that in 1772, the Marathas had escorted the emperor of Delhi Shah II to the throne who had not been allowed to enter the capital for twelve years. Then in 1788 Marathas under Mahadaji Scindhia recovered Delhi again for Mughals from the Rohillas. They played the role of kingmakers and continued to expand their dominions. Consolidation of Maratha power went hand in hand with the decline of Mughal power witnessed throughout the 18th century.

Rise of Maratha Empire

Maratha Empire began as a small kingdom in western India with Raigad as the capital and raised to prominence under its founder Shivaji, the legendary Maratha Chief who led Marathas against the Sultan of Bijapur (Adil Shahi Dynasty) to establish Hind- Swarajya (self-rule for Hindu people). In 1674, Shivaji was crowned as Chhatrapati (sovereign). Shivaji was succeeded by his son Sambhaji, who was captured by Aurangzeb’s forces in Deccan and executed while his son, Shahu was taken prisoner.  Shahu was released in 1707 by Bahadur Shah I and Marathas soon began to make their presence felt. The states of Satara and Kolhapur were now created and Shahu created the post of Sena-Karte (Organizer of Forces) and appointed Balaji Vishwanath to the post. This evolved later into the office of Peshwa (Prime Minister).

Following Factors led to the rise of Maratha Empire

Political Conditions

  • Mughal Invasion in Deccan and ensuing socio-economic backwardness was the primary reason for discontent in the region which created conditions ripe for a rebellion.
  • Another factor aiding Maratha rise was waning Mughal strength after Aurangzeb, factionalism within Mughal courts and divisions within nobility coupled with inept successors emboldened Marathas to strike northern regions and expand their territory.

Physical environment

Mountainous region and dense forests helped Marathas to adopt guerrilla tactics and provide the strong defense against Invaders.

Impregnable forts

Building of a number of forts on the mountains provided them stronger defense which Marathas used to their advantage against Mughal attacks.

Maratha Nationalism

The seeds for which were sowed through the call for social unity raised during Bhakti movement by leaders like Tukaram, Ramdas, Vaman Pandit and Eknath. This helped in unification of the Maratha Empire. The revivalist political ideology of Hind-Swarajya was a major driving force for Marathas.

Able leadership of Peshwas

  • Balaji Vishwanath’s (1713-20) sagacity and diplomacy helped in brokering peace with Delhi through Sayyid brothers. They also now got the right to collect Chauth and Sardeshmukhi.
  • Baji Rao I (1720-40) popularized the concept of Hindu- pad- padshahi and expanded Maratha Empire northwards. Under him Maratha military might become notable.

Administration under Shivaji

  • Maratha Empire under Shivaji extended to Maharashtra, Carnatic and Tamil Nadu.
  • Provinces were divided into Parganas and Parganas were further divided into villages.
  • To strengthen the administration Shivaji abolished the Jagir system and began giving cash salary to his officers. Though he abolished Jagirdari but gave land grants for temples and schools.
  • In his rule hereditary occupation of post was not allowed.
  • Shivaji did not encourage the Zamindari system.
  • Ashta Pradhan was the main axis of his administration. Eight prominent officials were collectively known as Ashta Pradhan.

They were-

  • Peshwa–He was the Prime minister of the king.
  • Amatya or Majumdar-He was Finance Minister.
  • Waq-i-Nawis–He worked as Home Minister.
  • Dabir or Samant-He looked after the work of the foreign department.
  • Sachiv-He conducted the official correspondence.
  • Pandit Rao–He was a religious officer.
  • Sar-i-Naubat or Senapati–He used to administer the army affairs.
  • Nyayadhish-He was the chief justice.
  • Maratha Empire was Confederacy of 5 big chiefs.
  • Peshwa – Poona
  • Gaekwad – Baroda
  • Bhonsle – Nagpur
  • Holkar – Indore
  • Sindhia – Gwalior
  • Judicial System
  • Shivaji’s judiciary was based upon the ancient Hindu laws. In the villages, the Panchayats settled the disputes.

Military

  • The regular army consisted of about 30000 to 40000 cavalry and they were given fixed salaries. Shivaji set up the Maratha navy in 1659. The most famous Maratha admiral was Kanhoji Angre (1669-1729).

Taxation System under Marathas

  • Chauth and Sardeshmukhi were two major taxes of Marathas. Chauth was 1/4 of the total revenue and it was an annual tax. Sardeshmukhi was realized by Shivaji, just 1/10 of total revenue on the basis that legally he was the Pramukh (Sardeshmukhi) or the head of all Deshmukhs.

Succession after Shivaji

  • After the death of Shivaji, two of Shivaji’s sons, first Shambhaji and then Rajaram, ruled briefly and fought with the Mughal army. In 1699, when Rajaram died, one of his queens, Tarabai, started to rule in the name of her infant son Shivaji II.

Maratha Empire in 18th Century

  • The Maratha kingdom was, however, certainly weakened at the start of 18th century due to various internal and external factors.
  • A full-scale civil war broke out between the forces of Shahu (grandson of Shivaji) and those of Tarabai (Rajaram’s widow).The loyalty of Maratha sardars and Deshmukhs kept on shifting from one block to another.
  • Since the time of Balaji Viswanath, the office of the Peshwa became powerful. He died in 1720 and was succeeded by his son Baji Rao, who was in power till 1740.
  • After the death of Baji Rao in 1740, Shahu appointed his son Balaji Bajirao (1740-1761) as Peshwa. This was indeed the peak period of Maratha glory.
  • In 1761, after the third battle of Panipat Madhav Rao became the Peshwa. In 1772, Madhav Rao died of consumption.
  • After the death of Madhav Rao, the struggle for power occurred between Raghunath Rao and Narayan Rao. In 1773 Narayan Rao was killed.
  • Madhav Rao Narayan succeeded his father Narayan Rao.
  • Raghunath Rao tried to capture power with the help of British. This led to the 1st Anglo- Maratha war.
  • Madhav Rao died in 1794. Baji Rao II, son of Raghunath Rao succeeded Madhav Rao.
  • At the end of 3rd Anglo- Maratha war Peshwa was dethroned and pensioned off while other Maratha states remained as subsidiary states.
  • Causes for the downfall of Maratha Empire

Military Losses

  • In the crucial Third Battle of Panipat, enormous loss of men and money for the Marathas occurred. They lost their best leaders in this war. The Maratha kingdom was shaken.
  • Soon, Marathas had to fight wars with the East India Company to retain their dominions. This too drained their coffers.

Political structure: Divisions within

  • The other reason for downfall of Maratha Empire was its own structure. Its nature was that of a confederacy where power was shared among the chiefs or sardars (Bhonsle, Holker etc).

Weak Revenue Administration

  • Marathas depended on the collection of Chauth and Sardeshmukhi and on their exploits from plunder and loot. They failed to develop an efficient system of revenue administration. New territories were conquered but much less focus was on the administration. Rulers were mainly interested in raising revenue from peasantry through taxation.

Weak Diplomacy

  • Marathas did not take the trouble to find out what was happening elsewhere and what their enemies were doing. There was no far-sighted statesmanship or effective strategy. They failed to cultivate alliances with forces around them.
  • Because of their actions and political ambitions in past Marathas did not get the support from Northern Regional Powers. As they interfered in internal affairs and levied huge fines and tributes upon Rajputana states. In case of Awadh, they made large territorial and monitorial claims. Further they levied heavy fines on Jat chiefs and also angered the Sikh chiefs.

Military expansion minus consolidation

  • Despite having made rapid territorial advances, Marathas did not consolidate themselves in the vast areas in northern and central India.

No progressivism

  • Maratha system of administration was along the lines of their predecessors. For instance feudal levies, land-grant system continued. As a result, Marathas eventually lost to the British who were more advanced politically as well as militarily.
  • In 1802, Peshwa Baji Rao II accepted subsidiary alliance by signing Treaty of Bassein. This marked the downfall of Maratha Empire. By 1818 the Maratha power was finally crushed and the great chiefs that represented it in central India submitted and accepted the over lordship of the East India Company.

Geography of India-Notes with 15 Practice MCQ Set

 

Click ON IMAGE To Full Download

    • The Great mountain of North
    • Northern Plain
    • River,Parks,Wildlife
    • Peninsular Plateau
    • Coastal Plains
    • Thar Desert
    • Islands
    • 15 Practice MCQ Set

 

Formation of Himalayas

The Himalayas are believed to have formed over 50 million years ago with the collision of the Indian plate with the Eurasian plate. The Indian plate slid below the Eurasian plate, due to its density being higher, and in the process crumbling and buckling up the Eurasian plate into the various mountain ranges that are now a part of the Himalayas.

Ranges of Himalayas

The Himalayas are a series of parallel mountain ranges extending along the North-West to the South-East direction (known as the Strike of the Himalayas). These ranges are separated by longitudinal valleys. They include,

  • Trans-Himalayas
  • The Greater Himalayas or Himadri
  • The Lesser Himalayas or Himachal
  • Shiwalik or the Outer Himalayas
  • The Eastern Hills or Purvanchal

Trans Himalayas

  • They are made of the ocean sediments of the Tethys Sea which was consumed during the collision of Indian and Eurasian plate boundaries.
  • They include the ranges of Karakoram, Ladakh, and Zanskar.
  • Karakoram ranges have their one end originating from the Pamir Knot. Karakoram ranges hold the largest amounts of snow and ice among all of the Himalayan ranges. This is because they are situated in higher latitudes where the snow line (altitude above which there is permanent ice and snow cover).
  • The Karakoram is home to some of the largest glaciers such as Siachen (the second longest glacier outside of Polar Regions), Biafo (longest glacier outside of Polar Regions), Baltoro, Hispar, Trango etc.
  • They are home to some of the tallest peaks in the world such as Mt. K2/Godwin-Austin (8611m), Gasherbrum 1 (8080m), Broad Peak (8051m) etc.
  • Karakoram ranges have gaps in them, which are known as passes. Important among them are – Khunjerab Pass, Karakoram Pass, Sia La Pass, and Bilafond La Pass (immediately west of the Siachen glacier) etc.
  • Ladakh ranges are to the south-east of the Karakoram ranges. They separate the rivers Indus and Shyok (a tributary of Indus). Khardung La Pass (India’s highest motorable pass falls in these ranges). These ranges extend into China where they are known as the Kailash ranges. They include Mt. Kailash and Mansarovar Lake.
  • Pangong Tso (largest saline lake between India and China) and Spanggur Tso are the two saltwater lakes situated in these ranges.
  • To the south of the Ladakh, ranges are the Zanskar ranges, which are cut across by the Zanskar River. These ranges extend into Uttarakhand. They contain some prominent peaks like Mt. Kamet, Nanda Devi (a biosphere reserve) Kedarnath etc. Liphu Lekh Pass that leads to Mansarovar and Mt. Kailash forms a part of these ranges. Spiti Valley, Lahaul Valley, and Kinnaur Valley are also a part of these ranges.

Greater Himalayas 

  • They extend for about 2400 km, making them one of the longest-running fold mountain ranges in the world.
  • Of the 28 tallest peaks in the world (higher than 8000 m), 14 are situated in the Himadri.
  • Everest, Mt. Kanchenjunga, Mt. Makalu etc. are a part of these ranges.
  • Some of the important passes of these ranges include Zojila Pass (connects Srinagar with Leh), Shipki La Pass, Burzil Pass, Nathu La Pass etc.
  • Important glaciers of these ranges include – Rongbuk glacier (largest in the Himadri), Gangotri, Zemu etc.
  • They are separated from the lesser Himalayas by longitudinal valleys which are filled with sediments. These are called the Doons. Prominent Doons include Paatli Dun, Chaukamba Dun, Dehra Dun etc.

Lesser Himalayas or the Himachal

  • They are divided into the Pir Panjal range and the Dhauladhar range
  • Pir Panjal range is the longest range of the lesser Himalayas. It is cut across by the Jhelum river, Chenab river. Famous passes of this range include – Pir Panjal Pass, Banihal Pass (connects Jammu and Srinagar)
  • Dhauladhar ranges are the extension of Pir Panjal into Himachal Pradesh. They are cut across by the river Ravi.
  • Mussoorie ranges are also a part of the lesser Himalayas. They divide the waters of Sutlej and Ganga

Shiwalik

Apart from these ranges, Himalayas are also divided on the basis of the regions in which they are found.

  • Kashmir Himalayas – they comprise they trans Himalayan ranges of Karakoram, Ladakh, Zanskar and the Pir Panjal range of the lesser Himalayas. The cold desert of Ladakh lies in between the Greater Himalayas and the Karakoram range. Kashmir Valley is located between the Greater Himalayas and the Pir Panjal range.
  • Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas – they comprise the ranges between river Ravi in the west and river Kali in the east. It is drained by the Indus and the Ganga river systems.
  • Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas – they are situated between rivers Kali and Teesta.
  • Arunachal Himalayas – they extend from the east of Bhutan Himalayas up to the Diphu pass in the east. Their orientation is from the southwest to the northeast direction, unlike the earlier ranges of the Himalayas. Some important rivers crossing these ranges include – Kameng, Subansiri, Dihang, Dibang, Lohit etc. Prominent hills of these ranges include the Dafla hills, Abor Hills, Mishmi hills etc. which are named after the ethnic communities residing in these hills.
  • Eastern Hills – They are aligned from the north to the south. They include the ranges of Patkai Bum, Naga hills, Manipur hills, Mizo/Lushai hills.

Important Features of the Himalayas

  • The collision between the Indian and Eurasian plate first happened on the Northwest corner. This resulted in a general Northwest to Southeast orientation to the Himalayas.
  • There are U-shaped bends in the Himalayan ranges at the northwest and southeast corners which are known as the Syntaxial bends.
  • The southern slopes of Himalayas (on the Indian side) are much steeper than the northern slopes (on the Chinese/Tibetan side).
  • Karewa – these are the glacial deposits comprising clay and rocks.  found in the Kashmir Himalayas and are useful for the cultivation of Zafron (a local variety of saffron)
  • Meandering Jhelum – meanders of a river are usually found in the plains with soft strata. But Jhelum is found meandering in the Kashmir Valley because of the base provided by an erstwhile larger lake. The Dal Lake in Kashmir is a remnant of the erstwhile lake.
  • Duns – longitudinal valleys which the Himadri and the Himachal ranges. These are filled with the deposits of rivers flowing down from the Himalayan ranges.
  • Bugyals – summer grasslands found in the upper reached of the Himalayas. These are used by the nomadic groups to herd their cattle in summers. The Valley of Flowers is a part of such grasslands, found in the Uttarakhand Himalayas
  • Darjeeling Himalayas are known for their Tea plantations, which came up because of their moderate slope, thick soil cover with good organic content and rainfall which is distributed throughout the year.
  • The Eastern hills are inhabited by tribal groups who practice Jhum cultivation.
  • Loktak lake – situated in Manipur, is surrounded by hills on all sides. It contains the only floating national park in the world viz., Keibul Lamjao National Park.

Ujjwala revolution-Important Topic For UPSC and PSC Exams

Background:

In our country, the poor have limited access to cooking gas (LPG). The spread of LPG cylinders has been predominantly in the urban and semi-urban areas with the coverage mostly in middle class and affluent households.

But there are serious health hazards associated with cooking based on fossil fuels. According to WHO estimates, about 5 lakh deaths in India alone due to unclean cooking fuels. Most of these premature deaths were due to non-communicable diseases such as heart disease, stroke, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and lung cancer.

Indoor air pollution is also responsible for a significant number of acute respiratory illnesses in young children. According to experts, having an open fire in the kitchen is like burning 400 cigarettes an hour.

Air pollution kills more Indians than any other risk factor with estimates ranging from 15 to 20 lakh premature deaths annually. Although outdoor air pollution garners most public attention, it is well-known in health circles that pollution from chulhas is about half of the problem because people in households are directly exposed to such pollution.

It is less well-understood, however, that the two are linked: One of the reasons India has such bad outdoor air pollution is that nearly 200 million households are still burning biomass every day for cooking. Solving the household dirty fuel problem will also help reduce the outdoor air problem, although not solve it on its own.

 

Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY):

Providing LPG connections to BPL households will ensure universal coverage of cooking gas in the country. This measure empowered women and protect their health. It will reduce drudgery and the time spent on cooking. It will also provide employment for rural youth in the supply chain of cooking gas.

Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana – Scheme for Providing Free LPG connections to Women from BPL Households.

This is the first time in the history of the country that the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas would implement a welfare scheme benefitting crores of women belonging to the poorest households. Last month, the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) completed two years of operation.

 

What makes LPG adoption necessary?

About 75 crore Indians, especially women and girls, are exposed to severe household air pollution (HAP) from the use of solid fuels such as biomass, dung cakes and coal for cooking. A report from the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare places HAP as the second leading risk factor contributing to India’s disease burden.

