History of India Study Notes with Practice MCQ part-1

Medieval History of India

India between 750-1200 AD

 The Medieval period is an important period in the history of India, because of the developments in the fields of arts, languages, culture and religion. The period witnessed the impact of other religions on Indian culture. This period is also referred to as the Postclassical Era.

The Medieval period lasted from the 8th to the 18th century CE with the early medieval period from the 8th to the 13th century, and the late medieval period from the 13th to the 18th century.

The early medieval period witnessed wars amongst the regional kingdoms from North and South India, whereas the late medieval period saw a number of invasions by the Mughals, Afghans and the Turks.

By the end of the fifteenth century, European traders started doing trade with India and around the mid-eighteenth century, they became a political force in India marking the end of the medieval period.

About 20 kingdoms succeeded in extending their sovereignty beyond a single mega region.  Two thirds of these were ruled by Hindu dynasties, but the most durable of these imperial states was the Muslim Mughal Empire, from about the middle of Akbar’s reign, around l580, to the reign of Muhammad Shah in 1730.

Dominance in more than one region by almost all of these states was usually the accomplishment of a single ruler, a great conquering warrior like Pulakesin II of the seventh century Chalukyan kingdom or the mid-tenth century Krishna-II of the Rashtrakutas, both of the Deccan.

There were numerous smaller kingdoms, the scale of whose authority was far more limited, but whose duration could nevertheless be considerable.  From inscriptions and literary sources we get information on over 40 royal dynasties who endured for a period in the mega regions.

The chronicles of temples, royal genealogical texts, and oral traditions tell of wealthy kings and local chiefs who attempted to achieve royal status.

The existence of so many rulers tells us that the early medieval period witnessed the emergence of new state forms, compared to the late Vedic and classical periods.  There is, however, little agreement among historians about the character of these states and their form.

Major dynasties of medieval time

1. The Pallavas

The Pallavas ruled in southern India, incorporating the modern regions of Andhra Pradesh, northern Tamil Nadu, and parts of southern Karnataka. Later on, they conquered vast areas of the sub-continent, expanding across much of it into what is now Afghanistan during the reigns of Dharmapala and Devapala.

The origins of the Pallavas have always been an issue of speculation. There have been claims that they were the former governors of the Satvahanas, while some claim they descend from the Cholas. In truth, they probably benefited from the collapse of both powers and emerged following their fall. There is also one theory which states that ‘Pallava’ is an adulteration of the word ‘Pahlava’ for the Parthians of Central Asia and Iran. In Sanskrit the word ‘Pallava’ actually means a ‘twig’ and their Tamil lineage is, by and large, accepted by all.

The Pallava rule can be categorised as early Pallava rule, up to around AD 550 and the arrival on the scene of Simhavishnu, their great king; and ‘Later Pallava Rule’, from Simhavishnu onwards.

The Pallavas gained prominence after the decline of the Satvahanas and the Cholas, as they gained a foothold in the territories of both former powers.

Later Pallavas

King Simhavishnu reigned around AD 550 (a reign of thirty-plus years), beginning the Pallava revival that defeated the Kalabhras. He recreated a strong Pallava kingdom by subduing many kings in the south (such as the Cheras, Cholas, the now-subdued Kalabhras, and the Pandyas). His kingdom extended beyond Kanchi, to as far as the River Kaveri).

Through his naval expeditions he subdued Malaya (Indo-Chin(a)and Sri Lanka.

Simhavishnu patronised literature and poetry. He was said to be a patron of the great Sanskrit poet, Bharavi, and was a Vaishnavite Hindu by religion.

Later, Mahendravarman warded off an attack on Kanchipuram by the Chalukya king Pulakeshin-II, though he had to cede areas of Vengi Province to the Chalukyas.

Pulakeshin II of the Badami Chalukyas conquered the eastern Deccan, taking territory corresponding to the coastal districts of the Vishnukundins kingdom, as well as territory from the Pallavas. He appointed his brother, Kubja Vishnuvardhana, as the viceroy whilst also conquering the Cheras and Cholas in the south.

The kingdoms of the south, the Cheras, Cholas and Pallavas, subsequently teamed up to form a coalition to defeat the Chalukyas, but that attempt ended in defeat.

Narasimhavarman I defeated the Chalukyas under Pulakeshin- II and wrests back the territories lost by his father. He also attacked and plundered Vatapi (Badami), the capital of the Chalukyas, killing Pulakeshin- II in the process.

He later subdued the Cholas and the Cheras, and was said to help the Ceylonese prince, Manavamma, in gaining his kingdom.

During the reign of Mahendravarman II, King Manavarma of Ceylon was deposed and driven into exile, going to the Pallava court. Mahendravarman was later killed in a collective attack by the Chalukyas, the Gangas and the Pandyas.

As soon as he gained the throne, Parameshvaravarman continued fighting the Chalukyas under the leadership of Vikramaditya- I. He captured Kanchi and advances south to the River Kaveri. In 674 he fights the Battle of Peruvalanallur, near Trichinopoly, and is victorious despite facing a huge coalition.

Parameshvaravarman occupied the Chalukyan territories from which he withdraws only after the Chalukyan rulers agree to pay a yearly tribute and accept Pallava overlordship, but not before the occupation army annihilates several Chalukyan princes, nobles and citizens. This victory enables the Pallavas to assert their hegemony over the subcontinent.

At his accession, Narasimhavarman was the ruler of the most powerful military force in the subcontinent. Rajasimha was a great militarist, exchanged ambassadors with China, and offered certain rulers assistance in their war against the Arabs. His reign was comparatively free from any political disturbance, so great progress was made in the direction of temple building.

The reign of Parameshvaravarman II signaled the turn of the tide in Pallava fortunes. Kanchi was invaded by the Chalukyas and Parameshvaravarman had to surrender and accept humiliating conditions. He attacked the Chalukyas but was defeated and killed, dying without an heir.

A war of succession was avoided as military leaders (danda nayakas), scholars, and representatives of the merchant class and the peasantry formed an entourage and undertakes ‘a long journey’ to reach the kingdom of Kambujadesa (modern Cambodia and Vietnam).

  • They were ruled by a certain Kadavesa Hari Varma, who was a sixth generation descendant of Bhimavarman, brother of the great Simhavishnu.
  • Of his sons, only the youngest, Nandivarman, accepted his request to return to the Deccan to govern the Pallava kingdom as successor to the deceased Parameshvaravarman.
  • During the absence of a ruler in the Deccan, the Pallava’s regional enemies had mobilised as if they were about to invade but, as the Pallavas waited and watched, nothing occurred.

The awaited Chalukya invasion took place later, with Vikramaditya II occupying Kanchi. The Pallavas soon recovered, having to fight the Cholas, Pandyas and Gangas in quick succession (with the Cheras as allies at least against the Pandyas).

During the reign of Dantivarman, the kingdom was in noticeable decline. The Pandyas and the Rashtrakutas defeated the Pallavas under his command. His successor, Nandivarman III, tried to regain the lost glory of the Pallavas but was also defeated by the Pandyas, who became the new enemy to be feared by the weakening Pallavas.

Nandivarman was a powerful monarch who tried to reverse the Pallava decline. He made an alliance with the Rashtrakutas and the Gangas, and defeated the Pandyas at Thellar, near Kanchi. He then pursued the retreating Pandyan army. The Pandyan ruler, Srimara Shrivallabh, however, recovered most of his territories and even defeated the Pallavas at Kumbakonam.

Upon Nandivarman’s death, differences arose between Nripatunga and his step-brother, Aparajita, probably owing to the latter’s ambition to rule the kingdom in his own right. Both sides looked for allies and for the time being, it was Nripatunga who ruled the kingdom. Nripatunga managed to turn the tables on the Pandyas and inflicted a defeat on them under their king, Srimara Shrivallabh, as one last salve to Pallava pride.

Practice Question Answer

History MCQ for IAS and State Prelims Exam

Q. 1 Consider the following statement about Harappan Agriculture system:

1.  The bull was known to the people of Harappan Civilization

2.  Evidence of plough field has been found at Harappan sites

3.  Harappan agriculture was dependent on monsoon and no irrigation facility was required

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(a)Only 1 and 2

(b)Only 2 and 3

(c)All 1, 2 and 3

(d)Only 1 and 3

Q. 2 Consider the following statement about Harappan culture:

1.  Harappans did not believe in life after death

2.  Harappan civilization was a classless society

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(a)Only 1

(b)Both 1 and 2

(c)Only 2

(d)None of the above

Q. 3 Consider the following about Mauryan Empire:

1.  There was a uniform administrative system throughout the length and breadth of the Mauryan Empire

2.  Asoka used the message of dhamma as a political tool to keep the large Mauryan Empire together

 Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(a)Only 1

(b)Both 1 and 2

(c)Only 2

(d)None of the above

Q. 4 Consider the following statement about Ashokan edict:

1.  Asoka was the first ruler to speak directly to his people through the inscriptions

2.  They are found only in India

3.  The inscription was written in Brahmi script, Kharoshti script and Greek script

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(a)Only 1 and 2

(b)Only 2 and 3

(c)All 1, 2 and 3

(d)Only 1 and 3

Q. 5 Which of the following are sites of Mesolithic Period?

1.  Langhnaj in Gujarat

2.  Bhimbetka and Adamgarh in Madhya Pradesh

3.  Bagor in Rajasthan

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(a)Only 2

(b)Only 1 and 3

(c)All 1, 2 and 3

(d)Only 2 and 3

Q. 6 The rigidity of Varna system was maintained by Brahmans by following which of these strategies:

1.  They asserted that Varna order was of divine origin

2.  They advised kings to ensure that the system is followed in his kingdom

3.  The system was reinforced by the stories told in religious text

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(a)Only 1 and 2

(b)Only 2

(c)Only 1

(d)All 1, 2 and 3

Q.7 Consider the following about Jain Philosophy:

1.  The principle of Ahimsa is derived from the Jain Philosophy

2.  Jain did not believe in the cycle of birth and death based on Karma

 Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(a)Only 1

(b)Both 1 and 2

(c)Only 2

(d)None of the above

Q. 8 Consider the following statement about Buddha’s teaching

1. The Buddha regarded the social world as the creation of humans rather than of divine origin

2. Buddha emphasized on the individual agency to attain Nirvana

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(a)Only 1

(b)Both 1 and 2

(c)Only 2

(d)None of the above

Q.9 Arrange the following in increasing order of hierarchy of administrative unit during Gupta period

1.  Bhuktis

2.  Vithis

3.  Vishaya

4.  Village

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(a)1324

(b)3214

(c)1234

(d)3124

Q. 10 Consider the following about the status of women in Gupta period

1.  Women of higher Varna were free to earn a livelihood but not the women of lower Varna.

2.  Women of higher Varna were free to live an independent life without male subordination.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(a)Only 1

(b)Both 1 and 2

(c)Only 2

(d)None of the above

Q. 11 Which of the following Indian states have their own Flag?

1.  Sikkim

2.  Jammu and Kashmir

3.  Nagaland

4.  Mizoram

 Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(a)1 and 2 Only

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)1 Only

(d)2 only

 Q. 12 Consider the following statements:

1.  Black Carbon particles strongly absorb solar and terrestrial radiation and heat up the atmosphere and it can upset the monsoon system.

2.  Brown Carbon is also known as organic carbon and it comes from complex organic reactions in the airborne atmospheric particles.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

(a)1 Only

(b)2 Only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Q. 13 Which of the following state has become the first in the country to operationalise a law that makes the social audit of government programs and schemes a part of government practice?

(a)Meghalaya

(b)Telangana

(c)Kerala

(d)Sikkim

14 Project MIDAS is associated with which of the following:

(a)It aims to deploy artificial reefs in Gulf of Mannar to save the sinking islands due to sea level rise and climate change

(b)It is a U.K.-based Antarctic research project that has been looking at the ice shelf for many years

(c)The project aims to develop a cost-effective forecast system using satellite-monitoring, collecting water samples and using special sensors to measure bacterial and chemical pollution in rivers

(d)The project aims to control desertification by involving local communities

15 Which of the following islands had recently imposed a Garbage emergency?

(a)Borneo

(b)New Guinea

(c)Bali

(d)Sumatra

Answer Key 1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-d, 5-c, 6-d, 7-a, 8-b, 9-a, 10-d, 11-d, 12-c, 13-a, 14-b, 15-c.

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Current Affairs MCQ

1. Article 16 provides that no citizen can be discriminated against or be ineligible for any employment or office under the State on grounds of only

1.         descent

2.         language

3.         place of birth

4.         race

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1.   1, 2 and 3 only

2.   2, 3 and 4 only

3.   3 and 4 only

4.   1, 3 and 4 only

Ans-4

2. With reference to the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA), who among the following can declare an area as ‘disturbed area’?

1.         Governor

2.         Chief Minister

3.         Central Govt

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1.   1 and 3 only

2.   2 and 3 only

3.   1 and 2 only

4.   1, 2 and 3

Ans-1

3. Which of the following is/are correct regarding suing public officials?

1. No criminal or civil proceedings can be started against the President and the Governors in respect of their personal acts nor can they be arrested or imprisoned.

2. The constitution grants immunity to the President, Governors and Ministers for their official acts.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-4

4.  What is tort?

1.   Civil wrong

2.   Criminal wrong

3.   Charges of accidental death or disability

4.   All of the above

Ans-Civil wrong

5. Which of the following is/are correct regarding tribunals?

1.         The original constitution did not contain provisions with respect to tribunals.

2.         The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part to the constitution dealing with tribunals.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

6.  Which of the following is/are correct with respect to the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?

1.         The CAT exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of public servants covered by it.

2.         Its jurisdiction extends to the All-India Services, the Central Civil Services, civil posts under the centre and civilian employees of defense services.

3.         It also covers defence forces, officers and servants of the Supreme Court and the Parliament’s secretarial staff.

1.   1 and 2 only

2.   2 and 3 only

3.   1 and 3 only

4.   1, 2 and 3

Ans-1 and 2 only are correct.

7. Under Article 323B, the Parliament and the State Legislatures are authorized to provide for the establishment of tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to which of the following matters?

1.         Taxation

2.         Foreign exchange, import and export

3.         Industries and labour

4.         Land reforms

1.   1 and 3 only

2.   1, 2 and 3 only

3.   2 and 4 only

4.   1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans-1, 2, 3 and 4

8. Which of the following is/are true regarding National Commission for Scheduled Castes?

1. Originally the Constitution just had a Special Officer for SCs and STs.

2. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs) is a constitutional body.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

9. Which of the following is/are correct regarding election commissioners?

1. For removing other Election Commissioners, recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner is compulsory.

2. For removing other Election Commissioners, recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner is compulsory.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

10. Jammu and Kashmir became part of India through

1.   Instrument of Instructions

2.   J&K Peace Accord

3.   Instrument of Accession

4.   Plebiscite

Ans-Instrument of Accession

11. Which of the following is/are correct with respect to the Butler Committee of 1927?

1. It was formed to examine the relationship between the British Indian government and the princely states.

2. It recommended that British paramountcy would preserve the princely states.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both 1 and 2

4.   Neither 1 nor 2

Ans-Both are correct

12. M K Gandhi’s inspiration for civil disobedience came from the writings of?

1.   Leo Tolstoy

2.   David Ricardo

3.   Henry David Thoreau

4.   Bertrand Russell

Ans-Henry David Thoreau

13. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Mahatma Gandhi?

1. He was called ‘Mahatma’ for the first time by poet Rabindranath Tagore.

2. He was awarded the Kaiser-i-Hind in 1915 for his ambulance services in South Africa.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

14. Who composed the 15th century Bhajan ‘Vaishnav Jana To’?

1.   Narsi Mehta

2.   Kabir Das

3.   Surdas

4.   Tulsidas

Ans-Narsi Mehta (other variants of his name Narsingh Mehta or Narsi Bhagat)

15. In which of the following movements did Mahatma Gandhi first make use of the hunger strike as a weapon?

1.   Non-cooperation Movement

2.   Rowlatt Satyagraha

3.   Bardoli Satyagraha

4.   Ahmedabad Strike

Ans-Ahmedabad Strike (1918)

16. Match the following freedom fighters with slogans:

1.         Mahatma Gandhi          A. Freedom is my birthright

2.         Subhas Chandra Bose   B- Do or Die

3.         Bal Gangadhar Tilak     C. Dilli Chalo

1.   1-B, 2-C, 3-A

2.   1-B, 2-A, 3-C

3.   1-A, 2-C, 3-B

4.   1-C, 2-B, 3-A

Ans-1-B, 2-C, 3-A

17. Which of the following were recommendations of the Nehru Report (1928)?

1.         Dominion status for India within the British Commonwealth.

2.         Reservation of minority seats but no separate electorates.

3.         Bicameral legislature at the centre.

1.   1 and 3 only

2.   1 and 2 only

3.   2 and 3 only

4.   1, 2 and 3

Ans-All is correct

18. Which of the following is/are correct about the Aihole inscription?

1.         It was written by Ravikirti, the court poet of Pulakesin II, the Chalukya King.

2.         The inscription mentions the defeat of Harshavardhana by Pulakesin II.

3.         It is written in Sanskrit in the Devanagari script.

1.   1 and 2 only

2.   1 and 3 only

3.   3 and 2 only

4.   1, 2 and 3

Ans-1 and 2 only are correct. It is written in Sanskrit in the old Kannada script.

19. The Battle of Hydaspes was fought between?

1.   Ambhi of Taxila and Alexander

2.   Chandragupta Maurya and Seleucus I Necator

3.   Cyrus and Bimbisara

4.   Porus and Alexander

Ans-Porus and Alexander

20. The Advaita philosophy was propagated by?

1.   Ramanuja

2.   Madhava

3.   Adi Sankara

4.   Kabir

Ans-Adi Sankara

21. When travelling from Chennai to Kolkata by road (shortest distance), what would be the sequence of occurrence of rivers?

1.   Penneru, Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha

2.   Penneru, Godavari, Krishna, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha

3.   Godavari, Penneru, Krishna, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha

4.   Penneru, Krishna, Godavari, Subarnarekha, Mahanadi

Ans-Penneru, Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha

22. Which of the following is an example of Oceanic – Continental Convergence?

1.   Formation of island arc

2.   Formation of Himalayas

3.   Formation of rift valley

4.   Formation of oceanic trenches

Ans-Formation of oceanic trenches

23. With reference to coasts in India, which of the following is incorrect?

1.   In high rocky coasts, erosional features dominate

2.   Land slopes gently into water for low sedimentary coasts

3.   West coast of India is an example of high rocky coasts whereas east coast of India is an example of low sedimentary coasts

4.   High rocky coasts are emerged coasts as against low sedimentary coasts which are submerged coasts

Ans-High rocky coasts are emerged coasts as against low sedimentary coasts which are submerged coasts

24. Which of the following is the most abundant element in the Earth’s crust?

1.   Oxygen

2.   Nitrogen

3.   Iron

4.   Sodium

Ans-Oxygen

25. Which of the following is not an erosional landform of running water?

1.   River terraces

2.   Alluvial fans and deltas

3.   Point bars and natural levees

4.   Braided streams

Ans-River terraces

26. Which of the following cities is not a part of HRIDAY?

1.   Ajmer

2.   Kolkata

3.   Warangal

4.   Mathura

Ans-Kolkata

27. Which of the following schemes is related to financial inclusion?

1.   Atal Pension Yojana

2.   Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana

3.   Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana

4.   MUDRA bank Yojana

Ans-Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana

28. Which of the following is/are correct about the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana?

1. This mission was announced in 2014 as a part of the National Rural Livelihood Mission.

2. This mission is the skilling and placement initiative of the Ministry of Rural Development.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

29. Which of the following is/are correct about the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme?

1. It focuses on advancing education of the girl child.

2. It has provision for individual cash transfer by the GOI.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-1

30. The Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana is

1.   a program for the protection of cattle and farm animals

2.   a program for the education of illiterate mothers

3.   a maternity benefit program

4.   a program for prevention of sexual harassment of women at the workplace

Ans-a maternity benefit program

31. Which of the following is/are correct about Saksham event (Sanrakshan Kshamta Mahotsav)?

1. It is an annual flagship event of Petroleum Conservation Research Association (PCRA) under the aegis of Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas.

2. It is for creating focused attention on fuel conservation through people centric activities and to sensitize the masses about the conservation and efficient use of petroleum products leading to better health and environment.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

32. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?

1.         Anamudi Shola National Park – Kerala

2.         Bandhavgarh National Park – Rajasthan

3.         Betla National Park – Jharkhand

1.   1 and 2 only

2.   1 and 3 only

3.   2 and 3 only

4.   1, 2 and 3

Ans-1 and 3 only Bandhavgarh National Park is in Madhya Pradesh

33. Which of the following is/are correct about the Dachigam National Park?

1.         It is the only area where the Kashmir Stag is found.

2.         It is located in the Western Himalayas.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

34. The Environment Protection Act of 1986 (EPA) came into force soon after which of the following disasters in India?

1.   Oleum Gas Leak

2.   Maline Landslide in Pune

3.   Bhopal Gas Tragedy

4.   None of the above

Ans-Bhopal Gas Tragedy

35. The Indian government has started conservation projects of which of the following species?

1.   Tiger

2.   Crocodile

3.   Hungal

4.   All of the above

Ans-All of the above

36. Which of the following is/are not included in the government portal on the Must-see Monuments and Archaeological Sites in India?

1.   India Gate at Delhi

2.   Rock shelters at Bhimbetka

3.   Group of monuments at Mahabalipuram

4.   Sun Temple at Modhera

Ans-India Gate at Delhi

37. Which of the following is/are correct regarding the Chhapeli folk dance?

1.         It is a folk dance prevalent in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand.

2.         It is generally performed solo.

3.         It expresses the joy of romance.

1.   1 and 3 only

2.   1 and 2 only

3.   2 and 3 only

4.   1, 2 and 3

Ans-1 and 3 only are correct

38. Which of the following is/are correct with respect to Indian sculpture?

1.         The Gandhara School of art had a deep Greek influence.

2.         The sculptures of Mathura were largely made with red sandstone.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

39. Which of the following is/are correct with respect to Indian sculpture?

1.         The Amaravati School of art was patronised by Satavahana rulers.

2.         Bronze was not used for making sculptures during the Chola period.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-1 only is correct

40. What is the Garbhagriha with respect to Indian temple architecture?

1.   It is a stone-like disc seen at the top of the temple.

2.   It is the entrance to the temple, which could be a portico or a colonnaded hall where worshipers stand.

3.   It is a raised platform where devotees can sit and pray.

4.   It is a cave-like sanctum which houses the main icon of the temple.

Ans-It is a cave-like sanctum which houses the main icon of the temple.

41. Which of the following is/are correct with respect to India’s geographical information system ‘Bhuvan’?

1. It offers detailed imagery of Indian locations with a resolution of up to 1 m.

2. It allows users to view 2D and 3D images along with information on terrain and water resources.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

42. Consider the following statements about Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme of government:

1. It aims at reducing excess sugar in the country.

2. It focuses on reducing import bill.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct.

Ethanol Blended Petrol Programme – This intervention also seeks to reduce import dependence for energy requirements and give boost to agriculture sector. Consistent surplus of sugar production is depressing sugar price.

43. Consider the following statements regarding Bad Banks:

1. It is a bank containing significant non-performing assets (NPAs).

2. It buys these NPAs at discounted prices from other banks.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-1 only is correct.

Explaination: A bad bank is set up to buy the bad loans of another bank with significant non-performing assets at market price. By transferring such assets to the bad bank, the original institution may clear its balance sheet.

44. Consider the following statements:

1. Brownfield Airport is modified or upgraded airports.

2. Land Availability is a major hurdle in Brownfield Airport.

3. Brownfield projects under FDI have been a cause of concern as they increase foreign monopoly without adding to capital formation.

Choose the correct code:

1.   1 only

2.   1 and 2 only

3.   1, 2 and 3

4.   2 and 3 only

Ans-All is correct.

Explaination: Brownfield Airport means the airport which is modified or upgrade as per current circumstances. Brownfield projects under FDI have been a cause of concern as they increase foreign monopoly without adding to capital formation. Land Availability and decongestion of rush in existing airports are major challenge in up gradation of airport.

45. Plants take nutrients from soil by the process called

1.   Osmosis

2.   Diffusion

3.   Transpiration

4.   Absorption

Explaination:

Osmosis is the process in which water molecules moves from the region of high concentration to a region of low concentration through a semi permeable membrane. Plant absorbs the nutrients dissolved in water and soil by osmosis where cell wall acts as membrane.

46. Exercise KAZIND-2018, a joint military exercise is conducted between

1.   India and Kazakhstan

2.   India and Pakistan

3.   India and Afghanistan

4.   India and Kyrgyzstan

Explaination:

Exercise KAZIND-2018, a joint military exercise between Indian and Kazakhstan Armies, commenced in Otar Military Area, Kazakhstan. The 14 day long joint exercise is being conducted from 10 Sep to 23 Sep 2018.

47. Recently, “Operation All-Out” was in the news. It is related to?

1.   To counter the militant violent attacks in Kashmir

2.   To evacuate Indian citizens and other foreign nationals from South Sudan

3.   Rescue operations to evacuate civilians affected by Cyclone Ockhi

4.   None of the above

Explaination:

Operation All-Out (OAO) is a joint offensive launched by Indian security forces – Indian Army, CRPF, Jammu and Kashmir Police, BSF and IB in the later half of 2017 to flush out militants and terrorists in Kashmir until there is complete peace in the state.

48. Environmental Performance Index is released by

1.   Yale and Columbia Universities

2.   WWF

3.   UNEP

4.   Society for Conservation of Nature

Ans-Yale and Columbia Universities

49. Consider the following statements about ‘Vetiver’:

1. It is a grass, which grows up to five feet and whose fragrant root reaches up to 10 feet.

2. It is used in ethanol extraction.

3. It can be used to purify polluted water bodies.

Which of the above is/are correct?

1.   Only 1

2.   Only 2 and 3

3.   Only 2

4.   1, 2 and 3

Ans-All is correct.

50. Which of the following are caused by virus?

1.         Dysentery

2.         Measles

3.         Typhoid

4.         Rabies

1.   Only 1

2.   Only 2 and 3

3.   Only 2 and 4

4.   Only 1 and 4

Ans-Only 2 and 4

51. ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana’ has been launched for

1.   Providing housing loan to poor people at cheaper interest rates

2.   Promoting women’s self-help groups in backward areas

3.   Promoting financial inclusion in the country

4.   None of the above

Ans-Promoting financial inclusion in the country

52. in the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight?

1.   Electricity generation

2.   Coal production

3.   Fertilizer production

4.   Steel Production

Ans-Electricity generation

53. Which of the following is/are correct regarding the Global Economic Prospects Report?

1. It is published by the World Bank Group.

2. It examines global economic developments and prospects, with a special focus on emerging market and developing countries, on a semiannual basis.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

54. Which of the following is/are correct about the area called Golan Heights?

1. It is recognised as Syrian territory annexed by Israel.

2. The area was first captured by Israel in the 1967 war called the Six-Day War.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

55. In India, the steel production industry requires the import of

1.   Saltpetre

2.   Coking coal

3.   Rock phosphate

4.   All of the above

Ans-Coking coal

56. Which of the following is/are correct about the National Nutrition Week observed in India?

1. It is observed from 1st to 7th November every year.

2. The theme for 2018 was ‘Go further with food’.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-2 is only correct. It is observed from 1st to 7th September.