According to the World Health Organization, solid fuel use is responsible for about 13% of all mortality and morbidity in India (measured as Disability-Adjusted Life Years), and causes about 40% of all pulmonary disorders, nearly 30% of cataract incidences, and over 20% each of ischemic heart disease, lung cancer and lower respiratory infection.

 

Achievements of the PMUY:

Under the scheme, now 8 crore LPG connections are to be provided to BPL households. The identification of eligible BPL families will be made in consultation with the State Governments and the Union Territories.

Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) aims to safeguard the health of women & children by providing them with a clean cooking fuel – LPG, so that they don’t have to compromise their health in smoky kitchens or wander in unsafe areas collecting firewood. The ambitious scheme also laid down a condition — that the LPG connections will be issued in the name of the women of the households.

Encouraged by the rapid release of connections, the central government revised the target and scope of the scheme to eight crore connections by March 2020.

Under the scheme, the union government bears the connection cost of ₹1,600 per connection, and each household pays about ₹1,500 for the stove and the first LPG cylinder. Centre to raise allocation for the project to ₹4,800 crore

 

Another reform that equally deserves applaud is Give it scheme. It is truly a social revolution that is happening in the country. More than one million people have given up there subsidy voluntarily since the “Give it up” initiative started.

With this it is possible that government can use these voluntary resources for synergising other schemes that are cash strapped or require more funds.

The DBT scheme which aims to directly transfer the subsidy to the beneficiary is another great initiative that is truly innovative and successful.

Linking the beneficiary’s bank account to his Aadhar number has prevented pilferage, avoided middlemen, and target subsidy to the original beneficiary, India which closely spends nearly 4-5 percent of its GDP in giving subsidies; the DBT scheme has been revolutionary in channelizing these precious resources to empower people.

 

Conclusion:

Truly smokeless kitchens can be realized only if the government follows up with measures that go beyond connections to actual usage of LPG. This may require concerted efforts cutting across Ministries beyond petroleum and natural gas and including those of health, rural development and women and child welfare.

Government needs to re-look at their connection focused approach, and should ensure adequate provisions for affordability, availability, and accountability.

The programme has been successful in introducing a sense of urgency into the transition to modern cooking fuels and disbursing connections. But it has been less successful in introducing a sustained change because of issues around affordability and reliability of LPG supply.

This will propel PMUY to achieve the desired objective of not only disbursing connections but making the LPG sector a real contributor to overcoming this deep-rooted challenge affecting energy access, health, and gender disparity. There needs to be a synergy in the Gas connection with the Electricity connection.

It is welcome that the government has recognised the importance of clean cooking energy with the launch of this mammoth scheme. However, we need to go beyond subsidising connections and fuel costs and focus on issues of cash flow, awareness, availability and administration. Only such a comprehensive approachwill help poor households have a better life.

Source-Insightsonindia

(Notes) Indian Drainage System-Rivers

Origin and Mouth of Indus and its Tributaries

 

River Origin Mouth Length (Km)
Indus Sengge Zangbo and Gar, Tibbet Plateau, China Indus river delta ( near Karachi, Pakistan mainly and some parts of Gujarat) 2880
Sutlej Lake Rakshas-tal, Tibet, China Sutlej mixes with Chenab near Unch sharif, Pakistan to form Panjnad river which in turn mixes with Indus river near Bhawalpur of Pakistan 1500
Beas Beas Kund, Rohtang Pass, Himachal Pradesh Mixes with Sutlej river near Makhu, Firozpur of Punjab 470
Parbati Man Talai glacier near Pin Parbati Pass Mixes with Beas river at Bhuntar, near Kullu of Himachal Pradesh
Chenab Bara Lacha Pass, Lahaul and Spiti, Himachal Pradesh Mixes with Sutlej near Unch Sharif, Pakistan to form Panjnad river which in turn mixes with Indus river 960
Ravi Kangra of Himachal Pradesh Chenab river, Pakistan 720
Jhelum Verinag spring, Anantnag of J& K Chenab river, Pakistan 725
Suru Panzella Glacier, Pensi La pass, Kargil Indus, Nurla, Skardu, Pakistan 185
Dras Machoi glacier, Zoji La, near Soanmarg, Jammu and Kashmir Suru River at Kharul, Kargil 86
Zanskar Doda River (First Branch), Kargyag and Tsarap River (Second Branch) Indus river near Nimmu in Laddakh
Tsarap Pankpo La, Sarchu Zanskar river, Padum, Kargil 182
Doda Drang Drung glacier, Pensi La Zanskar river, Padum, Kargil 79

 Origin and Mouth of Brahmaputra and its Tributaries

River Origin Mouth Length (Km)
Brahmaputra Angsi glacier, Tibbet, China Ganges Delta, Bangladesh (Bay of Bengal) 2900
Dhansiri Laisang peak, Nagaland Brahmaputra river 352
Dharla Himalayas Brahmaputra, Kurigram, Bangladesh
Dihing Patkai Hills, North east Indian border with Burma Brahmaputra at Dihingmukh in Assam 380
Dibang Keya pass, India China border, Dibang valley district, Arunachal Pradesh River Lohit, Sadiya, Assam 195
Kameng Glacial lake, Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh Brahmaputra at Tezpur, Assam 264
Lohit Zayal Chu range, east Tibbet Brahmaputra
Manas Bhutan Brahmaputra at Jogighopa, Assam 376
Sankosh Bhutan Brahmaputra, Assam
Subansiri (largest tributary of Brahmaputra) Himalayas, China Brahmaputra at Lakhimpur, Assam 442
Teesta Pauhunri & Zemu glaciers, Cholamu & Gurudongmar lakes Brahmaputra, Fulchori, Rangpur, Bangladesh 309
Torsa Chumbi valley, Tibet, China Brahmaputra, Bangladesh 358

Origin and Mouth of Ganges and its Tributaries

River Origin Mouth Length (Km)
Ganga Gangotri, Satopnath and Khatling glacier, Uttarakhand Ganges delta, Bay of Bengal (India & Bangladesh) 2525
Hooghly Distributary of Ganga and splits out near Farkka barage near Murshidabad, West Bengal Bay of Bengal
Damodar Chandwa, Latehar, Jharkhand Hooghly river, West Bengal 592
Meghana Distributary of Brahmaputra Bhola district, Bangladesh, Bay of Bengal
Padma Distributary of Ganga Meghna river near Chandpur district, Bangladesh 120
Mahananda Paglajhora falls, Darjeeling, West Bengal Ganga, Nawabganj district of Bangladesh 360
Kosi Saptkoshi tributaries (Sun Kosi, Arun, Tamur etc), Nepal Ganga near Kursela, Bihar 720
Gandak Nhubine Himal glacier, Mustang, Nepal Ganga, Sonpur, Bihar 630
Son Amarkantak, Madhya Pradesh Ganga, near north of Patna 784
Ghaghra Mapchachungo glacier, Tibet, China Ganga near Doriganj, Bihar 1080
Gomti Gomat tal, Pilibhit, Uttar Pradesh Ganga near Ghazipur, Uttar Pradesh 900
Yamuna Yamunotri glacier, Uttarakhand Ganga at Allahabad 1376
Ramganga Namik glacier, Pauri Garhwal, Uttarakhand Ganga, Ibrahimpur, Uttarpradesh
Alaknanda Satopnath & Bhagirathi kharak glacier Ganga, Devprayag, Uttarakhand 190
Bhagirathi Gaumukh, Uttarakhand Ganga, Devprayag, Uttarakhand 205

Peninsular Indian Rivers and their Origin (Flowing to Bay of Bengal)

Origin and Mouth of Godavari and its Tributaries 

River Origin Mouth Length
Godavari Brahmagiri mountains, Trayambakeshwar, Nashik Bay of Bengal, near East Godavari district, Andhra Pradesh 1464
Indravati Dandkaranya range, Kalahandi district, Odisha Godavari near border of Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh and Telangana 535
Pranahita confluence of Wardha and Wainganga, near Sirpur Kagaznagar Godavari, near Kaleshwaram, Telangana 113
Wardha Satpura range, Multai, Betul district of Madhya Pradesh Pranhita river 528
Kolab (Sabari) Sinkaran hiils, Koraput, Odisha Godavari 200
Mnjira Balaghat hills Godavari, near Kandhakurthi, Karnataka 724
Wainganga Satpura Range, Mundara, Seoni district, Madhya Pradesh Pranhita river 579
Painganga Ajanta range, Aurangabad, Maharashtra Wardha river, Chandrapura district, Maharashtra 676

Origin and Mouth of Krishna and its Tributaries

River Origin Mouth Length (Km)
Krishna Near Mahabaleshwar, Satara district, Maharashtra Bay of Bengal, near Hamsaladeevi, Krishna district, Andhra Pradesh 1400
Tungabhadhra Confluence of Tunga and Bhadhra near Koodli, Karnataka Krishna river, near Alampur, Mahbubnagar, Telangana 531
Vedavathi Confluence of Veda and Avathi near Pura Tungnhadhra river, near Siruguppa
Bhima Bhimashankar, Maharashtra Krishna river, near Raichur 861
Indrayani Lonavla, Maharashtra Bhima river
Pavana Sahyadri range, Lonavla Maharashtra Mula river 58
Mula-Mutha confluence of Mula and Mutha rivers near Pune Bhima river
Malaprabha Western ghats, near Belgaum, Karnataka Krishna river, near Kudalasangama, Bagalkot, Karnataka
Ghataprabha Western ghats, Sindhudurg, Maharashtra Krishna river, Almatti 283
Venna Mahabaleshwar, Maharashtra Krishna river, Satara, Maharashtra 130
Koyna Mahabaleshwar, Maharashtra Krishan river, near Karad, Satara 130

Origin and Mouth of Kaveri and its Tributaries

River Origin Mouth Length
cauvery Talakaveri, Kodagu district, Karnataka Kaveri delta, Bay of Bengal 765
Amaravati Anamalai hills, Pambar, Chinnar rivers Kaveri river at Karur, Tamil Nadu 282
Bhavani Silent valley National Park, Kerala Kaveri river at Kongu Nadu region of Tamil Nadu 135
Hemavati Western ghats, Chikmagalur, Karnataka Kveri river near Krishnarajasagara, Karnataka 245

Other Important East Flowing Rivers

River Origin Mouth Length
Mahanadi Dhamtari, Dandkaranya, Chhattisgarh Bay of Bengal, near False Point, Kendrapada, Odisha 858
Subarnarekha Chota Nagpur plateau, near Ranchi, Jharkhand Kirtania Port, near Talsari, Bay of Bengal 395
Kangsabati Chota Nagpur plateau, Purulia district, West Bengal Bay of Bengal near Haldia 465
Penner (Penna) Nandi Hills, Chikkaballapur district, Karnataka Bay of Bengal, near Nellore, Andhra Pradesh 597
Palar Nandi Hills, Kolar district Karnataka Bay of Bengal, near Vayalur, Tamil Nadu 348
Vaigai Varusanadu Hills, Tamil Nadu Palk Strait, Tamil Nadu 258
Vellar Shevarpy Hills Bay of Bengal, near Parangipettai, Tamil Nadu 150
Ponnaiyar Nandidurg, Chikkaballapur, Karnataka Bay of Bengal 400
Noyyal Vellingiri Hills, Western Ghats, Tamil Nadu Kaveri river 180

Peninsular Indian Rivers Flowing to Arabian Sea

Origin and Mouth of Tapti (or Tapi) and its Tributaries

River Origin Mouth Length (Km)
Tapti (or Tapi) Satpura Range, Multai, near Betul, Madhya Pradesh Gulf of Khambhat, Arabian sea, neat Surat, Gujarat 724
Purna Satpura Range, Baitul, Madhya Pradesh Tapti river, near Changdev
Panzara near Pimpalner, Dhule, Maharashtra Tapti river
Gomai Satpura Range Tapti river near Prakasha, Nandurbar, Maharashtra

Narmada, Mahi, Sabarmati and their Tributaries

River Origin Mouth Length
Narmada Narmada Kund, Amarkantak Hills, shahdol, Madhya Pradesh Gulf of Khambhat, Surat, Gujarat 1315
Kolar Vindhya Range, near Sehore district, Madhya Pradesh Narmada, near Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh 101
Tawa Satpura Range, Betul, Madhya Pradesh Narmada near Hoshangabad district 172
Mahi Vindhya Range, Madhya Pradesh Gulf of Khambhat, near Bharuch district 580
Sabarmati Dhebar lake, Aravali range, near Udaipur, Rajasthan Gulf of Khambhat 371

Other Important West Flowing Rivers

River Origin Mouth Length
Zuari Hemad-Barshem in western ghats Arabian sea 34
Ulhas near Rajmachi hills, Sahyadri range Vasai creek, Mumbai 122
Mithi Vihar lake and Powai lake Arabian sea, Mahim creek, Mumbai 15
Mandovi Bhimgad, Karnataka Arabian sea 77
Kali Kushavali, Karnataka Arabian sea 184
Netravati Kudremukh, Chikamangaluru, Karnataka Arabian sea, near Mangalore, Karnataka
Sharavati Western Ghats, Tirthahalli, Karnataka Arabian sea, near Honnavar, Uttar Kannada district, Karnataka 128
Periyar Sivagiri hills, Sundaramala, Tamil Nadu Lakshdweep sea, Kerala 244
Bharathapuzha Anamalai Hills, Tamil Nadu Lakshdweep sea, Ponnani, Kerala 209
Pamba Pulachimalai Hills, Western Ghats Vembanad Lake 176
Chaliyar Elambaleri Hills, Western Ghats, Wayanad, Kerala Lakshdweep sea, Kerala 169

(Notes) Coastline of India: Features and Importance

India has a long coastline of 6100 km along the mainland and 7516.6 Km coastline including the island groups Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep.

The Plateau of Peninsular India is fringed with narrow coastal plains. Raised beaches and wave-cut platforms above the watermark suggest that these coastal plains are essentially the emerged floors of the seas adjacent to the land. After the emergence of these lowlands, fluctuations in sea-level, though limited to small areas, have brought about some changes in the general surface features of the littoral.

     Importance of the long Indian Coastline

  1. Since coastal areas have an Equable climate, a long coastline means a large number of areas having a favourable climate with no extremities in temperature which is ideal for human development.
  2. Domination-It offers a long reach into the vast Indian Ocean.
  3. Trade-The long coastline has given India a number of natural ports and harbours. It has led to the development of oceanic trade.
  4. Marine Economy– A large coastline has offered India many rights on mining, oil exploration and natural gas in India’s Exclusive Economic Zone.
  5. Tourism- India’s coastal areas are endowed with abundant coastal and marine ecosystems that include a wide range of mangroves, coral reefs, estuaries and lagoons having a great tourism potential.
  6. Fishing- The long Indian coastline provides livelihood to the fishing community.
  7. Wind Energy- India’s coastal areas have a huge potential for on-shore wind energy farms.
  8. Strategic advantage-India is a gateway for many countries which are landlocked such as Nepal and Bhutan.

However, the long coastline also means India needs to invest a lot in securing its borders. Also, it makes India vulnerable to many disasters such as Cyclones and Tsunamis.

Western Coast of India

The west coast strip extends from Gujarat in the north to Kerala in the south including Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka.  The western coastal plains are an example of submerged coastal plain. It is believed that the city of Dwaraka which was once a part of the Indian mainland situated along the west coast is submerged under water. Because of this submergence, it is a narrow belt and provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours.

The western coastal plains in the north have a varied topography. There are marshes, lagoons, mud-flats, peninsulas, creeks, gulfs and islands.

The western coast is further divided into:

  1. Kachchh and Kathiawar coast
  2. Konkan coast
  3. Kanada coast
  4. Malabar coast

Kachchh and Kathiawar coast

Kachchh, formerly a gulf is now a vast desolate lowland formed due to the deposition of silt brought mainly by the Indus which drained into it in the past. Kachchh is made up of such Ranns. The area gets covered with shallow water in the monsoons. Kachchh is divided into Great Rann in the north and Little Rann in the east. Between Great Rann and Rocky mainland lies the Banni Plains. Kathiawar is situated to the south of Kachchh. The plains of Gujarat are made up of black soil.

Konkan coast

Konkan coast extends between Daman in the north to Goa in the south. The Konkan coast is characterised by subduction and erosional features. The lowlands in the region are marked by low hills separated by river courses which end in creeks and estuaries near the sea. In this region, rice and cashew are important crops.

Kanada coast

Kanada coast extends between Marmagao and Mangalore. The Kanada coast is narrow and indented. The region is rich in iron deposits.