57. Which of the following judgements are related to section 377 of the IPC?

1. Naz Foundation v. Government of NCT of Delhi (2009)

2. Suresh Kumar Koushal v. Naz Foundation (2013) case

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

58. Which of the following is/are correct with respect to National Commission for Backward Classes (Repeal) Bill, 2017?

1. The bill is meant to upgrade the Backward Classes Commission from a statutory body to a constitutional body.

2. The Constitution (123rd Amendment) Bill, 2017, providing for setting up of a National Commission for Backward Classes, is passed by the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha awaiting the President’s assent.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

59. Which among the following vaccines come under Penatavalent vaccine?

1.   Diphtheria, Pertussis/whooping cough, polio, Hepatitis B and Hib vaccines

2.   Diphtheria, Pertussis/whooping cough and tetanus, Hepatitis C and Hib vaccines.

3.   Diphtheria, Pertussis/whooping cough and tetanus), Hepatitis A and Hib vaccines

4.   Diphtheria, Pertussis or whooping cough, tetanus, Hepatitis B and Hib vaccines.

Ans-Diphtheria, Pertussis or whooping cough, tetanus, Hepatitis B and Hib vaccines

60. Which of the following statements is/are provisions found in the Whistleblowers Protection (Amendment) Bill, 2015?

1. It prohibits disclosures to be made if they are covered by the Official Secrets Act, 1923.

2. It prohibits the reporting of a corruption-related disclosure if it falls under certain prohibited categories which are modelled on those under the RTI Act.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

61.  Consider the following statements with reference to Egyptian vultures, which was in news recently.

1. It is the largest among all the vultures.

2. It is an endangered species as per IUCN’s Red data book.

3. It is also called white scavenger.

Choose the correct answer:

1.   1 and 3 only

2.   2 and 1 only

3.   2 and 3 only

4.   1, 2 and 3

Ans- 2 and 3 only are correct

62. Consider the following statements with reference to Bele-II experiment which was in news recently:

1. Belle-II is designed to study violations of the Standard Model of particle physics.

2. Belle-II experiment is being conducted at IISC, Bangalore.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-1 only is correct

63. Which of the following is/are correct?

1. The Representation of the People Act bar political parties from receiving foreign funds.

2. The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act bar political parties from receiving foreign funds.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

64. Consider the following statements with reference to The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority:

1. It is a statutory body.

2. It controls the prices of Pharmaceutical drugs in India.

Choose the correct answer:

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-2 only is correct

65. Consider the following statements:

1. In Multidrug Resistant Tuberculosis, patients do not respond to second-line of drugs.

2. Drugs like Bedaquiline and Delamanid are not adequately available in India’s national healthcare system.

3. India shoulders the highest TB burden in the world.

Choose the correct answer:

1.   1 and 3 only

2.   2 and 3 only

3.   1 and 2 only

4.   All 3

Ans-2 and 3 only are correct

66. Consider the following statements:

1. Railway Development Authority would involve in policy making of Railways.

2. Railway Development Authority would involve in setting safety standards for the railways.

3. Railway Development Authority would impose tariff on Indian Railways.

Choose the correct answer:

1.   1 and 2 only

2.   3 only

3.   All are correct

4.   None are correct

Ans-None are correct

67. The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the

1.   Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs

2.   Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices

3.   Agricultural Produce Market Committee

4.   Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture

Ans-Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs

68.  Hill Area Development Programme was initiated for

1.   Himachal Pradesh

2.   North East

3.   Darjeeling

4.   Naxal-affected areas

Ans-North East

69. With reference to Project 75I, consider the following statements:

1.         Indian Navy intends to acquire 6 diesel-electric submarines.

2.         INS Druva is the second Submarine after Kalavari.

3.         Kalavari is named after the Island fort of Maratha forces.

Select the incorrect answer using the code given below:

1.   2 and 3 only

2.   1 and 2 only

3.   1 and 3 only

4.   1, 2 and 3

Ans-2 and 3 only

70. Operation Green in Budget is related to

1.   An infrastructure corridor along the Western Ghats

2.   An operation to Plant trees in the highway to reduce Air Pollution

3.   A program for rejuvenating all rivers by stopping all development programs around them

4.   It is essentially a price fixation scheme that aims to ensure farmers are given the right price for their produce

Ans- It is essentially a price fixation scheme that aims to ensure farmers are given the right price for their produce

71. In which state is the Sela Pass located?

1.   Arunachal Pradesh

2.   Sikkim

3.   Jammu and Kashmir

4.   Himachal Pradesh

Ans-Arunachal Pradesh

72. Great Firewall is the combination of legislative actions and technologies enforced to regulate the Internet domestically by which country?

1.   Turkey

2.   Russia

3.   China

4.   Saudi Arabia

Ans-China

73. With reference to the Baltic Dry Index, consider the following statements:

1. It is an economic indicator issued daily by the London-based Baltic Exchange.

2. They are restricted to Baltic Sea Countries.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-1 only

74. J-curve in economics is related to

1.   It is a type of cost-of- living index that uses an expenditure function such as one used in assessing expected compensating variation

2.   The trend of a country’s trade balance following devaluation

3.   Show the relationship between tax rates and the amount of tax revenue collected by governments

4.   The inverse relationship between unemployment rate and inflation

Ans-the trend of a country’s trade balance following devaluation

75. Which of the following is/are correct about Nifty?

1.         It is based on 50 firms in India.

2.         It is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.

3.         It does not trade in mutual funds.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-1 only is correct. It is regulated by SEBI. It trades in mutual funds also.

76. Which of the following is/are correct about the KUSUM scheme?

It is used to promote the use of solar power among farmers in India.

It stands for Kisan Urja Suraksha Evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

77. The SECURE Himalaya scheme has been launched by the GOI in association with?

1.   United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

2.   World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)

3.   Greenpeace

4.   United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

Ans-United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

78. Schizophrenia is related to

1.   A hereditary disorder which leads to increase in performance of Thyroid glands

2.   A chronic and severe mental disorder that affects how a person thinks, feels, and behaves

3.   A breathing problem due to increase in pollution levels

4.   A chronic neurodegenerative disease

Ans-A chronic and severe mental disorder that affects how a person thinks, feels, and behaves

79. With reference to core of the core Schemes, consider the following statements:

1. The funding is in the ration 75:25.

2. MGNREGA is included in the classification.

3. Development of Backward Classes and other vulnerable groups are not included.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1.   1 and 3 only

2.   3 and 2 only

3.   1 and 2 only

4.   1, 2 and 3

Ans-1 and 2 only

80. Akash vani Maitree was launched for listeners in India and which other country?

1.   Myanmar

2.   Bangladesh

3.   Sri Lanka

4.   Afghanistan

Ans-Bangladesh

81. The Sultan Bin Zayed Heritage Festival is held in which country?

1.   Kazakhstan

2.   Saudi Arabia

3.   Turkey

4.   United Arab Emirates

Ans-United Arab Emirates (festival is held in Abu Dhabi, UAE).

82. The term Mith/Mit or Mitini was recently in news. This is related to

1.   Preserving trees by forging relationship with trees

2.   Animal conservation Plan in Odisha

3.   SHG in WB to help Women in Poverty

4.   A program to send weekly messages on Child care for Mothers

Ans-Preserving trees by forging relationship with trees

83. Which of the following is/are incorrect?

1. Potassium Chlorate is a dangerous and hazardous chemical and can ignite or explode spontaneously.

2. Possession and sale of fireworks of foreign origin is illegal and punishable.

3. Till date, no license for import of fireworks has been granted under the Explosives Rules, 2008.

1.   1 and 3 only

2.   2 and 3 only

3.   All three

4.   None of them

Ans-All is correct

84. Among the following, which animal is also called ‘mountain ghost’ and has the status of ‘vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List?

1.   Snow leopard

2.   Black bear

3.   Himalayan Tahr

4.   Nilgai

Ans-Snow leopard

85. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?

1.         Manas National Park – Assam

2.         Silent Valley National Park – Nagaland

3.         Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary – Rajasthan

1.   1 and 3 only

2.   2 and 3 only

3.   1 and 2 only

4.   1, 2 and 3

Ans-1 and 3 only, Silent Valley National Park is in Kerala.

86.  Middle income trap refers to

1.   Economic policy through which one country attempts to remedy its economic problems means that tend to worsen the economic problems of other countries

2.   A country having conflict of economic interests that arises between short-term domestic and long-term international objectives

3.   Economic development situation, where a country which attains a certain income will get stuck at that level

4.   An economic condition where the economy is ruled by Middle class because of high demand of Consumer Products

Ans- Economic development situation, where a country which attains a certain income will get stuck at that level

87. When was the Surajkund International Crafts Mela started?

1.   1987

2.   2001

3.   2015

4.   1975

Ans-1987

88. Which of the following is/are correct?

1. An inheritance is a tax paid by a person who inherits money or property or a levy on the estate (money and property) of a person who has died.

2. India does not have an inheritance tax, but a person who has inherited property may have to pay income tax, capital gains tax, wealth tax and/or property tax on the inherited property.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

89. Through which of the following states does the Mahadayi River flow?

1. Maharashtra

2. Karnataka

3. Goa

4. Andhra Pradesh

1.   1, 2 and 3 only

2.   1, 2 and 4 only

3.   1 and 3 only

4.   2 and 3 only

Ans-1, 2 and 3 only

90.  The Langkawi Declaration recently seen in news is related to

1.   ASEAN India Treaty on advancement in Science and Technology

2.   ASEAN India Treaty on Space research

3.   A declaration on the issue of environmental sustainability by Commonwealth

4.   Defence Treaty for sale of Brahmos

Ans-A declaration on the issue of environmental sustainability by Commonwealth

91.  Which of the following is/are correct?

1. The Battle of Koregaon was fought on 1 January 1818 between the British East India Company and the Peshwa faction of the Maratha Confederacy, at Koregaon Bhima.

2. This battle was a part of the Second Anglo-Maratha War.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-1 is only correct. It was part of the Third Anglo-Maratha War.

92. Which of the following is/are correct regarding the Battle of Plassey?

1. It was fought between the forces of Siraj-ud-daulah, the Nawab of Bengal and the British East India Company.

2. After the battle, Mir Jaffar was installed as the Nawab of Bengal by the British.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

93. Which of the following is/are correct about Tipu Sultan?

1. His father Hyder Ali became the de-facto ruler of the Mysore Kingdom during the reign of Krishnaraja Wodeyar II.

2. He died in the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War in 1799.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

94. Which of the following is/are correct about the Permanent Settlement of Bengal?

1. Landlords or Zamindars were recognised as the owners of the land, who were given hereditary rights of succession over the land.

2. Landlord had to pay a fixed amount as revenue to the government.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

95. Which of the following is/are correct about the Indian Councils Act 1861?

1. It introduced the portfolio system to the Governor-General’s Council wherein each member was assigned a portfolio.

2. Three Indians were nominated to the Council after it was enacted.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

96-Veerapandi Kattabomman revolt against the British was part of the

1.   Polygar Rebellions

2.   Santhal Hul

3.   Indigo Rebellion

4.   Deccan Riots

Ans-Polygar Rebellions

97. Hakka and Bukka were the founders of which empire?

1.   Vijayanagara Kingdom

2.   Bahmani Kingdom

3.   Mysore Kingdom

4.   Travancore Kingdom

Ans-Vijayanagara Empire

98. Which of the following sites of the Indus Valley Civilisation are not in India?

1.         Harappa

2.         Lothal

3.         Kalibangan

4.         Chanhudaro

1.   1 and 2 only

2.   1 and 3 only

3.   1, 2 and 4 only

4.   1 and 4 only

Ans-1 and 4 only, They are now in Pakistan.

99. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Ashoka’s Edicts?

1.         All the pillar edicts are monoliths.

2.         Language used in the edicts is only Prakrit.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Only 1 is correct.

In eastern part of the empire, Magadhi language in Brahmi script is used. (Magadhi is the dialect of Prakrit found in Magadha).

In western parts of the Mauryan Empire, Prakrit in Kharoshti script is used.

Major Rock Edict XIII contains an extract in Greek and Aramaic as well.

100. Which of the following is/are correct with respect to the Kanchi Kailasanatha Temple?

1. It was built by the Pallava King Narasimhavarman II during the late 7th century CE.

2. It was built in the Dravidian architectural style.

1.   1 only

2.   2 only

3.   Both are correct

4.   Both are incorrect

Ans-Both are correct

(Notes) IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper-1

1. Lunar Rover

2. Moon Landings

3. GSAT-11 Launched

4. NASA’s InSight Spacecraft lands on Mars

5. Farthest object ever visited: Ultima Thule

6. Upcoming Atomic Power Plants

7. Radio frequency identification (RFID) tags

8. Angel Tax

9. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban

Government has launched a Mobile App to Allow Beneficiaries to Capture & Upload Photographs of Completed Houses under PMAY- U.

The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) Programme launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (MoHUPA), in Mission mode envisions provision of Housing for All by 2022, when the Nation completes 75 years of its Independence.

The Mission seeks to address the housing requirement of urban poor including slum dwellers through following programme verticals:

  • Slum rehabilitation of Slum Dwellers with participation of private developers using land as a resource.
  • Promotion of Affordable Housing for weaker section through credit linked subsidy.
  • Affordable Housing in Partnership with Public & Private sectors.
  • Subsidy for beneficiary-led individual house construction /enhancement.

Important facts

The beneficiaries are poor and people living under EWS and LIG categories in the country.

The scheme is divided into three phases.

  1. In the first phase, a total of 100 cities will be covered from April 2015 to March 2017.
  2.  In Second Phase, 200 cities will be covered from April 2017 to March 2019.
  3. In the third phase, the leftover cities will be covered from April 2019 to March 2022.

The government is providing an interest subsidy of 6.5% on housing loans which can be availed by beneficiaries for 15 years from start of loan date.

The government will grant Rs 1 lakh to all the beneficiaries of the scheme. In addition, Rs 1.5 lakh will be given to all eligible urban poor who want to construct their houses in urban areas or plan to go for renovation in their existing houses. One can also avail loans under this scheme to build toilets in existing houses.

Significance of the scheme:

  1. PMAY-U does offer a huge opportunity for several sectors by setting off a virtuous cycle.
  2. One crore houses would mean an opportunity for over Rs 2 lakh crore of home loans, and incremental consumption of 80-100 million tonne of cement and 10-15 million tonne of steel.
  3. The construction opportunity is of about four billion square feet over the life of PMAY-U and all that would translate into 9-10 crore incremental jobs over the execution period.

10. Dolphin census

  • Annual Dolphin census was recently carried out in Odisha by the state’s forest and environment department.

The census covered important aquatic ecosystems in the state including the Chilika Lake, India’s largest brackish water lagoon, spread over the Puri, Khurda and Ganjam districts, the Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary and its nearby areas within the Bhitarkanika National Park in Kendrapara district, Balasore district and the mouth of the Rushikulya River in Ganjam district.

Important Key facts:

Dolphins have been included in Schedule I of the Indian Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972, in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES), in Appendix II of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) and categorised as ‘Endangered’ on the International Union for the Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List.

 Sources: down to earth.

11. Oxytocin ban

Indian Medical Association has said Karnataka Antibiotics and Pharmaceuticals Ltd (KAPL) neither have the experience nor the capacity to handle Oxytocin production.

The Delhi high court had quashed the Centre’s December 14, 2018 notification, which had banned its sale by private manufacturers and retail chemists, saying the sale was allowed. Essentially, this meant that only KAPL could produce the drug as there is no other public sector enterprise doing so. However, Delhi high court quashed the amended order too. The central government moved Supreme Court against the Delhi high court order.

  1. KAPL has said bulk production of the drug would take three-four years. This would put lives of many pregnant women at risk as it would lead to acute shortages.
  • With the ban, the government did not adequately weigh in the danger of its order to the users of oxytocin, nor consider the deleterious effect of possible restricted supply if manufacture is confined to one unit on pregnant women and young mothers.
  • Strict control on illegal imports of the drug: Most of the veterinary use comes from illegal import of oxytocin from neighbouring countries. The misuse could be prevented through strict control in sale and end use of the drug especially prevention through clandestine channels.

 About Oxytocin

  • Oxytocin has also been dubbed the hug hormone, cuddle chemical, moral molecule, and the bliss hormone due to its effects on behavior, including its role in love and in female reproductive biological functions in reproduction.
  • Oxytocin is a hormone that is made in the brain, in the hypothalamus. It is transported to, and secreted by, the pituitary gland, which is located at the base of the brain.
  • It acts both as a hormone and as a brain neurotransmitter.
  • The release of oxytocin by the pituitary gland acts to regulate two female reproductive functions: Childbirth and Breast-feeding.

What are the Reasons behind the ban?

Misuse in diary industry: Oxytocin is a naturally-occurring hormone that causes uterine contractions during labour and helps new mothers lactate. However, the drug is misused in the dairy industry where livestock is injected with Oxytocin to make them release milk at a time convenient to farmers.

Oxytocin is also used to increase the size of vegetables such as pumpkins, watermelons, eggplants, gourds, and cucumbers.

 Sources: down to earth.

12.  World Sustainable Development Summit

 The World Sustainable Development Summit 2019 is being held in New Delhi. It is organized by The Energy and Resources Institute – TERI.

 World Sustainable Development Summit:

  1. The World Sustainable Development Summit is the annual flagship event of The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI).
  2. World Sustainable Development Summit is the sole Summit on global issues taking place in the developing world.
  3. It provides a platform for global leaders and practitioners to discuss and deliberate over climatic issues of universal importance.
  4. It strives to provide long-term solutions for the benefit of the global community by assembling the world’s most enlightened leaders and thinkers on a single platform.
  5. It is continuing the legacy of Delhi Sustainable Development Summit (DSDS) which was initiated in 2001 with the aim of making ‘sustainable development’ a globally shared goal.
  6. The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) is a leading think tank dedicated to conducting research for sustainable development of India and the Global South. TERI was established in 1974 as an information centre on energy issues. However, over the following decades, it made a mark as a research institute, whose policy and technology solutions transformed people’s lives and the environment.

Sources: the Hindu.

13. Selenium

Scientists have found that nanoparticles of selenium, an essential micronutrient, can be used as an antibacterial agent. Scientists found that selenium nanoparticles, owing to their unique structure and properties, may be more effective than antibiotics as they have a larger surface area and therefore can be more in contact with the external environment.

  • Selenium is found naturally in wheat, eggs, cheese, nuts and sea food. It is an antioxidant and immunity booster.

14. e-AUSHADHI portal

 Ministry of State (IC) for AYUSH, launched the e-AUSHADHI portal, for online licensing of Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani and Homoeopathy drugs and related matters.

Important Key facts

  • e-AUSHADHI portal is intended for increased transparency, improved information management facility, improved data usability and increased accountability.
  • Timelines will be fixed for processing of application through this portal with SMS and e-mail status updates at each step of the process.
  • It will provide real-time information of the licensed manufactures and their products, cancelled and spurious drugs, contact details of the concerned authority for specific grievances.

15. National Board for Wildlife (NBWL)

 India’s apex National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) has cleared 682 of the 687 projects (99.82%) that came up for scrutiny. Only five projects were rejected since August 2014.

About National Board for Wildlife

  1. It is a “Statutory Organization” constituted under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
  2. Its roles are “advisory” in nature and advise the Central Government on framing policies and measures for conservation of wildlife in the country.
  3. Primary function of the Board is to promote the conservation and development of wildlife and forests.
  4. It has power to review all wildlife-related matters and approve projects in and around national parks and sanctuaries.
  5. No alternation of boundaries in national parks and wildlife sanctuaries can be done without approval of the NBWL.

Composition: The NBWL is chaired by the Prime Minister. It has 47 members including the Prime Minister. Among these, 19 members are ex-officio members. Other members include three Members of Parliament (two from Lok Sabha and one from Rajya Sabha), five NGOs and 10 eminent ecologists, conservationists and environmentalists.

 Sources: the Hindu.

16. Ghumot to be declared Goa’s heritage musical instrument

  • Ghumot, an indigenous earthen drum will soon be notified as a heritage instrument of Goa.
  • Ghumot is an indigenous earthen drum fashioned as a designed clay pot, with the skin of the monitor lizard stretched taut across the pot’s mouth, forming a drumhead. It is a percussion instrument widely played during Ganesh Chaturthi Aarties.
  • The instrument was banned due to the use of the skin of the endangered monitor lizard for the drum membrane. In recent years, Ghumot makers have started using goat skin instead.
  • The ban is applicable to the use of any animal listed in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, and that the goat is not one of them. Monitor lizard is listed under this.

17. “Exercise Topchi”

  • It is an annual exercise held by Indian Army to showcase its artillery firepower, aviation and surveillance capabilities. The latest edition was held at Deolali Camp near Nashik.

 18. Cobra Gold Military Exercise

The United States and Thailand are hosting the multi-nation Cobra military exercise this year. The exercise is taking place in the northern Thai province of Phitsanulok. This is the 38th edition of this exercise.

About the exercise

  • This is a Thai-American initiative with an aim to improve coordination between the armed forces. It is one of the Asia-Pacific region’s largest multinational military exercises that is held in Thailand every year. It was first held in 1982 and its headquarters is in Bangkok, Thailand.
  • India joined this exercise for the first time in 2016 while China was admitted for the first time in 2015 but was only allowed to participate in humanitarian assistance training.

19. Swachh Shakti 2019

Swachh Shakti 2019 Awards were recently distributed by the PM on the occasion of Swach Shakti 2019 programme.

 Swachh Shakti Programme

  • The Swachh Shakti Programme is a national event which aims to bring in to focus the leadership role played by rural women in Swachh Bharat Mission.
  • Launched in 2017, the Programme is a part of ongoing activities under the aegis of the Swachh Bharat Mission, launched on October 2, 2014 by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi to achieve a clean and Open Defecation Free (ODF) India by October 2, 2019.
  • The programme is attended by women panchs and Sarpanchs from across the country.
  • The first edition of Swachh Shakti programme was launched from Gandhinagar, Gujarat by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi on International Women’s Day 2017. The second edition was launched from Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.

20. 1st Aqua Mega Food Park in Andhra Pradesh

The government has commissioned Godavari Mega Aqua Food Park at Tundurru Village in Bhimavaram Mandal, West Godavari District, andhra Pradesh.

This is the 1st Mega Aqua Food Park operationalized exclusively established for fish and marine products processing in the State of Andhra Pradesh.

It will provide a platform and establish backward and forward linkages covering the entire aqua food processing value chain, quality assurance, food safety and implementation of best practices in post-harvest management.

21. Mohar reservoir project

The Chhattisgarh Water Resources Department (CWRD) commenced the work on Mohar Reservoir Project in Balod district without ensuring the land required was acquired and obtaining environment and forest clearances, says the latest Comptroller and Auditor General Report on Chhattisgarh.

Important Key facts: The Mohar reservoir project is proposed across the confluence of river Dangarh and Dalekasa with a catchment of 143 square km. The gross command area of the project is 1100 hectares. The proposed project is expected to irrigate 800 hectares of Kharif paddy and supply 1000 million cubic (1 TMC) water by feeder canal to Kharkhara reservoir for 500MW power plant of NSPCL in Bhilai.

 22. Crying Keel back

Researchers find new snake in Arunachal– Crying Keel back (named for the mark below its eyes, that gives the illusion that it is crying) snake or the Hebius lacrima.

The Crying Keel back has a set of characteristics that together make it different from other species in the Habeas genus: the mark under its eyes, the interrupted pale head stripe, among others.

Geography of Rajasthan in Hindi

History of Rajasthan in Hindi

Art and Culture of Rajasthan in Hindi

Rajasthan-Art-Culture-Hindi-Notes

Textbook for Class-IX (Social Science – Contemporary India-I)

(Notes) IAS Prelims 2019 GS Paper-1

Important Topics/Notes for UPSC IAS Prelims Exam-2019

1. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) and Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)

• Launched on 9th May, 2015.

• These schemes are offered/administered through both public and private sector insurance companies, in tie up with scheduled commercial banks, regional rural banks and cooperative banks.

PMJJBY:

• It offers a renewable one-year term life cover of Rupees Two Lakh to all account holders in the age group of 18 to 50 years, covering death due to any reason, for a premium of Rs. 330/- per annum per subscriber, to be auto debited from subscriber’s bank account.

PMSBY:

• It offers a renewable one-year accidental death cum disability cover to all subscribing bank account holders in the age group of 18 to 70 years for a premium of Rs. 12/- per annum per subscriber to be auto debited from subscriber’s bank account.

• It provides a cover of Rs. Two Lakh for accidental death or total permanent disability and Rs One Lakh in case of permanent partial disability

• The above schemes are on self-subscription basis and involve no Government contribution. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY):

• Ministry of Agriculture implements PMFBY and Restructured Weather Based Crop Insurance Scheme (RWBCIS).

• It provides comprehensive crop insurance cover against non-preventable natural risks at an affordable rate to farmers.

• It    is compulsory    for    loanee farmers availing crop    loans for notified    crops    in     notified   areas and voluntary for non-loanee farmers.

• Uniform maximum premium of only 2%, 1.5% and 5% of the sum  insured to  be paid by  farmers  for all Kharif crops, Rabi crops and commercial/horticultural crops.

• The difference between premium and the rate of insurance charges payable by farmers is provided as subsidy and shared equally by the Centre and State.

2. Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) – Ayushman Bharat

• A centrally sponsored scheme.

• An entitlement-based scheme. It covers poor and vulnerable families based on deprivation and occupational criteria as per SECC data.

• It provides health coverage up to Rs. 5 lakh per family, per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization to over 10.74 crore poor and vulnerable families.

• It provides cashless and paperless services for the beneficiary at the point of service in any (public and private) empanelled hospitals across India.

• The ratio of premium under PMJAY is 60:40 between Centre and State except North Eastern States and 3 Himalayan States where the ratio is 90:10 with an upper limit for Centre.

• In the case of Union Territories, the Central contribution of premium is 100% for UTs without legislature, while it is 60:40 for those with legislature.

Source: PIB

3. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is the flagship placement linked skill- training programme under the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD).

• There are several challenges that are preventing India’s rural poor from competing such as the lack of formal education and employability skills. DDU-GKY bridges this gap by funding training projects with an emphasis on placement, retention, career progression and foreign placement.

• The mission of the flagship scheme of MoRD is to ensure rural poor youth are skilled in market relevant trades and job-relevant competencies.

Champion Employers policy:

• The Champion Employers are the industry leaders who have the potential to provide training and captive employment to the DDU-GKY candidates.

• The policy seeks a strategic alignment of objectives of DDU-GKY with the HR strategy of organizations, which have a large potential to absorb trained manpower.

Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY):

• The Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) announced the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) Antyodaya Diwas, on 25th September 2014.

• DDU-GKY is a part of the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM), tasked with the dual objectives of adding diversity to the incomes of rural poor families and cater to the career aspirations of rural youth.

• DDU-GKY is uniquely focused on rural youth between the ages of 15 and 35 years from poor families. As a part of the Skill India campaign, it plays an instrumental role in supporting the social and economic programs of the government like the Make in India, Digital India, Smart Cities and Start-Up India, Stand- up India campaigns.

Source: PIB

4.  National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) made its effort to reduce pollution in river Ganga when PM inaugurated projects in Prayagraj including 175 KM of sewerage network.

The project will now carry 7.8 Cr litres sewage water per day to existing STPs (Sewage Treatment Plants) at Salori, Kodra & Ponghat for treatment earlier ended up in Ganga.

National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG):

It was registered as a society on 12th August 2011 under the Societies Registration Act 1860.

It acted as implementation arm of National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA), constituted under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act (EPA), 1986.

The Act envisages five-tier structure at national, state and district level to take measures for prevention, control and abatement of environmental pollution in river Ganga and to ensure continuous adequate flow of water so as to rejuvenate the river Ganga as below:

1. National Ganga Council under the chairmanship of Hon’ble Prime Minister of India.

2. Empowered Task Force (ETF) on river Ganga under chairmanship of Hon’ble Union Minister of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation.

3. National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG).   

4. State Ganga Committees, and

5. District Ganga Committees in every specified district abutting river Ganga and its tributaries in the states.

5. Who are Rohingyas?

India has handed over to Myanmar the first 50 houses built by the country for the displaced minority Rohingya Muslims in the restive Rakhine province.

Background:

• India signed a development programme for Rakhine State in Myanmar late last year which was designed to assist the Myanmar government in Rakhine State to build housing infrastructure for displaced persons.

• More than 700,000 minority Rohingya Muslims fled from Myanmar’s Rakhine state to neighbouring Bangladesh since August 2017 after a military crackdown, triggering a massive refugee crisis.

• They are an Ethnic group, mostly Muslims. They were not granted full citizenship by Myanmar. They were classified as “resident foreigners or associate citizens”.