Malabar coast

Malabar coast extends between Mangalore to Kanyakumari. The coastal plains here are relatively broad. There are lagoons in the area which run parallel to the coast in southern Kerala. These lagoons are called Kayal (backwaters) which receive the water of a large number of rivers before discharging that to the sea with which they are connected with narrow openings.  There has been slight emergence in this part of the western coast.

Eastern Coast of India

The east coast strip extends from the Bay of Bengal to the tip of the Eastern Ghats including the states of  Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. The Eastern coastal plains are an example of emergent coastal plain and are broader than the western coastal plains. There are well-developed deltas in the eastern coast formed by the deposition of sediments from the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri. In East Coast, the continental shelf here extends up to 500 km into the sea, so it is difficult to develop good natural harbours and ports in this region.

The eastern coast is further divided into:

  1. Utkal coast
  2. Andhra coast
  3. Coromandel coast

Utkal coast

Utkal coast extends between Chilika Lake and Kolleru Lake. These coastal plains are much wider than the western coastal plains. The region is vastly affected by immense rainfall. It is also vulnerable to cyclones. In this region, rice, coconut and banana are widely cultivated.

Andhra coast

Andhra coast extends between Kolleru Lake and Pulicat Lake. The region is a basin area of two very important rivers- the Krishna and the Godavari. Due to this, the region is very fertile. These coastal plains are very wide.

Coromandel Coast

Coromandel coast extends between Pulicat Lake and Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu. This region remains dry in summer and receives rainfall in the winter from the north-east monsoons.

(Notes) Important Hill Ranges of India-Geography

  1. Aravalli hills
  2. Vindhyan range
  3. Satpura range
  4. Western Ghat
  5. Eastern Ghat

Aravalli hills

  • They originate in Gujarat (at Kalyanpur) and extend till Haryana. They terminate in the Delhi ridge.
  • They have a maximum extent of 800 km
  • They are old fold mountain ranges, one of the oldest tectonic mountains in the world.
  • Rocks that make up the Aravallis are more than 2 billion years old.
  • Unlike other fold mountains, Aravallis have an average elevation in the range of 400-600m only. This is because throughout their geological history they were subjected to the processes of weathering and erosion.
  • Only a few peaks reach an elevation of above 1000m. These include – Mt. Gurushikhar (1722m, the highest point of Aravallis), Mt.Abu (1158m, it’s part of a plateau).
  • Geologically, they are mainly made up of Dharwad igneous and metamorphic rocks.
  • They contain the largest marble deposits in India.
  • Rivers Banas, Luni, Sabarmati are born in Aravallis. Banas is a tributary of Chambal. Luni is an ephemeral river which terminates in the Rann of Kutchch.
  • They contain several passes that cut through them, especially between Udaipur and Ajmer like Palghat, Dewar, Desuri etc.
  • They also contain several lakes such as Lake Sambhar (largest inland saline water body in India), Lake Dhebar (south of Aravallis), Lake Jaisamand (in the Jaisamand wildlife sanctuary) etc.

Vindhyan range

  • These are non-tectonic mountains; they were formed not because of plate collision but because of the downward faulting of the Narmada Rift Valley (NRV) to their south.
  • They extend for 1200km from Bharuch in Gujarat to Sasaram in Bihar.
  • Geologically, they are younger than Aravallis and Satpura hills.
  • Their average height is in the range of 300-650m.
  • They are made up of older Proterozoic rocks. They are cut across by Kimberlitic piles (diamond deposits)
  • They are known by local names such as Panna, Kaimur, and Rewa etc.
  • They rise from the NRV in the form of steep, sharp slopes called the escarpments. These escarpments are well developed in Kaimur and Panna regions.

Satpura range

  • Satpura range is a combination of Satpura, Mahadeo, and Maikala hills.
  • Satpura hills are tectonic mountains, formed about 1.6 billion years ago, as a result of folding and structural uplift. They are a Horst landform.
  • They run for a distance of about 900km.
  • Mahadeo hills lie to the east of Satpura hills. Pachmarhi is the highest point of the Satpura range. Dhupgarh (1350m) is the highest peak of Pachmarhi.
  • Maikala hills lie to the east of Mahadeo hills. Amarkantak plateau is a part of the Maikala hills. It is about 1127m.
  • The plateau has the drainage systems of Narmada and Son; hence it has drainage into the Bay of Bengal as well as Arabian sea.
  • These are mostly situated in the States of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.
  • These hills are rich in bauxite, due to the presence of Gondwana rocks.
  • Dhuandhar waterfalls over the Narmada is situated MP.

Western Ghats

  • They extend between Diu island near Gujarat to Kanyakumari in the south.
  • They form the western edge of the Deccan plateau.
  • They appear to be rising abruptly from the west coast plains to an altitude of 1km from the mean sea level.
  • They have a gentle slope towards their eastern edge, from the Deccan plateau, and don’t appear to be a tall range of hills.
  • They were formed due to faulting along the western edge of the Deccan plateau, during the collision of the Indian plate with the Eurasian plate. This led to the submergence of the western coast, as well as an abrupt escarpment of the Western Ghats along the plateau’s western edge.
  • They are divided into three sections – northern section, middle section, and southern section.

Northern section

  • The Western Ghats of this section is also known as the Sahyadris. They are located in Maharashtra.
  • The average elevation of Sahyadris is 1200m above the mean sea level.
  • Sahyadris are made of volcanic igneous rocks (basalt). Hence they are geologically younger than the rocks in the other sections of the Western Ghats.
  • Mahabaleshwar plateau is the highest region of the Sahyadris. River Krishna has its origin from this plateau.
  • Important peaks of the Sahyadris include – Kalasubai peak (1.64km, the tallest peak of the Sahyadris), Salher peak (1.56km), Harischandragarh peak (1.4km) etc.
  • Sahyadris give rise to more number of large rivers, relatively than any other section of the Ghats. Hence they form the most important watershed of south India.
  • Some of the important passes of this section include the Thalghat gap (the route between Mumbai and Nashik passes through this) and Bhorghta gap (the route between Mumbai and Pune passes through this)

Middle section

  • This section runs through the States of Karnataka and Goa. It terminates in the Nilgiri, where it joins the Eastern Ghats.
  • Bababudan hills of Karnataka are a part of this section. They are famous for their coffee plantations. River Tungabhadra has one of its originating streams (Bhadra) coming from these hills.
  • They are made of igneous and metamorphic rocks like the granite and gneiss.
  • They have dense forests and a number of short streams originate from them. This resulted in a headward erosion of these hills, leaving many gaps in the ranges.
  • Their average elevation is around 1200m. They include prominent peaks such as the Vavulmala (2339m), Kudremukh (1892m), Pushpagiri (1714m) etc.
  • Nilgiri are the prominent hills of this section. They rise abruptly at the trijunction of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala to a height of up to 2000m. The highest hills of Nilgiri are the Ootacamund hills. Doda betta (2630m) is the highest peak in the Nilgiri.
  • Nilgiri are Block Mountains, they rose between two faults and are hence considered to be Horst landforms.

Southern section

  • This includes the hill ranges of Annamalai and Cardamom.
  • Palghat gap (Palakkad gap) is the largest gap in the Western Ghats (about 24km wide). It separates the Nilgiri from the Annamalai hills.
  • Anaimudi peak (2690m) is the highest point of Annamalai hills, also the highest point of peninsular India. Palani hills are a part of the Annamalai range. They are made of Dharwad igneous rocks. Kodaikanal hill station is a part of the Palani hills.
  • Cardamom hills are to the south of Annamalai hills and are separated from them by the Shenkottai pass. Also known as Anaimalai, these hills are famous for Cardamom cultivation.
  • Periyar River originates close to the Annamalai hills and flows into the Arabian Sea.
  • Varushnad hills are a part of the Cardamom hills. River Vaigai originates here.
  • Agasthamalai hills are the southernmost section of the Western Ghats. Situated in Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Agasthamalai peak is the southernmost peak of peninsular India.

Eastern Ghats

  • They extend between the rivers Mahanadi and Vaigai.
  • They are mainly composed of Dharwad igneous and metamorphic rocks.
  • Unlike the Western Ghats, these are low lying hills. They are a discontinuous mountain range, unlike the Western Ghats.
  • They comprise a series of discontinuous hill ranges such as – Odisha hills (Maliya hills), Nallamala hills, Palakonda hills, Velikonda hills, Javadi hills, and Shevaroy hills.
  • Mahendragiri peak (1501m) is the highest point of Odisha hills.
  • Between Odisha hills and the Godavari basin, there are some prominent hill ranges such as the Madugula Konda range. It has an average elevation in the range of 900-1100m It has some of the highest peaks of the Eastern Ghats like the Jindhagada peak (1690m), Arma Konda (1680m), Gali Konda (1643m) etc
  • They almost absent between Madugula Konda range and Nallamala hills. This region is made up of the Godavari-Krishna delta.
  • Nallamala hills are situated in Andhra Pradesh. They are made up of Proterozoic sedimentary rocks. Their average elevation is in the range of 600-850m.
  • To their south are the Velikonda hills, Palakonda hills, and the Seshachalam range in Andhra Pradesh.
  • Javadi hills and Shevaroy hills are situated in Tamil Nadu. To the south, Eastern Ghats merge with the Western Ghats at the Nilgiri.

(Notes) Peninsular Plateau of India

The peninsular plateau is a part of the peninsular Indian landmass that is surrounded by seas. Most of the peninsular landmass is a plateau. It’s an uplifted block called the Horst, created by two faults in the west and east coasts. It is triangular in shape with its three corners at:

  • Bharuch in Gujarat on the west
  • Rajmahal hills on the east
  • Kanyakumari in the south

The Narmada – Son – Damodar rift valley runs across the peninsular landmass cutting it into two parts viz., the Central Highlands in the north, and the Deccan Plateau in the south.

Peninsular Plateau

The peninsular plateau is divided into various regional landmasses based on the local topography and their geographical location. They include:

  • Malwa plateau
  • Bundelkhand plateau
  • Bagelkhand plateau
  • Madhya Bharat Pathar
  • Kathiawar plateau
  • Chhotanagpur plateau
  • Meghalaya plateau
  • Deccan plateau

Malwa plateau

  • Located immediately to the east of the Aravallis, most of the plateau is situated in Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
  • Narmada Rift Valley is the most prominent structure of this plateau
  • It has the drainage systems of the Bay of Bengal (Chambal, Sindh, Betwa, Parbati join the Yamuna, which in turn joins the Ganga) and the Arabian Sea (Narmada, Tapti, Mahi).
  • The average elevation of the plateau is 500m with a gentle slope towards the north.
  • Geologically, it’s among India’s most diverse landmasses with Dharwad rocks, Vindhyan rocks, Gondwana rocks, and Volcanic Basalt being found within it.
  • It has semi-arid to arid type of climate. Short spells of rainfall occur due to convection which gives rise to temporary streams. In the absence of dense vegetation, these streams remove the topsoil giving rise to narrow valley type of structures known as Gullies. Gullies deepen eventually to form Ravines.
  • Ravine-Gully erosion turns the landform into a Badland, not suitable for agriculture. Chambal’s drainage basin is abundant with such Badland topography.

Bundelkhand plateau

  • Lies to the east of Malwa plateau, and is situated in the states of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
  • Situated over the Ganga basin, made up of granite and gneiss rocks
  • The average elevation of the plateau is in the range of 300-600m.
  • It has a drainage system into the Bay of Bengal.
  • Along the Betwa floodplains, there are badlands which make the region unfit for agriculture.

Bagelkhand plateau

  • It is situated in three States – UP, MP, and Chhattisgarh
  • Son river drains the region, on which the Rihand Dam and Govind Vallabh Pant Sagar reservoir (largest manmade lake in India) were built.
  • The plateau contains Dharwad and Gondwana rocks.
  • It separates the Ganga basin from the Mahanadi basin.

Madhya Bharat Pathar

  • Also known as the Central Highland
  • It contains the drainage of river Chambal which flows in a rift valley. Kali-Sindh, Banas, and Parbati are the tributaries of Chambal which also drain the region.
  • It lies to the east of Marwar upland

Kathiawar plateau

  • Located in the Kathiawar region of Gujarat, this region has many pipe-like volcanic openings which gave rise to many hill ranges such as the Girnar range, Junagarh range, Pavagarh range etc.
  • Lake Nalsarovar, which is a bird sanctuary, forms the Northeast boundary of the plateau.
  • Little Rann is situated to the north of Kathiwar plateau.
  • It has some volcanic rocks in the form of Mandav hills and Balda hills.
  • Girnar is the highest point of Kathiawar plateau.

Chota Nagpur plateau (CNP)

  • It’s a continental plateau, with Himalayas (Shiwalik) to its north, and having the drainage systems of Damodar, Subarnarekha, North Koel, and South Koel which empty into the Bay of Bengal. Himalayan uplift resulted in the down buckling of the plateau which created a trough in which the alluvial sediments from the Himalayan Rivers got deposited. This includes the present day Ganga basin.
  • Its average elevation is in the range of 600-700 m above the mean sea level.
  • The plateau covers the States of Jharkhand, parts of Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha.
  • Geologically, the plateau is made up of Dharwad (igneous and metamorphic) rocks, mostly granite and gneiss.
  • Damodar rift valley (DRV) is the most prominent structure of this plateau. Gondwana rocks are found in the rift valley, which resulted in some of the richest coal deposits of India viz., the Damodar Valley Coal Fields.
  • Dalmia Hills and Dhanjor hills, which are among the oldest volcanic hills in India, are a part of the plateau.
  • The region comprised of alternate soft and hard rock strata. This resulted in the differential weathering and erosion of the soft rock strata, leaving the hard rock strata. Such a topography is known as the Patland.
  • The Damodar rift valley divides the plateau into two parts. The Patlands south of DRV constitute the Ranchi plateau, and the Patlands north of DRV make up the Hazaribagh plateau.
  • Due to intense weathering and erosion, CNP is covered with laterite soils.
  • CNP is among the richest mineralized zones of India. Many important industrial centres such as Jamshedpur, Bokaro, Sindri, Lohar Darga, Ranchi etc. are located in this region.
  • Rajmahal hills form the eastern edge of the CNP.

Meghalaya plateau

  • Also known as the Shillong plateau, it’s a part of the peninsular plateau but is separated from it by the Malda trough/Rajmahal-Garo gap.
  • It is made up of Dharwad and Gondwana rocks. It is rich in coal fields (Bapung coal fields of Meghalaya) and also in nuclear minerals (Uranium deposits of Domiasiat mines in Meghalaya)
  • Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia hills form the southern edges of the plateau.
  • Its average elevation is about 1500m above the mean sea level.
  • Brahmaputra’s basin is to the north of the plateau. River Surma enters the plateau from Assam and joins the river Meghna in Bangladesh.
  • Cherrapunji and Mawsynram, located in the Khasi hills, are the wettest places in India and are a part of the plateau.

Deccan plateau

  • It is the largest plateau in India, covering an area of around 5 lakh sq.km
  • It extends into the States of Maharashtra, Telangana, Northern Karnataka, and Kathiawar region of Gujarat
  • It is volcanic plateau formed after the solidification of basaltic lava which has flown over the region in layers forming a step-like topography known as the Deccan Traps.
  • Deccan Traps have the highest thickness in the west and gradually slope towards the east.
  • The western edge of the plateau is made up hills with steeping slopes to the west, known as the Sahyadris. They are a part of the Western Ghats.
  • The plateau comprises several hill ranges such as the Balaghat hills, Ajanta hills etc.
  • Gaps in these hill ranges are known as passes. For example, the Bhorghat pass connects Mumbai and Pune.
  • The southern extensions of Deccan plateau are known by their regional names such as the Telangana plateau and Karnataka plateau

Telangana plateau

  • It is made up of Dharwad rocks. Gondwana rocks are also found in the Godavari valley, famous for its coal fields.
  • Godavari, Krishna, and Penna are the major rivers flowing through the plateau.
  • Because of the Dharwad rock strata, the plateau is rich in mineral resources.
  • The plateau receives good rainfall (average of 100mm/year), similar to the CNP.
  • It’s considered to be a Peneplains i.e., a vast featureless, undulating plain.
  • The average elevation of the plateau is in the range of 500-600m above the mean sea level

Karnataka plateau

  • Also known as the Mysore plateau.
  • The average elevation of the plateau is in the range of 600-900m.
  • The plateau has two major divisions viz., Malnad and Maidan
  • Malnad is a hilly region covered with dense forests. Maidan is a rolling plain with low lying hills.
  • The plateau is drained by numerous streams and rivers flowing from the Western Ghats.
  • The plateau tapers to the south, in between the Western and the Eastern Ghats, and merges with the Nilgiri.

(Notes) Geography Of India-Formation of Himalayas

Formation of Himalayas

The Himalayas are believed to have formed over 50 million years ago with the collision of the Indian plate with the Eurasian plate. The Indian plate slid below the Eurasian plate, due to its density being higher, and in the process crumbling and buckling up the Eurasian plate into the various mountain ranges that are now a part of the Himalayas.

Ranges of Himalayas

The Himalayas are a series of parallel mountain ranges extending along the North-West to the South-East direction (known as the Strike of the Himalayas). These ranges are separated by longitudinal valleys. They include,

  • Trans-Himalayas
  • The Greater Himalayas or Himadri
  • The Lesser Himalayas or Himachal
  • Shiwalik or the Outer Himalayas
  • The Eastern Hills or Purvanchal

Trans Himalayas

 

 

  • They are made of the ocean sediments of the Tethys Sea which was consumed during the collision of Indian and Eurasian plate boundaries.
  • They include the ranges of Karakoram, Ladakh, and Zanskar.
  • Karakoram ranges have their one end originating from the Pamir Knot. Karakoram ranges hold the largest amounts of snow and ice among all of the Himalayan ranges. This is because they are situated in higher latitudes where the snow line (altitude above which there is permanent ice and snow cover).
  • The Karakoram is home to some of the largest glaciers such as Siachen (the second longest glacier outside of Polar Regions), Biafo (longest glacier outside of Polar Regions), Baltoro, Hispar, Trango etc.
  • They are home to some of the tallest peaks in the world such as Mt. K2/Godwin-Austin (8611m), Gasherbrum 1 (8080m), Broad Peak (8051m) etc.
  • Karakoram ranges have gaps in them, which are known as passes. Important among them are – Khunjerab Pass, Karakoram Pass, Sia La Pass, and Bilafond La Pass (immediately west of the Siachen glacier) etc.
  • Ladakh ranges are to the south-east of the Karakoram ranges. They separate the rivers Indus and Shyok (a tributary of Indus). Khardung La Pass (India’s highest motorable pass falls in these ranges). These ranges extend into China where they are known as the Kailash ranges. They include Mt. Kailash and Mansarovar Lake.
  • Pangong Tso (largest saline lake between India and China) and Spanggur Tso are the two saltwater lakes situated in these ranges.
  • To the south of the Ladakh, ranges are the Zanskar ranges, which are cut across by the Zanskar River. These ranges extend into Uttarakhand. They contain some prominent peaks like Mt. Kamet, Nanda Devi (a biosphere reserve) Kedarnath etc. Liphu Lekh Pass that leads to Mansarovar and Mt. Kailash forms a part of these ranges. Spiti Valley, Lahaul Valley, and Kinnaur Valley are also a part of these ranges.

Greater Himalayas 

  • They extend for about 2400 km, making them one of the longest-running fold mountain ranges in the world.
  • Of the 28 tallest peaks in the world (higher than 8000 m), 14 are situated in the Himadri.
  • Everest, Mt. Kanchenjunga, Mt. Makalu etc. are a part of these ranges.
  • Some of the important passes of these ranges include Zojila Pass (connects Srinagar with Leh), Shipki La Pass, Burzil Pass, Nathu La Pass etc.
  • Important glaciers of these ranges include – Rongbuk glacier (largest in the Himadri), Gangotri, Zemu etc.
  • They are separated from the lesser Himalayas by longitudinal valleys which are filled with sediments. These are called the Doons. Prominent Doons include Paatli Dun, Chaukamba Dun, Dehra Dun etc.
Lesser Himalayas or the Himachal
  • They are divided into the Pir Panjal range and the Dhauladhar range
  • Pir Panjal range is the longest range of the lesser Himalayas. It is cut across by the Jhelum river, Chenab river. Famous passes of this range include – Pir Panjal Pass, Banihal Pass (connects Jammu and Srinagar)
  • Dhauladhar ranges are the extension of Pir Panjal into Himachal Pradesh. They are cut across by the river Ravi.
  • Mussoorie ranges are also a part of the lesser Himalayas. They divide the waters of Sutlej and Ganga
Shiwalik
  • Also known as the outer Himalayas, they are known by different names in different places. For example, they are called Jammu hills in Jammu, Dudhwa ranges in Uttarakhand, Darjeeling hills in West Bengal etc.
  • River Teesta cuts across these ranges in Sikkim.
  • Beyond Sikkim, these ranges merge with the lesser Himalayas.

Apart from these ranges, Himalayas are also divided on the basis of the regions in which they are found.

  • Kashmir Himalayas – they comprise they trans Himalayan ranges of Karakoram, Ladakh, Zanskar and the Pir Panjal range of the lesser Himalayas. The cold desert of Ladakh lies in between the Greater Himalayas and the Karakoram range. Kashmir Valley is located between the Greater Himalayas and the Pir Panjal range.
  • Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas – they comprise the ranges between river Ravi in the west and river Kali in the east. It is drained by the Indus and the Ganga river systems.
  • Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas – they are situated between rivers Kali and Teesta.
  • Arunachal Himalayas – they extend from the east of Bhutan Himalayas up to the Diphu pass in the east. Their orientation is from the southwest to the northeast direction, unlike the earlier ranges of the Himalayas. Some important rivers crossing these ranges include – Kameng, Subansiri, Dihang, Dibang, Lohit etc. Prominent hills of these ranges include the Dafla hills, Abor Hills, Mishmi hills etc. which are named after the ethnic communities residing in these hills.
  • Eastern Hills – They are aligned from the north to the south. They include the ranges of Patkai Bum, Naga hills, Manipur hills, Mizo/Lushai hills.

Important Features of the Himalayas

  • The collision between the Indian and Eurasian plate first happened on the Northwest corner. This resulted in a general Northwest to Southeast orientation to the Himalayas.
  • There are U-shaped bends in the Himalayan ranges at the northwest and southeast corners which are known as the Syntaxial bends.
  • The southern slopes of Himalayas (on the Indian side) are much steeper than the northern slopes (on the Chinese/Tibetan side).
  • Karewa – these are the glacial deposits comprising clay and rocks. They are found in the Kashmir Himalayas and are useful for the cultivation of Zafron (a local variety of saffron)
  • Meandering Jhelum – meanders of a river are usually found in the plains with soft strata. But Jhelum is found meandering in the Kashmir Valley because of the base provided by an erstwhile larger lake. The Dal Lake in Kashmir is a remnant of the erstwhile lake.
  • Duns – longitudinal valleys which the Himadri and the Himachal ranges. They are filled with the deposits of rivers flowing down from the Himalayan ranges.
  • Bugyals – summer grasslands found in the upper reached of the Himalayas. They are used by the nomadic groups to herd their cattle in summers. The Valley of Flowers is a part of such grasslands, found in the Uttarakhand Himalayas
  • Darjeeling Himalayas are known for their Tea plantations, which came up because of their moderate slope, thick soil cover with good organic content and rainfall which is distributed throughout the year.
  • The Eastern hills are inhabited by tribal groups who practice Jhum cultivation.
  • Loktak lake – situated in Manipur, is surrounded by hills on all sides. It contains the only floating national park in the world viz., Keibul Lamjao National Park.

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प्रश्न 1 : किस विदेश यात्री ने भीनमाल का ‘पीलो मोलो ’ कहा है ?

  1. हेंनसांग
  2. फाहा्रान
  3. मेगस्थनीज
  4. उपयुक्त मे से कोई नही

Answer: A

प्रश्न 2 : राजस्थान की एकमात्र मुस्लिम रियासत थी ?

  1. झालावाड
  2. बाॅसवाडा
  3. टोंक
  4. उदयपुर

Answer: C

प्रश्न 3 : राजस्थान मे मीनाकारी का सर्वोतम कार्य किया जाता है ?

  1. जयपुर मे
  2. उदयपुर में
  3. प्रतापगढ में
  4. बूंदी में

Answer: A

प्रश्न 4 : संत जाम्भोजी का जन्म हुआ था ?

  1. पीपासर नागौर में
  2. नीमराणा में
  3. माॅंडलगढ में
  4. पीपलुदा में

Answer: A

प्रश्न 5 : गणगौर का त्यौहार किस तिथि को मनाया जाता है?

  1. चैत्र कृष्ण प्रतिपदा
  2. चैत्र शुक्ल तृतीया
  3. चैत्र शुक्ल पंचमी
  4. चैत्र कृष्ण तृतीया

Answer: B

प्रश्न 6 : वज्रसेन सूरी ,डिंगल शैली की कौनसी शैली से संबंधित है ?

  1. जैन शैली
  2. चारण शैली
  3. लौकिक शैली
  4. संत शैली

Answer: A

प्रश्न 7 : राजस्थान मे 1857 की क्रान्ति का सूत्रपात कब हुआ ?

  1. 29 मार्च 1857
  2. 31 मई 1857
  3. 28 मई 1857
  4. 01 जून 1857

Answer: C

प्रश्न 8 : प्रसिद्ध बीनकर रज्जब अली किसके दरबारी थें ?

  1. सवाई प्रतापसिंह
  2. सवाई रामसिंह
  3. सवाई जयसिंह
  4. नवाब इब्राहिम खाॅं

Answer: B

प्रश्न 9 : मोहनजोदडो मे सर्वप्रथम खुदार्ह करके सिंधुघाटी सभ्यता के अवशेष प्राप्त किये गये थे उस खुदाई का वर्ष था –

  1. 1911
  2. 1920
  3. 1922
  4. 1947

Answer: C

प्रश्न 10 : सुमेन कीजिए –

प्राचीन स्थल                    राज्य

(i) एलोरा की गुफाए       1. उत्तर प्रदेश

(ii) लोथल                    2. बिहार

(iii) नालंदा                    3. गुजरात

(iv) सारनाथ                 4. महाराष्ट्र

  1. (i) (ii) (iii)        (iv)

1         2          3           4

  1. 4 3 2           1
  2. 4 3 1            2
  3. 3 4 1            2

Answer: B

प्रश्न 11 : ’महाराष्ट्र का सुकरात ’के उपनाम से प्रसिद्ध थे

  1. महादेव रानाडे 
  2. आत्माराम पाण्डुरंग
  3. महाराजा शिवाजी
  4. नेताजी सुभाषचन्द्र बोस

Answer: A

प्रश्न 12 : अंग्रेजो और मराठो मे की गई संधि बस्नई की संधि कहलाती है, यह संधि कब की गई ?

  1. 31 दिसम्बर, 1802
  2. 25 अक्टूबर , 1802
  3. 7 सितम्बर , 1800
  4. 30 मार्च, 1801

Answer: A

प्रश्न 13 : मण्डोर के प्रतिहारो के संबंध  में जानकारी किस षिलालेख मे मिलती है?

  1. जोधपुर
  2. घटियाला
  3. दोनो
  4. कोई नही

Answer: B

प्रश्न 14 : संयुक्त राजस्थान केा वृहद् राजस्थान कब बनाया गया ?

  1. 30 मार्च , 1949
  2. 18 अप्रैल, 1948
  3. 15 मई , 1949
  4. 1 नवम्बर,1956

Answer: A

प्रश्न 15 : प्रतापगढ की थेवाकला में स्वर्ण आभूषणो पर किस रंग को आधार बनाकर बेल्जियम के काॅच पर स्वर्णिम मीनाकारी की जाती है?

  1. लाल
  2. नीला
  3. पीला
  4. हरा

Answer: D

प्रश्न 16 : विश्नोई सम्प्रदाय के प्रवर्तक जाम्भोजी को किसका अवतार माना जाताहै ?

  1. गणेश का
  2. ब्रहा्रा का
  3. विष्णु का
  4. लक्ष्मण का

Answer: C

प्रश्न 17 : रामस्नेही सम्प्रदाय का शाहपुरा मे फूलडोल का मेला कब भरता है ?

  1. रंगपंचमी
  2. बंसत पंचमी
  3. नागपंचमी
  4. ऋषि पंचमी

Answer: A

प्रश्न 18 : ‘वीर रस प्रधान ’ डिंगल शैली का दूसरा नाम है?

  1. जैन शैली
  2. चारण शैली
  3. लौकिक शैली
  4. संत शैली

Answer: B

प्रश्न 19 : 1857 की क्रांति के समय राजस्थान में कितनी सैनिक छवनियां थी?

  1. 7
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 9

Answer: C

प्रश्न 20 : राधा गोविन्द संगीत सार नामक विख्यात संगीत ग्रन्थ के रचयिता है ?

  1. ब्रजपाल भटट्
  2. पुण्डरीक विठठ्ल
  3. उस्ताद चाॅंद खाॅं
  4. पण्डित भावभटट्

Answer: A

प्रश्न 21 : किस अंग्रेज के नेतृत्व मे मोहनजोदडो तथा हडप्पा मे खुदाई का कार्य आरम्भ किया गया था ?

  1. जाॅन मार्शल
  2. लार्ड कर्जन
  3. स्मिथ
  4. कर्नल टाॅड

Answer: A

प्रश्न 22 : ’सात पैगोडा’ के नाम से प्रसिद्व महाबलीपुरम् किस राज्य मे स्थित है ?

  1. महाराष्ट्र
  2. तमिलनाडू
  3. बिहार
  4. उत्तरप्रदेश

Answer: B

प्रश्न 23 : किस वर्ष स्वामी विवेकानन्द ने शिकांगो धर्म सम्मेलन में भाग लिया –

  1. 1893
  2. 1883
  3. 1873
  4. 1863

Answer: A

प्रश्न 24 : 1919 मे कांग्रेस का पुनः संयुक्त अधिवेशन हुआ, यह अधिवेशन कहाॅ आयोजित किया गया ?

  1. बम्बई
  2. इलाहाबाद
  3. लखनऊ
  4. सूरत

Answer: C

प्रश्न 25 : मारवाड मे राठौर वंष का संस्थापक कौन था ?

  1. सीहा
  2. चूडा
  3. जचमल
  4. रायमल

Answer: A

प्रश्न 26 : राजस्थान के एकीकरण का श्रेय किसे दिया जाता है ?

  1. हीरालाल शास्त्री को
  2. वल्लभ भाई पटेल को
  3. जयनारायण व्यास को
  4. विजय सिंह पथिक को

Answer: B

प्रश्न 27 : पक्की मीनाकारी निम्न मे से किन पर की जाती है?

  1. ताॅंबे के बर्तन
  2. पीतल के बर्तन
  3. लोहे के बर्तन
  4. मिट्टी के बर्तन

Answer: D

प्रश्न 28 : जाम्भोजी का मुक्ति धाम समाधि सील कहां पर स्थित है?

  1. कतियासर
  2. छोटी सादडी
  3. पीपासर
  4. मुकाम

Answer: D

प्रश्न 29 : किस माह की अमावस्या , हरियाली अमावस्या कहलाती है?

  1. भाद्रपद
  2. ज्येष्ठ
  3. श्रावण
  4. आषाढ़

Answer: C

प्रश्न 30 : सर जार्ज अब्राहम ग्रिर्यसन ने ‘लिग्वस्टिक सर्वे आॅफ इंण्डिया’ में राजस्थानी भाषा की कितनी बोलियाॅं वर्णित की है ?

  1. तीन
  2. चार
  3. पाॅंच
  4. छ:

Answer: C

प्रश्न 31 : 1857 की क्रांति के समय राजस्थान मे ए.जी.जी थे ?

  1. मेकमोसन
  2. पेट्रिक लारेन्स
  3. कर्नल इडन
  4. मेजर बटन

Answer: B

प्रश्न 32 : संगीतज्ञ देवर्षि ब्रजपाल भटट् किसके दरबार में थें ?

  1. सवाई प्रतापसिंह
  2. सवाई मानसिंह
  3. सवाई रामसिंह
  4. महाराजा अनूप सिंह

Answer: A

प्रश्न 33 : सिंधुघाटी वासी किस देवी की पूजा करते थे ?

  1. लक्ष्मी
  2. सरस्वती
  3. मातृदेवी
  4. दुर्गा

Answer: C

प्रश्न 34 : मीनाक्षी मन्दिर कहाॅ स्थित है ?

  1. उज्जैन
  2. कोणार्क
  3. आगरा
  4. मदुरे

Answer: D

प्रश्न 35 : अलीगढ मुस्लिम -एग्ंलो ओरिएंटल काॅलेज के संस्थापक –

  1. मौलान आजाद
  2. सैयद अहमद खाॅ
  3. मिर्जा गुलाम अहमद
  4. इनमे से कोई नही

Answer: B

प्रश्न 36 : ​सालबाई की संधि निम्न मे से किसके साथ अंग्रेजो ने की थी ?

  1. गुरवी
  2. मराठा
  3. मैसूर
  4. निजाम

Answer: B

प्रश्न 37 : गिरी सुमेल का युद्ध कब लडा गया था ?