• They speak a dialect of Bengali and not Burmese. Ethnically they are much closer to Indo-Aryan people of India and Bangladesh than to the Sino-Tibetans of the Country.

What’s the issue?

• Few years ago, religious and ethnic tensions between the Rohingya Muslims and the Rakhine Buddhists (who make up the majority of the population in Myanmar) escalated into widespread, deadly rioting. Hundreds of thousands were forced to flee. Since then, ongoing violent attacks have forced even more people to leave their homes.

• The Myanmar Government says that Rohingya people are not Burmese citizens – but the Rohingya have been living in Myanmar for generations. Today, they are a people with no home or citizenship.

• Rohingya people are being widely abused and exploited. They are one of the most persecuted minorities in the world.

Sources: the Hindu.

6. What are Golden Visas, Who can avail them and why they have become Controversial

The UK government has put on hold plans to suspend “Golden visa” category in reference to its use by super-rich foreign nationals, including Indians, to acquire fast-track settlement rights in Britain.

What are Golden Visas or Tier 1 Visas?

  • They provide a faster route for wealthy investors coming from outside the European Union and Switzerland to settle in Britain. The program was introduced in 2008 to attract wealthy foreign nationals willing to invest large amounts of capital in Britain.
  • To qualify, foreign nationals must put down a minimum of 2 million pounds (around $2.5 million) as an investment in Britain. Such an investment in United Kingdom bonds, share capital or companies allows investors to apply for permanent residency within five years.
  • For a £5 million investment, they can apply for permanent residency after three years.
  • An investment of £10 million can open the door to permanent residency after two years. After that, the nationals theoretically could apply for citizenship.
  • Billions of pounds have poured into London over the past decade, following an influx of global elites who have benefited from the program. The visa program has always had its critics, with anticorruption campaigners railing against Britain’s openness to ill-gotten riches from overseas and the foreigners who invest them.
  • A survey found that the scheme brought limited economic benefits because most of the investors had bought fixed-interest loan securities known as gilts, meaning that they were effectively loaning the government money instead of investing in the country.

Sources: the Hindu.

7. India has signed the ascension agreement to the Trans Regional Maritime Network (T-RMN). The multilateral construct comprises of 30 countries and is steered by Italy.

  • India already has bilateral White Shipping Agreements with 36 countries.

About the Trans Regional Maritime Network (T-RMN):

The network facilitates information exchange on the movement of commercial traffic on the high seas.

  • The information is available primarily through the Automatic Identification System (AIS) fitted on merchant ships with more than 300 gross registered tonnages as mandated by the International Maritime Organisation.
  • The AIS information comprises name, MMSI number, position, course, speed, last port visited, destination and so on. This information can be picked up through various AIS sensors including coastal AIS chains and satellite based receivers.
  • Significance:
  • Such multilateral agreements are necessitated due to the large traffic in the Indian Ocean which cannot be entirely monitored by any one nation.
  • This is a significant move as it will help the Indian Navy keep a watch over the vast Indian Ocean and boost maritime security of the country.
  • India is part of several such agreements, which help the nations to coordinate and share information to keep tabs on suspicious activities and illegal trade across the oceans.

Sources: the Hindu.

8. OPEC, Why Qatar is leaving?

Qatar has announced that it would leave OPEC on January 1, 2019. The decision comes just days before OPEC and its allies are scheduled to hold a meeting in Vienna, Austria. Qatar said it is leaving OPEC in order to focus on gas production.

What’s the issue?

• The decision to pull out after more than five decades comes at a turbulent time in Gulf politics, with Doha under a boycott by former neighbouring allies including Saudi Arabia for 18 months.

• Since June 2017, OPEC kingpin Saudi Arabia — along with three other Arab states — has cut trade and transport ties with Qatar, accusing the country of supporting terrorism and its regional rival Iran. Qatar denies the claims, saying the boycott hampers its national sovereignty.

Background:

• Qatar’s oil production is around 600,000 barrels per day, making it the world’s 17th largest producer of crude. It also only holds around two percent of the world’s global oil reserves.

About OPEC:

• The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a group of oil-producing nations that was first established in Baghdad, Iraq, in 1961.

• OPEC is one of the most powerful international organizations in the world and was a major player in the shift towards state control over natural resources.

Membership:

• The OPEC Statute distinguishes between the Founder Members and Full Members – those countries whose applications for membership have been accepted by the Conference.

• The Statute stipulates that “any country with a substantial net export of crude petroleum, which has fundamentally similar interests to those of Member Countries, may become a Full Member of the Organization, if accepted by a majority of three-fourths of Full Members, including the concurring votes of all Founder Members.”

• The Statute further provides for Associate Members which are those countries that do not qualify for full membership, but are nevertheless admitted under such special conditions as may be prescribed by the Conference.

• Currently, the Organization has a total of 15 Member Countries. The current OPEC members are the following: Algeria, Angola, Ecuador, Equatorial Guinea,

• Gabon, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, Qatar, the Republic of the Congo, Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates, and Venezuela.

• Indonesia is a former member, and Qatar will no longer be the member of OPEC starting on 1 January 2019.

Sources: the Hindu.

9. Australia has recognized West Jerusalem as the capital of Israel. With this, Australia has become one of the few countries that officially recognize West Jerusalem as Israel’s capital.

Background

• Both Israel and the Palestinians claim Jerusalem as their Capital and this despite is not resolved yet.

• United States President Donald Trump’s administration had also announced recognition of Jerusalem as Israel’s capital on December 6, 2017.

• The UN General Assembly passed a resolution in opposition to declare the US President Donald Trump’s declaration of Jerusalem as Israel’s capital “null and void”. India also supported the resolution, which was approved with a majority of 127-9 at the UN General Assembly calling for the US to withdraw its decision.

Sources: the Hindu.

10. The 7th round of India – South Korea Comprehensive   Economic   Partnership   Agreement  (CEPA) negotiations were held in South Korea from 11th to 13th December, 2018.

Highlights of the Meeting:

The discussions were positive, and subject to Indian sugar industry meeting the quality standards and specifications prescribed by the South Korean Government.

Background:

  • South Korea imports around 15 lac tones of raw sugar annually and the Indian sugar industry is making efforts to export raw sugar from India during 2018-19 sugar seasons.
  • India and South Korea will reduce duties on 11 tariff lines in a bid to expand bilateral trade by updating their existing free-trade agreement, called the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA).
  • In 2017-18, India exported goods worth $4.4 billion to South Korea while imports from the latter were worth $16.3 billion.

Difference between CECA and CEPA –

  • CECA – Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement
  • CEPA – Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement
  • The major “technical” difference between a CECA and CEPA is that CECA involve only “tariff reduction/elimination in a phased manner on listed/all items except the negative list and tariff rate quota (TRQ) items. CEPA also covers the trade in services and investment and other areas of economic partnership”.
  • So CEPA is a wider term that CECA and has the widest coverage.
  • Usually CECA signed first with a country and after that negotiations may start for a CEPA.

Source: PIB

11.  Chabahar port.

Iran formally handed over the port to India during a first meeting of the follow-up committee for the implementation of the Chabahar Agreement between Iran, Afghanistan, and India held recently in the port city Tehran.

chabahar-port-ias-prelims-2019-GS-paper-I

Background:

The Chabahar Agreement was signed in June 2015 and approved by Iran’s Guardian Council in November 2016. Chabahar is being seen as a gateway for trade by India, Iran and Afghanistan with Central Asian countries

Where is Chabahar port?

Iran’s Chabahar port is located on the Gulf of Oman and is the only oceanic port of the country. The port gives access to the energy-rich Persian Gulf nations’ southern coast.

Why Chabahar port is crucial for India?

The first and foremost significance of the Chabahar port is the fact that India can bypass Pakistan in transporting goods to Afghanistan. Chabahar port will boost India’s access to Iran, the key gateway to the International North-South Transport Corridor that has sea, rail and road routes between India, Russia, Iran, Europe and Central Asia.

Chabahar port will be beneficial to India in countering Chinese presence in the Arabian Sea which China is trying to ensure by helping Pakistan develop the Gwadar port. Gwadar port is less than 400 km from Chabahar by road and 100 km by sea.

With Chabahar port being developed and operated by India, Iran also becomes a military ally to India. Chabahar could be used in case China decides to flex its navy muscles by stationing ships in Gwadar port to reckon its upper hand in the Indian Ocean, Persian Gulf and Middle East.

With Chabahar port becoming functional, there will be a significant boost in the import of iron ore, sugar and rice to India. The import cost of oil to India will also see a considerable decline. India has already increased its crude purchase from Iran since the West imposed ban on Iran was lifted.

Chabahar port will ensure in the establishment of a politically sustainable connectivity between India and Afghanistan. This will in turn, lead to better economic ties between the two countries.

From a diplomatic perspective, Chabahar port could be used as a point from where humanitarian operations could be coordinated.

Sources: the Hindu.

12. CPEC (China-Pakistan Economic Corridor)

Clarifying about a recent U.S. media report that alleged that China had hatched a secret plan to build fighter jets and other military hardware in Pakistan as part of the CPEC project, Pakistan has said that the China- Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) is a bilateral economic project and has no military dimensions.

About CPEC:           

  • The CPEC is the flagship project of the multi-billion dollar Belt and Road Initiative (BRI), a pet project of Chinese President Xi Jinping, aimed at enhancing Beijing’s influence around the world through China- funded infrastructure projects.
  • The 3,000 km-long China–Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) consisting of highways, railways, and pipelines is the latest irritant in the India–China relationship.
  • CPEC eventually aims at linking the city of Gwadar in South Western Pakistan to China’s North Western region Xinjiang through a vast network of highways and railways.
  • The proposed project will be financed by heavily-subsidised loans that will be disbursed to the Government of Pakistan by Chinese banking giants such as Exim Bank of China, China Development Bank, and the Industrial and Commercial Bank of China.

But, why is India concerned?

  • It passes through PoK. Any Indian participation would inextricably be linked to the country’s legitimate claims on PoK.
  • CPEC rests on a Chinese plan to secure and shorten its supply lines through Gwadar with an enhanced presence in the Indian Ocean. Hence, it is widely believed that upon CPEC’s fruition, an extensive Chinese presence will undermine India’s influence in the Indian Ocean.
  • It is also being contended that if CPEC were to successfully transform the Pakistan economy that could be a “red rag” for India which will remain at the receiving end of a wealthier and stronger Pakistan.
  • Besides, India shares a great deal of trust deficit with China and Pakistan and has a history of conflict with both. As a result, even though suggestions to re-approach the project pragmatically have been made, no advocate has overruled the principle strands of contention that continue to mar India’s equations with China and Pakistan.

Sources: the Hindu.

13. Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS)

India will Chair Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS) from 1st January 2018. It was handed Chairmanship by the European Union during KPCS Plenary 2018, which was held in Brussels, Belgium.

What is the Kimberley Process?

  • The Kimberley Process is an international certification scheme that regulates trade in rough diamonds. It aims to prevent the flow of conflict diamonds, while helping to protect legitimate trade in rough diamonds.
  • The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS) outlines the rules that govern the trade in rough diamonds.
  • The KP is not, strictly speaking, an international organisation: it has no permanent offices or permanent staff. It relies on the contributions – under the principle of ‘burden-sharing’ – of participants, supported by industry and civil society observers. Neither can the KP be considered as an international agreement from a legal perspective, as it is implemented through the national legislations of its participants.

What are Conflict diamonds?

  1. “Conflict Diamonds” means rough diamonds used by rebel movements or their allies to finance conflict aimed at undermining legitimate governments.
  2. It is also described in the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) resolutions. 

India is founding member of KPCS. Who is involved?

The Kimberley Process (KP) is open to all countries that are willing and able to implement its requirements. The KP has 54 participants, representing 81 countries, with the European Union and its Member States counting as a single participant.

KP members account for approximately 99.8% of the global production of rough diamonds. In addition, the World Diamond Council, representing the international diamond industry, and civil society organisations, such as Partnership-Africa Canada, participate in the KP and has played a major role since its outset.

How does the Kimberley Process work?

  • The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS) imposes extensive requirements on its members to enable them to certify shipments of rough diamonds as ‘conflict-free’ and prevent conflict diamonds from entering the legitimate trade.
  • Under the terms of the KPCS, participating states must put in place national legislation and institutions; export, import and internal controls; and also commit to transparency and the exchange of statistical data.
  • Participants can only legally trade with other participants who have also met the minimum requirements of the scheme, and international shipments of rough diamonds must be accompanied by a KP certificate guaranteeing that they are conflict-free.

Sources: the Hindu.

14.  The Union Environment Minister Dr. Harsh Vardhan participated in the inauguration of Indian Pavilion at the 24thmeeting of Conference of Parties (COP-24) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) held at Katowice, Poland.

•          Theme of India Pavilion – “One World One Sun One Grid”.

Minister’s Statement:

  1. The Ministry has launched a nationwide campaign in preserving and protecting the environment called the Green Good Deeds Movement.
  2. This campaign was prepared to inspire, encourage and involve each and every individual of the society to realize people’s participation in accomplishing the goals.
  3. India’s leadership in global climate action has been recognized and Prime Minister Narendra Modi has been bestowed with “Champion of Earth  Award” this year by the United Nations in promoting International Solar Alliance and resolve to make India plastic free by 2022.

UNFCCC:

• UNFCCC is an international environmental treaty, entered into force on 21 March 1994. Now, it has near-universal membership. The UNFCCC has 197 parties as of December 2015.

Aim of the UNFCCC:

• To prevent ‘dangerous’ human interference with the climate system.

Source: PIB

15. What is the ‘Champions of the Earth award’?

  • It was launched in 2005.
  • “Champions of the Earth”, the UN’s highest environmental honour, celebrates outstanding figures from the public and private sectors and from civil society whose actions have had a transformative positive impact on the environment.
  • In 2018, the award was received by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and French President Emmanuel Macron for their leadership in promotion of solar energy.

What is COP 24?

  • COP24 is the informal   name   for   the   24th Conference of the Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
  • The COP takes decisions to ensure effective implementation of the provisions of the Convention and regularly reviews the implementation of these provisions.

16. Maldives has applied to rejoin the Commonwealth.

Two years ago, the country’s former leader Yameen withdrew the Maldives from the Commonwealth after it mounted pressure on him to protect human rights and ensure the rule of law amid a ferocious crackdown on dissent.

About Commonwealth of Nations

  • The Commonwealth of Nations, at one time known as British Commonwealth, is an organisation of fifty three states that were principally below the colonial rule of British Government. They came into existence with the proclamation of sovereignty of the state from the colonial rule of British Empire and were later given self-governance.
  • It proclaims that the Commonwealth nations are “free and equal.” The insignia of this Commonwealth Association is Queen Elizabeth II who is considered the Supreme of the Commonwealth nations.
  • The member states of the commonwealth are not legally liable or bound to each other. They are rather united by language, history, culture, likeness of the democracy, human rights and the rule of law.
  • Their values are listed down within the Commonwealth Charter and the hands of harmony towards the member states are extended by the Commonwealth Games held every four years.
  • Former British mandates that did not become members of the Commonwealth are Egypt, Transjordan, Iraq, British Palestine, Sudan, British Somaliland, Oman, Kuwait, Bahrain, Qatar, and the United Arab Emirates.

Key facts:

  • Former name — British Commonwealth.
  • Composition: intergovernmental organisation of 53 member states that are mostly former territories of the British Empire.
  • It operates by intergovernmental consensus of the member states.
  • Established in 1949 by the London Declaration.
  • Structure: Head of the Commonwealth — Queen Elizabeth II is the Head of the Commonwealth. The position is symbolic.

Sources: the Hindu.   

17. The fourth Partners’ Forum was recently held in New Delhi. It was hosted by the Government of India, in association with the Partnership for Maternal, Newborn and Child Health (PMNCH).

  • The previous chapters were held in Johannesburg, South Africa (2014), New Delhi, India (2010) and Dar es Salaam, Tanzania (2007). This is the second time India is hosting the Partners’ Forum.

What is Partners’ Forum?

  • Partners’ Forum is a global health partnership launched in September 2005 to accelerate efforts to reduce child and maternal mortality, improve adolescent, child, newborn and maternal health.
  • An alliance: This partnership is an alliance of more than 1,000 plus members, across 10 constituencies in 92 countries: academic, research and teaching institutions; donors and foundations; health care professionals; multilateral agencies; non-governmental organizations; partner countries; global financing mechanisms and the private sector.
  • PMNCH’s mission is to support the global health community to work successfully towards achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly the health related SDGs.
  • The programme of the Partners’ Forum will be framed around the objectives of the Global Strategy of Survive – Thrive – Transform.

Sources: toi.

18. Japan is considering pulling out of the International Whaling Commission (IWC)

Such a move would spark international criticism against Japan over whale conservation and deepen the divide between anti- and pro-whaling countries.

Tokyo currently observes the moratorium but exploits a loophole to kill hundreds of whales every year for “scientific purposes” as well as to sell the meat.

About IWC

  • It is an international body set up under International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling (ICRW).
  • ICRW governs the commercial, scientific, and aboriginal subsistence whaling practices of fifty-nine member nations. It was signed in Washington, D.C., United States, in 1946.
  • Headquarters — Impington, near Cambridge, England
  • In 1986, it adopted a moratorium on commercial whaling. This ban still continues.

Whale sanctuary:

  • In 1994, it created the Southern Ocean Whale Sanctuary surrounding the continent of Antarctica. Here, the IWC has banned all types of commercial whaling.
  • Only two such sanctuaries have been designated by IWC till date. Another is Indian Ocean Whale Sanctuary by the tiny island nation of the Seychelles.
  • Objectives:
  • To provide for the proper conservation of whale stocks.
  • For orderly development of the whaling industry.

Sources: the Hindu.

19. What is Angel Tax and who are angel investors?

Over the past few weeks, several startups have reportedly been receiving notices from the I-T department asking them to clear taxes on the angel funding they raised, and in some cases, levying a penalty for not paying Angel Tax.

However, this is not the first time that this issue has come up. Startups have been raising the issue of Angel Tax for years, requesting the government to do away with it.

What is Angel Tax?

  • Angel Tax is a 30% tax that is levied on the funding received by startups from an external investor. However, this 30% tax is levied when startups receive angel funding at a valuation higher than its ‘fair market value’. It is counted as income to the company and is taxed.
  • The tax, under section 56(2) (viib), was introduced by in 2012 to fight money laundering. The stated rationale was that bribes and commissions could be disguised as angel investments to escape taxes. But given the possibility of this section being used to harass genuine startups, it was rarely invoked.

Why is Angel tax problematic?

  • There is no definitive or objective way to measure the ‘fair market value’ of a startup. Investors pay a premium for the idea and the business potential at the angel funding stage. However, tax officials seem to be assessing the value of the startups based on their net asset value at one point. Several startups say that they find it difficult to justify the higher valuation to tax officials.
  • In a notification dated May 24, 2018, the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) had exempted angel investors from the Angel Tax clause subject to fulfilment of certain terms and conditions, as specified by the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP). However, despite the exemption notification, there are a host of challenges that startups are still faced with, in order to get this exemption.

Sources: the Hindu.

20. Indian Ports Association (IPA) under the guidance of Ministry of Shipping launched the Port Community System ‘PCS1x’.

  • The platform has the potential to revolutionize maritime trade in India and bring it at par with global best practices and pave the way to improve the Ease of Doing Business world ranking and Logistics Performance Index (LPI) ranks.

About PCS 1x:

  • ‘PCS 1x’ is a cloud based new generation technology, with user-friendly interface.
  • This system seamlessly integrates stakeholders from the maritime trade on a single platform.
  • The platform offers value added services such as notification engine, workflow, mobile application, track and trace, better user interface, better security features, improved inclusion by offering dashboard for those with no IT capability.
  • Another major feature is the deployment of a world class state of the art payment aggregator solution which removes dependency on bank specific payment eco system.

Other Features:

  1. It is an initiative that supports green initiatives by reducing dependency on paper.
  2. It has been developed indigenously and is a part of the ‘Make in India’ and ‘Digital India’        

Indian Ports Association (IPA):

  • IPA was constituted in 1966 under Societies Registration Act, with the idea of fostering growth and development of all Major Ports which are under the supervisory control of Ministry of Shipping.

Sources: the Hindu.

Important Study Notes IAS Prelims 2019

1. HORN BILL FESTIVAL  

• The Union Home Minister inaugurated the hugely popular Hornbill Festival 2018 in Kohima, coinciding with the Formation Day of Nagaland.

• Hornbill Festival offers unique opportunity for states to interact and exhibit their cultural heritage in the true spirit of “Ek Bharat, Shreshtha Bharat”.

• It is also called the “Festival of Festivals”.

• The festival pays tribute to Hornbill; the most admired and revered bird for the Nagas for its qualities of alertness and grandeur.

• It is organized by State Tourism and Art & Culture Departments and also supported by Union Government.

• Hornbill Festival was established on 1st December 1963 and was inaugurated by the then President Dr. S Radhakrishnan.

2. Mayurbhanj Chhau

• Mayurbhanj Chhau dance form has a long history. Originally a tribal dance, which originated from the forests of Mayurbhanj, Odisha in the 18th century, it got the status of a martial art form in the 19th century.

• Slowly & steadily Mayurbhanj Chhau left its martial character and mellowed. Under the

Royal Patronage it received proper attention & direction and showed a bright future and utmost perfection as a dance of excellent style in the field of eastern art and culture of India.

3. The Khyber Pakhtunkhwa province in Pakistan is planning to construct a heritage park in Elum Valley, which carries a historical significance to both the Hindus and the Buddhists, to promote religious tourism.

• Under the project, the Elum Valley would be made a safe abode for the followers of Hinduism and Buddhism and as well as for tourists visiting the heritage park.

• Under the project, fencing of the entire Elum Valley would be done and a separate track would be constructed in the heritage park.

About Elum Valley

• Elum Valley is located between the Swat and Buner districts in the province; Elum Valley has been a site of divinity and pilgrimage for both the Hindu and the Buddhist communities.

• According to Hindu belief, Lord Ram spent time meditating there during his 14 years of exile, while Buddhists believe it to be the site where a previous incarnation of Lord Buddha gave up his life.

4. Prayagraj Kumbh Mela 2019, a religious fair that will be held from January 15, 2019 to March 4, 2019.

• The Kumbh Mela (the festival of the sacred pitcher) is anchored in Hindu mythology. It is the largest public gathering and collective act of faith, anywhere in the world. The Mela draws tens of millions of pilgrims over the course of approximately 55 auspicious days to bathe at the sacred confluence of the Ganga, the Yamuna, and the mystical Sarasvati. Primarily, this congregation includes Ascetics, Saints, Sadhus, Sadhvis, Kalpvasis, and Pilgrims from all walks of life.

Celebration:     

• Kumbh Mela is a religious  pilgrimage  that  is celebrated  four  times  over  a  course  of  12  years.  The geographical location of Kumbh Mela spans over four locations in India and the Mela site keeps rotating between one of the four pilgrimage places on four sacred rivers as listed below:

1. Haridwar on the Ganges in Uttarakhand.

2. Ujjain on the Shipra in Madhya Pradesh.

3. Nashik on the Godavari in Maharashtra.

4. Prayagraj at the confluence of the Ganges, the Yamuna, and the mythical Sarasvati in Uttar Pradesh.

Selection of site

• Each site’s celebration is based on a distinct set of astrological positions of the Sun, the Moon, and the Jupiter. The celebrations occur at the exact moment when these positions are fully occupied, as it is considered to be the holiest time in Hinduism.

5. Adopt a Heritage Project

 The government recently handed over a Memorandum of Understanding to Resbird Technologies under the ‘Adopt a Heritage’ project for the development of a mobile audio guide application for five iconic sites.

The five iconic sites are as follows:

• Rajasthan – Amer Fort.

• Assam – Kaziranga.

• Goa – Colva Beach.

• Kerala – Kumarakom.

• Bihar – Mahabodhi Temple.

Significance

• The shortlisted agencies would become ‘Monument Mitras’ through the innovative concept of ‘Vision bidding’, which will give them the opportunity to associate their CSR activities with a heritage site if the Vision Bid is selected.

About a Heritage Project:

• The ‘Adopt A Heritage: Apni Dharohar, Apni Pehchan’ of Ministry of Tourism was launched on World Tourism Day i.e. 27th September, 2017. This project is a key initiative of Ministry of Tourism in close collaboration with Ministry of Culture and Archeological Survey of India (ASI), to develop the heritage sites / monuments and making them tourist-friendly to enhance the tourism potential and their cultural importance in a planned and phased manner.

• The project plans to entrust heritage sites/monuments and other tourist sites to private sector companies, public sector companies and individuals for the development of tourist amenities. The project aims to develop synergy among all partners.

Monument Mitras: Successful bidders selected for adopting heritage sites / monuments by the Oversight and Vision Committee shall be called as Monument Mitras. The basic and advanced amenities of the tourist destinations would be provided by them. They would also look after the operations and the maintenance of the amenities. The ‘Monument Mitras’ would associate pride with their CSR activities.

Aim of the Project

• The aim of the project is to provide basic amenities that include cleanliness, public conveniences, safe drinking water and ease of access for tourists, signages, illumination, Wi-fi etc.

Funding of the Project:

• The project envisages involvement of Private/Public Companies/Organizations and Individuals to adopt Monuments, Natural Heritage Sites and other Tourist Sites, primarily under CSR. No fund is given by Ministry of Tourism.

6. Buddhist site museum has been inaugurated at Lalitgiri in Odisha. Excavations at Lalitgiri have yielded ancient seals and inscriptions.

Located in Cuttack district, it will be the third site museum of the Bhubaneswar circle of the Archaeological Survey of India after Ratnagiri and Konark.

About Lalitgiri:

• It is a major Buddhist complex in the Indian state of Odisha comprising major stupas, ‘esoteric’ Buddha images, and monasteries (viharas), one of the oldest sites in the region.

• Together with the Ratnagiri and Udayagiri sites, Lalitagiri is part of Pushpagiri University located on top of hills of the same names. The three complexes are known as the “Diamond Triangle”. Tantric Buddhism was practiced at this site.

• Excavations at Lalitgiri have yielded the remains of four monasteries, showing cultural continuity from the post-Mauryan period till the 13th century CE. The centre of attraction is a relic casket containing corporal remains found inside the Mahastupta.

Location: It is hemmed between the Parabhadi and Landa sandstone hills in the standalone Asian hill range. It is situated in the Mahanga Tahsil in Cuttack district.

7. Noted sitar player Manju Mehta has been conferred with the ‘Tansen Samman’ for 2018 by the Madhya Pradesh government for her contribution in the field of music.

Key facts:

• The prestigious ‘National Tansen Samman’ is a musical award conferred to the exponents of Hindustani music. This award carries a cash prize of Rs. 2 Lakh along with a memento.

• The Tansen Music Festival is organised every year by Madhya Pradesh culture department in the memory of Tansen, one of the greatest artists in Indian history. It is held annually in Gwalior.

About Tansen:

• He was a prominent figure of Hindustani classical music.

• He began his career and spent most of his adult life in the court and patronage of the Hindu king of Rewa, Raja Ramchandra Singh (1555–1592), where Tansen’s musical abilities and studies gained widespread fame.

• This reputation brought him to the attention of the Mughal Emperor Akbar, who sent messengers to Raja Ramchandra Singh, requesting Tansen to join the musicians at the Mughal court.

• Akbar considered him as a Navaratnas (nine jewels), and gave him the title Mian, an honorific, meaning learned man.

• Tansen is remembered for his epic Dhrupad compositions, creating several new ragas, as well as for writing two classic books on music Sri Ganesh Stotra and Sangita Sara.

8. The government recently released a Commemorative Postage Stamp on Rajkumar Shukla.

• Department of Posts has been paying a tribute to eminent personalities who have made a significant contribution to public life especially freedom fighters. With this stamp, the Department has released 43 issues in the current calendar year.

Who was Rajkumar Shukla?

• In drawing the attention of Mahatma Gandhi to the plight of peasants suffering under an oppressive system established by European indigo planters in Champaran, Bihar, Rajkumar Shukla made a seminal contribution culminating in the launch of the Champaran Satyagraha in 1917 by Mahatma Gandhi.