  1. 1540 ई.
  2. 1541 ई.
  3. 1542 ई.
  4. 1544 ई.

Answer: D

प्रश्न 38 : मत्स्य संघ के उप-प्रधानमंत्री थे ?

  1. हरिदेव जोशी
  2. के . एस. मुंशी
  3. जुगलकिशोर चतुर्वेदी
  4. देवीशंकर तिवाडी

Answer: C

प्रश्न 39 : राजस्थान मे ’कृत्रिम रत्नों’ की कटाई एंव पाॅलिशिंग के लिए कहाॅं प्रशिक्षण केन्द्र स्थापित किया गया है?

  1. उदयपुर
  2. जयपुर
  3. कोटा
  4. प्रतापगढ

Answer: B

प्रश्न 40 : राजस्थान का वह लोकदेवता जिसने दिल्ली के सुल्तान सिंकदर लोदी को गोहत्या पर रोक लगाने हेतु सहमत किया ?

  1. संत पीपाजी
  2. संत जाम्भोजी
  3. संत हडबूं जी
  4. रामदेवजी

Answer: B

प्रश्न 41 : छोटी तीज कब मनाई जाती है?

  1. भाद्रपद शुक्ल तृतीया
  2. वैशाख शुक्ल तृतीया
  3. चैत्र शुक्ल तृतीया
  4. श्रावण शुक्ल तृतीया

Answer: D

प्रश्न 42 : डाॅं नरोतम लाल स्वामी ने राजस्थानी भाषा को कितने वर्गाे मे बाॅटा है?

  1. सात
  2. छः
  3. पाॅच
  4. चार

Answer: D

प्रश्न 43 : सुमेलित कीजिए –

रियासत                    1857 की क्रांति के समय पाॅलिटिकल एंजेट

1 मारवाड                     (a) मैक मोसन

2 मेवाड                       (b)   मेजर षार्वस

3  जयपुर                     (c)   कर्नल ईडन

4 कोटा                         (d)    मेजर बर्टन

  1. I II III        IV

a       b       c          d

  1. a b d          c
  2. a c d           b
  3. d c b          a

Answer: A

प्रश्न 44 : कत्थक का सबसे प्राचीन व हिन्दू शैली का प्रतिनिधित्व करने वाला घराना कौनसा है?

  1. लखनऊ
  2. दिल्ली
  3. जयपुर
  4. पटियाला

Answer: C

प्रश्न 45 : सिंधुघाटी सभ्यता के किस स्थल पर बंदरगाह होने के प्रमाण मिले है ?

  1. मोहनजोदडो
  2. कालीबंगा
  3. हडप्पा
  4. लोथल

Answer: D

प्रश्न 46 : ’रत्नावली’ के रचियता है –

  1. बाणभटट्
  2. हर्षवर्धन
  3. रविन्द्रनाथ टैगोर
  4. नजरूल इस्लाम

Answer: B

प्रश्न 47 : गाॅंधी जी ने प्रथम सत्याग्रह किसके साथ अंग्रेजो ने की थी ?

  1. चम्पारन
  2. खेडा
  3. अहमदाबाद
  4. सूरत

Answer: A

प्रश्न 48 : जेता व कूंपा वीर सेनानायक थे ?

  1. मालदेव के
  2. महाराणा प्रताप के
  3. महाराणा कुंभा के
  4. राणा सांगा के

Answer: A

प्रश्न 49 : राजस्थान के पूर्ण एकीकरण के समय अर्थात् 1 नवम्बर , 1956 को राजस्थान के जिले कितने थे ?

  1. 25
  2. 26
  3. 27
  4. 28

Answer: B

प्रश्न 50 : राजस्थान में संगमरमर पर मीनाकारी का कार्य कहाॅ पर किया जाता है?

  1. मकराना
  2. किशनगढ
  3. राजसमंद
  4. जयपुर

Answer: D

प्रश्न 51 : केन्द्र सरकार ने ’ विरासत शहर विकास और उत्रति योजना ’ के तहत राजस्थान के किस ऐतिहासिक शहर का चयन किया है ?

 

  1. अजमेर
  2. जयपुर

 

  1. उदयपुर
  2. जोधपुर

Answer: A

प्रश्न 52 : राज्य की बाहरवीं पंचवर्षीय योजना (2012-17 ) में प्रति वर्ष कितने लोगों के लिए रोजगार उपलब्ध कराने की नयी व्यवस्था के लिए कहा गया है?

 

  1. 2 लाख
  2. 3-5 लाख

 

  1. 6-7 लाख
  2. 7-8 लाख

Answer: D

प्रश्न 53 : राज्य में ऐसा कौन – सा उद्योग हैं जो सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र , निजी क्षेत्र व सहकारी क्षेत्र , तीनों में चलाया जाता है?

 

  1. सीमेन्ट
  2. चीनी

 

  1. ऊर्जा
  2. नमक

Answer: B

प्रश्न 54 : वर्तमान में राज्य में कितनी ग्राम पंचायत अस्तित्व में हैं-

 

  1. 9,900
  2. 9,177

 

  1. 9,500
  2. 9,200

Answer: A

प्रश्न 55 : वर्ष 2014- 15 में राज्य की प्रति व्यक्ति आय (स्थिर कीमतों पर) कितनी है?

 

  1. 33,186
  2. 25,116

 

  1. 72,156
  2. 29,554

Answer: A

प्रश्न 56 : हस्तकला या हस्तशिल्प में शामिल हैं-

 

  1. चूड़ी निर्माण
  2. मूर्ति निर्माण

 

  1. लाख की ज्वैलरी निर्माण

 

  1. उपर्युक्त सभी

Answer: D

प्रश्न 57 : केवल सर्च इंजन वेगो की रिर्पोट के मुताबिक राजस्थान का कौनसा शहर राॅशिया के टाॅप -15 ‘वेलनेस’ डेस्टिनेषन ‘ लिस्ट मे शमिल किया गया हैै?

 

  1. जोधपुर

 

  1. बीकानेर

 

  1. उदयपुर

 

  1. जयपुर

Answer: D

प्रश्न 58 : राजस्थान में प्रति व्यक्ति बैंक जमा – (लगभग)-

 

  1. 22061
  2. 511063

 

  1. 3080
  2. 10120

Answer: A

प्रश्न 59 : 16 दिसम्बर , 2014 को मुख्यमंत्री वसुंधरा राजे ने भामाशाह कार्ड योजना की लाॅन्चिंग कहाँ से की ?

 

  1. जयपुर
  2. अजमेर

 

  1. उदयपुर
  2. दौसा

Answer: B

प्रश्न 60 : राज्य के 2015-16 के बजट में पंचायती राज संस्थाओं को कितनी राशि का अनुदान देने के लिए कहा गया है?

 

  1. 3544.75
  2. 2833.88

 

  1. 4822.01
  2. 5423.11

Answer: A

प्रश्न 61 : नया सहकारिता कानून किस दिंनाक से लागू किया गया ?

 

  1. 14 नवम्बर , 2000
  2. 14 नवम्बर , 2001

 

  1. 14 नवम्बर , 2002
  2. 14 नवम्बर , 2003

Answer: C

प्रश्न 62 : पंचायती राज संस्थाओं को स्थानीय आवश्यकताओं कें अनुरूप कार्य जैसे – नाली निर्माण , पेयजल व्यवस्था , भवन एवं फर्नीचर , रखरखाव , संरपंच का मानदेय आदि ’ निर्बन्ध कोष ’ देना किस वर्ष से शुरू हुआ?

 

  1. वर्ष 2010-11
  2. वर्ष 2014 -15

 

  1. वर्ष 2011-12
  2. वर्ष 2009-10

Answer: C

प्रश्न 63 : बी. पी. ए.ल. 5 लीटर देशी घी योजना राजस्थान सरकार द्वारा किस वर्ष से चलाई जा रही है?

 

  1. 1 जनवरी , 2008
  2. 1 मार्च, 2009

 

  1. 15 अगस्त, 2007
  2. 26 जनवरी, 2014

Answer: B

प्रश्न 64 : राज्य की फड़ पेन्टिंग के लिये कौनसा शहर प्रसिद्व है?

 

  1. प्रतापगढ़
  2. शाहपुरा

 

  1. डूंगरपुर
  2. उदयपुर

Answer: B

प्रश्न 65 : राजस्थान में सबसे बड़ा विदेषी निवेषक देष कौनसा है?

 

  1. अमेरिका

 

  1. जापान

 

  1. रूस

 

  1. चीन

Answer: B

प्रश्न 66 : भारत में, ’’बंधुआ मजदूरी उन्मूलन अध्यादेश ’’ किस वर्ष लागू हुआ?

 

  1. 1978
  2. 1968

 

  1. 1980

 

  1. 1976

Answer: D

प्रश्न 67 : 23 दिसम्बर , 2014 , को किस जिलें में स्थित ’ रेवा पेयजल परियोजना ’ का लोकार्पण किया गया –

 

  1. झालावाड़
  2. उदयपुर

 

  1. जोधपुर
  2. कोटा

Answer: A

प्रश्न 68 : राज्य हेतु 12 वी पंचवर्षीय योजना कर आकार राशि ……. करोड़ रूपये अनुमानित की गई है?

 

  1. 1,10,992 करोड़
  2. 1,50,892 करोड़

 

  1. 1,20,992 करोड़
  2. 1,96, 992 करोड

Answer: D

प्रश्न 69 : सहकारिता का मूल मंत्र है-

 

  1. राज्य उत्थान
  2. संस्था उस्थान

 

  1. नारी उत्थान
  2. सामाजिक संस्थान

Answer: D

प्रश्न 70 : राज्य सरकार ’ निर्मल ग्राम पुरस्कार योजना ’ के अंतर्गत चयनित पंचायतों को कितनी राशि का पुरस्कार देती है?

 

  1. 5 लाख
  2. 1 लाख

 

  1. 3 लाख
  2. 2 लाख

Answer: A

प्रश्न 71 : शहरी क्षेत्रों की चिन्हित कच्ची बस्तियों में रहने वाले व्यत्तियों को आवास एवं आधारभूत सुविधाएँ उपलब्ध कराने वाला कार्यक्रम है-

 

  1. आर. ए. डी. एफ.
  2. आई. एच. एस. डी. पी.

 

  1. ए. आई. डी. एस. एस. एम. टी.
  2. कोई नही

Answer: B

प्रश्न 72 : प्रतापगढ़ किस हस्तशिल्प के लिए प्रसिद्व है?

 

  1. मूर्ति निर्माण
  2. लकड़ी के खिलौने

 

  1. थेवकला
  2. पेन्टिंग

Answer: C

प्रश्न 73 : राजस्थान निवेष प्रोत्साहन नीति 2014 में ष्षामिल किए गए ’ रक्षा क्षेत्र ’ में कितने निवेष सीमा तक कर राहतें प्रदान की जाऐंगी ?

 

  1. 100 से 600 करोड़

 

  1. 200 से 1000 करोड़

 

  1. 100 से 500 करोड़

 

  1. 100 से 1000 करोड

Answer: C

प्रश्न 74 : राजस्थान के प्रमुख लघु एवं कुटीर उद्योगों को कितनी श्रैणियों में बाँटा गया हैं?

 

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

Answer: B

प्रश्न 75 : अक्टूबर , 2014 में मुख्यमंत्री वसुंधरा राजे ने देश की पहली जैतून रिफाइनरी का लोकार्पण किस स्थान पर किया ?

 

  1. पोकरण
  2. लूणकरणसर

 

  1. नीमराणा
  2. सीतापुरा

Answer: B

प्रश्न 76 : वर्तमान में राजविका (आर. जी . ए. वी. पी. ) द्वारा कौनसी आजीवका परियोजना क्रियान्वित की जा रही है?

 

  1. राजस्थान ग्रामीण आजीवका परियोजना

 

  1. राष्ट्र्रीय ग्रामीण आजीवका मिशन (N.R.L.M)

 

  1. राष्ट्र्रीय ग्रामीण आजीवका परियोजना

 

  1. उपर्युक्त सभी।

Answer: D

प्रश्न 77 : विश्व में सहकारिता की शुरूआत की गई –

 

  1. राॅबट ओवन द्वारा
  2. एडमस्मिथ द्वारा

 

  1. जाॅन डिसूजा द्वारा
  2. विल्फ्रेड द्वारा

Answer: A

प्रश्न 78 : ’निर्मल ग्राम पुरस्कार योजना ’ के अंतर्गत एक पंचायत समिति के निम्नतम कितनी ग्राम पंचायतों को यह पुरस्कार प्राप्त होता हैं?

 

  1. 5 ग्राम पंचायत
  2. 10 ग्राम पंचायत

 

  1. 12 ग्राम पंचायत
  2. 15 ग्राम पंचायत

Answer: B

प्रश्न 79 : राज्य की गरीबी उन्मूलन संबंधी परियोजना’’ मिटिगेटिंगव पाॅवर्टी इन वेस्टर्न राजस्थान (आई. एफ ए.डी.)’’ राजस्थान के कितने जिलो में चल रही है?

 

  1. 6 जिलों
  2. 10 जिलों

 

  1. 33 जिलों
  2. 15 जिलों

Answer: A

प्रश्न 80 : जैसलमेर के –

 

  1. कम्बल प्रसिद्व हैं

 

  1. दरियाँ प्रसिद्व हैं

 

  1. ओढनियाँ प्रसिद्व हैं

 

  1. इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: A

प्रश्न 81 : राज्य के दो षहर जिनको ’नवीनीकरणी ऊर्जा मंत्रालय द्वारा सोलर सीटी’ के रूप मे विकसित करने की घोषणा की गई?

 

  1. जयपुर – जोधपुर
  2. जयपुर – बीकानेर

 

  1. जोधपुर – जैसलमेर
  2. जोधपुर – कोटा

Answer: A

प्रश्न 82 : कुटीर उद्योगों में मुख्यतया निम्न वस्तुओं का उत्पादन किया जाता है?

 

  1. परम्परागत वस्तुओं का

 

  1. आधुनिक वस्तुओं का

 

  1. इलेक्ट्र्राॅनिक सामान का

 

  1. सभी प्रकार की वस्तुओं का

Answer: A

प्रश्न 83 : बिजली क्षेत्र की निजी कम्पनी ’’ रिलायंस पाॅवर लिमिटेड ’’ ने राजस्थान के किस जिलें में 100 मेगावाट कंसट्र्रेड ’’ सौर ऊर्जा परियोजना ’’ (सी. एस. पी.) का संयंत्र शुरू किया ?

 

  1. उदयपुर
  2. कोटा

 

  1. जोधपुर
  2. जैसलमेर

Answer: D

प्रश्न 84 : राजस्थान की बाहरवीं पंचवर्षीय योजना में कितनी राशि प्रस्तावित की गई है?

 

  1. 1,96,992 करोड़ रू.

 

  1. 1,90,992 करोड़ रू.

 

  1. 1.05,112 करोड़ रू.

 

  1. 1,60,992 करोड़ रू

Answer: A

प्रश्न 85 : वर्तमान में सहकारिता-

 

  1. केन्द्र सूची का विषय है

 

  1. राज्य सूची का विषय है

 

  1. संघ सूची का विषय है

 

  1. इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: B

प्रश्न 86 : पंचायत राज चुनाव में शैक्षणिक अनिवार्यता संबंधी विधेयक पारित करने वाला पहला राज्य है-

 

  1. गुजरात
  2. राजस्थान

 

  1. मध्यप्रदेश
  2. उत्तरप्रदेश

Answer: B

प्रश्न 87 : डूंगरपुर व उदयपुर  के प्रसिद्व हैं-

 

  1. ब्लू पाॅटरी
  2. मिट्टी के खिलौने

 

  1. लाख के खिलौने
  2. लकड़ी के खिलौने

Answer: D

प्रश्न 88 : राजस्थान का वह गाँव जिसे राज्य का प्रथम सोलर विद्युत गाँव होने का दर्जा प्राप्त हुआ है-

 

  1. धनवाद (नागौर)
  2. लूम्बासर (बीकानेर)

 

  1. पीपासर (चूरू)
  2. थूरगाँव (जैसलमेर)

Answer: B

प्रश्न 89 : निम्नलिखित में से किस उद्योग में महिला रोजगार का प्रतिशत अधिक है?

 

  1. लघु उद्योग
  2. आधुनिक उद्योग

 

  1. खादी उद्योग
  2. ग्रामीण उद्योग

Answer: C

प्रश्न 90 : नवम्बर , 2014 में मुख्यमंत्री वसुंधरा राजे ने राज्य के किस स्थान पर ’ बीज विधायन केन्द्र ’ और ’ सेन्टर आॅफ एक्सीलेंस प्रशिक्षण केन्द्र ’ का लोकार्पण किया ?

 

  1. इटावा
  2. भांडारेज

 

  1. ढिढोल
  2. नाहरगढ़

Answer: C

प्रश्न 91 : राज्य की स्तर पर योजनाओं के निर्माण , नियंत्रण एवं मूल्याकान तथा इनसे सम्बन्धित मामलों में सरकार को सलाह कौन देता है?

 

  1. योजना विभाग
  2. राज्य आयोजन विभाग

 

  1. विधानसभा
  2. मंत्रिमण्डल

Answer: B

प्रश्न 92 : अक्टूबर , 2014 में राज्य की पहली ’ एडवांस मिल्क टेस्टिंग व रिसर्च लैब ’ का उद्घाटन कहाँ से हुआ ?

  1. कोटा
  2. अलवर
  3. बीकानेर
  4. जयपुर

Answer: D

प्रश्न 93 : राज्य हेतु 12 वी पंचवर्षीय योजना कर आकार राशि ……. करोड़ रूपये अनुमानित की गई है?

  1. 1,10,992 करोड़
  2. 1,50,892 करोड़
  3. 1,20,992 करोड़
  4. 1,96, 992 करोड

Answer: D

प्रश्न 94 : राजस्थान में सहकारिता की शुरूआत अजमेर में –

  1. 1902 से हुई
  2. 1903 से हुई
  3. 1904 से हुई
  4. 1905 से हुई

Answer: C

प्रश्न 95 : राजस्थान पंचायती राज (संशोधन )विधेयक 2015 के अनुसार चुनाव लड़ने के लिए क्या अनिवार्य किया गया है?

  1. गाँव में खुद का पक्का घर होना
  2. पुत्र होना
  3. घर में स्वच्छ , शौचालय होना
  4. इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: C

प्रश्न 96 : आधुनिक राजस्थान का निर्माण कब हुआ ?

  1. 26 जनवरी,1956
  2. 1 नवम्बर 1956
  3. 7 दिसम्बर,1957
  4. 1 नवम्बर 1948

Answer: A

प्रश्न 97 : ’ वैश्विक मानव विकास रिर्पोट – 2014’ के अनुसार भारत का विश्व में स्थान में रहा है-

  1. 135 वाँ
  2. 136 वाँ
  3. 142 वाँ
  4. 133 वाँ

Answer: A

प्रश्न 98 : राजस्थान मे किस स्थान पर अमरूदो की खेती के लिए ’ सेंटर आॅफ एक्सीलेंस ’ मे स्थापित किया जायेगाा?

  1. टोंक
  2. झालावाड़
  3. सवाई माधोपुर
  4. जयपुर

Answer: A

प्रश्न 99 : कटपुतलियों का निर्माण मुख्य रूप से होता है-

  1. जयपुर में
  2. उदयपुर में
  3. भरतपुर में
  4. जैसलमेर में

Answer: B

प्रश्न 100 : बेरोजगारी सम्बन्धित आकडो़ं का प्रकाशन कितने वर्षो में किया जाता हैं?

  1. एक वर्ष में
  2. दो वर्षो में
  3. चार वर्षो में
  4. पाँच वर्षो में

Answer: D

प्रश्न 101 : निम्न लिखे नियम को पढ़ियं और पहचानियं –

’’एक ही तापमान और दाब की स्थिति केअन्तर्गत सभी गैसों के आयतन में समपन संख्या के अणु हरेते है । ’’

  1. गे -लूसाक का नियम
  2. आवोगाद्रो का नियम
  3. चाल्र्स का नियम
  4. बाॅयल का नियम

Answer: B

प्रश्न 102 : शल्यक्रिया आॅपरेशन में कौन-सा एनेस्थेटिक एजेंट नहीं है?

  1. क्लोरोफाॅर्म
  2. ईथर
  3. नाइट्रस आॅक्साइड
  4. एसीटोन

Answer: D

प्रश्न 103 : एक यौगिक C60H122 के एक अणु का द्रव्यमान है

  1. 1.20 × 10-20 ग्राम
  2. 1.4 × 10-21 ग्राम
  3. 5.025 × 1023 ग्राम
  4. 6.023 × 1023 ग्राम

Answer: B

प्रश्न 104 : हैलोजनों में सर्वाधिक प्रभावशाली आॅक्सीकरण कर्ता है

  1. क्लोरीन
  2. ब्रोमीन
  3. फ्लोरीन
  4. आयोडीन

Answer: C

प्रश्न 105 : एक तत्व के निम्नलिखित गुणधर्म हैं

  1. यह लोहे के गैल्वनीकरण में काम आता है
  2. यह शुष्क सेलों में काम आता है
  3. जिंक
  4. सिल्वर
  5. एल्युमिनियम
  6. सोडियम

Answer: A

प्रश्न 106 : तार खींचने योग्य सबसे नमनीय धातु है

  1. सोना
  2. चाँदी
  3. लोहा
  4. एल्युकमनियम

Answer: A

प्रश्न 107 : निम्न को सुमेलित करें पेपर 9

सूची-I                          सूची-II

  1. रेडियम 1. अलेक्जेंडर फ्लेमिंग
  2. पेनिसिलीन 2. मैडम क्यूरी
  3. एक्स-रे 3. एडवर्ड जेनर
  4. चेचक 4. डब्ल्यू़ के. रौन्टजन

कूट :

  1. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
  2. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
  3. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
  4. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Answer: A

प्रश्न 108 : 45 ग्राम जल में  (H = 1,O =16 ) के प्राप्त ग्रामाणुओं की संख्या ज्ञात कीजिये ?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 2.5
  4. 4

Answer: C

प्रश्न 109 : निम्नलिखित किस पदाथै में उध्र्वपातन होता है

  1. कैम्फर
  2. बर्फ
  3. मोम
  4. ईथाइल अल्कोहल

Answer: A

प्रश्न 110 : खारा पानी संकेत करता  है

  1. नमकीन पानी का
  2. मीठा पानी का
  3. शुद्ध पानी का
  4. स्टार्च (मांडी) जल का

Answer: A

प्रश्न 111 : किसी कमरे के उक कोने में सेंट की खुली शीशी रख देने से उसकी खुशबु कमरें में सभी  भागों में फैल जाती है । ऐसर किस कारण से हरेता है ?

  1. वाष्पीकरण ( ईवेपोरेशन )
  2. वाष्प्ण (वेपोराइजेशन )
  3. विसरण
  4. ऊध्र्वापातन

Answer: C

प्रश्न 112 : ’’वनस्पति घी’’ निम्न में से किससे बनाया जाता है?

  1. हीलियम
  2. हाइड्रोजन
  3. आॅक्सीजन
  4. नाइट्रोजन

Answer: B

प्रश्न 113 : अम्ल वर्षा होती है

  1. कारखानों से
  2. पेट्रोल से
  3. कोयला जलाने से
  4. लकड़ी से

Answer: A

प्रश्न 114 : K2Cr2O8  में क्रोमियम का आॅक्सीकरण नम्बर है

  1. +6
  2. -6
  3. +3.5
  4. -2

Answer: A

प्रश्न 115 : अब तक कितने तत्व ज्ञात किये गये हैं?

  1. 102
  2. 106
  3. 104
  4. 118

Answer: D

प्रश्न 116 : निम्नलिखित में से किस धातु का तार सरलता से खींचा जा सकता है

  1. टिन
  2. ताँबा
  3. लेड
  4. जस्ता

Answer: B

प्रश्न 117 : न्यूट्राॅन की खोज की थी

  1. चैडविक ने
  2. रदरफोर्ड ने
  3. बोर ने
  4. न्यूटन ने

Answer: A

प्रश्न 118 : गैस के 6.023×10 ‘22 अणुओं से S.T.P.( मापनक तापमान दाब )का कौनसा आयतन घिरेगा ?

  1. 22.4 लीटर
  2. 224 लीटर
  3. 2.24 लीटर
  4. 0.224 लीटर

Answer: A

प्रश्न 119 : लेड नाइट्रेट तनु हाइड्रोक्लोरायइड अम्ल के साथ अभिक्रिया करता है निम्नलिखित मे से किक्न सा रासायनिक समीकरण सही सही अभिेक्रिया को प्रदर्शित करता है

  1. Pb2 NO3 + HCI → Pb2 CI + HNO3
  2. Pb (NO3) NO3)2 + 3HCI → PbCI2 + 3HNO3
  3. PbNO3 + HIL → PbCI + HNO3
  4. Pb(NO3)2 + 2HCI → PbcI2 + HNO2

Answer: B

प्रश्न 120 : जब सान्द्र HNO3 का एक भाग HCI के तीन भागों से मिश्रित किया जाता है तो एक शक्तियशाली विलायक उत्पन्न होता है उसका नाम क्या  है

  1. एक्या विलयन
  2. एक्या विलायन
  3. एक्या रेजिया
  4. एक्या प्युरा

Answer: C

प्रश्न 121 : किसी गैस का आयतन स्थिरर ताप पर 20% करने के लिए उसका दाब करने के लिए उसका दाब कितना प्रतिशत बढ़ाना होगा ?

  1. 20%
  2. 25%
  3. 30%
  4. 40%

Answer: B

प्रश्न 122 : किसी बेकरी में ब्रेड बनाने के लिए खमीर (यीस्ट) का इस्तेमाल क्यों किया जाता है?

  1. ब्रेड को कठोर बनाने के लिए
  2. ब्रेड को मुलायम और लचीला बनाने के लिए
  3. ब्रेड को आहार मूल्यता बढ़ाने के लिए
  4. ब्रेड को ताजा रखने के लिए

Answer: B

प्रश्न 123 : रेफ्रिजरेशन निकाय जिसमें अमोनिया प्रशीतक के रूप में प्रयोग की जाती हे उसमें पाइपिंग किस पदार्थ की बनी होती है?

  1. काॅपर
  2. ब्रास
  3. एल्युमिनियम
  4. स्टील

Answer: C

प्रश्न 124 : अवकरण प्रक्रिया में कोई तत्व

  1. इलेक्ट्राॅन का परित्याग करता है
  2. इलेक्ट्राॅन ग्रहण करता है
  3. प्रोटाॅन का परित्याग करता है
  4. उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: B

प्रश्न 125 : उस तत्व का नाम बताइए जो पानी में ज्वलनशील है?

  1. सोना
  2. सोडियम
  3. कैल्शियम
  4. हाइड्रोजन

Answer: B

प्रश्न 126 : t = 0+ पर प्रारंभिक आवेश  q0 वाला वाला संधारित्र          के रूप में काम करता है।

  1. धारा स्त्रोत
  2. वोल्टता स्त्रोत
  3. लघुपथ
  4. खुला परिपथ

Answer: B

प्रश्न 127 : दो कैंवेटी (cavity)  क्लाइस्ट्राॅन (Klystron)  में सेकण्डरि कैंवेटी जाना जाता हैं

  1. बानचर कैंवेटी के रूप में
  2. केचर कैंवेटी के रूप में
  3. धरमल कैंवेटी के रूप में
  4. इनमें से कोई नही

Answer: B

प्रश्न 128 : एक बिन्दु आवेश Q को अन्य नियत बिन्दु आवेश के गिर्द एक वृत्तीय पथ के साथ – साथ गतिमान किया जाता है । किया गया कार्य तभी शून्य होता हैः

  1. सभी स्थितियों में
  2. यदि Q प्रारम्भिक बिन्दु पर लौट जाये
  3. यदि दोंनो आवेशों का परिमाण एक-सा हो
  4. यदि दोंनो आवेशों का परिमाण एक-सा हो तथा उनके चिह् विपरीत हो

Answer: A

प्रश्न 129 : Class A एम्पलीफायर्स का प्रयोग होता है

जब

  1. फेज व्युत्क्रम की आवश्यकता नहीं हो
  2. उच्च वोल्टेज गेन की आवश्यकता हो
  3. D.C. वोल्टेज को आवर्द्धित करनी हो
  4. निम्न विकृति कि आवश्यकता हो

Answer: D

प्रश्न 130 : कनेक्ट करने पर अवेशित पिण्डो के बीच कोई धारा प्रवाहित नहीे होती है यदि उनमें एक समान ही है।

  1. क्षमता
  2. आवेश की मात्रा
  3. विभव अनुपात में आवेश
  4. विभव

Answer: B

प्रश्न 131 : एक पेट्रोल इंजन की लगभग क्षमता है :

  1. 20%
  2. 40%
  3. 70%
  4. 90%

Answer: C

प्रश्न 132 : भारत में प्रति वर्ष 28 फरवरी  को ’विज्ञान दिवस ’ मनाया जाता है । यह किस वैज्ञानिक की कृति से सहचरित है

  1. आर्यभट्ट
  2. वराहमिहिर
  3. सी. वी. रमन
  4. डाॅ. भाभा

Answer: C

प्रश्न 133 : एक सोडियम पेपर डिस्चार्ज लैम्प जैसे ही पहली बार स्विच आॅन किया जाता है इसका रंग दिखता है:

  1. नीला
  2. पीला
  3. सफेद
  4. लाल

Answer: B

प्रश्न 134 : Tapping  एक आॅपरेशन है:

  1. बाहरी थ्रेड का कटिंग
  2. आन्तरिक थ्रेड का कटिंग
  3. चिपटे सतह का फिनिशिंग (Finishing)
  4. अन्तिम होल को बड़ा करना

Answer: B

प्रश्न 135 : कन्ट्रापलेक्सर का प्वाइन्ट क्या होता है

  1. वह प्वाइन्ट जहाँ शीयर फोर्स का मान शून्य होता है
  2. वह प्वाइन्ट जहाँ बेंडिंग मोमेंट वक्र चिह् बदलता है
  3. वह प्वाइन्ट जहाँ बेंडिंग मोमेंट अधिकतम होता है
  4. वह प्वाइन्ट जहाँ बेंडिंग मोमेंट शून्य होता है

Answer: B

प्रश्न 136 : ​Laminated Springs  बना होता है:

  1. प्लेट के समान लम्बाई परन्तु विभिन्न मोटाई का
  2. प्लेट के समान लम्बाई परन्तु विभिन्न चैड़ाई का
  3. प्लेट के समान लम्बाई परन्तु समान मोटाई का
  4. प्लेट के विभिन्न लम्बाई और विभिन्न मोटाई का

Answer: A

प्रश्न 137 : निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा प्रक्रम नाॅन – फेरस धातुओं की कटिंग और वेल्डिंग में प्रयुक्त होता है

  1. कार्बन आर्क वेल्डिंग
  2. अक्रिय गैस आर्क वेल्डिंग
  3. सबमज्र्ड (निमज्जितद) आर्क वेल्डिंग
  4. धातु आर्क वेल्डिंग

Answer: C

प्रश्न 138 : Centrifugal pump  के इमपीलर में liquid का घूमना होता है:

  1. Rectilinear motion
  2. Free Vortex motion
  3. Forced Vortex motion
  4. Spiral Vortex motion

Answer: C

प्रश्न 139 : निम्न में से कौन-सा option 100 meter   से ज्यादा हेड वाले वाटर lifiting के लिए उत्तम है ?

  1. रिसीप्रोकेटिंग पम्प
  2. श्रेणी में दो या दो से अधिक पम्प का इस्तेमाल
  3. समानान्तर में दो या दो से अधिक पम्प का इस्तेमाल
  4. एक सिंगल impeller पम्प का उपयोग

Answer: D

प्रश्न 140 : बेल कोमेमन चक्र में निम्नलिखित में से क्या – क्या सम्मिलित होता है ?

  1. दो एडियाबैटिक प्रक्रम और दो स्थिर दाब प्रक्रम
  2. दो एडियाबैटिक प्रक्रम और दो स्थिर आयतन प्रक्रम
  3. दो आइसो थर्मल प्रक्रम और दो एडियाबैटिक प्रक्रम
  4. दो स्थिर आयतन प्रक्रम और दो स्थिर दाब प्रक्रम

Answer: A

प्रश्न 141 : रेलवे को पर प्रयुक्त बियरिंग है:

  1. प्लम्बर ब्लाॅक
  2. नीडर बियरिंग
  3. रोलर बियरिंग
  4. बाॅल बियरिंग

Answer: C

प्रश्न 142 : आर्द्र तकलीफो को दूर करने के लिए संपीड़ित वायु लाइन से ब्रान्च कनेक्शन लिया जाता है:

  1. उपरी तरफ से
  2. निचली तरफ से
  3. बाई या दाई तरफ से
  4. किसी भी तरफ से

Answer: C

प्रश्न 143 : रेलवे ट्रक की पटरियाँ बनी होती है

  1. मृदु इस्पात की
  2. क्रोम इस्पात की
  3. उच्च गति इस्पात की
  4. निम्न में से कोई नहीं

Answer: D

प्रश्न 144 : गेंट चार्ट का प्रयोग होता है:

  1. सूची सामग्री नियंत्रण के लिए
  2. मशीन उपयोग के लिए
  3. मशीन अनुरक्षण अनुसूची के लिए
  4. उत्पादक अनुसूची के लिए

Answer: C

प्रश्न 145 : मुक्त पिस्टन इंजन का प्रयोग होता है:

  1. खनन अधिष्ठापन में
  2. गैस टरबाइन में
  3. अधिभरण प्रत्यागामी इंजन में
  4. उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: C

प्रश्न 146 : एकल फेज वाली प्रणाली कहलाती है:

  1. संवृत प्रणाली
  2. खुली प्रणाली
  3. समांगी संस्थिति
  4. विलग संस्थिति

Answer: A

प्रश्न 147 : पटरियों में निकुंज बनने का निम्न में से कौन – सा कारण नहीं है?