About the Champaran Satyagraha:

• It was undertaken in the erstwhile undivided Champaran district in northern Bihar. Mahatma Gandhi went there in April, 1917 on learning about the abuses suffered by the cultivators of the district, forced into growing indigo by British planters/estate owners.

• Gandhi was so thoroughly persuaded by Rajkumar Shukla, an indigo cultivator from Champaran that he decided to investigate into the matter.

• Gandhi’s method of inquiry at Champaran was based on surveys by the volunteers. The respondents who willingly gave statements should sign the papers or give thumb impressions.

• For those unwilling to participate, the reasons must be recorded by the volunteers. The principal volunteers in this survey were mostly lawyers like Babu Rajendra Prasad, Dharnidhar Prasad, Gorakh Prasad, Ramnawami Prasad, Sambhusaran and Anugraha Narain Sinha.

Outcomes:

In June 1917, the British administration declared the formation of a formal inquiry committee with Gandhi aboard. The Government accepted almost all its recommendations. The principal recommendation accepted was complete abolition of Tinkathia system. It was a major blow to the British planters who became resentful. But they could not prevent the passage of Champaran Agrarian Act in Bihar & Orissa Legislative Council on March 4, 1918.

• It was in Champaran that Gandhi first met J. B. Kripalani and Rajendra Prasad; and it was through his work in Champaran that Gandhi attracted the attention (and admiration) of Vallabhbhai Patel and Mahadev Desai.

9. The government is planning to release the commemorative coin and postage stamp in memory of Paika Rebellion.

About Paika rebellion:

Two-hundred years ago in 1817, a valiant uprising of soldiers led by Buxi Jagabandhu (Bidyadhar Mohapatra) took place in Khurda of Odisha. This is known as Paika rebellion.

Reason for the revolt:                                                          

• The Paikas were the traditional land-owning militia of Odisha and served as warriors. When armies of the East India Company overran most of Odisha in 1803, the Raja of Khurda lost his primacy and the power and prestige of the Paikas went on a decline. The British were not comfortable with these aggressive, warlike new subjects and set up a commission under Walter Ewer to look into the issue.

• The commission recommended that the hereditary rent-free lands granted to the Paikas be taken over by the British administration and this recommendation was zealously adhered to. They revolted against the British.

• However, the rebellion had several other underlying causes – like the rise in the price of salt, abolition of the cowrie currency for payment of taxes and an overtly extortionist land revenue policy.

• Although initially the Company struggled to respond they managed to put down the rebellion by May 1817. Many of the Paik leaders were hung or deported. Jagabandhu surrendered in 1825.

10. Goa recently celebrated the 57th Liberation Day. On this day, Goa attained independence from the 450-years of Portuguese rule.

About Operation Vijay:

• Portuguese were the first ones to colonize parts of India and were the last to leave. The Portuguese invaded Goa in the year 1510.

• Operation Vijay began on December 17, 1961, when the then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru ordered the invasion. With a force of almost 30,000, the Indian attack overpowered the ill-prepared Portuguese 3,000 member army. With minimal bloodshed, the attack was successful and was carried forward to retrieve the other Portuguese-controlled areas, Daman and Diu.

• At this point on December 18, the Portuguese Governor General Vassalo da Silva gave up control of the Union Territory of Goa, Daman and Diu. Three days after the attack began; Goa finally became a part of India.

Referendum and Statehood:

• The Goa Opinion Poll was a referendum held in the state of Goa, India, on 16 January 1967, to decide the future of the Union Territory of Goa, Daman and Diu within the Indian Union.

• Although popularly called an opinion poll, it was in fact, a referendum, as the results of the poll were binding on the government of India.

• The referendum offered the people of Goa a choice between continuing as a union territory and merging with the state of Maharashtra.

• It is the only referendum to have been held in independent India.

• The people of Goa voted against the merger and Goa continued to be a union territory. Subsequently, in 1987, Goa became a full-fledged state within the Indian Union.

11. Who are Lingayats?

Lingayats are followers of 12th-century social reformer Basavanna and his Vachana (verses) philosophy.

• Their beliefs, practices and faith are different.

• Veerashaivas worship Lord Shiva, the one mentioned in Hindu mythology.

• However, the Shiva that Basavanna referred to in his Vachanas (verses) is not the Hindu god Shiva but the ishtalinga (formless God), which people of the community wear around their neck.

12. Who are Veerashaivas?

• Veerashaivas are a sub-sect of Lingayats and ardent followers of Lord Shiva. They preceded Basavanna, the founder of Lingayatism.

• Veerashaivism has its roots in the Vedas and Agamas, and Veerashaivas do not worship any god other than Shiva; they can be found spread across Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

13. Who is Basavanna?

Basavanna was a 12th-century social reformer. The revolution that Basavanna led came years after the Buddha. It was Basavanna and his contemporary Sharanas who launched a very strong spiritual, social and religious rebellion against Brahminical hegemony. Basavanna had declared that “work is worship”.

• He gave women equal status in his movement through the Vachanas (verses). In order to take the social movement closer to the people, Basavanna and all the other Sharanas voiced their concerns in simple Kannada Vachanas so that even lay people could comprehend them.

14. World economic forum has released the 2018 gender gap index.

• Iceland has been ranked as Number 1. It is followed by Norway, Sweden and Finland.

• Other countries in top 10 include Nicaragua, Rwanda, New Zealand, Philippines, Ireland and Namibia.

• As per the report, at the current speed it will take about 108 years to close the overall gender gap in the world. And after 202 years there will be parity in the workplace in the world at the current rate of change.

Syria, Iraq, Pakistan and finally Yemen showed the biggest overall gender gaps of the countries surveyed.

Performance of India:

India has been ranked at 108.

• It has recorded improvement in wage equality for similar work and has fully closed its tertiary education gender gap for the first time.

• It ranks 142nd out of 149 countries in the economic opportunity and participation sub index.

• India continues to rank third-lowest in the world on health and survival, remaining the world’s least- improved country on this sub index over the past decade.

• India has slightly improved in WEF’s wage equality for similar work indicator, where it stood at 72nd place. The country has also closed its tertiary education enrolment gap for the first time in 2018 and has managed to keep its primary and secondary gaps closed for the third year running.

Interestingly, India has the second-largest artificial intelligence (AI) workforce but one of the largest AI gender gaps, with only 22% of roles filled by women.

Sources: the Hindu.

15. A three-state field-level campaign on Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) is being organised by the Union Government from the first week of January 2019.

As a part of the campaign, over 900 cultural programmes across various districts of Maharashtra, 100 programmes in Goa and 30 programmes in UT of Dadra & Nagar Haveli would be held.

About BBBP:

Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) Scheme was launched in January, 2015. The scheme is aimed at promoting gender equality and the significance of educating girls.

• The Scheme is targeted at improving the Child Sex Ratio through multi sectoral interventions including prevention of gender biased sex selection and promoting girls’ education and her holistic empowerment.

• It is a tri-ministerial effort of Ministries of Women and Child Development, Health & Family Welfare and Human Resource Development.

Significance and the need for scheme:

• The trend of decline in the Child Sex Ratio (CSR) has been unabated since 1961. The decline from 945 in 1991 to 927 in 2001 and further to 918 in 2011 is alarming. The social construct discrimination against girls on one hand, easy availability, affordability and subsequent misuse of diagnostic tools on the other hand; have been critical in increasing Sex Selective Elimination of girls leading to low Child Sex Ratio.

• Child Sex Ratio is defined as number of girls per 1000 of boys between 0-6 years of age. Hence, a decline in the CSR is a major indicator of women disempowerment. The ratio reflects both, pre-birth discrimination manifested through gender biased sex selection and post birth discrimination against girls.

16. The Lok Sabha has passed the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2018, also known as, Triple Talaq Bill.

The Bill makes instant triple talaq void and illegal. It seeks to make the practice of instant triple talaq a punishable offence with imprisonment of up to three years.

A brief History

• The case dates back to 2016 when the Supreme Court had sought assistance from the then Attorney General Mukul Rohatgi on pleas challenging the constitutional validity of “triple talaq”, “Nikah halala” and “polygamy”, to assess whether Muslim women face gender discrimination in cases of divorce.

• Opposing the practice of triple talaq, the Centre told the top court that there is a need to re-look at these practices on grounds of gender equality and secularism.

• The Supreme Court later announced the setting up of a five-judge constitutional bench to hear and deliberate on the challenges against the practice of ‘triple talaq, Nikah halala’ and polygamy.

• The issue gained political momentum on March 2017 when the All India Muslim Personal Law Board (AIMPLB) told the Supreme Court that the issue of triple talaq falls outside the judiciary’s realm and that these issues should not be touched by the court.

• However, on August 22 this year, the Supreme Court set aside the decade-old practice of instant triple talaq saying it was violative of Article 14 and 21 of the Indian Constitution.

A Bill in this regard:

• In September, the government had proposed the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill in the Parliament and sought to make triple talaq a punishable offence under the law.

• At first, the Bill was passed in the Lok Sabha but it failed to secure a majority in the Rajya Sabha. The Bill was postponed till the winter session of Parliament. Following this, an ordinance was issued by the government after the bill failed to get cleared in Rajya Sabha amid protests by the Opposition.

Key provisions of the Bill:

• The Bill makes all declaration of talaq, including in written or electronic form, to be void (i.e. not enforceable in law) and illegal.

Definition: It defines talaq as talaq-e-biddat or any other similar form of talaq pronounced by a Muslim man resulting in instant and irrevocable divorce. Talaq-e-biddat refers to the practice under Muslim personal laws where pronouncement of the word ‘talaq’ thrice in one sitting by a Muslim man to his wife results in an instant and irrevocable divorce.

Offence and penalty: The Bill makes declaration of talaq a cognizable offence, attracting up to three years’ imprisonment with a fine. (A cognizable offence is one for which a police officer may arrest an accused person without warrant.) The offence will be cognizable only if information relating to the offence is given by: (i) the married woman (against whom talaq has been declared), or (ii) any person related to her by blood or marriage.

• The Bill provides that the Magistrate may grant bail to the accused. The bail may be granted only after hearing the woman (against whom talaq has been pronounced), and if the Magistrate is satisfied that there are reasonable grounds for granting bail.

• The offence may be compounded by the Magistrate upon the request of the woman (against whom talaq has been declared). Compounding refers to the procedure where the two sides agree to stop legal proceedings, and settle the dispute. The terms and conditions of the compounding of the offence will be determined by the Magistrate.

• Allowance: A Muslim woman, against whom talaq has been declared, is entitled to seek subsistence allowance from her husband for herself and for her dependent children. The amount of the allowance will be determined by the Magistrate.

Custody: A Muslim woman, against whom such talaq has been declared, is entitled to seek custody of her minor children. The manner of custody will be determined by the Magistrate.

17. Mahila Police Volunteers

The Ministry of Women and Child Development in collaboration with the Ministry of Home Affairs has envisaged engagement of Mahila Police Volunteers (MPVs) in the States and Union Territories who will act as a link between police and community and help women in distress.

• All Chief Secretaries of States/UTs have been requested to adopt this initiative in their respective States.

Background:

Haryana is the first state to adopt the initiative at Karnal and Mahendragarh District on a pilot basis under Nirbhaya Fund during the financial year 2016-2017.

• Further, the proposals of Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Mizoram, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Madhya Pradesh have also been approved for implementation of MPVs.

About the scheme:

• Originally conceived by the Union Ministry of Women & Child Development, Mahila Police Volunteer is a joint initiative with the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.

• The Mahila Police Volunteers scheme envisages creation of a link between the police authorities and the local communities in villages through police volunteers who will be women specially trained for this purpose.

• Their primary job will be to keep an eye on situations where women in the village are harassed or their rights and entitlements are denied or their development is prevented.

• In order to provide a link between police and community and facilitate women in distress, one Mahila Police Volunteer (MPV) is envisaged per Gram Panchayat across the country. MPV must be atleast 21 years old and class 12th these will be selected through a laid out procedure from among the empowered, responsible, socially aware women who will facilitate police outreach on gender concerns.

18. Ujjwala Sanitary Napkins initiative

Ujjwala Sanitary Napkins initiative has been launched by three oil marketing companies – IOCL, BPCL and HPCL

Key highlights of the scheme:

The mission, which forms part of the CSR initiative of OMCs in Odisha, is aimed to educate women on female hygiene and health, improve accessibility to low cost eco-friendly sanitary pads and boost rural employment and economy.

• The three companies will set up 100 manufacturing units at the Common Service Centres (CSC)covering 93 Blocks across 30 districts of Odisha at an estimated cost of ₹2.94 crore.

• At least 10 Ujjwala beneficiary women will get employment at each CSC. Each facility will have a capacity to produce 1,200-2,000 pads per day and will have a sterilisation room to ensure that the napkins are sterilised before they are packed for use by rural women.

• The CSCs are also being provided with raw material, enough to make 45,000-50,000 pads. These napkins will be priced at ₹40 per pack, each containing eight pads.

• The Ujjwala pads will be made of virgin wood pulp sheet, non-woven white sheet and a gel sheet which are all biodegradable in nature and will leave minimal carbon footprint.

19. One of the most active volcanoes of Indonesia, Mount Soputan volcano, erupted recently. It   is located on the Sulawesi Island in Indonesia.

Background:

 Indonesia sits along the Ring of Fire region, an area where most of the world’s volcanic eruptions occur. The Ring of Fire has seen a large amount of activity in recent days, but Indonesia has been hit hard due to its position on a large grid of tectonic plates.

Vulnerable: Indonesia is at the meeting point of three major continental plates – the Pacific, the Eurasian and the Indo-Australian plates – and the much smaller Philippine plate. As a result, several volcanoes on the Indonesian islands are prone to erupting, with Bali’s Mt Agung taking the headlines last year and in 2018. Indonesia is home to roughly 400 volcanoes, out of which 127 are currently active, accounting for about a third of the world’s active volcanoes.

What is the Ring of Fire?

• The Ring of Fire is a Pacific region home to over 450 volcanoes, including three of the world’s four most active volcanoes – Mount St. Helens in the USA, Mount Fuji in Japan and Mount Pinatubo in the Philippines. It is also sometimes called the circum-Pacific belt.

• Around 90% of the world’s earthquakes occur in the Ring of Fire, and 80% of the world’s largest earthquakes. The 40, 0000 kilometre horse-shoe-shaped ring loops from New Zealand to Chile, passing through the coasts of Asia and the Americas on the way.

Location:

• It stretches along the Pacific Ocean coastlines, where the Pacific Plate grinds against other, smaller tectonic plates that form the Earth’s crust – such as the Philippine Sea plate and the Cocos and Nazca Plates that line the edge of the Pacific Ocean.

Risk:

• The people most at risk from activity in the Ring of Fire are in the US west coast, Chile, Japan and island nations including the Solomon Islands. These areas are most at risk because they lie on so-called subduction zones – which are boundaries that mark the collision between two of the planet’s tectonic plates.

How was the Ring of Fire formed?

• The Ring of Fire is the result from subduction of oceanic tectonic plates beneath lighter continental plates. The area where these tectonic plates meet is called a subduction zone.

Why does the Ring of Fire trigger earthquakes?

• The world’s deepest earthquakes happen in subduction zone areas as tectonic plates scrape against each other – and the Ring of Fire has the world’s biggest concentration of subduction zones.

• As energy is released from the earth’s molten core, it forces tectonic plates to move and they crash up against each other, causing friction. The friction causes a build-up of energy and when this energy is finally released it causes an earthquake. If this happens at sea it can cause devastating tsunamis.

• Tectonic plates usually only move on average a few centimetres each year, but when an earthquake strikes, they speed up massively and can move at several metres per second.

Sources: the Hindu.

20. Winter Solstice 2018: This year the Winter Solstice on December 21st

What is Winter Solstice?

• The winter solstice happens every year when the Sun reaches its most southerly declination of -23.5 degrees. In other words, it is when the North Pole is tilted farthest away from the Sun, delivering the fewest hours of sunlight of the year.

• The Sun is directly overhead of the Tropic of Capricorn in the Southern Hemisphere during the December solstice and is closer to the horizon than at any other time in the year.

• The day after the winter solstice marks the beginning of lengthening days, leading up to the summer solstice in June.

• In the Southern Hemisphere, the opposite is true. Dawn comes early, and dusk comes late. The sun is high and the shortest noontime shadow of the year happens there. In the Southern Hemisphere, people will experience their longest day and shortest night.

Does the winter solstice always occur on December 21st?

• While it more often than not falls on December 21st, the exact time of the solstice varies each year. In the Northern hemisphere the winter solstice is the shortest day of the year, because it is tilted away from the sun, and receives the least amount of sunlight on that day.

• However, the earliest sunset does not occur on the solstice, because of the slight discrepancy between

‘Solar time’ and the clocks we use.

• The shortest day of the year often falls on December 21st, but the modern calendar of 365 days a year

– With an extra day every four years – does not correspond exactly to the solar year of 365.2422 days.

• The solstice can happen on December 20, 21, 22 or 23, though December 20 or 23 solstices are rare. The last December 23 solstice was in 1903 and will not happen again until 2303.

What does ‘solstice’ mean?

•             The term ‘solstice’ derives from the Latin word ‘solstitium’, meaning ‘Sun standing still’.

•             On this day the Sun seems to stand still at the Tropic of Capricorn and then reverses its direction as it reaches its southernmost position as seen from the Earth.

•             Some prefer the more Teutonic term ‘sunturn’ to describe the event.

21. NATIONAL JUDICIAL APPOINTMENTS COMMISSION (NJAC) ACT       

The Supreme Court has dismissed the review petition challenging the striking down of a Constitutional Amendment that sought to give the executive a say in the appointment of top judges on grounds of delay and lack of merit.

Background:

• On 16 October 2015, in a 4-1 majority verdict, the Supreme Court held that both the Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act, 2014, and the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act, 2014, were unconstitutional as it would undermine the independence of the judiciary.

• The majority said the two laws affect the independence of the judiciary, and judicial appointments, among other things, should be protected from executive control.

About NJAC and the Act:

• NJAC is a body responsible for the appointment and transfer of judges to the higher judiciary in India. JAC Bill sought to replace the collegium system of appointing the judges of Supreme Court and 24 High Courts with judicial appointments commission wherein the executive will have a say in appointing the judges.

• A new article, Article 124A, (which provides for the composition of the NJAC) was to be inserted into the Constitution.

• The Bill provided for the procedure to be followed by the NJAC for recommending persons for appointment as Chief Justice of India and other Judges of the Supreme Court (SC), and Chief Justice and other Judges of High Courts (HC).

According to the bill the commission will consist of the following members:

• Chief Justice of India (Chairperson, ex officio)

• Two other senior judges of the Supreme Court next to the Chief Justice of India – ex officio

• The Union Minister of Law and Justice, ex-officio

• Two eminent persons (to be nominated by a committee consisting of the Chief Justice of India, Prime Minister of India and the Leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha or where there is no such Leader of Opposition, then, the Leader of single largest Opposition Party in Lok Sabha), provided that of the two eminent persons, one person would be from the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes or OBC or minority communities or a woman. The eminent persons shall be nominated for a period of three years and shall not be eligible for re-nomination.

22. Aadhar, Money Bill.

• The review petition has been filed against the September 26 verdict of the five-judge constitution bench which had said there was nothing in the Aadhaar Act that violated right to privacy of an individual. The court had also upheld the passage of the Aadhaar Bill as a Money Bill by the Lok Sabha.

Background:

• While declaring the scheme as constitutionally valid, the top court had struck down some of its provisions including its linking with bank accounts, mobile phones and school admissions. The constitution bench had held that Aadhaar would remain mandatory for filing of Income Tax returns and allotment of Permanent Account Number (PAN).

Need for review- demands by the petitioner

• The petition claimed that the Aadhaar program, which had been in existence prior to the enactment of the Aadhaar  Act,  2016,  had  itself  become an  “instrument  of  transfer  of  sensitive  personal  data” belonging to citizens to foreign entities acting as biometric service providers at a time when the UIDAI in 2010 had no cyber or technical infrastructure to store such information.

• This, the petition claimed, poses a massive national security risk, more so when, according to a Press Information Bureau notification, 100 crore enrolments had already taken place before April 4, 2016.

What was the contention against Aadhaar before the Supreme Court?

The main questions raised during the hearing on Aadhaar were:

• Is the Aadhaar Act, 2016, constitutionally valid given that it was passed in Parliament as a Money Bill?

• Why does every citizen need one identity proof — a unique identification number — to acquire government benefits? Can’t this be done using other documents, like ration card or passport?

• Does Aadhaar take away our right to privacy — upheld as a fundamental right by a nine-judge Constitution bench of the court in August last year.

• What happens if Aadhaar data becomes a tool for mass surveillance by the state, as the movement and activities of users can be tracked by collecting metadata?

Supreme Court: Majority Judgement Conclusions

• Supreme Court felt that the technology has become a vital tool for ensuring good governance in a welfare state.

• Schemes such as PDS, scholarships, Mid-day Meals and LPG subsidies involve huge amount of money and Aadhaar helped welfare reach of the poor as a fool-proof mechanism.

• Majority opinion upholds Aadhaar as a reasonable restriction on privacy. It fulfils Government’s aim to provide dignity to the marginalised.

• Aadhaar unique ID cannot be duplicated, whereas, PAN, Ration Card can be duplicated. It upheld the passage of the Aadhaar Act as a Money Bill.

• The authentication records should not be retained for more than 6 months. Archiving of records for five years is bad in law.

• SC struck down Section 33 (2), which allowed the disclosure of Aadhaar information for national security reasons on the orders of an officer not below a Joint Secretary level.

Sources: the Hindu

23. Rajasthan government has approved to do away with the minimum education qualification required to contest panchayat and urban bodies’ elections.

What’s the issue?

The education criteria was introduced by the previous government, which stipulated that for contesting the zila parishad or panchayat samiti polls, a contestant must have a minimum qualification of secondary education (Class X).

• To contest the Sarpanch elections, an aspirant from the general category must have passed Class VIII and a SC/ST aspirant must have passed Class V.

Why has it been scrapped?

• Few experts are of the opinion that the requirement of minimum qualification for contesting elections is against the very spirit of 73rd and 74th amendments.

• It also violates the right of every citizen to vote and to contest elections, which form the basic structure of the constitution.

• It may be noted here that due to these restrictions, many able candidates were debarred from contesting elections. In one way, it can be said that this law has prevented many people from coming to the mainstream.

What has the Supreme Court said in this regard?

• Even Haryana had passed a similar law mandating minimum education qualification for those contesting in Panchayat Raj Institutions. The constitutional validity of this law of Haryana was questioned in the Supreme Court.

• The Supreme Court had upheld the constitutional validity of the law enacted by Haryana government to bar the illiterate from contesting panchayat polls in the state. The Supreme Court had ruled that “it is only education which gives a human being the power to discriminate between right and wrong, good and bad”.

• The Supreme Court’s interpretation is based on the fact that uneducated or illiterate people getting elected to the local bodies can easily be misled by officials if they don’t know to write and read. In such cases, administrative actions that they are going can pose many challenges. The Court has further observed that it is only the education which can give people the power to differentiate between right and wrong, and good and bad.

Background:

• Rajasthan Literacy Rate 2011: Literacy rate in Rajasthan has seen upward trend and is 66.11 percent as per 2011 population census. Of that, male literacy stands at 79.19 percent while female literacy is at 52.12 percent. In 2001, literacy rate in Rajasthan stood at 60.41 percent.

24. The Centre is planning to revisit its decision to lift the Restricted Area Permit (RAP) system from 29 islands of Andaman and Nicobar.

Need for review:

To develop tourism, the RAP regime, in place since 1963, was lifted around August this year from 29 islands, including the North Sentinel.

• The lifting of the regime proved problematic and the decision had “many pros and cons that needed to be re-looked”. Recently, U.S. citizen John Allen Chau was killed in the North Sentinel Island.

What is Restricted Area Permit (RAP) regime?

• RAP regime was notified under the Foreigners (Restricted Areas) Order, 1963.

• Under it, foreign nationals are not normally allowed to visit protected or restricted area unless Government is satisfied that there are extra-ordinary reasons to justify their visit.

• Every foreigner, except citizen of Bhutan, who desires to enter and stay in protected or restricted area, is required to obtain special permit from competent authority having power to issue such permits to foreigner, seeking it.

• Citizens of Afghanistan, China and Pakistan and foreign nationals of Pakistani origin are exception and are not allowed to enter such areas.

25.  NATIONAL INTEGRATION TOUR       

The National Integration Tours are educational and motivational tours for youth of Jammu & Kashmir and North Eastern States.

Aim of the National Integration Tour:

• It aims to provide an insight into the rich heritage of the country as well as various developmental and industry initiatives that are underway.

• This initiative will expose them to various career options and enable them to interact with renowned personalities.

Background:

• The National Integration Tour has been initiated as part of the Indian Army’s ongoing outreach programme to foster the spirit of National Integration across the entire swathe of the country.

Source: PIB

26. Freight village in Varanasi

• The Ministry of Shipping has approved the development of Rs. 156 crore freight villages in Varanasi adjoining the Inland Waterways Terminal on River Ganga.

• The Varanasi freight village will be   developed   by the Inland Waterways Authority of India.

Advantages:

• It will serve as a cargo hub, and a centre for aggregation and value addition.

• It will also provide support to stimulate development of a professional logistics industry in Varanasi.

World Bank Study:

• A World Bank pre-feasibility study has found Varanasi to be a suitable site for the freight village.

• The traffic volume on inland waterway is expected to increase with the commissioning of the multi modal terminal being built under the Jal Marg Vikas project.

Inland Waterways Authority of India:

• It came into existence on 27th October 1986 for development and regulation of inland waterways for shipping and navigation.

• The Authority primarily undertakes projects for development and maintenance of IWT infrastructure on national waterways through grant received from Ministry of Shipping.

Source: PIB

Question Bank RSMSSB Lab Assistant Exam – Hindi

प्रश्न 1 : किस विदेश यात्री ने भीनमाल का ‘पीलो मोलो ’ कहा है ?

A. हेंनसांग

B. फाहा्रान

C. मेगस्थनीज

D. उपयुक्त मे से कोई नही

Answer: A

प्रश्न 2 : राजस्थान की एकमात्र मुस्लिम रियासत थी ?

A. झालावाड

B. बाॅसवाडा

C. टोंक

D. उदयपुर

Answer: C

प्रश्न 3 : राजस्थान मे मीनाकारी का सर्वोतम कार्य किया जाता है ?

A. जयपुर मे

B. उदयपुर में

C. प्रतापगढ में

D. बूंदी में

Answer: A

प्रश्न 4 : संत जाम्भोजी का जन्म हुआ था ?

A. पीपासर नागौर में

B. नीमराणा में

C. माॅंडलगढ में

D. पीपलुदा में

Answer: A

प्रश्न 5 : गणगौर का त्यौहार किस तिथि को मनाया जाता है?

A. चैत्र कृष्ण प्रतिपदा

B. चैत्र शुक्ल तृतीया

C. चैत्र शुक्ल पंचमी

D. चैत्र कृष्ण तृतीया

Answer: B

प्रश्न 6 : वज्रसेन सूरी ,डिंगल शैली की कौनसी शैली से संबंधित है ?

A. जैन शैली

B. चारण शैली

C. लौकिक शैली

D. संत शैली

Answer: A

प्रश्न 7 : राजस्थान मे 1857 की क्रान्ति का सूत्रपात कब हुआ ?

A. 29 मार्च 1857

B. 31 मई 1857

C. 28 मई 1857

D. 01 जून 1857

Answer: C

प्रश्न 8 : प्रसिद्ध बीनकर रज्जब अली किसके दरबारी थें ?

A. सवाई प्रतापसिंह

B. सवाई रामसिंह

C. सवाई जयसिंह

D. नवाब इब्राहिम खाॅं

Answer: B

प्रश्न 9 : मोहनजोदडो मे सर्वप्रथम खुदार्ह करके सिंधुघाटी सभ्यता के अवशेष प्राप्त किये गये थे उस खुदाई का वर्ष था –

A. 1911

B. 1920

C. 1922

D. 1947

Answer: C

प्रश्न 10 : सुमेन कीजिए –

     प्राचीन स्थल               राज्य

(i) एलोरा की गुफाएॅ             1. उत्तर प्रदेश

(ii) लोथल                    2. बिहार

(iii) नालंदा                   3. गुजरात

(iv) सारनाथ                  4. महाराष्ट्र

A. (i)       (ii)        (iii)        (iv)

1         2          3           4

B. 4         3           2           1

C. 4         3           1            2

D. 3         4           1            2

Answer: B

प्रश्न 11 : ’महाराष्ट्र का सुकरात ’के उपनाम से प्रसिद्ध थे

A. महादेव रानाडे

B. आत्माराम पाण्डुरंग

C. महाराजा शिवाजी

D. नेताजी सुभाषचन्द्र बोस

Answer: A

प्रश्न 12 : अंग्रेजो और मराठो मे की गई संधि बस्नई की संधि कहलाती है, यह संधि कब की गई ?

A. 31 दिसम्बर, 1802

B. 25 अक्टूबर, 1802

C. 7 सितम्बर, 1800

D. 30 मार्च, 1801

Answer: A

प्रश्न 13 : मण्डोर के प्रतिहारो के संबंध  में जानकारी किस षिलालेख मे मिलती है?

A. जोधपुर

B. घटियाला

C. दोनो

D. कोई नही

Answer: B

प्रश्न 14 : संयुक्त राजस्थान केा वृहद् राजस्थान कब बनाया गया ?

A. 30 मार्च, 1949

B. 18 अप्रैल, 1948

C. 15 मई, 1949

D. 1 नवम्बर, 1956

Answer: A

प्रश्न 15 : प्रतापगढ की थेवाकला में स्वर्ण आभूषणो पर किस रंग को आधार बनाकर बेल्जियम के काॅच पर स्वर्णिम मीनाकारी की जाती है?

A. लाल

B. नीला

C. पीला

D. हरा

Answer: D

प्रश्न 16 : विश्नोई सम्प्रदाय के प्रवर्तक जाम्भोजी को किसका अवतार माना जाताहै ?

A. गणेश का

B. ब्रहा्रा का

C. विष्णु का

D. लक्ष्मण का

Answer: C

प्रश्न 17 : रामस्नेही सम्प्रदाय का शाहपुरा मे फूलडोल का मेला कब भरता है ?

A. रंगपंचमी

B. बंसत पंचमी

C. नागपंचमी

D. ऋषि पंचमी

Answer: A

प्रश्न 18 : ‘वीर रस प्रधान ’ डिंगल शैली का दूसरा नाम है?

A. जैन शैली

B. चारण शैली

C. लौकिक शैली

D. संत शैली

Answer: B

प्रश्न 19 : 1857 की क्रांति के समय राजस्थान में कितनी सैनिक छवनियां थी?

A. 7

B. 5

C. 6

D. 9

Answer: C

प्रश्न 20 : राधा गोविन्द संगीत सार नामक विख्यात संगीत ग्रन्थ के रचयिता है ?

A. ब्रजपाल भटट्

B. पुण्डरीक विठठ्ल

C. उस्ताद चाॅंद खाॅं

D. पण्डित भावभटट्

Answer: A

प्रश्न 21 : किस अंग्रेज के नेतृत्व मे मोहनजोदडो तथा हडप्पा मे खुदाई का कार्य आरम्भ किया गया था ?

A. जाॅन मार्शल

B. लार्ड कर्जन

C. स्मिथ

D. कर्नल टाॅड

Answer: A

प्रश्न 22 : ’सात पैगोडा’ के नाम से प्रसिद्व महाबलीपुरम् किस राज्य मे स्थित है ?

A. महाराष्ट्र

B. तमिलनाडू

C. बिहार

D. उत्तरप्रदेश

Answer: B

प्रश्न 23 : किस वर्ष स्वामी विवेकानन्द ने शिकांगो धर्म सम्मेलन में भाग लिया –

A. 1893

B. 1883

C. 1873

D. 1863

Answer: A

प्रश्न 24 : 1919 मे कांग्रेस का पुनः संयुक्त अधिवेशन हुआ, यह अधिवेशन कहाॅ आयोजित किया गया ?

A. बम्बई

B. इलाहाबाद

C. लखनऊ

D. सूरत

Answer: C

प्रश्न 25 : मारवाड मे राठौर वंष का संस्थापक कौन था ?

A. सीहा

B. चूडा

C. जचमल

D. रायमल

Answer: A

प्रश्न 26 : राजस्थान के एकीकरण का श्रेय किसे दिया जाता है ?

A. हीरालाल शास्त्री को

B. वल्लभ भाई पटेल को

C. जयनारायण व्यास को

D. विजय सिंह पथिक को

Answer: B

प्रश्न 27 : पक्की मीनाकारी निम्न मे से किन पर की जाती है?

A. ताॅंबे के बर्तन

B. पीतल के बर्तन

C. लोहे के बर्तन

D. मिट्टी के बर्तन

Answer: D

प्रश्न 28 : जाम्भोजी का मुक्ति धाम समाधि सील कहां पर स्थित है?

A. कतियासर

B. छोटी सादडी

C. पीपासर

D. मुकाम

Answer: D

प्रश्न 29 : किस माह की अमावस्या , हरियाली अमावस्या कहलाती है?

A. भाद्रपद

B. ज्येष्ठ

C. श्रावण

D. आषाढ़

Answer: C

प्रश्न 30 : सर जार्ज अब्राहम ग्रिर्यसन ने ‘लिग्वस्टिक सर्वे आॅफ इंण्डिया’ में राजस्थानी भाषा की कितनी बोलियाॅं वर्णित की है ?

A. तीन

B. चार

C. पाॅंच

D. छ:

Answer: C

प्रश्न 31 : 1857 की क्रांति के समय राजस्थान मे ए.जी.जी थे ?

A. मेकमोसन

B. पेट्रिक लारेन्स

C. कर्नल इडन

D. मेजर बटन

Answer: B

प्रश्न 32 : संगीतज्ञ देवर्षि ब्रजपाल भटट् किसके दरबार में थें ?

A. सवाई प्रतापसिंह

B. सवाई मानसिंह

C. सवाई रामसिंह

D. महाराजा अनूप सिंह

Answer: A

प्रश्न 33 : सिंधुघाटी वासी किस देवी की पूजा करते थे ?

A. लक्ष्मी

B. सरस्वती

C. मातृदेवी

D. दुर्गा

Answer: C

प्रश्न 34 : मीनाक्षी मन्दिर कहाॅ स्थित है ?

A. उज्जैन

B. कोणार्क

C. आगरा

D. मदुरे

Answer: D

प्रश्न 35 : अलीगढ मुस्लिम -एग्ंलो ओरिएंटल काॅलेज के संस्थापक –

A. मौलान आजाद

B. सैयद अहमद खाॅ

C. मिर्जा गुलाम अहमद

D. इनमे से कोई नही

Answer: B

प्रश्न 36 : ​सालाबाई की संधि निम्न मे से किसके साथ अंग्रेजो ने की थी ?

A. गुरवी

B. मराठा

C. मैसूर

D. निजाम

Answer: B

प्रश्न 37 : गिरी सुमेल का युद्ध कब लडा गया था ?

A. 1540 ई.

B. 1541 ई.

C. 1542 ई.

D. 1544 ई.

Answer: D

प्रश्न 38 : मत्स्य संघ के उप-प्रधानमंत्री थे ?

A. हरिदेव जोशी

B. के . एस. मुंशी

C. जुगलकिशोर चतुर्वेदी

D. देवीशंकर तिवाडी                                                 

Answer: C

प्रश्न 39 : राजस्थान मे ’कृत्रिम रत्नों’ की कटाई एंव पाॅलिशिंग के लिए कहाॅं प्रशिक्षण केन्द्र स्थापित किया गया है?

A. उदयपुर

B. जयपुर

C. कोटा

D. प्रतापगढ

Answer: B

प्रश्न 40 : राजस्थान का वह लोकदेवता जिसने दिल्ली के सुल्तान सिंकदर लोदी को गोहत्या पर रोक लगाने हेतु सहमत किया ?

A. संत पीपाजी

B. संत जाम्भोजी

C. संत हडबूं जी

D. रामदेवजी

Answer: B

प्रश्न 41 : छोटी तीज कब मनाई जाती है?

A. भाद्रपद शुक्ल तृतीया

B. वैशाख शुक्ल तृतीया

C. चैत्र शुक्ल तृतीया

D. श्रावण शुक्ल तृतीया

Answer: D

प्रश्न 42 : डाॅं नरोतम लाल स्वामी ने राजस्थानी भाषा को कितने वर्गाे मे बाॅटा है?

A. सात

B. छः

C. पाॅच

D. चार

Answer: D

प्रश्न 43 : सुमेलित कीजिए –

रियासत                    1857 की क्रांति के समय पाॅलिटिकल एंजेट

1 मारवाड                     (a) मैक मोसन

2 मेवाड                       (b)   मेजर षार्वस

3  जयपुर                     (c)   कर्नल ईडन

4 कोटा                       (d)    मेजर बर्टन

A. I       II       III        IV

a       b       c          d

B. a       b       d          c

C. a       c       d           b

D. d       c        b          a

Answer: A

प्रश्न 44 : कत्थक का सबसे प्राचीन व हिन्दू शैली का प्रतिनिधित्व करने वाला घराना कौनसा है?

A. लखनऊ

B. दिल्ली

C. जयपुर

D. पटियाला

Answer: C

प्रश्न 45 : सिंधुघाटी सभ्यता के किस स्थल पर बंदरगाह होने के प्रमाण मिले है ?

A. मोहनजोदडो

B. कालीबंगा

C. हडप्पा

D. लोथल

Answer: D

प्रश्न 46 : ’रत्नावली’ के रचियता है –

A. बाणभटट्

B. हर्षवर्धन

C. रविन्द्रनाथ टैगोर

D. नजरूल इस्लाम

Answer: B

प्रश्न 47 : गाॅंधी जी ने प्रथम सत्याग्रह किसके साथ अंग्रेजो ने की थी ?

A. चम्पारन

B. खेडा

C. अहमदाबाद

D. सूरत

Answer: A

प्रश्न 48 : जेता व कूंपा वीर सेनानायक थे ?

A. मालदेव के

B. महाराणा प्रताप के

C. महाराणा कुंभा के

D. राणा सांगा के

Answer: A

प्रश्न 49 : राजस्थान के पूर्ण एकीकरण के समय अर्थात् 1 नवम्बर , 1956 को राजस्थान के जिले कितने थे ?

A. 25

B. 26

C. 27

D. 28

Answer: B

प्रश्न 50 : राजस्थान में संगमरमर पर मीनाकारी का कार्य कहाॅ पर किया जाता है?

A. मकराना

B. किशनगढ

C. राजसमंद

D. जयपुर

Answer: D

प्रश्न 51 : केन्द्र सरकार ने ’ विरासत शहर विकास और उत्रति योजना ’ के तहत राजस्थान के किस ऐतिहासिक शहर का चयन किया है ?

A. अजमेर    

B. जयपुर

C. उदयपुर      

D. जोधपुर  

Answer: A

प्रश्न 52 : राज्य की बाहरवीं पंचवर्षीय योजना (2012-17 ) में प्रति वर्ष कितने लोगों के लिए रोजगार उपलब्ध कराने की नयी व्यवस्था के लिए कहा गया है?

A. 2 लाख  

B. 3-5 लाख

C. 6-7 लाख 

D. 7-8 लाख   

Answer: D

प्रश्न 53 : राज्य में ऐसा कौन – सा उद्योग हैं जो सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र , निजी क्षेत्र व सहकारी क्षेत्र , तीनों में चलाया जाता है?

A. सीमेन्ट      

B. चीनी

C. ऊर्जा         

D. नमक     

Answer: B

प्रश्न 54 : वर्तमान में राज्य में कितनी ग्राम पंचायत अस्तित्व में हैं-

A. 9,900     

B. 9,177

C. 9,500    

D. 9,200   

Answer: A

प्रश्न 55 : वर्ष 2014- 15 में राज्य की प्रति व्यक्ति आय (स्थिर कीमतों पर) कितनी है?

A. 33,186      

B. 25,116

C. 72,156     

D. 29,554 

Answer: A

प्रश्न 56 : हस्तकला या हस्तशिल्प में शामिल हैं-

A. चूड़ी निर्माण

B. मूर्ति निर्माण   

C. लाख की ज्वैलरी निर्माण   

D. उपर्युक्त सभी 

Answer: D

प्रश्न 57 : केवल सर्च इंजन वेगो की रिर्पोट के मुताबिक राजस्थान का कौनसा शहर राॅशिया के टाॅप -15 ‘वेलनेस’ डेस्टिनेषन ‘ लिस्ट मे शमिल किया गया हैै?

A. जोधपुर

B. बीकानेर

C. उदयपुर

D. जयपुर      

Answer: D

प्रश्न 58 : राजस्थान में प्रति व्यक्ति बैंक जमा – (लगभग)-

A. 22061  

B. 511063

C. 3080  

D. 10120

Answer: A

प्रश्न 59 : 16 दिसम्बर , 2014 को मुख्यमंत्री वसुंधरा राजे ने भामाशाह कार्ड योजना की लाॅन्चिंग कहाँ से की ?

A. जयपुर   

B. अजमेर

C. उदयपुर      

D. दौसा   

Answer: B

प्रश्न 60 : राज्य के 2015-16 के बजट में पंचायती राज संस्थाओं को कितनी राशि का अनुदान देने के लिए कहा गया है?

A. 3544.75         

B. 2833.88

C. 4822.01      

D. 5423.11   

Answer: A

प्रश्न 61 : नया सहकारिता कानून किस दिंनाक से लागू किया गया ?

A. 14 नवम्बर , 2000  

B. 14 नवम्बर , 2001

C. 14 नवम्बर , 2002 

D. 14 नवम्बर , 2003 

Answer: C

प्रश्न 62 : पंचायती राज संस्थाओं को स्थानीय आवश्यकताओं कें अनुरूप कार्य जैसे – नाली निर्माण , पेयजल व्यवस्था , भवन एवं फर्नीचर , रखरखाव , संरपंच का मानदेय आदि ’ निर्बन्ध कोष ’ देना किस वर्ष से शुरू हुआ?

A. वर्ष 2010-11

B. वर्ष 2014 -15

C. वर्ष 2011-12 

D. वर्ष 2009-10

Answer: C

प्रश्न 63 : बी. पी. ए.ल. 5 लीटर देशी घी योजना राजस्थान सरकार द्वारा किस वर्ष से चलाई जा रही है?

A. 1 जनवरी , 2008  

B. 1 मार्च, 2009

C. 15 अगस्त, 2007 

D. 26 जनवरी, 2014

Answer: B

प्रश्न 64 : राज्य की फड़ पेन्टिंग के लिये कौनसा शहर प्रसिद्व है?

A. प्रतापगढ़  

B. शाहपुरा

C. डूंगरपुर  

D. उदयपुर 

Answer: B

प्रश्न 65 : राजस्थान में सबसे बड़ा विदेषी निवेषक देष कौनसा है?

A. अमेरिका

B. जापान

C. रूस

D. चीन                   

Answer: B

प्रश्न 66 : भारत में, ’’बंधुआ मजदूरी उन्मूलन अध्यादेश ’’ किस वर्ष लागू हुआ?

A. 1978       

B. 1968

C. 1980           

D. 1976    

Answer: D

प्रश्न 67 : 23 दिसम्बर , 2014 , को किस जिलें में स्थित ’ रेवा पेयजल परियोजना ’ का लोकार्पण किया गया –

A. झालावाड़      

B. उदयपुर           

C. जोधपुर          

D. कोटा

Answer: A

प्रश्न 68 : राज्य हेतु 12 वी पंचवर्षीय योजना कर आकार राशि ……. करोड़ रूपये अनुमानित की गई है?

A. 1,10,992 करोड़    

B. 1,50,892 करोड़

C. 1,20,992 करोड़  

D. 1,96, 992 करोड

Answer: D

प्रश्न 69 : सहकारिता का मूल मंत्र है-

A. राज्य उत्थान    

B. संस्था उस्थान

C. नारी उत्थान    

D. सामाजिक संस्थान  

Answer: D

प्रश्न 70 : राज्य सरकार ’ निर्मल ग्राम पुरस्कार योजना ’ के अंतर्गत चयनित पंचायतों को कितनी राशि का पुरस्कार देती है?

A. 5 लाख  

B. 1 लाख

C. 3 लाख 

D. 2 लाख   

Answer: A

प्रश्न 71 : शहरी क्षेत्रों की चिन्हित कच्ची बस्तियों में रहने वाले व्यत्तियों को आवास एवं आधारभूत सुविधाएँ उपलब्ध कराने वाला कार्यक्रम है-

A. आर. ए. डी. एफ.    

B. आई. एच. एस. डी. पी.

C. ए. आई. डी. एस. एस. एम. टी.  

D. कोई नही  

Answer: B

प्रश्न 72 : प्रतापगढ़ किस हस्तशिल्प के लिए प्रसिद्व है?

A. मूर्ति निर्माण

B. लकड़ी के खिलौने

C. थेवकला     

D. पेन्टिंग  

Answer: C

प्रश्न 73 : राजस्थान निवेष प्रोत्साहन नीति 2014 में ष्षामिल किए गए ’ रक्षा क्षेत्र ’ में कितने निवेष सीमा तक कर राहतें प्रदान की जाऐंगी ?

A. 100 से 600 करोड़

B. 200 से 1000 करोड़

C. 100 से 500 करोड़

D. 100 से 1000 करोड

Answer: C

प्रश्न 74 : राजस्थान के प्रमुख लघु एवं कुटीर उद्योगों को कितनी श्रैणियों में बाँटा गया हैं?

A. 3                

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

Answer: B

प्रश्न 75 : अक्टूबर , 2014 में मुख्यमंत्री वसुंधरा राजे ने देश की पहली जैतून रिफाइनरी का लोकार्पण किस स्थान पर किया ?

A. पोकरण     

B. लूणकरणसर

C. नीमराणा      

D. सीतापुरा    

Answer: B

प्रश्न 76 : वर्तमान में राजविका (आर. जी . ए. वी. पी. ) द्वारा कौनसी आजीवका परियोजना क्रियान्वित की जा रही है?

A. राजस्थान ग्रामीण  आजीवका परियोजना

B. राष्ट्र्रीय ग्रामीण  आजीवका मिशन (N.R.L.M)

C. राष्ट्र्रीय ग्रामीण आजीवका परियोजना

D. उपर्युक्त सभी।

Answer: D

प्रश्न 77 : विश्व में सहकारिता की शुरूआत की गई –

A. राॅबट ओवन द्वारा

B. एडमस्मिथ द्वारा

C. जाॅन डिसूजा द्वारा

D. विल्फ्रेड द्वारा   

Answer: A

प्रश्न 78 : ’निर्मल ग्राम पुरस्कार योजना ’ के अंतर्गत एक पंचायत समिति के निम्नतम कितनी ग्राम पंचायतों को यह पुरस्कार प्राप्त होता हैं?

A. 5 ग्राम पंचायत

B. 10 ग्राम पंचायत  

C. 12 ग्राम पंचायत 

D. 15 ग्राम पंचायत   

Answer: B

प्रश्न 79 : राज्य की गरीबी उन्मूलन संबंधी परियोजना’’ मिटिगेटिंगव पाॅवर्टी इन वेस्टर्न राजस्थान (आई. एफ ए.डी.)’’ राजस्थान के कितने जिलो में चल रही है?

A. 6 जिलों        

B. 10 जिलों

C. 33 जिलों        

D. 15 जिलों      

Answer: A

प्रश्न 80 : जैसलमेर के –

A. कम्बल प्रसिद्व हैं

B. दरियाँ प्रसिद्व हैं

C. ओढनियाँ प्रसिद्व हैं

D. इनमें से कोई नहीं   

Answer: A

प्रश्न 81 : राज्य के दो षहर जिनको ’नवीनीकरणी ऊर्जा मंत्रालय द्वारा सोलर सीटी’ के रूप मे विकसित करने की घोषणा की गई?

A. जयपुर – जोधपुर        

B. जयपुर – बीकानेर

C. जोधपुर – जैसलमेर      

D. जोधपुर – कोटा   

Answer: A

प्रश्न 82 : कुटीर उद्योगों में मुख्यतया निम्न वस्तुओं का उत्पादन किया जाता है?

A. परम्परागत वस्तुओं का

B. आधुनिक वस्तुओं का

C. इलेक्ट्र्राॅनिक सामान का

D. सभी प्रकार की वस्तुओं का  

Answer: A

प्रश्न 83 : बिजली क्षेत्र की निजी कम्पनी ’’ रिलायंस पाॅवर लिमिटेड ’’ ने राजस्थान के किस जिलें में 100 मेगावाट कंसट्र्रेड ’’ सौर ऊर्जा परियोजना ’’ (सी. एस. पी.) का संयंत्र शुरू किया ?

A. उदयपुर        

B. कोटा

C. जोधपुर   

D. जैसलमेर  

Answer: D

प्रश्न 84 : राजस्थान की बाहरवीं पंचवर्षीय योजना में कितनी राशि प्रस्तावित की गई है?

A. 1,96,992 करोड़ रू.

B. 1,90,992 करोड़ रू.

C. 1.05,112 करोड़ रू.

D. 1,60,992 करोड़ रू    

Answer: A

प्रश्न 85 : वर्तमान में सहकारिता-

A. केन्द्र सूची का विषय है

B. राज्य सूची का विषय है

C. संघ सूची का विषय है

D. इनमें से कोई नहीं      

Answer: B

प्रश्न 86 : पंचायत राज चुनाव में शैक्षणिक अनिवार्यता संबंधी विधेयक पारित करने वाला पहला राज्य है-

A. गुजरात        

B. राजस्थान

C. मध्यप्रदेश    

D. उत्तरप्रदेश    

Answer: B

प्रश्न 87 : डूंगरपुर व उदयपुर  के प्रसिद्व हैं-

A. ब्लू पाॅटरी 

B. मिट्टी के खिलौने

C. लाख के खिलौने

D. लकड़ी के खिलौने 

Answer: D

प्रश्न 88 : राजस्थान का वह गाँव जिसे राज्य का प्रथम सोलर विद्युत गाँव होने का दर्जा प्राप्त हुआ है-

A. धनवाद (नागौर)        

B.   लूम्बासर (बीकानेर)

C. पीपासर (चूरू)        

D. थूरगाँव (जैसलमेर)               

Answer: B

प्रश्न 89 : निम्नलिखित में से किस उद्योग में महिला रोजगार का प्रतिशत अधिक है?

A. लघु उद्योग        

B. आधुनिक उद्योग

C. खादी उद्योग 

D. ग्रामीण उद्योग  

Answer: C

प्रश्न 90 : नवम्बर , 2014 में मुख्यमंत्री वसुंधरा राजे ने राज्य के किस स्थान पर ’ बीज विधायन केन्द्र ’ और ’ सेन्टर आॅफ एक्सीलेंस प्रशिक्षण केन्द्र ’ का लोकार्पण किया ?

A. इटावा          

B. भांडारेज

C. ढिढोल            

D. नाहरगढ़   

Answer: C

प्रश्न 91 : राज्य की स्तर पर योजनाओं के निर्माण , नियंत्रण एवं मूल्याकान तथा इनसे सम्बन्धित मामलों में सरकार को सलाह कौन देता है?

A. योजना विभाग      

B. राज्य आयोजन विभाग

C. विधानसभा         

D. मंत्रिमण्डल 

Answer: B

प्रश्न 92 : अक्टूबर , 2014 में राज्य की पहली ’ एडवांस मिल्क टेस्टिंग व रिसर्च लैब ’ का उद्घाटन कहाँ से हुआ ?

A. कोटा            

B. अलवर

C. बीकानेर          

D. जयपुर    

Answer: D

प्रश्न 93 : राज्य हेतु 12 वी पंचवर्षीय योजना कर आकार राशि ……. करोड़ रूपये अनुमानित की गई है?

A. 1,10,992 करोड़   

B. 1,50,892 करोड़

C. 1,20,992 करोड़   

D. 1,96, 992 करोड

Answer: D

प्रश्न 94 : राजस्थान में सहकारिता की शुरूआत अजमेर में –

A. 1902 से हुई     

B. 1903 से हुई

C. 1904 से हुई   

D. 1905 से हुई 

Answer: C

प्रश्न 95 : राजस्थान पंचायती राज (संशोधन )विधेयक 2015 के अनुसार चुनाव लड़ने के लिए क्या अनिवार्य किया गया है?

A. गाँव में खुद का पक्का घर होना

B. पुत्र होना

C. घर में स्वच्छ , शौचालय होना 

D. इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: C

प्रश्न 96 : आधुनिक राजस्थान का निर्माण कब हुआ ?

A. 26 जनवरी,1956

B. 1 नवम्बर 1956

C. 7 दिसम्बर,1957  

D. 1 नवम्बर 1948

Answer: A

प्रश्न 97 : ’ वैश्विक मानव विकास रिर्पोट – 2014’ के अनुसार भारत का विश्व में स्थान में रहा है-

A. 135 वाँ            

B. 136 वाँ

C. 142 वाँ          

D. 133 वाँ

Answer: A

प्रश्न 98 : राजस्थान मे किस स्थान पर अमरूदो की खेती के लिए ’ सेंटर आॅफ एक्सीलेंस ’ मे स्थापित किया जायेगाा?

A. टोंक                    

B. झालावाड़

C. सवाई माधोपुर            

D. जयपुर

Answer: A

प्रश्न 99 : कटपुतलियों का निर्माण मुख्य रूप से होता है-

A. जयपुर में      

B. उदयपुर  में

C. भरतपुर में       

D. जैसलमेर में  

Answer: B

प्रश्न 100 : बेरोजगारी सम्बन्धित आकडो़ं का प्रकाशन कितने वर्षो में किया जाता हैं?