  1. जोड़ पर ढीली पैकिंग
  2. तापमान में बदलाव
  3. रेल हेड की असम टूट – फूट
  4. गेज संरेखण में त्रुटि

Answer: B

प्रश्न 148 : मोटरकारों के अपेक्षाकृत नए माॅडलों की निम्नलिखित विशिष्टताओं पर विचार कीजिए:

  1. रेडियल टायर
  2. सुप्रवाही ढांचा

III. बहुबिन्दु ईधन अंतः क्षेप

  1. उत्प्रेरक परिवर्तन रेचक सहित

इनमें से कौन – कौन – सी विशिष्टताएँ मोटरकारों के अपेक्षाकृत नए माॅडलों को अधिक ईधन दक्ष बनाती है ?

  1. I और I
  2. II और III
  3. II, III और IV
  4. I, III और IV

Answer: C

प्रश्न 149 : रेल- पथ में फ्रिश- प्लेट का काम है:

  1. दोनों पटरियों को जोड़े रखना
  2. रेलगाड़ी के दो डिब्बों को जोड़ना
  3. डिब्बे के पहियों को सही ढंग से निर्देशित करना
  4. उपर्युक्त सभी

Answer: A

प्रश्न 150 : निम्नलिखित का सुमेलन कीजिए तथा सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए:

  1. ओम का नियम 1. F =ma
  2. न्यूटन का नियम 2. V = IR
  3. आईसटाइन का नियम 3. E = mc3

कूट:

  1. A-2, B-3 , C-1
  2. A-1, B-2, C-3
  3. A-2, B-1, C-3
  4. A-3, B-1, C-2

Answer: C

प्रश्न 151 : सभी जैव यौगिक का अनिवार्य मूल तत्व है

  1. नाइट्रोजन
  2. आॅक्सीजन
  3. कार्बन
  4. गंधक

Answer: C

प्रश्न 152 : हमारे दाँतों पर पनपते जीवाणु कौन-सा पदार्थ उत्पन्न कर दाँतों में धब्बे बनाते हैं?

  1. इन्सुलिन
  2. डेक्सट्रान्स
  3. डेेक्सट्रिक्स
  4. एमाइलोपेक्टिन

Answer: B

प्रश्न 153 : लिगामेंट्स का शरीर में क्या अन्य कार्य है ?

  1. पेशी को पेशी से जोड़ना
  2. हड्डी को हड्डी से जोड़ना
  3. पेशी को हड्डी से जोड़ना
  4. पेशी को उपास्थि से जोड़ना

Answer: B

प्रश्न 154 : फोटोफास्फोरिलीेशन का अर्थ है

  1. ATP से ADP बनना
  2. ADP से ATP बनना
  3. RNA से DNA बनना
  4. DNA से RNA बनना

Answer: B

प्रश्न 155 : प्रतिजैविक पेनिसिलिन किससे प्राप्त किया जाता है?

  1. पुष्पी पादप
  2. कवक
  3. विषाणु
  4. जीवाणु

Answer: B

प्रश्न 156 : जीवाणुओं की कोशिका भित्ति किसकी बनी होती है?

  1. सेलुलोज एवं काइटिन
  2. वसा एवं सेलुलोज
  3. प्रोटीन एवं संलुलोज
  4. वसा एवं प्रोटीन

Answer: A

प्रश्न 157 : इन्सुलिन

  1. रूधिर शर्करा को बढ़ाती है
  2. रूधिर सर्करा को घटाती है
  3. रूधिर नलिकाओं को संकुचित करती है
  4. स्तन्यस्त्रवण को उद्पोषित करती है

Answer: B

प्रश्न 158 : प्रकाश संष्लेषण निषपादिन करने की क्षमता वाले पादप निम्ननिखित में से किस एक जीव प्रकार के अन्तर्गत आते है ?

  1. परपोषित हेटराट्राॅफ
  2. सैप्रोट्राॅफ
  3. स्वपोषित आॅटोट्राॅफ
  4. केमोहेटरोट्राॅॅफ

Answer: C

प्रश्न 159 : कुनैन की औषध किससे प्राप्त होती है?

  1. सिनकोना के पौधे से
  2. मनी प्लांट से
  3. सूकेलिप्टस के पौधे से
  4. ऐकोनाइट के पौधे से

Answer: A

प्रश्न 160 : मनुष्य की आंत में कौन-सा जीवाणु पाया जाता है?

  1. विब्रियो काॅलेरी
  2. बैसिलस
  3. इश्चिरीचिया कोलाई
  4. जैन्थोमोनस

Answer: C

प्रश्न 161 : ग्लाइकोलाइसिस एवं क्रेब्स चक्र के बीच की कड़ी क्या है ?

  1. ग्लूकोज
  2. एसीटिक अम्ल
  3. फ्रुक्टोज
  4. एसिटाइल कोएन्जाइम A

Answer: D

प्रश्न 162 : फलीदार पौधों में किस प्रकार की जडें पायी जाती है ?

  1. शंकूरूपी जड़ें
  2. ग्रंथिका जड़ें
  3. गांठदार जड़ें
  4. चूषकी जड़ें

Answer: B

प्रश्न 163 : मछली एक प्रथम श्रेणी का प्रोटीन है क्योंकि उसमें होते हैं

  1. आवश्यक अमीनो अम्ल
  2. अनावश्यक अमीनो अम्ल
  3. सभी आवश्यक वसीय अम्ल
  4. कोई अमीनो अम्ल नहीं

Answer: A

प्रश्न 164 : किसी माध्यम में सभी सूक्ष्मजीवों को नष्ट करना कहलाता है-

  1. पाश्चुराइजेशन
  2. स्टेरीलाइजेशन
  3. इम्यूनाइजेशन
  4. सैनीटेशन

Answer: B

प्रश्न 165 : मसूड़ों से रक्तस्त्राव को निम्न में से कौन रोकता है?

  1. एस्काॅर्बिक अम्ल
  2. विटामिन B
  3. निकोटीनामाइड
  4. थायमिन

Answer: A

प्रश्न 166 : तने या जड़ की मोटायई के निम्न में से कौन सा ऊतक उत्तरदायी होता है ?

  1. आधारी ऊतक
  2. विभाज्योमक
  3. त्वचीय ऊतक
  4. संवहन ऊतक

Answer: B

प्रश्न 167 : BCG टीका के नाम में अक्षर  ‘B’ का तात्पर्य है-

  1. Bacillus
  2. Brief
  3. Bacteria
  4. Beri-Beri

Answer: A

प्रश्न 168 : वे सूक्ष्म जीव, जो सडे़-गले पदार्थों को सरल पदार्थों में बदल देते हैं, कहलाते हैं-

  1. जीवाणु
  2. फफूँदी
  3. विषाणु
  4. अपघटक

Answer: D

प्रश्न 169 : डायस्टेज एन्जाइम किसका पाचन करता है ?

  1. प्रोटीन
  2. स्टार्च
  3. सुक्रोज
  4. वसा

Answer: B

प्रश्न 170 : जब पौणों की कोशिका को सांद्र नमक के घोलन में रखा जरता हे ता निम्न में से कौनसी घयटना घटित होती है ?

  1. परासरण
  2. अभिगमन
  3. पतन
  4. जीवद्रव्य कुंचन

Answer: D

प्रश्न 171 : गुड़ किसका मुख्य स्रोत है

  1. प्रोटीन
  2. कार्बोहाइड्रेट
  3. वसा
  4. इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: B

प्रश्न 172 : पोषकों का वायुमण्डल में जिन कुछ सूक्ष्म जीवों की सहायता से पुन चक्रण होता है, उन्हें क्या कहते हैं?

  1. उत्पादक
  2. अपघटक
  3. उपभोक्ता
  4. इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: B

प्रश्न 173 : हमारे शरीर को ऊर्जा किससे प्राप्त होती है?

  1. प्रोटीन
  2. विटामिन
  3. कार्बोहाइड्रेट
  4. एन्जाइम

Answer: C

प्रश्न 174 : फीने के समान क्लोरीफिल किस पौधे में  पाया जाता है

  1. आइडोमोनियम
  2. यूलरेथ्रिक्स
  3. स्पाइरागायरा
  4. माकेंनिश्यया

Answer: C

प्रश्न 175 : कुनैन किससे निकाला जाता है-

  1. शहतूत के पेड़ (mulberry tree)
  2. युकेलिप्टस के पेड़ (eucalyptus tree)
  3. सिनकोना पेड़ (cinchona plant)
  4. कोको के पेड़ (cocoa plant)

Answer: C

प्रश्न 176 : यदि STOVE का कोड EVOTS है और CANDLE का कोड ELDNAC है तो REPORT का कोड क्या होगा ?

  1. SFQPSU
  2. QDONQS
  3. TROPER
  4. PORTRE

Answer: C

प्रश्न 177 : यदि

(A) ÷ , x  के लिए है

(B) x, —  के लिए है

(C) –, +  के लिए है और

(D) +, ÷ के लिए है तो

48   6   12    2   10  ?

बोडोमास के नियम के तहत नही बल्कि क्रम के अनुसार हल कीजिए

  1. 9
  2. 14
  3. 16
  4. 4

Answer: D

प्रश्न 178 : प्रश्न में दिए गए विकल्पों मेंसे विषम शब्द/अक्षर/संख्या युग्म चुनिए –

  1. 22
  2. 18
  3. 12
  4. 15

Answer: A

प्रश्न 179 : प्रश्न में दिए गए विकल्पों मेंसे विषम शब्द/अक्षर/संख्या युग्म चुनिए –

  1. UQ
  2. JG
  3. RN
  4. NJ

Answer: B

प्रश्न 180 : इस प्रश्न में दिया गया कौनसा विकल्प निम्नलिखित शब्दो का सार्थक क्रम होगा ?

  1. बालक
  2. व्यवसाय
  3. विवाह
  4. शिशु
  5. शिक्षा
  6. 1, 3 , 5 , 2 , 4
  7. 5, 4 , 1 , 3 , 2
  8. 2 , 1 , 4 , 3 , 5
  9. 4 , 1 , 5 , 2 , 3

Answer: D

प्रश्न 181 : प्रश्न में दिए गए विकल्पों मेंसे विषम शब्द/अक्षर/संख्या युग्म चुनिए –

  1. एस एम एस
  2. स्पीड पोस्ट
  3. पत्र
  4. मनीऑर्डर

Answer: A

प्रश्न 182 : यदि शब्द के ELECTRICAL दूसरे छठे, सातवें तथा नवें अक्षरों सें, प्रत्येक अक्षर का केवल एक बार प्रयोग करते हुए, अंग्रेजी का एक अर्थपूर्ण शब्द बनाना संभव हो तो उस शब्द का दूसरा अक्षर आपका उत्रर होगा। यदि ऐसा एक से अधिक शब्द बनाना संभव हो तो kX’ उत्रर होगा तथा यदि ऐसा कोई भी शब्द बनाना संभव नंही हो तो kZ’ उत्रर होगा?

  1. A
  2. 1
  3. R
  4. X

Answer: D

प्रश्न 183 : एक शब्द केवल एक संख्या समूह द्वारा दर्शाया गया है,जैसा कि विकल्पो में से किसी एक में दिया गया है ।

विकल्पो मे दिए गए संख्या समूह अक्षरो के दो वर्गा द्वारा दर्शाया गए है जैसा कि नीचे दिए गए दो आव्यहो में है।

आव्यूह I  के स्तंभ और पंक्ति की संख्या 0 से 4 दी गई है और आव्यूह II की 5 से 9 । इन आव्यूहो से एक अक्षर को पहले उसकी पंक्ति और बाद मे स्तम्भ संख्या द्वारा दर्शाया जा सकता है । उदाहरण के लिए  D को 00, 12 आदि द्वारा दर्शाया जा सकता है तथा P को 58, 68 आदि द्वारा दर्शाया जा सकता है । इसी तरह से आपको प्रश्न मे दिए शब्द ‘FIRE’  के लिए समूह को पहचानना है ।

MATRIX – I

0              1              2              3              4

0              D             E              F              I               N

1              I               N             D             E              F

2              E              F              I               N             D

3              N             D             E              F              I

4              F              I               N             D             E

MATRIX – II

5              6              7              8              9

5              O             P             R             S              T

6              S              T              O             P             R

7              P             R             S              T              O

8              T              O             P             R             S

9              R             S              T              O             P

  1. 02, 03, 57, 01
  2. 33, 34 , 76 , 22
  3. 21, 22, 69, 33
  4. 14, 10, 69, 14

Answer: A

प्रश्न 184 : दिए गए वैकल्पिक शब्दो से ,ऐसे शब्द का चयन कीजिए जो निम्नलिखित शब्द के अक्षरों का प्रयोग करके न बनाया जा सके ।

INTERDEPENDENT

  1. DEPEND
  2. REPENT
  3. RETREAT
  4. DEEPEN

Answer: C

प्रश्न 185 : पॉंच मित्र एक पंक्ति में, दक्षिण दिशा में मुंह करके बैठे है। उनमें मोहन, बालू और राजू के बीच में है और राजू ,प्रवीण के ठीक दाई ओर है। इसी तरह अमित,बालू के दाई ओर है। तदनुसार ,सबसे दाई ओर कौन है?

  1. प्रवीण
  2. अमित
  3. बालू
  4. मोहन

Answer: B

प्रश्न 186 : A और B की औसत आय 200 रूपये है C और D की औसत आय 250 रूपए है। A, B, C और D  की औसत आय कितनी है ?

  1. 106.25 रूपये
  2. 125 रूपये
  3. 200 रूपये
  4. 225 रूपये

Answer: D

प्रश्न 187 : कोई राशि 15% प्रति वर्ष साधारण ब्याज की दर पर 1725 रूपये हो जाती है और 20% प्रति वर्ष साधारण ब्याज की दर पर उतने ही समय मे 1800 रूपये हो जाती है। राशि बताइए।

  1. 1650रूपये
  2. 1500रूपये
  3. 1700रूपये
  4. 1200रूपये

Answer: B

प्रश्न 188 : दों व्यक्तियों की आयु का अनुपात 5:9 है और उनमेंसे एक की आयु दूसरे से 40 वर्ष अधिक है। उनकी आयु का योग कितने वर्ष होगा?

  1. 180
  2. 140
  3. 150
  4. 160

Answer: B

प्रश्न 189 : राजा किसी कार्य को 20 दिन मे पूरा कर सकता है जबकि रमेश उसे 25 दिन मे पूरा कर सकता है।रमेश के काम शुरू करने के 10 दिन बाद राजा ने काम शुरू किया। पूरा कार्य कितने दिन मे पूरा होगा ?

  1. 18 दिन
  2. 16 दिन
  3. 20 दिन
  4. 15 दिन

Answer: B

प्रश्न 190 : एक कॉलेज मे हुए चुनावो मे एक उम्मीदवार को 62 मत प्राप्त हुए एवं उसे 144 मतो के अंतर से चुना गया। डाले गए मतो की कुल संख्या कितनी थी?

  1. 925
  2. 600
  3. 1200
  4. 800

Answer: B

प्रश्न 191 : 1.21 और 0.09 का माध्म अनुपात क्या है?

  1. 3.3
  2. 0.33
  3. 3.03
  4. 0.033

Answer: B

प्रश्न 192 : AUCTION के अक्षरों को इस प्रकार व्यस्थित किजिए कि सभी स्वर हमेशा साथ में आयें । कितने विभिन्न प्रकार से उन्हें व्यवस्थित किये जा सकते हैं ?

  1. 576
  2. 48
  3. 144
  4. 30

Answer: A

प्रश्न 193 : एक विक्रेता ने किसी वस्तु का लागत मूल्य 30% बढा दिया और अंकित मूल्य 286 रूपये तय कर दिया।परंतु बिक्री के समय उसने खरीदार को 10% की छूट दी। लाभ का प्रतिशत कितना होगा ?

  1. 17%
  2. 15%
  3. 10%
  4. 20%

Answer: A

प्रश्न 194 : लोहे से बने एक ठोस सम प्रिज्म में 5सेमी, 10 सेमी, एवं 13 सेमी भुजाओं वाले त्रिभुज की अनुप्रस्थ काट है एवं इसकी उचांई 10 सेमी है। यदि लोहे के एक घन सेमी का वनज 7 ग्राम है, तो प्रिज्म का वनज लगभग कितना होगा ?

  1. 1570.8 ग्राम
  2. 1371.32 ग्राम
  3. 1470.8 ग्राम
  4. 1100.68 ग्राम

Answer: A

प्रश्न 195 : 800रूपये की राशि साधारण ब्याज की एक निश्चित दर पर 3 वर्ष 956 रूपये हो जाती है। यदि ब्याज की दर 4% बढा दी जाए तो वह राशि 3 वर्ष मे कितनी हो जाएगी ?

  1. 1025 रूपये
  2. 1042रूपये
  3. 1052रूपये
  4. 1024 रूपये

Answer: C

प्रश्न 196 : एक बल्लेबाज 17वीं पारी में 87 रन बनाता है और इस प्रकार उसका औसत 3 रन बढ जाता है।17वीं पारी के बाद उसका औसत ज्ञात कीजिए।

  1. 39
  2. 87
  3. 90
  4. 84

Answer: A

प्रश्न 197 : किसी वस्तु से 25% की छूट पर 3600 रूपये में बेचा गया। उसका अंकित मूल्य क्या था?

  1. 2880रूपये
  2. 2700रूपये
  3. 4800रूपये
  4. 4500रूपये

Answer: C

प्रश्न 198 : एक फल विक्रेता को एक निश्चित मूल्य पर आम बेचने पर 25% का लाभ होता है। यदि वह प्रत्येक आम पर 1 रूपया अधिक वसूले तो उसे 50% का लाभ होगा। प्रांरभ मे,आम की कीमत कितनी थी ?

  1. 5 रूपए
  2. 7 रूपए
  3. 4 रूपए
  4. 6 रूपए

Answer: A

प्रश्न 199 : एक विक्रेता अपने माल पर अंकित मूल्य लागत मूल्य से 20% वृद्धि  अधिक अंकित करता है और अपने ग्राहको को 10% की छुट देता है। उसका लाभ प्रतिशत कितना है?

  1. 6%
  2. 9%
  3. 7%
  4. 8%

Answer: D

प्रश्न 200 : श्रीनिवासन ने  बराबर राशि दो बैंकों में क्रमशरू 10% तथा 12% प्रतिवर्ष की ब्याज दर से जमा की। एक वर्ष के अंत में उन्हें कुल ब्याज 1,650 रूपये प्राप्त हुआ। प्रत्येक बैंक में कितनी राशि जमा की गयी ?

  1. 8,500/- रूपये
  2. 15,000/- रूपये
  3. 7,500/- रूपये
  4. 17,000/- रूपये

Answer: C

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

(Free)Important Questions Current Affairs July – 2018

Daily Current Affairs Question Bank july 2018 for all competitive exams.

1 : Which Indian shooter clinched gold in men’s 50m Rifle 3 – Position at 2018 ISSF Shooting World Cup in Mexico ?
A. Om Prakash Mitharval
B. Shahzar Rizvi
C. Akhil Sheoran
D. Jitu Rai
Correct Answer: C
2 : Who is appointed the new head of the Press Information Bureau (PIB) ?
A. Ira Joshi
B. Sitanshu Kar
C. Frank Noroha
D. TS Baku
Correct Answer: B
3 : Which cricket team has won the 45th edition of the Deodhar Trophy 2018 ?
A. Karnataka
B. Gujarat
C. India B
D. Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: C
4 : Which State government has launched India’s first state- led incubator for women entrepreneurs ‘WE-HUB’ ?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Telangana
C. Karaia
D. Odisha
Correct Answer: B
5 : Which country has won the 2018 Best Exhibitor Award (BEA) at ITB- Berlin ?l
A. India
B. Canada
C. China
D. Brazil
Correct Answer: A
6 : The first –ever crime –free zone along the international border between India and which country has launched ?
A. Sri Lanka
B. Bhutan
C. Myanmar
D. Bangladesh
Correct Answer: D
7 : Who has been conferred with the Dadasaheb Phalke Award 2017 ?
A. Shatrugha Sinha
B. Amitabh Bachchan
C. Vinod Khanna
D. Sridevi
Correct Answer: C
8: Who has become the India’s youngest –ever gold medallist at the Common wealth Games (CWG)?
A. Ajum Moudgil
B. Neeraj Kumar
C. Divya Kakran
D. Anish Bhanwala
Correct Answer: D
9 : which movie bagged the Nargis Dutt Award for Best Film on National Integration at the 65 th National Film Awards 2017 ?
A. Aalorukkam
B. Ladhakh
C. Dhappa
D. Murakhiya
Correct Answer: C
10 : Who authored the book Matmagi Manipur- The first Manipuri Feature Film ?
A. Iron Chanu Sharmila
B. MK Binodini Devi
C. Bobby Wahengbam
D. Rajen Toijamba
Correct Answer: C
11 : India has signed pach with which country to promote mineral exploration ?
A. Morocco
B. Germany
C. Francel
D. Brazil
Correct Answer: A
12 : What is the India’s rank in the latest 2018 Index of Economic Freedom ?
A. 120th
B. 125th
C. 130th
D. 119th
Correct Answer: C
13 : who has been appointed the new Director General of the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR ) ?
A. Krishna S. Pau
B. Balram Bhargava
C. Soumya Swaminathan
D. Vikram Kocheta
Correct Answer: B
14 : which State has hosted the 10th edition of a biennial exhibition of weapons and military hard ware ‘DefExpo India 2018 ?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Karnataka
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: C
15 : who authored the book “India’s Heritage of Gharana Music : Pandits of Gwalior ?
A. Karan Singh
B. Meeta Pandit
C. Mrinal Saxena
D. Vikram Pandit
Correct Answer: B
16 : The ISRO has successfully launched navigation satellite IRNSS-II into the orbit from which launch vehicle ?
A. PSLV- C41
B. PSLV- C43
C. PSLV- C42
D. PSLV –C44
Correct Answer: A
17 : Which Indian –origin scientist has launched the world’s first microfactory to help tackle e-waste hazard ?
A. Subhash Khot
B. Veena Sahajwalla
C. Krishna Chatterjee
D. Yadvinder Malhi
Correct Answer: B
18 : Which IIT institute has installed India’s first 5 G radio laboratory ?
A. IIT- Delhi
B. IIT –Mumbai
C. IIT- Indore
D. IIT- Roorkee
Correct Answer: A
19 : What is the India’s GDP forecast for FY20 ,according to latest Asian Development Outlook (ADO) 2018 ?
A. 7.3%
B. 7.6%
C. 7.5 %
D. 7.4 %
Correct Answer: B
20 : The world’s largest solar park will come up in which Indian State ?
A. Gujarat
B. Maharashtra
C. Punjab
D. Rajasthan
Correct Answer: A
21 : Who has been appointed as the new Chairman of the National Association of Software and Services Companies (NASSCOM) for 2018-19 ?
A. Rishad Premji
B. Keshav Murugesh
C. Raman Roy
D. KL Paul
Correct Answer: A
22 : India’s first high –speed electric locomotive has been flagged off from which State ?
A. Assam
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Maharashtra
D. Bihar
Correct Answer: D
23 : The FSSAI has launched which project to address Vitamin- D Deficiencies (VDD) amongst youngsters ?
A. Project Sun
B. Project Sky
C. Project Dhoop
D. Project Sunlight
Correct Answer: C
24 : Which country hosted the first International conference on ‘Water Environment and Climate Change’ Knowledge Sharing and Partnership ?
A. Sri Lanka
B. India
C. Bangladesh
D. Nepal
Correct Answer: D
25 : Heena Sidhu bagged gold in the women’s which pistol event at the 21st Common wealth Games 2018 ?
A. 25 m pistol event
B. 20 m pistol event
C. 10 m pistol event
D. 5 m pistol event
Correct Answer: A
26 : Who has been appointed as the new Director General (DG) of Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) ?
A. OP Singh
B. Karambir Singh
C. Rajesh Ranjan
D. Om Prakash Mitharval
Correct Answer: D
27 : Which State has bagged the ‘State of the Year’ Award under the ‘business leader’ category at the Indian Business Leader Awards (IBLA) event ?
A. Chhattisgarh
B. Punjab
C. Haryana
D. Karnataka
Correct Answer: A
28 : The joint military exercise Desert Tiger 5 was held between UAE and which country ?
A. Malaysia
B. Vietnam
C. Indonesia
D. Denmark
Correct Answer: A
29 : Which State government has launched mobile app Bi-lingual ‘Uzhavan’ for farmers ?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Telangana
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Kerala
Correct Answer: C
30 : Which State has hosted the first meeting of NITI Forum for North –East ?
A. Tripura
B. Nagaland
C. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Mizoram
Correct Answer: A
31 : India has clinched its first- ever gold in badminton mixed -team event at the 21 st Commonwealth Games (CWG) by defeating which country ?
A. China
B. Australia
C. Malaysia
D. Japan
Correct Answer: C
32 : Which country has hosted the meeting of the Council of Foreign Ministers for the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) ?
A. India
B. China
C. Russia
D. South Africa
Correct Answer: B
33 : What is the theme of the 2018 World Earth Day ?
A. Save Your Earth from Plastic
B. Environmental and Climate Literacy
C. Beware from Plastic Pollution
D. End Plastic Pollution
Correct Answer: C
34 : Nabi Tajima, the world’s oldest person has passed away- She belonged to which country ?
A. Japan
B. China
C. South Korea
D. Talwan
Correct Answer: A
35 : Which football team has won the 2018 Indian Super Cup Football tournament ?
A. East Bengal FC
B. Kerala Blasters FC
C. Churchill Brothers FC
Bengaluru FC
D.
Correct Answer: C
36 : Which of the following has been declared the official mascot of the FIBA Basketball World Cup 2019 ?
A. Mother of Peace
B. Qiu Qiu
C. Speed Tige
D. Son of Dreams
Correct Answer: D
37 : Who has won the 2018 Formula -1 Chinese Grand Prix tournament ?
A. Carios Sainz
B. Kimi Raikkonen
C. Daniel Ricciardo
D. Valtteri Bottas
Correct Answer: C
38 : Who has been conferred with the All India Management Association’s (AIMA’s) annual awards for lifetime contribution to media ?
A. Indu Jain
B. Karan Thapar
C. Palagummi Sainath
D. Josy Joseph
Correct Answer: A
39 : Which State is observing Khongjom Day to pay tributes to the great warriors of their State ?
A. Nagaland
B. Tripura
C. Mizoram
D. Manipur
Correct Answer: D
40 : Balantrapu Rajanikantha Rao the notes Telugu poet-composer who has passed away belonged to which state ?
A. Karnataka
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Maharashtra
D. Telangana
Correct Answer: B
41 : The government of India has celebrated 2018 Civil Services Day (CSD) on which date ?
A. April 20
B. April 22
C. April 21
D. April 23
Correct Answer: C
42 : Which country the officially changed its name to the ‘Kingdom of eSwatini ”
?
A. Swaziland
B. Switzerland
C. Sweden
D. Suriname
Correct Answer: A
43 : Which city has hosted the 2018 Secure India Conclave ?
A. Kanpur
B. Indore
C. Jaipur
D. New Delhi
Correct Answer: D
44 : The 2018 National Panchayati Raj Day (NPRD) is celebrated on which date in India ?
A. April 21
B. April 22
C. April 24
D. April 23
Correct Answer: C
45 : The Digambarpur gram panchayat has declared as the India’s best panchayat on 2018. It is located in which State ?
A. Karnataka
B. West Bengal
C. Kerala
D. Assam
Correct Answer: B
46 : The Indian Overseas Bank ( IOB) has signed Infromation Utility pact with NeSL. What does NeSL, stands for ?
A. National e-Governance Solutions Limited
B. National e-Government Services Limited
C. National e- Government Server Limited
D. National e- Government Bank Limited
Correct Answer: B
47 : Which High Court has become the first court in South India and eighth in India to introduce e-court fee payment facility?
A. Madras High Court
B. Hyderabad High Court
C. Thiruvananthapuram High Court
D. Pondicherry High Court
Correct Answer: A
48 : Union Home Minister Rajnath Singh, chaired the third meeting of the Island Development Agency (IDA) in
A. Goa
B. Andman&Nicobar Island
C. Pondicherry
D. Lakshadweep
Correct Answer: E
49 : Which bank has agreed in principle to give an aid of ₹1700 crore to Uttarakhand for infrastructure development in its urban areas?
A. Asian infrastructure investment Bank (AIIB)
B. Asian Development Bank (ADB)
C. World Bank
D. SoftBank
Correct Answer: B
50 : President and Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces Ram NathKovind conferred Gallantry and Distinguished Service Awards at an event at the RashtrapatiBhawan, in New Delhi. How many KirtiChakars were awarded?
A. 24
B. 4
C. 23
D. 3
Correct Answer: D

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(July) Current Affairs Study Magazine

monthly notes mcq gk

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Important for PSC,SSC,Banking,Railways Exam
Current affairs july 2018 study magazine
Detailed Current GK
Monthly One Liner-1500+
Solved MCQ of Month-300+ MCQ
SBI PO and SSC CGL solved Paper.

Most important abbreviations for Bank and govt exams

abbreviation for banking and other govt examsMost important abbreviations

UDAY – Ujjwal Discom Assurance Yojna

UJALA- Unnat Jyoti by Affordable LEDs for All

FRDI- Financial Resolution and Deposit Insurance

CAGR- Compound Annual Growth Rate

CGST- Central Goods and Services Tax

CLSS- Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme

DIPAM- Department of Investment and Public Asset Management

FIPB- Foreign Investment Promotion Board

NAREDCO- National Real Estate Development Council

NICRA- National Innovations on Climate Resilient Agriculture

REIT- Real Estate Investment Trust

SUUTI- Specified Undertaking for Unit Trust of India

UDISE- Unified District Information System for Education

UNCTAD-United Nations Conference on Trade and Development

SEHAT- Social Endeavour For Healthcare And Telemedicine

AMRUT- Atal Mission For Rejuvenation & Urban Transformation

HRIDAY- Heritage City Development & Augmentation Yojana

PRASAD- Pilgrimage Rejuvenation & Spiritual Augmentation Drive

IUHDSS- Integrated Underwater Defence and Surveillance System

MUDRA- Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency

SETU- Self-Employment and Talent Utilization

PRAGATI- Pro Active Governance And Timely Implementation

FSDC – Financial Stability and Development Council

BIMSTEC- Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation

UNCTAD- United Nations Conference on Trade and Development

SANKALP- Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion program

SWAYAM- Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds

USTTAD- Upgrading the Skills and Training in Traditional Arts/ Crafts for Development

MANAS- Maulana Azad National Academy for Skills set up to address skill development needs of minority communities.

ASEAN- Association of South East Asian Nations

AT&C- Aggregate Technical and Commercial

BRICS- Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa

DDA- Doha Development Agenda

DISCOMS- Distribution Companies

e-NAM- Electronic National Agriculture Market

GNPA- Gross Non-Performing Advances

IBC- Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code

IGST- Integrated Goods and Services Tax

IT-BPM- Information Technology – Business Process Management

MDGs- Millennium Development Goals

MSME- Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises

NABARD- National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

NCLT- National Company Law Tribunal

NDTL- Net Demand and Time Liabilities

NITI- National Institution for Transforming India

PMAY- Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana

PMFBY- Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana

PMKSY- Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana

SEBI- Securities and Exchange Board of India

TPDS- Targeted Public Distribution System

UNESCO- United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization

IRDAI– Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority

PFRDA– Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority

FSSAI– Food Safety and Standards Authority of India

NASSCOM– National Association of Software and Service Companies

WIPO- World Intellectual Property Organization

OECD- Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

IRENA- International Renewable Energy Agency

DRDO– Defence Research and Development Organisation

INSAT– Indian National Satellite

FRBM- Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act

DISHA- Digital Saksharta Abhiyan

PMBJP- Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana

UDAN: Udey Desh ka Aam Naagrik

NavIC- Navigation Indian Constellation

SDR – Special Drawing Rights

ASBA – Application Supported by Blocked Amount

ASSOCHAM – Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India

CRAR – Capital to Risk Weighted Asset Ratio

LAMPS – Large-sized Adivasis Multipurpose Societies