A. एक वर्ष में    

B. दो वर्षो में        

C. चार वर्षो में     

D. पाँच वर्षो में      

Answer: D

प्रश्न 101 : t = 0+ पर प्रारंभिक आवेश qo वाला वाला संधारित्र          के रूप में काम करता है।

A. धारा स्त्रोत                  

B. वोल्टता स्त्रोत

C. लघुपथ                      

D. खुला परिपथ 

Answer: B

प्रश्न 102 : दो कैंवेटी (cavity)  क्लाइस्ट्राॅन (Klystron)  में सेकण्डरि कैंवेटी जाना जाता हैं

A. बानचर कैंवेटी के रूप में         

B. केचर कैंवेटी के रूप में           

C. धरमल कैंवेटी के रूप में        

D. इनमें से कोई नही          

Answer: B

प्रश्न 103 : एक बिन्दु आवेश Q को अन्य नियत बिन्दु आवेश के गिर्द एक वृत्तीय पथ के साथ – साथ गतिमान किया जाता है । किया गया कार्य तभी शून्य होता हैः

A. सभी स्थितियों में            

B. यदि Q प्रारम्भिक बिन्दु पर लौट जाये

C. यदि दोंनो आवेशों का परिमाण एक-सा हो    

D. यदि दोंनो आवेशों का परिमाण एक-सा हो तथा उनके चिह् विपरीत हो  

Answer: A

प्रश्न 104 : Class A एम्पलीफायर्स का प्रयोग होता है

A. फेज व्युत्क्रम की आवश्यकता नहीं हो

B. उच्च वोल्टेज गेन की आवश्यकता हो

C. D.C. वोल्टेज को आवर्द्धित करनी हो

D. निम्न विकृति कि आवश्यकता हो   

Answer: D

प्रश्न 105 : कनेक्ट करने पर अवेशित पिण्डो के बीच कोई धारा प्रवाहित नहीे होती है यदि उनमें एक समान ही है।

A. क्षमता                             

B. आवेश की मात्रा

C. विभव अनुपात में आवेश              

D. विभव            

Answer: B

प्रश्न 106 : एक पेट्रोल इंजन की लगभग क्षमता है :

A. 20%                          

B. 40%

C. 70%                             

D. 90%         

Answer: C

प्रश्न 107 : भारत में प्रति वर्ष 28 फरवरी  को ’विज्ञान दिवस ’ मनाया जाता है । यह किस वैज्ञानिक की कृति से सहचरित है

A. आर्यभट्ट                       

B. वराहमिहिर

C. सी. वी. रमन                  

D. डाॅ. भाभा      

Answer: C

प्रश्न 108 : एक सोडियम पेपर डिस्चार्ज लैम्प जैसे ही पहली बार स्विच आॅन किया जाता है इसका रंग दिखता है:

A. नीला                         

B. पीला

C. सफेद                        

D. लाल      

Answer: B

प्रश्न 109 : Tapping  एक आॅपरेशन है: 

A. बाहरी थ्रेड का कटिंग                 

B. आन्तरिक थ्रेड का कटिंग

C. चिपटे सतह का फिनिशिंग (Finishing) 

D. अन्तिम होल को बड़ा करना  

Answer: B

प्रश्न 110 : कन्ट्रापलेक्सर का प्वाइन्ट क्या होता है

A. वह प्वाइन्ट जहाँ शीयर फोर्स का मान शून्य होता है

B. वह प्वाइन्ट जहाँ बेंडिंग मोमेंट वक्र चिह् बदलता है

C. वह प्वाइन्ट जहाँ बेंडिंग मोमेंट अधिकतम होता है

D. वह प्वाइन्ट जहाँ बेंडिंग मोमेंट शून्य होता है         

Answer: B

प्रश्न 111 : ​Laminated Springs  बना होता है:

A. प्लेट के समान लम्बाई परन्तु विभिन्न मोटाई का

B. प्लेट के समान लम्बाई परन्तु विभिन्न चैड़ाई का

C. प्लेट के समान लम्बाई परन्तु समान मोटाई का  

D. प्लेट के विभिन्न लम्बाई और विभिन्न मोटाई का    

Answer: A

प्रश्न 112 : निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा प्रक्रम नाॅन – फेरस धातुओं की कटिंग और वेल्डिंग में प्रयुक्त होता है       

A. कार्बन आर्क वेल्डिंग                       

B. अक्रिय गैस आर्क वेल्डिंग

C. सबमज्र्ड (निमज्जितद) आर्क वेल्डिंग             

D. धातु आर्क वेल्डिंग  

Answer: C

प्रश्न 113 : Centrifugal pump  के इमपीलर में liquid का घूमना होता है:        

A. Rectilinear motion                       

B. Free Vortex motion

C. Forced Vortex motion               

D. Spiral Vortex motion     

Answer: C

प्रश्न 114 : निम्न में से कौन-सा option 100 meter   से ज्यादा हेड वाले वाटर lifiting के लिए उत्तम है ?

A. रिसीप्रोकेटिंग पम्प                     

B. श्रेणी में दो या दो से अधिक पम्प का इस्तेमाल

C. समानान्तर में दो या दो से अधिक पम्प का इस्तेमाल   

D. एक सिंगल impeller पम्प का उपयोग        

Answer: D

प्रश्न 115 : बेल कोमेमन चक्र में निम्नलिखित में से क्या – क्या सम्मिलित होता है ?

A. दो एडियाबैटिक प्रक्रम और दो स्थिर दाब प्रक्रम

B. दो एडियाबैटिक प्रक्रम और दो स्थिर आयतन प्रक्रम

C. दो आइसो थर्मल प्रक्रम और दो एडियाबैटिक प्रक्रम

D. दो स्थिर आयतन प्रक्रम और दो स्थिर दाब प्रक्रम         

Answer: A

प्रश्न 116 : रेलवे को पर प्रयुक्त बियरिंग है:

A. प्लम्बर ब्लाॅक                     

B. नीडर बियरिंग

C. रोलर बियरिंग                   

D. बाॅल बियरिंग        

Answer: C

प्रश्न 117 : आर्द्र तकलीफो को दूर करने के लिए संपीड़ित वायु लाइन से ब्रान्च कनेक्शन लिया जाता है:

A. उपरी  तरफ से               

B. निचली तरफ से                           

C. बाई या दाई तरफ से           

D. किसी भी तरफ से       

Answer: C

प्रश्न 118 : रेलवे ट्रक की पटरियाँ बनी होती है

A. मृदु इस्पात की               

B. क्रोम इस्पात की

C. उच्च गति इस्पात की          

D. निम्न में से कोई नहीं                       

Answer: D

प्रश्न 119 : गेंट चार्ट का प्रयोग होता है:

A. सूची सामग्री नियंत्रण के लिए            

B. मशीन उपयोग के लिए               

C. मशीन अनुरक्षण अनुसूची के लिए      

D. उत्पादक अनुसूची के लिए        

Answer: C

प्रश्न 120 : मुक्त पिस्टन इंजन का प्रयोग होता है: 

A. खनन अधिष्ठापन में                 

B. गैस टरबाइन में

C. अधिभरण प्रत्यागामी इंजन में         

D. उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं  

Answer: C

प्रश्न 121 : एकल फेज वाली प्रणाली कहलाती है:

A. संवृत प्रणाली                     

B. खुली प्रणाली                      

C. समांगी संस्थिति                 

D. विलग संस्थिति            

Answer: A

प्रश्न 122 : पटरियों में निकुंज बनने का निम्न में से कौन – सा कारण नहीं है?

A. जोड़ पर ढीली पैकिंग                 

B. तापमान में बदलाव

C. रेल हेड की असम टूट – फूट        

D. गेज संरेखण में त्रुटि    

Answer: B

प्रश्न 123 : मोटरकारों के अपेक्षाकृत नए माॅडलों की निम्नलिखित विशिष्टताओं पर विचार कीजिए:

I. रेडियल टायर

II. सुप्रवाही ढांचा

III. बहुबिन्दु ईधन अंतः क्षेप

IV. उत्प्रेरक परिवर्तन रेचक सहित

इनमें से कौन – कौन – सी विशिष्टताएँ मोटरकारों के अपेक्षाकृत नए माॅडलों को अधिक ईधन दक्ष बनाती है ?

A. I और I                     

B. II और III

C. II, III और IV

D. I, III और IV

Answer: C

प्रश्न 124 : रेल- पथ में फ्रिश- प्लेट का काम है: 

A. दोनों पटरियों को जोड़े रखना             

B. रेलगाड़ी के दो डिब्बों को जोड़ना

C. डिब्बे के पहियों को सही ढंग से निर्देशित करना

D. उपर्युक्त सभी    

Answer: A

प्रश्न 125 : निम्नलिखित का सुमेलन कीजिए तथा सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए:

A. ओम का नियम            1. F =ma

B. न्यूटन का नियम          2. V = IR

C. आईसटाइन का नियम    3. E = mc3

कूट:

A. A-2, B-3 , C-1     

B. A-1, B-2, C-3

C. A-2, B-1, C-3       

D. A-3, B-1, C-2

Answer: C

प्रश्न 126 : छेद बनाने के लिए बरमा से चूड़ी बनाने की क्रिया को कहते है:

A. लैपिंग                     

B. रीमिंग

C. ब्रोचिंग                        

D. टैपिंग      

Answer: D

प्रश्न 127 : निम्नांकित में से कौन – सा परिवर्तन रासायनिक नहीं है ?

A. लोहे में जंग लगना               

B. पानी का भाप में बदलना

C. दूध से दही का जमना            

D. कोयले को जलाना   

Answer: B

प्रश्न 128 : कारबुरेटर का उपयोग है:

A. इंजन में पेट्रोल की आपूर्ति करना         

B. पेट्रोल के साथ हवा को मिश्रित करना

C. पेट्रोल को शुद्ध करना                 

D. हवा को शुद्ध करना

Answer: B

प्रश्न 129 : निम्नलिखित में से क्या अविम राशि है ?

A. गैस रचना                    

B. प्रभेद

C. श्यानता गुणांक                 

D. फलक रचना         

Answer: B

प्रश्न 130 : एक पहाड़ी पर चढ़ते हुए वाहन का ड्राइवर गियर का अनुपात रखता है ।

A. I के बराबर                 

B. I  से कम

C. I से अधिक             

D. I के बराबर  या उससे अधिक          

Answer: D

प्रश्न 131 : साइकिल चलाने वाला मोड़ लेते समय क्यों झुकता हैं ?  

A. साइकिल की ओर आदमी की गति समान होनी चाहिए वरना साइकिल फिसल जाएगी 

B. वह झुकता है ताकि गुरुत्व केन्द्र आधार के अंदर बना रहे । यह उसे गिरने से बचाएगा

C. वह झुकता हैं ताकि वक्र मार्ग चलने के लिए पहियों पर दबाव डाला जा सकें

D. वह झुकता है ताकि वक और तेजी से पार कर सके                       

Answer: B

प्रश्न 132 : किस फॉरनहाइट पर सेल्सियस का मान समान होगा ?

A. 0 °F                    

B. 40° F

C. –40° F            

D. 36° F       

Answer: C

प्रश्न 133 : ध्वनि तरंग किस दर से यात्रा करती है ?

A. 1.1 मील / सेकण्ड          

B. 550 यार्ड / सेकण्ड

C. 1100 फीट /सेकण्ड          

D. 1100 मील / सेकण्ड 

Answer: C

प्रश्न 134 : किस रंग का तरंगदैधर्य कम होता है

A. बैंगनी

B. लाल

C. हरा

D. नीला

Answer: A

प्रश्न 135 : जब किसी पिण्ड को किसी द्रव मेंपुर्णतः अथवा आंशिक डुबोया जातर है तो वह एक ऊर्ध्व दिशिक बल का अनुभव करता है जोकि उसके द्वारा प्रतिस्थापित किएगए द्रव के भार के बराबर होता है यह सिद्धान्त कहलाता है

A. न्यूटन की गति का नियम

B. कार्किमिडीज का सिद्धान्त

C. गुरुत्वाकर्षण का नियम

D. जल का सिद्धान्त

Answer: B

प्रश्न 136 : जब इन्डक्शन मोटर अंकित लोड तथा स्पीड पर चलता है , तब लोह क्षय होता है :

A. अतिन्युन

B. बहुत अधिक

C. सप्लाई फ्रिक्वेंसी पर आश्रित नहीं होता है

D. सप्लाई वोल्टेज पर आश्रित नहीं होता है

Answer: C

प्रश्न 137 : भारत के लिए अत्यंत उपर्युक्त अपारंपरिक ऊर्जा स्रोत किसे माना जाता है ?

A. सौर ऊर्जा             

B. पवन ऊर्जा

C. ज्वारीय तरंग ऊर्जा 

D. नाभिकीय ऊर्जा

Answer: D

प्रश्न 138 : कणों के द्वारा हीट ट्रांसफर की क्रिया को कहते है :

A. कनवेक्शन                   

B. कनडक्शन    

C. रेडियेशन                    

D. इनमें से कोई नहीं            

Answer: C

प्रश्न 139 : सुप्रसिद्ध भारतीय वैज्ञानिक मेघनाथ साहा निम्नलिखित किस क्षेत्र में महत्वपूर्ण योगदान के लिए जाने जाते हैं ?

A. खगोल –विज्ञान (एस्ट्रोनोमी)    

B. खगोल — भौतिकी  (एस्टट्रोफिजिक्स)

C. जीवाश्म–विज्ञान           

D. परमाणु ऊर्जा

Answer: B

प्रश्न 140 : स्कूटर इंजन में सिलेंडर भित्ति किसके द्वारा चिकनाई जाती है ?  

A. दाब स्नेहन                 

B. स्नेहन प्लग

C. ईधन के साथ मिले तेल    

D. सिलेंडर को चिकनाने की जरूरत नहीं होती है  

Answer: C

प्रश्न 141 : बाधँ के रुके हुए जल में

A. कोई ऊर्जा नहीं होती है

B.  विद्युत ऊर्जा होती है

C. गतिज ऊर्जा होती है

D. स्थिरतिज ऊर्जा होती है

Answer: D

प्रश्न 142 : माईका ऊष्मा का एक अच्छा सुचालक है, यह कथन हैः

A. सत्य      

B. असत्य

C. निर्धारित नहीं किया जा सकता

D. इनमें से कोई नहीं 

Answer: B

प्रश्न 143 : डेसिबेल शब्द किससे संबंधित है ?

A. वायु             

B. जल

C. ध्वनि

D. भूमि

Answer: C

प्रश्न 144 : श्वेत प्रकाश को विभिन्न रंगों में विभाजित होना कहलाता है :

A. अपर्वतक          

B. शोगण

C. सन्धि                  

D. विक्षेपण

Answer: D

प्रश्न 145 : वैघुत  आवेश का S.I एकक है :

A. ऐम्पियर                     

B. कूलॉम

C. ई. एस. यू.                   

D. केल्विन 

Answer: B

प्रश्न 146 : कैपिसिटर स्टार्ट , कैपिसिटर रन मोटर को सामान्यता एयरकंडीसनर कम्प्रेसर के साथ संयुग्मित किया जाता है क्योंकि यह :

A. निम्न स्टार्टिंग लेता है और निम्न करेंट पर चलता है

B. सस्ता है

C. संक्रिया में शांत है

D. कोई देखभाल की आवश्यकता नहीं पड़ती है

Answer: A

प्रश्न 147 : PIN डायोड किस रुप में प्रयोग के उपर्युक्त होता है ?

A. माइक्रोवेब स्विच के          

B. माइक्रोवेब डिक्टेटर के

C. माइक्रोवेब मिक्सर डायोड के

D. इनमें से कोई नहीं  

Answer: B

प्रश्न 148 : भू-स्थिर उपग्रह के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सही नहीं है?

A. इसकी समय अवधि 24 घंटे है।         

B. इसका कोणीय वेग पृथ्वी के अपने अक्ष पर कोणीय वेग के बराबर होता है।

C. यह अंतरिक्ष में एक जगह स्थिर होता है।

D. यह विषुवत के उपर पश्चिम से पूर्व की ओर परिक्रमण करता है।

Answer: C

प्रश्न 149 : ऊष्मा ऊर्जा से विघुत ऊर्जा को मापने के यंत्र को कहते हैं :

A. बैरोग्राफ          

B. डायनेमो

C. डायनेमोमीटर  

D. वोल्टमीटर

Answer: D

प्रश्न 150 : रेल पटरियों के नीचे चौड़े लकड़ी के पट्टे स्पीपर्स लगाए जाते है :

A. शॉक एब्जॉर्बर के रूप में कार्य करने के लिए

B. फ्रिश- प्लेट्स को ठीक तरह से बैठाने के लिए     

C. पटरियों को सामानान्तर रखने के लिए  

D. गाड़ी द्वारा उत्पन्न दबाव को कम करने के लिए 

Answer: D

प्रश्न 151 : क्यों एक लोहे का टुकड़ा पारा में तैरता है एवं पानी में डूब जाता है?

A. पारा का घनत्व पानी के घनत्व से अधिक होता है इसलिए पारा में उत्प्लावनए पानी में उत्प्लावन से कम है।

B. पारा का घनत्व पानी के घनत्व से अधिक होता हैए इसलिए पारा में उत्प्लावन पानी के उत्प्लावन से अधिक है।

C. क्योंकि एक लोहे का टुकड़ा बहुत ही विशिष्ट प्रकार का होता है।

D. क्योंकि एक लोहे का टुकड़ा पारा में विघुत ऊर्जा प्राप्त कर लेती है।

Answer: B

प्रश्न 152 : वायु की क्षैतिज गति से होने वाले उष्मा के अंतरण को कहते हैं-

A. अभिवहन    

B. संवहन

C. चालान       

D. विकिरण

Answer: C

प्रश्न 153 : स्वर की गुणात्मकता :

A. उच्चता के साथ घट जाती है

B. सुर के रुप में सीधे बदल जाती है

C. विघमान  अधिस्वर पर निर्भर करती है

D. विस्तार के रुप में प्रतिलोम रुप में बदल जाती है 

Answer: C

प्रश्न 154 : एक अवतल दर्पण की नाभिक दूरी निर्भर करती है :

A. दर्पण की वक्रता. त्रिज्या पर

B. दर्पण से वस्तु की दूरी पर

C. दर्पण से बिम्ब की दूरी पर

D. दर्पण से वस्तु और बिम्ब , दोनों की दूरी पर

Answer: A

प्रश्न 155 : उच्च संधारित्रता क्षमता वाले छोटे साइज के संधारित्रो में वर्तमान में विघुत अवरोधक प्रयोग में लाए जाते है :

A. कागज                 

B. रबर

C. सिरामिक              

D. माइलर

Answer: B

प्रश्न 156 : इनमें से किसके द्वारा इन्डक्शन मोटर को A.C. पॅावर जेनेरेट करने के लायक बनाया जा सकता है

A. जीरो से कम स्लीप पर चलाकर

B. रोटेसन क्षेत्र के विपरीत दिशा में मोटर चलाकर

C. समक्रमिक गति पर उसे चलाकर

D. अलटरनेटर के समानान्तर इसे जोड़कर  

Answer: D

प्रश्न 157 : ट्रांजिस्टर रिसिवर में, FET प्रयोग प्रथम स्थिति एम्पलीफायर के रुप में इसलिए करते हैं ताकि :

A. रिसिवर के चुनने की क्षमता बढ़ा सके

B. AGC की कार्यक्षमता बढ़ा सके

C. नकारात्मक पिक क्लिपिंग (clipping) प्रभाव कम कर सके

D. सभी फ्रिक्वेंसी पर शोर का प्रभाव कम कर सके  

Answer: C

प्रश्न 158 : ओजोन छिद्र सबसे अधिक किसके ऊपर बन रहा है ?

A. अफ्रीका                 

B. भारत

C. अंटार्कटिका            

D. यूरोप                    

Answer: C

प्रश्न 159 : “सोलर सिस्टम” को किसने खोजा ?

A. कोपरनिकस        

B. केप्लर

C. आर्यभट्ट

D. न्यूटन

Answer: B

प्रश्न 160 : किसी प्लानर में कार्य का सम्पादन निम्नलिखित विधि द्वारा होता है :       

A. टेबुल की गति द्वारा              

B. रैम की गति द्वारा                

C. टूल की गति द्वारा             

D. क्लैपर बॉक्स की गति द्वारा    

Answer: A

प्रश्न 161 : किसी ठोस वस्तु का भार ‘W’ है। जब वह पानी में तैरता है ए तो उसका आभासी भार क्या होगा ?   

A. W

B. 1/4

C. 2W

D. शून्य   

Answer: C

प्रश्न 162 : ठंडा किया जा सकता हैः

A. पानी के बहने से

B. संपीड़ित गैस को छोड़ने से

C. रसोई गैस से

D. ठोस को पिघलाने से    

Answer: B

प्रश्न 163 : यदि ध्वनि तरंग हवा से पानी में अपवर्तित होती है तो निम्न में से कौन -एक स्थिर रहता है ?

A. तरंगदैर्ध्य           

B. गति

C. तीव्रता             

D. आयाम 

Answer: D

प्रश्न 164 : स्नेल का नियम संबंधित है :

A. प्रकाश के परावर्तन से

B. प्रकाश के अपवर्तन से

C. विघुत–चुम्बकीय प्रेरण से    

D. द्रव में तैरते हुए वस्तु से

Answer: B

प्रश्न 165 : विघुतवाहक बल बराबर होता है :

A. बल के                  

B. ऊर्जा के

C. ऊर्जा प्रति यूनिट आवेश के   

D. कार्य के  

Answer: C

प्रश्न 166 : निम्नलिखित किस पदाथै में उध्र्वपातन होता है

A. कैम्फर

B. बर्फ

C. मोम

D. ईथाइल अल्कोहल

Answer: A

प्रश्न 167 : शल्यक्रिया आॅपरेशन में कौन-सा एनेस्थेटिक एजेंट नहीं है?

A. क्लोरोफाॅर्म

B. ईथर

C. नाइट्रस आॅक्साइड

D. एसीटोन

Answer: D

प्रश्न 168 : एक यौगिक C60H122 के एक अणु का द्रव्यमान है

A. 1.20 × 10-20 ग्राम

B. 1.4 × 10-21 ग्राम

C. 5.025 × 1023 ग्राम

D. 6.023 × 1023 ग्राम

Answer: B

प्रश्न 169 : हैलोजनों में सर्वाधिक प्रभावशाली आॅक्सीकरण कर्ता है

A. क्लोरीन

B. ब्रोमीन

C. फ्लोरीन

D. आयोडीन

Answer: C

प्रश्न 170 : एक तत्व के निम्नलिखित गुणधर्म हैं

I. यह लोहे के गैल्वनीकरण में काम आता है

II.  यह शुष्क सेलों में काम आता है

A. जिंक

B. सिल्वर

C. एल्युमिनियम

D. सोडियम

Answer: A

प्रश्न 171 : तार खींचने योग्य सबसे नमनीय धातु है

A. सोना

B. चाँदी

C. लोहा

D. एल्युकमनियम

Answer: A

प्रश्न 172 : निम्न को सुमेलित करें

सूची-I                          सूची-II

A. रेडियम               1. अलेक्जेंडर फ्लेमिंग

B. पेनिसिलीन          2. मैडम क्यूरी

C. एक्स-रे               3. एडवर्ड जेनर

D. चेचक                    4. डब्ल्यू़ के. रौन्टजन

कूट :

A. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

B. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

C. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

D. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Answer: A

प्रश्न 173 : 45 ग्राम जल में  (H = 1,O =16 ) के प्राप्त अणुओं की संख्या ज्ञात कीजिये ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 2.5

D. 4

Answer: C

प्रश्न 174 : मानव रक्त में RBC का आयुष्य लगभग है ?

A. 30 दिन

B. 7 दिन

C. 120 दिन

D. 15 घण्टे

Answer: C

प्रश्न 175 : खारा पानी संकेत करता  है

A. नमकीन पानी का

B. मीठा पानी का

C. शुद्ध पानी का

D. स्टार्च (मांडी) जल का

Answer: A

प्रश्न 176 : किसी कमरे के उक कोने में सेंट की खुली शीशी रख देने से उसकी खुशबु कमरें में सभी  भागों में फैल जाती है । ऐसर किस कारण से हरेता है ?

A. वाष्पीकरण ( ईवेपोरेशन )    

B. वाष्प्ण (वेपोराइजेशन  )    

C. विसरण

D. ऊध्र्वापातन

Answer: C

प्रश्न 177 : ’’वनस्पति घी’’ निम्न में से किससे बनाया जाता है?

A. हीलियम

B. हाइड्रोजन

C. आॅक्सीजन

D. नाइट्रोजन

Answer: B

प्रश्न 178 : अम्ल वर्षा होती है

A. कारखानों से

B. पेट्रोल से

C. कोयला जलाने से

D. लकड़ी से

Answer: A

प्रश्न 179 : K2Cr2O8  में क्रोमियम का आॅक्सीकरण नम्बर है

A. +6

B. -6

C. +3.5

D. -2

Answer: A

प्रश्न 180 : अब तक कितने तत्व ज्ञात किये गये हैं?

A. 102

B. 106

C. 104

D. 118

Answer: D

प्रश्न 181 : निम्नलिखित में से किस धातु का तार सरलता से खींचा जा सकता है

A. टिन

B. ताँबा

C. लेड

D. जस्ता

Answer: B

प्रश्न 182 : न्यूट्राॅन की खोज की थी

A. चैडविक ने

B. रदरफोर्ड ने

C. बोर ने

D. न्यूटन ने

Answer: A

प्रश्न 183 : गैस के 6.023×10 ‘22 अणुओं से S.T.P.( मापनक तापमान दाब )का कौनसा आयतन घिरेगा ?

A. 22.4 लीटर

B. 224 लीटर

C. 2.24 लीटर

D. 0.224 लीटर

Answer: A

प्रश्न 184 : लेड नाइट्रेट तनु हाइड्रोक्लोरायइड अम्ल के साथ अभिक्रिया करता है निम्नलिखित मे से किक्न सा रासायनिक समीकरण सही सही अभिेक्रिया को प्रदर्शित करता है

A. Pb2 NO3 + HCI → Pb2 CI + HNO3

B. Pb (NO3) NO3)2 + 3HCI → PbCI2 + 3HNO3

C. PbNO3 + HIL → PbCI + HNO3

D. Pb(NO3)2 + 2HCI → PbcI2 + HNO2

Answer: B

प्रश्न 185 : जब सान्द्र HNO3 का एक भाग HCI के तीन भागों से मिश्रित किया जाता है तो एक शक्तियशाली विलायक उत्पन्न होता है उसका नाम क्या  है

A. एक्या विलयन

B. एक्या विलायन

C. एक्या रेजिया

D. एक्या   प्युरा

Answer: C

प्रश्न 186 : किसी गैस का आयतन स्थिरर ताप पर 20% करने के लिए उसका दाब करने के लिए उसका दाब कितना प्रतिशत बढ़ाना होगा ?

A. 20%

B. 25%

C. 30%

D. 40%

Answer: B

प्रश्न 187 : किसी बेकरी में ब्रेड बनाने के लिए खमीर (यीस्ट) का इस्तेमाल क्यों किया जाता है? 

A. ब्रेड को कठोर बनाने के लिए

B. ब्रेड को मुलायम और लचीला बनाने के लिए

C. ब्रेड को आहार मूल्यता बढ़ाने के लिए

D. ब्रेड को ताजा रखने के लिए

Answer: B

प्रश्न 188 : रेफ्रिजरेशन निकाय जिसमें अमोनिया प्रशीतक के रूप में प्रयोग की जाती हे उसमें पाइपिंग किस पदार्थ की बनी होती है?

A. काॅपर

B. ब्रास

C. एल्युमिनियम

D. स्टील

Answer: C

प्रश्न 189 : अवकरण प्रक्रिया में कोई तत्व

A. इलेक्ट्राॅन का परित्याग करता है

B. इलेक्ट्राॅन ग्रहण करता है

C. प्रोटाॅन का परित्याग करता है

D. उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: B

प्रश्न 190 : उस तत्व का नाम बताइए जो पानी में ज्वलनशील है?

A. सोना

B. सोडियम

C. कैल्शियम

D. हाइड्रोजन

Answer: B

प्रश्न 191 : स्र्वण ’ निम्नलिखित में से किस पदार्थ में घुल जाता है ?

A. हाइड्रोक्लोरिक अम्ल

B. नाइट्रिक अम्ल

C. एक्वा रेजिया

D. एसीटिक अम्ल

Answer: C

प्रश्न 192 : म्हो मापनी का उपयोग किसको मापने के लिए किया जाता है?

A. कठोरता

B. अम्लता

C. क्षारकता

D. इनमें से कोई नहीें

Answer: A

प्रश्न 193 : किसी तत्व में परमाणु भार — के कारण होता है ।

A. इलेक्ट्राॅन , न्युट्राॅन , और प्रोटाॅन

B. न्युट्राॅन, और प्रोटाॅन

C. इलेक्ट्राॅन, और प्रोटाॅन

D. इलेक्ट्राॅन, और , न्युट्राॅन

Answer: B

प्रश्न 194 : पानी के ऊपर हाइड्रोजन क्लोराइड गैस को क्यों इकट्ठा नहीं किया जा सकता है ?

A. क्योंकि वह पानी से भारी है

B. क्योंकि वह पानी से जोरदार अभिक्रिया करता है

C. क्योंकि वह पानी में तेजी से विलीन हो जाता है

D. क्योंकि  उससे विस्फोट हो सकता है

Answer: C

प्रश्न 195 : सिरका (Vinegar) अम्ल का प्रतिशत अनुपात होता है

A. पानी मेंएसीटिक अम्ल का 5% विलयन

B. पानी मेंएसीटिक अम्ल का 25% विलयन

C. पानी मेंएसीटिक अम्ल का 50% विलयन

D. पानी में हाइड्रोक्लोरीक अम्ल का 70% विलयन

Answer: A

प्रश्न 196 : मापमान को कितना कम कर देने से सभी गैस शून्य आयतन घेरेंगी ?

A. 2730C

B. 27.30C

C. -2730C

D. 00 C

Answer: C

प्रश्न 197 : एन्थ्रासाइट और बिट्यूमिनस किसके उत्पाद हैं?

A. हीरा

B. पेट्रोल

C. कोयला

D. सोना

Answer: C

प्रश्न 198 : अम्लोप्चार (पिक्लिंग) है

A. सतह को जंग से बचाना

B. सतह को खराब होने से बचाने के लिए लेप परत

C. सतह से पपड़ी ,ग्रीस इत्यादि हटाना

D. उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: C

प्रश्न 199 : आॅक्सीजन की (+) आॅक्सीकरण संख्या होती है केवल

A. OF2 में

B. CI2O में

C. H2O में

D. N2O में

Answer: A

प्रश्न 200 : आवर्त सारणी का अंतिम स्थायी नाभिक वाला तत्व निम्न में से कौन है?

A. यूरेनियम

B. रेडान

C. बिस्मथ

D. रेडियम

Answer: C

प्रश्न 201 : दिया सलाई के विनिर्माण में प्रयुक्त मूलतत्व होता है

A. फाॅस्फोरस

B. मैग्नेशियम

C. सिलिकाॅन

D. सल्फर

Answer: A

प्रश्न 202 : नैनो टेक्नोलाॅजी, आण्विक स्तर पर उत्पादन है अथवा पूर्ण शुद्धता के साथा, परमाणु अथवा अणु जितनी नन्हीं वस्तुओं, पुर्जों तथा यन्त्रों का उत्पादन करना। इस कार्य के लिए पदार्थों के मापन हेतु नैनोमीटर पैमाने का प्रयोग किया जाता है। नैनोमीटर होता है एक मीटर का ……… वाँ भाग

A. 10-6

B. 10-8

C. 10-9

D. इनमें से कोई नहीें

Answer: C

प्रश्न 203 : नाभिकीय रिएक्टर के विनिर्माण मे निम्नलिखित मेंसे कौन सा तत्व अनिवार्य है ?

A. कोबाल्ट

B. प्लूटोनियम

C. जर्कोनियम

D. टंगस्टन

Answer: C

प्रश्न 204 : कैल्शियम हाइड्रोैसाइड के साथ अमोनियम क्लेाराइड की अभिक्रिया को ठीक  प्रदर्शित करने वाला सही रासायनिक सूत्र निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा है

A. NH4CI + CaOH — NH4 OH + CaCI

B. NH4CI + Ca(OH)2 → CaCI2 + 2H2O + 2NH3

C. NH4 CI + Ca (OH)2 → 3NH4 OH + CaCI2

D. H4 CI + Ca OH — CaCI + NH3 + H2O

Answer: B

प्रश्न 205 : किस अम्ल का उपयोग सीसा संचायक बैटरी में किया जाता है ?

A. सल्फयूरिक अम्ल

B. हाइड्रोक्लोरिक अम्ल

C. नाइट्रिक अम्ल

D. एसीटिक अम्ल

Answer: A

प्रश्न 206 : बाॅयल -नियम निम्नलिखित स्थिति में लागू होता है:

A. नियत

B. नियत तापमान

C. नियत दाब और तापमान

D. नियत दाब ,लेकिन परिवर्ती तापमान

Answer: B

प्रश्न 207 : प्राकृतिक रबर को मजबूत और अधिक उछाल वाला बनाने के लिए उसमें मिलाया जाने वाला पदार्थ है-

A. पाॅलिथीन

B. स्पंज

C. सल्फर

D. क्लोरीन

Answer: C

प्रश्न 208 : नाइट्राइडीकरण प्रक्रिया होती है

A. सामान्यीकरण के लिए

B. तापानुशीतन के लिए

C. पृष्ठ दृढ़ीकरण के लिए

D. कड़ेपन (टेम्परिंग) के लिए

Answer: C

प्रश्न 209 : आॅक्सीकरण वह प्रक्रिया है जिसमें

A. इलेक्ट्राॅनों की हानि होती है।

B. हाइड्रोजन का लाभ होता है।

C. इलेक्ट्राॅनों का लाभ होता है।

D. इलेक्ट्राॅनों की संख्या में कोई बदलाव नहीं होता है।

Answer: A

प्रश्न 210 : निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक कथन सही नहीं है?

A. NaCl की उपस्थिति में पेरिस आॅफ प्लास्टर की स्थापना दर में वृद्धि होती है

B. सीमेंट में जिप्सम का योग उसकी स्थापना दर को मंद करने के लिए किया जाता है

C. सभी क्षारीय मृदा धातु जलयोजित लवण उत्पन्न करते हैं

D. बेरियम तथा स्ट्राॅन्शियम प्रकृति में मुक्त रूप में पाए जाते हैं

Answer: D

प्रश्न 211 : निम्नलिखित में  सबसे भारी धातु है

A. एल्युमिनियम

B. ताँबा

C. चाँदी

D. युरेनियम

Answer: D

प्रश्न 212 : इलेक्ट्राॅन के खोजकर्ता थे

A. जे. जे. थाॅमसन

B. जेम्स वाट

C. गैलिलियो

D. रदरफोर्ड

Answer: A

प्रश्न 213 : सूर्य में नाभिकीय ईधन है:

A. हीलीयम

B. युरेनियम

C. हाइड्राजन

D. एल्फा कण

Answer: C

प्रश्न 214 : रासायनिक अभिक्रिया मे उत्प्रेरक की भूमिका किसे बदलना होता है

A. अभिक्रिया की ऊष्मा

B. अभिक्रिया की उत्पादन

C. सक्रियण ऊर्जा

D. संतुलन स्थिरांक

Answer: C

प्रश्न 215 : सभी अम्लों मेंसबसे अधिक समान तत्व है

A. हाइड्रोजन

B. क्लोरीन

C. आॅक्सीजन

D. गंधक

Answer: A

प्रश्न 216 : आदर्श गैस नियम के अनुसार गैसका   ग्राम अणुक आयतन कितना होता है ?

A. RT /pVg

B. RT /P

C. RT /V

D. 24.4L

Answer: D

प्रश्न 217 : मेथेनाॅल को इस नाम से भी जाना जाता है 

A. रबिंग अल्कोहल

B. ग्रेन अल्कोहल

C. वुड अल्कोहल

D. स्टेन अल्कोहल

Answer: C

प्रश्न 218 : मंगल पर जीव की उपस्थिति के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी  एक अवस्था सबको सुसंगत है?

A. वसयुमण्डलीय संघटन

B. तापीय अवस्थाएँ

C. बर्फ छत्रकों और हिमशीतित  जल की उपस्थिति

D. ओजोन की उपस्थिति

Answer: C

प्रश्न 219 : पुरानी किताबों का कागज भूरा किस कारण होता है?

A. लगातार उपयोग से

B. संवानत की कमी से

C. धूल जम जाने से

D. सेलुलोज के आॅक्सीकरण से

Answer: D

प्रश्न 220 : निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए

I. लाल फाॅस्फोरस एक मोमी ठोस है जबकि सफेद फाॅफोरस अक्रिस्टलीय है

II. लाल फाॅस्फोरस गंधहीन होता है जबकि सफेद  फाॅस्फोरस लहसुन की गंध देता है इन कथनों में से कौन-सा / कौन-से सही है/ हैं?

A. केवल I

B. केवल II

C. दोनों I और II

D. न तो I, न ही II

Answer: C

प्रश्न 221 : उच्च तुंगता पर पानी कुछ कम तापमान पर उबलने लगता है ? कारण है:

A. वायुमण्डलीय तापमान तुंगता के साथ -साथ घटता है

B. ऊपरी वायुमण्डल में पृथ्वी की तुलना में अधिक जल वाष्प होता है

C. ऊपरी वायुमण्डल में पृथ्वी की तुलना में अधिक जल वाष्प होता है

D. वायुमण्डलदाब  तुंगता के साथ -साथ घटता है

Answer: D

प्रश्न 222 : निम्नलिखित में सर्वाधिक कठोर धातु है

A. सोना

B. लोहा

C. प्लेटिनम

D. टंगस्टन

Answer: D

प्रश्न 223 : निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक तत्व नहीं है?

A. आॅक्सीजन

B. क्लोरीन

C. सिलिकाॅन

D. संगमरमर

Answer: D

प्रश्न 224 : प्रकाश आॅक्सीकरण (Photooxidation) प्रक्रम निम्नलिखित द्वारा प्रारंभ होता है-

A. गर्मी

B. प्रकाश

C. उत्प्रेरक

D. आॅक्सीजन

Answer: B

प्रश्न 225 : प्रोटाॅन की खोज किसने की

A. चैडविक

B. रदरफोर्ड

C. फर्मी

D. गोल्डस्टीन

Answer: D

प्रश्न 226 : संशोधित स्पिरिट होती है

A. 95% ईथाइल अल्कोहल

B. 100% ईथाइल अल्कोहल

C. मेथिलित स्पिरिट

D. टिंक्चर आयोडीन

Answer: A

प्रश्न 227 : प्रकाश-रासायनी धूम-कोहरे के बनने के समय निम्न में से कौन-सा एक उत्पन्न होता है?

A. हाइड्रोजन

B. नाइट्रोजन आॅक्साइड

C. ओजोन

D. मीथेन

Answer: C

प्रश्न 228 : एक परमाणु द्रव्यमान को व्यक्त किया जाता है

A. किग्रा में

B. ग्राम में

C. ए, एम, यू में

D. कैरेट में

Answer: C

प्रश्न 229 : जब बर्फ के दो घनों (क्यूब) को एक दूसरे के ऊपर दबासा जाता है वे जुडकार एक घन बन जाते है’ इसका कारण है

A. वेंडरवाल केबल

B. द्विध्रुव आघूर्ण

C. हाइड्रोजन आंबध रचना

D. सहसंयोजन आकर्षण

Answer: C

प्रश्न 230 : KCN से क्रिया करके CuSo4 विलयन बनाता है

A. Cu (CN)4

B. CuCN

C. K2 [Cu(CN)4]

D. K3 [Cu(CN)4]

Answer: A

प्रश्न 231 : सभी जैव यौगिक का अनिवार्य मूल तत्व है

A. नाइट्रोजन

B. आॅक्सीजन

C. कार्बन

D. गंधक

Answer: C

प्रश्न 232 : हमारे दाँतों पर पनपते जीवाणु कौन-सा पदार्थ उत्पन्न कर दाँतों में धब्बे बनाते हैं?

A. इन्सुलिन

B. डेक्सट्रान्स

C. डेेक्सट्रिक्स

D. एमाइलोपेक्टिन

Answer: B

प्रश्न 233 : लिगामेंट्स का शरीर में क्या अन्य कार्य है ?

A. पेशी को पेशी से जोड़ना

B. हड्डी को हड्डी से जोड़ना

C. पेशी को हड्डी से जोड़ना

D. पेशी को उपास्थि से जोड़ना

Answer: B

प्रश्न 234 : फोटोफास्फोरिलीेशन का अर्थ है

A. ATP से ADP बनना

B. ADP से ATP बनना

C. RNA से DNA बनना

D. DNA से RNA बनना

Answer: B

प्रश्न 235 : प्रतिजैविक पेनिसिलिन किससे प्राप्त किया जाता है?

A. पुष्पी पादप

B. कवक

C. विषाणु

D. जीवाणु

Answer: B

प्रश्न 236 : जीवाणुओं की कोशिका भित्ति किसकी बनी होती है?

A. सेलुलोज एवं काइटिन

B. वसा एवं सेलुलोज

C. प्रोटीन एवं संलुलोज

D. वसा एवं प्रोटीन

Answer: A

प्रश्न 237 : इन्सुलिन

A. रूधिर शर्करा को बढ़ाती है

B. रूधिर सर्करा को घटाती है

C. रूधिर नलिकाओं को संकुचित करती है

D. स्तन्यस्त्रवण को उद्पोषित करती है

Answer: B

प्रश्न 238 : प्रकाश संष्लेषण निषपादिन करने की क्षमता वाले पादप निम्ननिखित में से किस एक जीव प्रकार के अन्तर्गत आते है ?

A. परपोषित हेटराट्राॅफ

B. सैप्रोट्राॅफ

C. स्वपोषित आॅटोट्राॅफ

D. केमोहेटरोट्राॅॅफ

Answer: C

प्रश्न 239 : कुनैन की औषध किससे प्राप्त होती है?

A. सिनकोना के पौधे से

B. मनी प्लांट से

C. सूकेलिप्टस के पौधे से

D. ऐकोनाइट के पौधे से

Answer: A

प्रश्न 240 : मनुष्य की आंत में कौन-सा जीवाणु पाया जाता है?

A. विब्रियो काॅलेरी

B. बैसिलस

C. इश्चिरीचिया कोलाई

D. जैन्थोमोनस

Answer: C

प्रश्न 241 : ग्लाइकोलाइसिस एवं क्रेब्स चक्र के बीच की कड़ी क्या है ?

A. ग्लूकोज

B. एसीटिक अम्ल

C. फ्रुक्टोज

D. एसिटाइल कोएन्जाइम A

Answer: D

प्रश्न 242 : फलीदार पौधों में किस प्रकार की जडें पायी जाती है ?

A. शंकूरूपी जड़ें

B. ग्रंथिका जड़ें

C. गांठदार जड़ें

D. चूषकी जड़ें

Answer: B

प्रश्न 243 : मछली एक प्रथम श्रेणी का प्रोटीन है क्योंकि उसमें होते हैं

A. आवश्यक अमीनो अम्ल

B. अनावश्यक अमीनो अम्ल

C. सभी आवश्यक वसीय अम्ल

D. कोई अमीनो अम्ल नहीं

Answer: A

प्रश्न 244 : किसी माध्यम में सभी सूक्ष्मजीवों को नष्ट करना कहलाता है-

A. पाश्चुराइजेशन

B. स्टेरीलाइजेशन

C. इम्यूनाइजेशन

D. सैनीटेशन

Answer: B

प्रश्न 245 : मसूड़ों से रक्तस्त्राव को निम्न में से कौन रोकता है?

A. एस्काॅर्बिक अम्ल

B. विटामिन B

C. निकोटीनामाइड

D. थायमिन

Answer: A

प्रश्न 246 : तने या जड़ की मोटायई के निम्न में से कौन सा ऊतक उत्तरदायी होता है ?

A. आधारी ऊतक

B. विभाज्योमक

C. त्वचीय ऊतक

D. संवहन ऊतक

Answer: B

प्रश्न 247 : BCG टीका के नाम में अक्षर  ‘B’ का तात्पर्य है-

A. Bacillus

B. Brief

C. Bacteria

D. Beri-Beri

Answer: A

प्रश्न 248 : वे सूक्ष्म जीव, जो सडे़-गले पदार्थों को सरल पदार्थों में बदल देते हैं, कहलाते हैं-

A. जीवाणु

B. फफूँदी

C. विषाणु

D. अपघटक

Answer: D

प्रश्न 249 : डायस्टेज एन्जाइम किसका पाचन करता है ?

A. प्रोटीन

B. स्टार्च

C. सुक्रोज

D. वसा

Answer: B

प्रश्न 250 : जब पौणों की कोशिका को सांद्र नमक के घोलन में रखा जरता हे ता निम्न में से कौनसी घयटना घटित होती है ?

A. परासरण

B. अभिगमन

C. पतन

D. जीवद्रव्य कुंचन

Answer: D

प्रश्न 251 : गुड़ किसका मुख्य स्रोत है 

A. प्रोटीन

B. कार्बोहाइड्रेट

C. वसा

D. इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: B

प्रश्न 252 : पोषकों का वायुमण्डल में जिन कुछ सूक्ष्म जीवों की सहायता से पुन चक्रण होता है, उन्हें क्या कहते हैं?

A. उत्पादक

B. अपघटक

C. उपभोक्ता

D. इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: B

प्रश्न 253 : हमारे शरीर को ऊर्जा किससे प्राप्त होती है?

A. प्रोटीन

B. विटामिन

C. कार्बोहाइड्रेट

D. एन्जाइम

Answer: C

प्रश्न 254 : फीने के समान क्लोरीफिल किस पौधे में  पाया जाता है

A. आइडोमोनियम

B. यूलरेथ्रिक्स

C. स्पाइरागायरा

D. माकेंनिश्यया

Answer: C

प्रश्न 255 : कुनैन किससे निकाला जाता है-

A. शहतूत के पेड़ (mulberry tree)

B. युकेलिप्टस के पेड़ (eucalyptus tree)

C. सिनकोना पेड़  (cinchona plant)

D. कोको के पेड़ (cocoa plant)

Answer: C

प्रश्न 256 : विषाणु क्या कहे जा सकते हैं?

A. एककोशिकीय 

B. अकोशिकीय

C. बहुकोशिकीय

D. इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: B

प्रश्न 257 : ग्लाइकोलाइसिस का अंतिम उत्पाद क्या है?

A. एसीटिक एसिड

B. आक्जैलो एसीटिक एसिड

C. मैलिक एसिड

D. पाइरूविक एसिड

Answer: D

प्रश्न 258 : सामान्य रूप् से रेाटी कवक ठतमंक डवनसक  है

A. एल्ब्युगो

B. पेनिसीलीयम

C. एगेरिकस

D. राइजोपस

Answer: D

प्रश्न 259 : कौन-सी तारीख ’मधुमेह दिवस’ के रूप में जानी जाती है?

A. 14 फरवरी

B. 14 मई

C. 14 सितंबर

D. 14 नवंबर

Answer: D

प्रश्न 260 : जीव एवं निर्जीव के बीच की कड़ी है

A. अमीबा

B. वायरस

C. बैक्टीरिया

D. पैरामीशियम

Answer: B

प्रश्न 261 : वयस्क व्यक्ति की हदय धड़कन दर क्या होती है?

A. प्रति मिनट 50-60 बार

B. प्रति घंटा 70-80 बार

C. प्रति सेकण्ड 70-80 बार

D. प्रति मिनट 70-80 बार

Answer: D

प्रश्न 262 : हरे नारियल को तोडनें पर  जो दूध निकलता हसे वह मुख्य रूप से होता है

A. तरल निभाग

B. संहहित जल

C. तरल भ्रूणकोष

D. तरल फलभिक्ति

Answer: C

प्रश्न 263 : ‘AYUSH’ किस मंत्रालय के अन्तर्गत आता है?

A. मानव संस्थान मंत्रालय

B. स्वास्थ्य एवं परिवार कल्याण मंत्रालय

C. रक्षा मंत्रालय

D. गृह मामलों का मंत्रालय

Answer: B

प्रश्न 264 : विषाणुओं का आनुवंशिक पदार्थ है

A. DNA या RNA

B. DNA और RNA

C. क्रोमोसोम

D. प्रोटीन

Answer: A

प्रश्न 265 : इंसुलिन क्या है?

A. अम्ल

B. हार्मोन

C. एन्जाइम

D. इसमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: B

प्रश्न 266 : पर्णवृंत के बिना पत्ती क्या कहलाती है ?

A. सवृंत

B. अवृंत

C. उपवृंत

D. आलू

Answer: B

प्रश्न 267 : विश्व स्वास्थ्य संगठन कब ’विश्व एडस दिवस’ का आयोजन करता है ?

A. 1 दिसंबर

B. 2 दिसंबर

C. 10 दिसंबर

D. 15 दिसंबर

Answer: A

प्रश्न 268 : हेटरोसिस्ट नामक रचनायें किनमें पायी जाती हैं?

A. एक्टीनामाइसिटीज में

B. साइनो जीवाणुओं में

C. आर्कीबैटीरिया में

D. जीवाणुओं में

Answer: B

प्रश्न 269 : रासायनिक दृष्टि से एन्जाइम्स  क्या है ?

A. वसा

B. कार्बोहाइड्रेट

C. विटामिन

D. प्रोटिन

Answer: D

प्रश्न 270 : किसमें स्टाॅर्च कण अधिक संचित होते है ?

A. मूँगफली

B. सायाबीन

C. मक्का

D. आलू

Answer: D

प्रश्न 271 : विश्व में व्यापक रूप से फैले रोग को कहा जाता है –

A. सर्वव्यापी

B. स्थानिक

C. महामारी

D. कदाचनिक

Answer: C

प्रश्न 272 : लैटिन में वायरस का क्या अर्थ है?

A. मधुर

B. लधु

C. तरल

D. विष

Answer: D

प्रश्न 273 : किस क्रिया मेंअल्कोहाल का निर्माण होता है ?

A. आॅक्सी श्वसन

B. अनाॅक्सी श्वसन

C. प्रोटीन संश्लेषण

D. प्रकाश संश्लेषण

Answer: B

प्रश्न 274 : पुष्पों के खुलने एवं बंद होने की क्रिया से संबंधित गति को क्या कहते है ?

A. अनुचलन

B. अनुकुंचन

C. प्रतिकुचन

D. रसाकुंचन

Answer: B

प्रश्न 275 : सोयाबीन में क्या ज्यादा पाया जाता है?

A. प्रोटीन

B. कार्बोहाइड्रेट

C. वसा

D. खनिज

Answer: A

प्रश्न 276 : जीवाणु कोशिका में सूत्रकणिका की संख्या है

A. एक

B. दो

C. अनेक

D. शून्य

Answer: D

प्रश्न 277 : शरीन में होने वाली सासायनिक क्रियाओं का नियंत्रक प्रोटीन  क्या कहलाता है ?

A. विटामिन

B. होर्मोन

C. एन्जाइम

D. कार्बोहाइड्रेट

Answer: B

प्रश्न 278 : आावतबीजियों मे मादा युगमाद्भिद होता है

A. भ्रूणकोष

B. बीजाण्ड

C. बीजाण्डकाय

D. गुरूबीजाणु मातृकोशिका

Answer: B

प्रश्न 279 : विश्व स्वास्थ्य संगठन की 2008 की रिपोर्ट के अनुसार जलवायु परिवर्तन के कारण होने वाली बीमारियों की संख्या है

A. 6

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25

Answer: B

प्रश्न 280 : ज्ञात सबसें छोटा प्रोकैरियोटिक जीव है

A. माइक्रोसिस्टिस

B. माइक्रोप्लाज्मा

C. बैक्टीरिया

D. क्लोरेला

Answer: B

प्रश्न 281 : ग्लुकोज के वसयुवीय श्वसन से कितनी ऊर्जाप्राप्त होती है

A. 600 k. Cal .

B. 637 k. Cal .

C. 670 k. Cal .

D. 673 k. Cal .

Answer: D

प्रश्न 282 : प्रकाश श्वसन होता है , केवल

A. सम्पूर्ण पौधे मे

B. पौधें के हरे भागों मे

C. तने में

D. जड़एवं शाखाओं में

Answer: B

प्रश्न 283 : ’स्मार्ट जैल’ होता है

A. एक पदार्थ जो जीवन-तंत्रों की नकल है

B. एक जैल जो मछली से प्राप्त होता है

C. एक जैल जो समुद्री खरपतवार से प्राप्त होता है

D. उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: A

प्रश्न 284 : विषाणु में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी एक विशेषता नहीं होती ?

A. परपोषी कोशिका के भीतर प्रजनन

B. कोशिका भित्ति की मौजूदगी

C. स्वभाव से पूरी तरह परजीवी

D. DNA या RNA की मौजूदगी

Answer: B

प्रश्न 285 : एक्यूपंचर है

A. टायर एवं ट्यूब को ठीक करना

B. सूई चुभो कर बीमारी कर इलाज

C. एक फसल

D. एक हदय रोग

Answer: B

प्रश्न 286 : जानवरों की हड्डियों और दाँतों मे मौजूद मुख्य रासायनिक पदार्थ है-

A. सोडियम क्लोराइड

B. चीनी

C. कैल्शियम फॉस्फेट

D. कैल्शियम सल्फेट

Answer: C

प्रश्न 287 : ग्रीनहाउस प्रभाव मुख्यतया वायुमंडल में किसकी वृद्धि कें कारण होता है ?

A. ओजोन

B. नाइटोजन

C. सल्फर डाइ-ऑक्साइड

D. कार्बन डाइ-ऑक्साइड

Answer: D

प्रश्न 288 : विज्ञान की शाखा जो कोशिकाओं का अध्ययन करता है किस रूप में जाना जाता है?

A. साइटोलॉजी

B. इकोलॉजी

C. साइकोलॉजी

D. एन्टोमोलॉजी

Answer: A

प्रश्न 289 : दालें पादपों के इस कुल सेप्राप्त होती है

A. लिलिएसी

B. लेग्यूमीनेसी

C. साइकेडेसी

D. कवक

Answer: B

प्रश्न 290 : बैसिलस थूरिंजिएंसिस इसका उदाहरण है

A. एकल कोशिका प्रोटिन

B. जैवनाशी

C. आनुवशिकतः रूपांतरित खाघ

D. जैवउर्वरक

Answer: B

प्रश्न 291 : अलसी की खल (linseed cake) निम्नलिखित काम में आती है-

A. धोने के काम में

B. पशुओं को खिलाने में

C. नवजात को खिलाने में

D. पटाखों को भरने में

Answer: B

प्रश्न 292 : साइटोक्रोम सक्रिय होता है

A. नीले प्रकाश में

B. हरे प्रकाश में

C. सफेद प्रकाश में

D. लाल प्रकाश में

Answer: D

प्रश्न 293 : निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा एक चाय में नहीं पाया जाता है?

A. थीन

B. कैफिन

C. टैनिन

D. मार्फीन

Answer: D

प्रश्न 294 : पनीर (Cheese) बनाने में किस किण्वक का प्रयोग होता है?

A. रेनिन

B. पेप्सिन

C. ट्रिप्सिन

D. एमाइलेज

Answer: A

प्रश्न 295 : स्तनपायी जो अंडे देता है-

A. कंगारू

B. बत्तख बिल्ड प्लेटीपस

C. ओपोसम

D. ओट्टम

Answer: B

प्रश्न 296 : उथले हैन्डपम्प से पानी पीने वाले व्यक्तियों में निम्नलिखित बीमारियाँ होने की सम्भावना होती है-

(A) हैजा

(B) टायफायड

(C) पीलिया

(D) फ्लुओरोसिस

स्ही उत्तर है-

A. a, b और d

B. a और b

C. b, c और d

D. a और c

Answer: B

प्रश्न 297 : पर्यावरणविदों के लिए भविष्य मे कौन सा अत्यधिक महत्वपुर्ण क्षेत्र हेगा ?

A. औघोगिक अपशिष्ट

B. नाभिकीय अपशिष्ट

C. घरेलू अपशिष्ट

D. जलीय अपशिष्ट

Answer: B

प्रश्न 298 : प्रतिवर्ती प्रतिलिपि की खोज किसके द्वारा हुई

A. बीडल तथा टैटम

B. वाटसन तथा क्रिक

C. टेमिन तथा बाल्टीमोर

D. हर गोविन्द खुराना

Answer: C

प्रश्न 299 : निम्नलिखित में कौन सा पादप क्लोरोप्लास्ट डाइमॉरफिज्म प्रद्रर्शित करता है

A. चुकन्दर

B. धान

C. गेहुँ

D. गन्ना

Answer: D

प्रश्न 300 : निम्नलिखित में से कैन सा हरित ईधन का स्त्रोत है ?

A. पाइन

B. करंज

C. फर्न

D. उपरोक्त में से काई नहीं

Answer: B

Source:toppersexam.com

Important Study Notes for IAS Prelims 2019

  1. 150th anniversary of the organisation of the periodic table, UNESCO has launched the International Year of the Periodic Table. The International Union of Pure Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) is responsible for maintaining the periodic table. IUPAC is an international federation of National Adhering Organizations that represents chemists in individual countries. It is a member of the International Council for Science (ICSU). Headquarters of IUPAC is in Zürich, Switzerland.
  • Corruption Perception Index 2018 has been released

The index ranks 180 countries and territories by their perceived levels of public sector corruption according to experts and businesspeople. The Transparency International’s Corruption Perception Index makes the observations: Denmark is the world least corrupt country scoring 88 out of 100 points. Denmark is followed by New Zealand and Finland.

  • Somalia has been ranked last with a score of 10 behind South Sudan and Syria.
  • More than two-thirds of evaluated countries scored below 50 points, while the average score remained at last year’s level of only 43 points.
  • For the first time the United States dropped out of the top 20 and it was ranked at 22nd rank.
  • Along with Brazil, US were placed in the watch list by Transparency International.

   3. The Future of Rail Report has been released by the International Energy Agency (IEA).

It examines how the role of rail in global transport might be elevated as a means to reduce the energy use and environmental impacts associated with transport.

About IEA:

  • Established in 1974 as per framework of the OECD.
  • The IEA works to ensure reliable, affordable and clean energy for its 30 member countries and beyond. Our mission is guided by four main areas of focus: energy security, economic development, environmental awareness and engagement worldwide.
  • Headquarters (Secretariat): Paris, France

 4. The Africa Centre for Climate and Sustainable Development was inaugurated by the Italian Prime Minister Giuseppe Conte at Rome.

  • The centre has been opened by the Italian government in association with the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO).

5. Punit Goenka is the new chairman of BARC.

BARC: It is a collaborative Industry Company founded in 2010 by stakeholder bodies that represent Broadcasters, Advertisers, and Advertising and Media Agencies.

BARC India was set up as per guidelines of the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting, Government of India.

Promoters of BARC India are Indian Broadcasting Foundation, Indian Society of Advertisers and Advertising Agencies Association of India.

6. The central banks of the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and Saudi Arabia have launched a common digital currency called ‘Aber’, which will be used in financial settlements between the two countries through Block chains and Distributed Ledgers technologies.

The use of the currency will be restricted to a limited number of banks in each state. In case that no technical obstacles are encountered, economic and legal requirements for future uses will be considered.

7. Vote- on- account, Full budget and Interim Budget: A vote on account essentially means that the government seeks the approval of Parliament for meeting expenditure — paying salaries, ongoing programmes in various sectors etc — with no changes in the taxation structure, until a new government takes over and presents a full Budget that is revised for the full fiscal.

Full Budget deals with both expenditure and revenue side but Vote-on-account deals only with the expenditure side of the government’s budget.

Interim Budget: An Interim Budget is not the same as a ‘Vote on Account’. While a ‘Vote on Account’ deals only with the expenditure side of the government’s budget, an Interim Budget is a complete set of accounts, including both expenditure and receipts. An Interim Budget gives the complete financial statement, very similar to a full Budget.

8. National Agricultural Higher Education Project (NAHEP)

The ICAR has recently launched Rs 1100 crore ambitious National Agricultural Higher Education Project (NAHEP).

  • To attract talent and strengthen higher agricultural education in the country.
  • Funded by the World Bank and the Indian Government on a 50:50 basis
  • The Main objective of the NAHEP for India is to support participating agricultural universities and ICAR in providing more relevant and higher quality education to Agricultural University students. In addition, a four year degree in Agriculture, Horticulture, Fisheries and Forestry has been declared a professional degree.

9. Ganga Expressway: The government of Uttar Pradesh has approved the construction of the Ganga Expressway.

  • The 600km long expressway would be the longest expressway in the world.
  • The expressway will provide for better connectivity of the Prayagraj (Allahabad) to Western Pradesh.

10. Golden langur breeding project in Assam:

    Assam has announced the success of the Golden Langur Conservation Breeding Programme in the State. The golden langur conservation project was undertaken at the Assam State Zoo in Guwahati during the 2011-12 fiscal.

  • The golden langur (Trachypithecus geei) is currently endangered.
  • Apart from a 60 square mile area in north-western Assam, small populations are found in Bhutan and Tripura.

11. PISA 2021

The Union Human Resources Development Ministry has signed an agreement with Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) for India’s Participation in Programme for International Student Assessment- PISA 2021.

The students will be selected by PISA through random sampling. The schools run by Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS), Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS) and schools in the UT of Chandigarh would be participating.

 India’s participation in PISA- 2021 would lead to recognition and acceptability of Indian students and prepare them for the global economy in the 21st century.

India had taken part in Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA) in 2009 and bagged the 72nd rank among 74 participating countries. Then UPA government had boycotted PISA, blaming “out of context” questions for India’s dismal performance.

Later, the HRD Ministry, under the NDA-II government, revisited this decision in 2016 and the Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) had set up a committee to review the matter and submitted its report in December 2016. The report recommended for participation in test in 2018. However, India missed the application deadline for the 2018 cycle.

12. Non-communicable diseases (NCDs) — mainly cardiovascular diseases, chronic respiratory diseases, diabetes and cancer — continue to be the top killers in the South-East Asia Region, claiming 8.5 million lives each year, according to the World Health Organisation (WHO).

Containing the NCDs has been listed by the WHO as its health goal for this year along with reducing mortality related to air pollution and climate change, global influenza pandemic etc.

13. New Delhi Superbug Gene Reaches the Arctic

In a significant find in the global spread of multi-drug resistant (MDR) bacteria, scientists have found a “superbug” gene — first detected in over a decade back — in one of the last “pristine” places on Earth that is some 12,870 km away.

Soil samples taken in Svalbard — a Norwegian archipelago between mainland Norway and the North Pole — have now confirmed the spread of blaNDM-1 (New Delhi Metallo-beta-lactamase-1) into the High Arctic. Carried in the gut of animals and people, blaNDM-1 and other ARGs were found in Arctic soils that were likely spread through the faecal matter of birds, other wildlife and human visitors to the area.

A superbug, also called multi-resistant, is a bacterium that carries several resistance genes. These are resistant to multiple antibiotics and are able to survive even after exposure to one or more antibiotics.

14. Delhi to Introduce MSP based on Swaminathan Commission Report: The Delhi government has decided to introduce Minimum Support Price (MSP) for farmers based on the report of the MS Swaminathan Commission.

A three-member committee was formed in December to study the MS Swaminathan Commission’s report. The committee has submitted its report. The report will be put before experts for suggestions. Once the MSP is finalised, the government will hold meetings with farmers, seeking their views and thereafter it will be sent to the Cabinet.

The National Commission on Farmers (NCF), with MS Swaminathan as its chairman, was formed in 2004.

Aim: To come up with a system for sustainability in farming system and make it more profitable and cost competitive in farm commodities.

To also recommend measures for credit and other marketing steps

The commission submitted five reports between December 2004 and October 2006. The fifth and final report is considered the most crucial as it contains suggestions for the agriculture sector as a whole.

15. Niti Aayog 2.0: In a paper titled ‘Towards India’s New Fiscal Federalism’, former Finance Commission chairman Vijay Kelkar has pitched for setting up of a ‘new Niti Aayog’ and giving it responsibility for allocating capital and revenue grants to the states.

Replacing the Planning Commission, which was promoting regionally balanced growth in India, by the Niti Aayog, a think tank, has reduced the government’s policy reach. Therefore, the need has arisen for an institution to do the job at hand related to the structural issues including removal of regional imbalances in the economy.

Niti-Aayog-IAS-Prelims-2019

16. Indus Waters Treaty: Pak delegation has arrived in Delhi for Chenab under Indus Waters Treaty project inspection.

This tour is an obligation imposed on both the countries by the Indus Waters Treaty 1960 between India and Pakistan. Under the treaty, both the commissioners are mandated to inspect sites and works on both the sides of Indus basin in a block of five years. Since signing of the treaty, a total of 118 such tours on both the sides have been undertaken by the commission.

Signed in 1960 by then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and then Pakistan President Ayub Khan, the treaty allocates 80% of water from the six-river Indus water system to Pakistan.

Under the treaty, control over six north Indian rivers was divided between the two countries. India got control over the rivers Beas, Ravi and Sutlej whereas Pakistan got control over Indus, Chenab and Jhelum.

This is a unique treaty involving a third party. It was brokered by the World Bank.

A Permanent Indus Commission was set up as a bilateral commission to implement and manage the Treaty. The Commission solves disputes arising over water sharing.

The Treaty also provides arbitration mechanism to solve disputes amicably.

17. Indian Railways’ fastest Train 18 named Vande Bharat Express: India’s first indigenously built engineless semi-high speed train, Train 18, has been named Vande Bharat Express.

  • The train is set to run between Delhi and Varanasi at a maximum speed of 160 kmph.
  • Train 18 is a flagship train set; the first prototype has been built by the Integral Coach Factory, Chennai, in a record time of 20 months.
  • The train is a 100% ‘Make in India’ project and is claimed to be built at half the cost of a similar train set that is imported.
  • T-18 is a self-propelled engine-less train (similar to the Metro trains) and is energy-efficient as its coaches will be fitted with LED lights. Coaches will have automatic doors and retractable footsteps.
  • It will be inter-connected with fully sealed gangways along with a GPS-based Passenger Information System. It is provided with of Bio toilets.

18. Atal Setu of Goa: “Atal Setu” on the Mandovi River in Goa has been inaugurated.

Features of the bridge: It is 5.1-km long cable-stayed bridge connecting state capital Panaji with north Goa. The bridge is constructed by the GIDC (Goa Infrastructure Development Corporation) in collaboration with construction major Larsen and Toubro.

Mahadayi, also known as the Mandovi River, is known as a lifeline in the northern parts of Karnataka. The river originates and flows for 28 kilometer in Karnataka and goes through Maharashtra and Goa before meeting the Arabian Sea.

19. Report on ‘e-waste’ by UN: To highlight the rising challenge posed by mountains of discarded electronics worldwide, seven UN entities have come together to launch the report- “A New Circular Vision for Electronics – Time for a Global Reboot”- at the World Economic Forum in Davos, Switzerland, in a bid to offer some solutions to a behemoth-sized problem that is making the world sicker and adding to environmental degradation.

The joint report calls for a new vision for e-waste based on the “circular economy” concept, whereby a regenerative system can minimize waste and energy leakage.

E-waste export, though, is regulated under the Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movement of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal, which has been ratified by 188 nations.

20. Bharat Ratna:

Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award of the Republic of India. The provision of Bharat Ratna was introduced in 1954.

Eligibility: Any person without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex is eligible for these awards.

There is no written provision that Bharat Ratna should be awarded to Indian citizens only.

It is awarded in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavour. The award was originally limited to achievements in the arts, literature, science and public services but the government expanded the criteria to include “any field of human endeavour” in December 2011.

In terms of Article 18 (1) of the Constitution, the award cannot be used as a prefix or suffix to the recipient’s name. However, should an award winner consider it necessary, he/she may use the expression in their biodata/letterhead/visiting card etc. to indicate that he/she is a recipient of the award.

21. Padma Awards

Padma Awards – one of the highest civilian Awards of the country, are conferred in three categories, namely, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri. They were instituted in the year 1954. The Awards are given in various disciplines/ fields of activities, viz. – art, social work, public affairs, science and engineering, trade and industry, medicine, literature and education, sports, civil service, etc.

22. Padma Vibhushan- is awarded for exceptional and distinguished service ;( it is a second degree honour).

Padma Bhushan is awarded for distinguished service of high order. (It is a third degree honour).

Padma Shri is awarded for distinguished service in any field. (It is a fourth degree honour).

The awards are announced on the occasion of Republic Day every year.

The award is normally not conferred posthumously. However, in highly deserving cases, the Government could consider giving an award posthumously if the demise of the person proposed to be honoured has been recent, say within a period of one year preceding the Republic Day on which it is proposed to announce the award.

23. Nitrogen pollution: A major international research programme is being carried out to tackle the challenge that nitrogen pollution poses for environment, food security, human health and the economy in South Asia. The research programme will be carried out by South Asian Nitrogen Hub.

24. Jaipur Literature Festival: The historic Diggi Palace is hosting the five-day Jaipur Literature Festival.

The Jaipur Literature Festival is an annual literary festival which takes place in the Indian city of Jaipur each January.

It was founded in 2006, and from 2008 has been produced by Teamwork Arts.

The Festival’s core values are to serve as a democratic, non-aligned platform offering free and fair access.

25. ISRO’s first mission of 2019

India has successfully launched Microsat-R, a military satellite and KalamSat onboard its Polar rocket PSLV C44, in the first mission for the ISRO in 2019.

Microsat-R is meant for military use.

KalamSat is a communication satellite with a life span of two months. The nanosatellite is a 10cm cube weighing 1.2 kg. It was the first to use the rocket’s fourth stage as an orbital platform. It is the world’s lightest and first ever 3D-printed satellite.

26. Crocodylus Palustris

The mugger crocodile, also called marsh crocodile or broad-snouted crocodile, has come to the centre of renewed attention in Gujarat, where the Forest Department has started evacuating muggers from two ponds on the Sardar Sarovar Dam premises on the Narmada, to facilitate a seaplane service at the Statue of Unity.

  • Already extinct in Bhutan and Myanmar
  • Listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List since 1982
  • In India, it is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

27. National Girl Child Day (NGCD): National Girl Child Day (NGCD) was observed on 24th January with objectives of generating awareness on the issue of declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR) and creates a positive environment around valuing the girl child. The programme also observed anniversary of Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) Scheme. National Girl Child Day was first initiated in 2008.

Theme:Empowering Girls for a Brighter Tomorrow”.

  • To increase the consciousness of the people and offer new opportunities to the girl child in the society.
  • To remove all the inequalities faced by the girl child.
  • To ensure that the girl child should get all their human rights, respect and value in the country.
  • To work regarding gender discrimination, to educate people.

28. W.H.O’s list of 10 Global health threats

The World Health Organisation (WHO) list of 10 global health threats which demand immediate attention from W.H.O and health partners in 2019 has been released. According to the WHO, unless steps are taken to address these threats millions of lives are at risk.

Here are the 10 health issues that demand urgent attention from WHO and partners in 2019.

  • Air pollution and climate change
  • Non-communicable diseases
  • Global influenza pandemic
  • Fragile and vulnerable settings: More than 22% of the world population lives in places where protracted crisis (through a combination of challenges such as drought, famine, conflict and population displacement) and weak health services leave people without access to basic care
  • Antimicrobial resistance
  • Ebola and other high-threat pathogens
  • Weak primary health care
  • Vaccine hesitancy: Vaccination is one of the most cost-effective ways of avoiding disease, however, the reluctance or refusal to vaccinate despite the availability of vaccines, threatens to reverse progress made in tackling vaccine-preventable diseases
  • Dengue
  • HIV

  29. Pravasi Teerth Darshan Yojana: Under the scheme, a group of Indian diaspora will be taken on a government-sponsored tour of religious places in India twice a year.

The group will be taken to the religious places of all major religions in India.

The tour would be completely government sponsored.

Under the eligibility criteria, all people of Indian-origin, aged between 45 and 65 can apply and a group will be selected out of them.

The first preference will be given to people from ‘Girmitiya countries’ such as Mauritius, Fiji, Suriname, Guyana, Trinidad and Tobago and Jamaica.

30. Girmityas: Girmityas or Jahajis are descendants of indentured Indian labourers brought to Fiji, Mauritius, South Africa, East Africa, the Malay Peninsula, Caribbean and South America (Trinidad and Tobago, Guyana and Suriname) to work on sugarcane plantations for the prosperity of the European settlers and save the Fijians from having to work on these plantations and thus to preserve their culture.

  • The term Girmitiya was coined by Mahatma Gandhi who referred to himself as first Girmitiya.
  • The countries where these indentured Indian labourers settled are known as Girmitiya countries.

31. CRZ Regulations: The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change have notified the 2019 Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) norms, replacing the existing CRZ norms of 2011.

  • The new CRZ norms have been issued under Section 3 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
  • The new CRZ norms aim to promote sustainable development based on scientific principles.
  • To promote sustainable development based on scientific principles taking into account the natural hazards such as increasing sea levels due to global warming.
  • To conserve and protect the environment of coastal stretches and marine areas, besides livelihood security to the fisher communities and other local communities in the coastal area

32. Sea Vigil: It is the first coastal defence Exercise, conducted by the Navy and Coast Guard, in close coordination with State Governments and Union Territories. It was the largest such exercise the country had ever witnessed in recent times and saw participation by more than 100 ships, aircraft and patrol boats manned and operated by various security agencies.

To comprehensively and holistically validate the efficacy of the measures taken since ’26/11′

33. Mekedatu project: The Karnataka Government has submitted a detailed project report (DPR) of the Mekedatu project to the Central Water Commission (CWC). As per the DPR, the total project cost will be the Rs 5,900 crore.

Now, the DPR will be placed before the Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA) and after its approval, will be brought before the Advisory Committee of the Union Ministry of Water Resources.

The DPR will be examined in specialised directorates of CWC including the Inter-State Matters Directorate, and if found acceptable, will be submitted to the Advisory Committee of Irrigation and Multipurpose Projects of the Ministry of Water Resources, for acceptance.

On the basis of the note prepared by CWC and deliberations during the meeting of the Advisory Committee, a decision on acceptance of the project will be taken.

34. ‘Size India’ project

The Clothing Manufacturers Association of India (CMAI) will work with the Union Ministry of Textiles in the “Size India” project, which is expected to be launched next month.

  • CMAI will conduct a study across India to arrive at standard sizes.
  • The ‘Size India’ project will help creates an India-specific size chart for the textiles and garment industry.
  • To arrive at standard Indian sizes for apparels
  • The project will reduce overall prices and the consumers will stand to benefit from it.
  • Under the project, anthropometric data will be collected from 25,000 sample (with men and women in equal numbers) population in age group 15 to 65 years across six major cities.
  • It will create database of measurements that will result in standardized size chart which is representative of Indian population and can be adopted by apparel industry.

35. Arrow 3 interceptor system

  • Arrow 3 interceptor system was recently successfully tested.
  • Arrow 3 is intended to serve as Israel’s highest-altitude missile interception system.
  • It is jointly funded, developed and produced by Israel and the United States.
  • The system is designed to shoot down missiles above the atmosphere.
  • Israel’s Arrow system, partly financed by the United States, was developed and produced by Israeli Aerospace Industries in partnership with Boeing.
  • Arrow 3 may serve as an anti-satellite weapon, which would make Israel one of the world’s few countries capable of shooting down satellites.

 36. Global Talent Competitive Index 2019

  • Global Talent Competitive Index (GTCI) for 2019 has been released.
  • GTCI, launched in 2013, is an annual benchmarking report that measures the ability of countries to compete for talent.
  • It is released by INSEAD business school in partnership with Tata Communications and Adecco Group.
  • The report measures levels of Global Talent Competitiveness by looking at 68 variables such as ease of hiring, gender earnings gap, and prevalence of training in firms.

37. Groundwater ‘time bomb’ is ticking

Future generations face an environmental “time bomb” as the world’s groundwater systems take decades to respond to the present day impact of climate change, scientists have warned.

As per the findings by an international team of researchers, groundwater reserves are already under pressure as the global population explodes and crop production rises in lockstep. But the extreme weather events such as drought and record rainfall — both made worse by our heating planet — could have another long-lasting impact on how quickly reserves replenish.

38. Pravasi Bhartiya Divas 2019: The 15th annual Pravasi Bhartiya Divas (PBD) is being held in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh. Usually celebrated on or around 9th January, the grand scale of arrangements that went behind this year’s celebrations pushed the event to January 21-23.

Chief Guest: The Prime Minister of Mauritius, Pravind Jugnauth.

Theme: “Role of Indian Diaspora in building New India”.

The first chapter of Pravasi Bhartiya Divas was held in 2003 to recognise the contributions of NRIs in academic and professional fields across the world.

The reason 9th January is usually set aside for celebrating Pravasi Bhartiya Divas is that Mahatma Gandhi returned from South Africa on this day in 1915.

These conventions provide a platform to the overseas Indian community to engage with the government and Indian communities in India for mutually beneficial activities. These conventions are also very useful in networking among the overseas Indian community residing in various parts of the world and enable them to share their experiences in various fields.

39.  Flamingo Festival at Pulicat Lake

Flamingo Festival is held every year to promote tourism in Pulicat and Nellapattu. Flamingo Festival is being organised for the past 12 years.

Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary: It is considered one of the biggest habitats for some hundreds of pelicans and other birds. Located about 20 km north of the Pulicat Lake on the Andhra Pradesh-Tamil Nadu border, the sanctuary is spread in about 459 hectares.

About Pulicat Lake: It is the second largest brackish water lake or lagoon in India, after Chilika Lake. It straddles the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu states with over 96% of it in Andhra Pradesh. The lake encompasses the Pulicat Lake Bird Sanctuary. The barrier island of Sriharikota separates the lake from the Bay of Bengal and is home to the Satish Dhawan Space Centre. Two rivers which feed the lagoon are the Arani River at the southern tip and the Kalangi River from the northwest, in addition to some smaller streams. The Buckingham Canal, a navigation channel, is part of the lagoon on its western side.

40. Smart Food Executive Council: Associations including the Asia-Pacific Association of Agricultural Research Institutions (APAARI), Forum for Agricultural Research in Africa (FARA), West and Central African Council for Agricultural Research and Development (CORAF), Food Agriculture and Natural Resources Policy Analysis Network (FANRPAN), and the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) together have formed the Smart Food Executive Council.

41. Alliance to End Plastic Waste (AEPW)

42. Global Economy Watch report has been released by London based multinational professional services network- PricewaterhouseCoopers (PwC).

43. ISRO’s Young Scientist programme

44. ‘Operation Kabaddi’

45. 120 long years, researchers in Sikkim have rediscovered the Small Wood brown butterfly species from Bakhim in Khangchendzonga National Park.

46. Two new species of moss rose discovered in south India

47. Devadasi system

48. The Odisha government is planning to move its district mineral foundations (DMF) to its steel and mines department from the planning and convergence department. The plan to move the DMFs aims to improve implementation and use of funds.

49. Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana (PMKKKY)

50. Bihar’s heath department has imposed a blanket ban for 15 days on sale of fish from Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal in capital Patna after samples were found to be contaminated with formalin. The ban includes storage and transportation of fish from Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal.

Interim Budget 2019-20 – Key Points of the Indian Budget 2019

Piyush Goyal, Minister of Finance, presented the Indian Budget 2019 (Interim Budget 2019-20) on February 1, 2019. In this article, we shall help you not only understand the key points of the Union Budget 2019 but also understand the key concepts like Fiscal Deficit, Primary Deficit etc too by analysing the budget estimates.

Budget Expenditure is Rs.27, 84,200 crores

The Indian Budget 2019 is of 27.84 lakh crore rupees. The expenditure has increased significantly when compared with the Union Budget 2018, where the expenditure figure was 24.42 lakh crores.

Total Receipts (without considering borrowing) is only Rs.20, 80,201 crores

The total revenue expected in the financial year 2019-20 (without considering borrowing) is only Rs. 20.80 lakh crores. As you can see the expenditure (Rs.27.84 lakh crores) is way higher than the receipts (Rs.20.80 lakh crores).

To balance the expenditure and receipts side of the budget, the government needs to borrow money.

The borrowings and other liabilities are Rs. 7, 03,999 crores

The Indian government plans to borrow Rs. 7 lakh crore in the financial year 2019-20 to meet its expenditure. Borrowings and other liabilities is known as Fiscal Deficit. As per budget 2019, Fiscal Deficit is 3.4% of Indian GDP. This is above the FRBM guidelines.

Borrowing is not always a bad idea – if the borrowed money is used for productive purposes. For examples, if borrowed money is used to build capital assets like factories, roads, railways etc – that is productive. This would result in better employment opportunities as well.

However, how the Indian Finance Minister plans to utilise the borrowings as per Indian Budget 2019?

Interest Payments are Rs. 6, 65,061 crore!

The Indian government had already taken many loans – mainly from the public. The interest payments for the same are above Rs.6.6 lakh crore. You may note that this is just for interest payments and not for principal repayments.

So how much amount is left for productive investments?

To find this, you need to deduct Interest Payments from Borrowings. It can also be expressed as Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments, right? Rs. Rs. 703999 crores – Rs. 665061 crore = Rs. 38938 crores.

This figure is known as Primary Deficit.

The Primary Deficit of India, as per the latest budget is Rs. 38938 crores

This comes only as 0.2 of GDP. What should you understand from this figure? Out of the borrowed money, only 0.2% of GDP is in reality available for productive purposes.

Disinvestment target is Rs.90, 000 crore

The government also tries to meet its expenditure by selling the shares of public limited companies. For 2019, the government hopes to get at least Rs.80,000 crore, though the target mentioned in the budget document is Rs.90,000. In 2017, the government had obtained about Rs.1, 00,000 crore via disinvestment route.

Amount dedicated to Capital Expenditure is only Rs.3, 36,293 crore (12%)

interim budget 2019-20

As we mentioned before, for a country to grow, it should invest in productive assets (capital assets). With that perspective in mind, the main figure to look at is capital expenditure. Only this figure would be used to build infrastructure – road, railways etc – which would help in future growth.

Out of the total expenditure of Rs.27.84 lakh crore rupees, only Rs.3.36 lakh crore is allocated for capital expenditure (12%)

If the grants in aid given to states for capital asset creation (Rs 2 lakh crore) are also included, the total expenditure on the capital asset creation side comes only to 20% of the entire union budget.

Tax Revenue is Rs.17, 05,046 crore (meets only 61% of expenditure)

The Finance minister estimates tax revenue of Rs.17 lakh crore for the financial year 2019-20. This is much higher expectations than the current year revised estimates of Rs.14.84 lakh crores.

Apart from tax revenue of Rs.17 lakh crore, the government also expects to get Rs.2.7 lakh crore as non-tax revenue.

The total revenue receipts estimated are Rs. 19.77 lakh crore (meets only 71% of total expenditure)

Revenue receipts less than revenue expenditure by Rs. 4, 70,214 crore

Spending on the revenue side would not build any new assets. Revenue expenditure is used for day-to-day expenses of running the government machinery like salary, pension, interest payments etc.

Ideally, a government system should be efficient enough to generate surplus income from the resources on which it gives a salary, pension etc so that the additional revenue can be used for capital expenditure. However, in the case of India, the government machinery is not generating enough income to even to meet their salary or pension.

To understand the case better, consider a government project to collect a particular tax. If the salaries, pension, and administrative expenses of the project is Rs.10 crore, and if the project is able to collect only Rs.6 crore as tax, running this project results in a loss of Rs.4 crore rupees. In this case, it’s even better not to collect tax!

That is the reason why, the FRBM act, even in 2003, mandated to eliminate the revenue deficit completely. However, the fundamental problem of revenue deficit still exists in the Indian Budget.

The total revenue receipts estimated are Rs. 19.77 lakh crore while total revenue expenditure is Rs.24.47 lakh crore.

Interim Budget 2019 – Other Highlights

  • “This isn’t interim budget, this is the roadmap for development”, says Finance Minister.
  • 10 point vision for 2030 to realize India’s social economic potential; 10 trillion dollars economy in 13 years.
  • Present Income Tax rates to continue; Full tax rebate up to an income of 5 lakh rupees for individual taxpayers; Standard deduction raised to 50,000, a hike of 10,000 for salaried class.
  • Direct tax system simplified; Returns to be processed in 24 hours with immediate refunds.
  • 90 per cent GST payers can file quarterly returns; Small and Medium Enterprises to get two per cent interest rebate on an incremental loan of one crore rupees; A Group of Ministers to examine GST burden on home buyers.
  • Customs to go for digitalization of export and import transactions.
  • Allocations to Defence budget crosses three lakh crore rupees for the first time.
  • Allocations to Health care, MGNREGA, SC/ST welfare programmes, Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana, Development of infrastructure in North-East hiked substantially.
  • Electricity connection to all willing families by next month.
  • One lakh more villages to get digital connectivity.
  • A National Centre on Artificial Intelligence Centre.
  • Rs.6, 000 yearly direct supports to farmers through PM-KISAN Programme.
  • Rs. 3,000 pension for unorganised sector workers earning up to 15,000 rupees through a mega Pension Scheme – Pradhan Mantri Shram- Yogi Maandhan.
  • Government e-Marketplace – GeM to be extended to all Central Public Sector Enterprises.
  • Over three lakh 38 thousand shell companies deregistered after demonetization.
  • A container cargo movement to the North-East through Brahmaputra river; Allocation for infrastructure development in the region hiked by 21 per cent.
  • Indigenous development of semi-high speed Vande Bharat Express train.
  • A separate Department of Fisheries.
  • An All India Institute of Medical Sciences – AIIMS for Haryana.
  • Single window clearance for shooting films to be made available to Indian filmmakers.
  • Cinematograph Act to be tightened to check piracy.
  • A programme for genetic upgradation of cow – Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog