Daily Current Affairs 29-30-31 March 2019

Dear Readers, Daily Current Affairs Questions for UPSC State PSC SBI RRB SSC Railways, Bank  PO & Clerk Exam 2019 of 29-30-31st March 2019. Daily GK MCQ for competitive exam. Here we have given the Daily Current Affairs Solved Questions based on the previous days Daily Current Affairs updates. Candidates preparing for competitive exams can make use of this Current Affairs Multiple Choice Question Answer.

Q1. India has approved the continuation of the Biomedical Research Career Programme (BRCP), and Wellcome Trust (WT) / DBT India Alliance beyond its initial 10-year term.

Which of the following statements regarding the BRC Programme are true?

1) The Programme has fulfilled its objectives of building and nurturing talent of highest global standards in cutting-edge biomedical research in India, which has led to important scientific breakthroughs and applications to meet societal needs.

2) BRCP has made it attractive for high quality Indian scientists working abroad to return to India, and has increased the number of locations geographically within India where world-class biomedical research is undertaken.

3) In the extending phase, the Programme would continue to build this capacity as also strengthen clinical research and work towards addressing important health challenges for India.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

Q2. Consider the following statements:

1) TheBumpheads are the world’s largest parrotfish. Ramming its enormous green head against corals to dislodge them, a single bump head can nibble up to five tonnes of coral every year.

2) This activity by the parrot fish destroys the coral growth and keeps reef ecosystems unhealthy.

3) But the survival of the threatened bump head parrotfish in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands hinges on the persistence of coral reefs and presence of marine protected areas.

Which of the above statements are true?

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

Q3. The coffee board has launched blockchain based coffee e-marketplace in India. Which of the following statements regarding the technology and the coffee production in the country are true?

1) Blockchain based market place app for trading of Indian coffees is intended to bring in transparency in the trade of Indian coffee, maintain the traceability of Indian coffee from bean to cup so as the consumer tastes real Indian coffee and the grower is paid fairly for his coffee produced.

2) India is the only country in the world where entire coffee is grown under shade, handpicked and sun dried.

3) Indian coffee is highly valued in the world market and sold as premium coffees. The share of farmers in the final returns from coffee is also high.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding money multiplier in India:

1) A higher value for this ratio, called the money multiplier, indicates that the banking system generates a higher money supply out of money given by central bank.

2) India has a higher money multiplier than the EU and the U.S.

3) In India, the recent push to financial inclusion has led to people holding less cash in hand (relative to deposits) leading to an increase in the money multiplier.

Which of the above statements are true?

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

Q5. The recently concluded“AFINDEX 2019” field training military exercise took place between India and which of the following country/ countries?

a) Afghanistan

b) African nations

c) Maldives

d) Islands of Micronesia

Q6. Consider the following statements:

1) As part of Voter Awareness campaign for Loksabha Election 2019, Election Commission of India and Indian Railways have come together to utilize four long distance Trains to carry voter awareness and motivational messages.

2) Indian Railways has one of the largest railway networks in the world, but this widespread network ensures that communication on this platform has a wide reach in urban segment only.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 & 2

d) None

Q7. Which of the following varieties of coffee in India have been awarded GI (Geographical Indication) tag recently?

1) Coorg Arabica coffee

2) Wayanad Arabica coffee

3) Chikmagalur Arabica coffee

4) Araku valley Robusta coffee

5) Bababudangiris Arabica coffee

a) 1, 2& 3 only

b) 3, 4 & 5 only

c) 1, 3 & 5 only

D) all of the above

Q8. Which of the following statements regarding India’s demography and its effect on nature are true?

1) India is going to become the most populous country in the world within the next generation. More than half our population will live in cities by then. Delhi will become the most populous city in the world, overtaking Tokyo.

2) While this is a good sign and a manifestation of our shift from being a predominantly agricultural economy to a manufacturing and service sector economy, Italso means more urbanization, more energy consumption, more carbon emissions, more waste generation, more air pollution and a higher demand for land.

3) In view of India’s high population density, any disaster in India impacts many more people than it does in other parts of the world.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

Q9. Which of the following advantages of a flexible exchange rate system are true?

1) It creates a system for a smooth flow of foreign capital between the nations, as it gives assurance of fixed return on investment.

2) Flexible exchange rate is self-adjusting and therefore it does not devolve on the government to maintain an adequate foreign exchange reserves to stabilize the exchange rate.

3) The flexible exchange rate serves as a barometer of actual purchasing power of a currency in the foreign exchange market.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

Q10. Golan Heights, a place of contention between Israel and Syria have been in news frequently, which of the following are the seas is the most nearest to this place?

a) Mediterranean sea

b) Sea of Galilee

c) Red sea

d) Aqaba Sea

ANSWER:

1(a), 2(c), 3(d), 4(b), 5(b), 6(d), 7(c), 8(a), 9(c), 10(b)

Part-II

1) According to the global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2018, India’s Poverty Declines from 55% to what percent between 2005-06 and 2015-16?

a) 28%

b) 32%

c) 36%

d) 30%

e) 35%

2) Which state government launches digital portal for MSMEs, aiming to address key challenges faced by MSMEs with the core objective of making their business growth – simpler, more profitable and enjoyable?

a) Andhra Pradesh

b) Telangana

c) Karnataka

d) Maharashtra

e) Chandigarh

3) The government has decided to infuse what amount into state-owned Bank of Baroda (BoB) ahead of merger of two other public sector lenders Dena Bank and Vijaya Bank with BoB?

a) Rs.5002 crore

b) Rs. 5,402 crore

c) Rs. 5,042 crore

d) Rs. 5,240 crore

e) Rs. 5,204 crore

4) In which city of the country did the country’s 3rd largest private bank, Axis Bank, has opened its 4,000th branch?

a) Pune

b) Varanasi

c) Amaravathi

d) Warangal

e) Mysore

5) Which Public Sector Undertaking company launched a medium term notes (MTN or bond) issue to raise USD 450 million (approx Rs 3,105 crore), which is a part of its USD 6 billion (approx Rs 41,400 crore) MTN programme?

a) BEL

b) BHEL

c) ONGC

d) NTPC

e) NHPC

6) Name the Indian who has been awarded the prestigious Boodle Medal, the highest honour bestowed by the University of Oxford’s world-famous Bodleian Libraries.

a) Kaushik Basu

b) Jayate Gosh

c) Bimal Jain

d) Arvind Subramanian

e) Amartya Sen

7) Who was named BCCI’s Ethics Officer on interim basis?

a) Dipak Misra

b) Jagdish Singh Khehar

c) DK Jain

d) T. S. Thakur

e) H. L. Dattu

8) Who was appointed as Deputy CM of Goa?

a) Manish Sisodia

b) Manohar Mangaonkar

c) Nitin bhai Patel

d) G. Parameshwara

e) Dinesh Sharma

9) Who was appointed as the next Ambassador of India to the Republic of Benin?

a) Abhay Thakur

b) Vijay Thakur

c) Suresh Thakur

d) Satish Thakur

e) Anil Thakur

10) Name the cricketer who appointed as the Brand Ambassador to PolicyX.com.

a) Saurav Ganguly

b) Sachin Tendulkar

c) Gautam Gambhir

d) Varendra Sehwag

e) Mohamad Kaif

11) According to the Skytrax World Airport Awards, Changi Airport has been crowned the world’s best aviation hub for the seventh time in a row. The airport is located in which country?

a) China

b) Singapore

c) Germany

d) Japan

e) None of these

12) Which railway station has received Gold Rating by the Indian Green Building Council?

A) Chennai Railway Station

b) Vijayawada Railway Station

c) Hyderabad Railway Station

D) Mumbai Railway Station

e) None of these

13) Which IIT researchers here have developed an artificial intelligence (AI)-based low-power electronic hardware system that can help in detecting malaria, tuberculosis, intestinal parasite and cervical cancer in a few milliseconds?

a) IIT Delhi

b) IIT Madras

c) IIT Roorke

d) IIT Kanpur

e) IIT Khairpur

14) Hopman Cup is related with which sport?

a) Tennis

b) Basket Ball

c) Cricket

d) Golf

e) Foot Ball

15) The Executive Board of the International Olympic Committee (IOC) has recommended which among the following skills to be added to the 2024 Paris Olympic Games?

a) Break dancing

b) Skateboarding

c) Sport climbing

d) Surfing

e) All of these

Answers:

1) Answer: A)

According to the global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2018, India drastically reduced its poverty rate from 55 percent to 28 percent between 2005-06 and 2015-16.The report was developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI). India still had 364 million poor in 2015-16, the largest for any country, although it is down from 635 million in 2005-06. Globally, the poverty rate was found to be 23%. Sub-Saharan Africa and South Asia regions accounted together for 83% (more than 1.1 billion) of all multidimensionally poor people in the world.

2) Answer: B)

The State government launched a digital business networking portal for MSMEs – Telangana State GlobalLinker (ts-msme.globallinker.com) – to digitise over 2.3 million MSMEs of the State. The solution aims to address key challenges faced by MSMEs with the core objective of making their business growth – simpler, more profitable and enjoyable. Telangana State GlobalLinker will provide MSMEs – a digital profile (including an online product catalogue an eCommerce store), access to global networking opportunities to find buyers & suppliers, economies of scale on a wide range of business services, access to industry news, articles and discussions.

3) Answer: C)

The government has decided to infuse Rs. 5,042 crore into state-owned Bank of Baroda (BoB) ahead of merger of two other public sector lenders Dena Bank and Vijaya Bank with BoB. The merger of Dena Bank and Vijaya Bank with BoB would be effective from April 1. According to the Scheme of Amalgamation, shareholders of Vijaya Bank will get 402 equity shares of BoB for every 1,000 shares held. In the case of Dena Bank, its shareholders will get 110 shares for every 1,000 shares of BoB

4) Answer: A)

The country’s 3rd largest private bank, Axis Bank, has opened its 4,000th branch in the country in Pune at Eon, Kharadi. The new branch was inaugurated by Amitabh Chaudhary, Managing Director and CEO, Axis Bank, and Ravi Narayanan, President and Head Branch Banking, Axis Bank. The bank has added 297 branches in the current fiscal across India

5) Answer: D)

State-run power giant NTPC launched a medium term notes (MTN or bond) issue to raise USD 450 million (approx Rs 3,105 crore), which is a part of its USD 6 billion (approx Rs 41,400 crore) MTN programme. The funds raised through this MTN issue will be used for capital expenditure by the company. MTN is also known as bonds in overseas markets. They carry coupon (rate) of 3.75% per annum payable semi-annually. They are expected to be settled by April 2019. The notes will mature on April 2024 and all principal and interest payments will be made in US Dollars. The notes will be listed on Singapore Exchange Securities Trading Ltd, India International Exchange (IFSC) Ltd and NSE IFSC Ltd.

6) Answer: E)

Nobel Prize-winning economist Amartya Sen has been awarded the prestigious Boodle Medal, the highest honour bestowed by the University of Oxford’s world-famous Bodleian Libraries. The Medal is awarded to individuals who have made outstanding contributions to the fields in which the Bodleian is active, including literature, culture, science and communication.  This year’s other winner of the Boodle Medal is Nobel Prize-winning novelist Kazuo Ishiguro. Past winners of the honour include physicist Stephen Hawking, novelist Hilary Mantel and inventor of the World Wide Web Tim Berners-Lee.

7) Answer: C)

The Supreme Court appointed Retired Justice DK Jain as BCCI’s Ethics Officer on an interim basis.  He was already appointed last month as the BCCI Ombudsman, will double up as the Ethics Officer until a full-time appointment is made.

8) Answer: B)

Goa Tourism Minister Manohar Mangaonkar, who switched to the Bharatiya Janata Party from Maharashtrawadi Gomantak Party (MGP), was appointed as the state’s new Deputy Chief Minister. Mangaonkar has become the second deputy chief minister after Vijai Sardesai in the Pramod Sawant government in Goa. The development comes a day after Sudin Dhavalikar was dropped as the Deputy Chief Minister and two MLAs of MGP merged their party’s legislative wing with the BJP.

9) Answer: A)

Shri Abhay Thakur has been appointed as next Ambassador of India to Republic of Benin. Thakur, a 1992 batch of Indian Foreign Service officer, presently working as High Commissioner of India to the Federal Republic of Nigeria

10) Answer: D)

An online insurance web aggregator PolicyX.com has roped in legendary cricketer Virender Sehwag as it’s Brand Ambassador.It has launched its biggest marketing campaign, spread across the insurance products basket of term insurance, health insurance, life insurance, car insurance and others. CEO  & Founder of PolicyX.com is Naval Goel.

11) Answer: B)

Singapore’s Changi Airport has been crowned the world’s best aviation hub for the seventh time in a row, while New Delhi’s Indira Gandhi International (IGI) Airport featured at number 59, according to the Skytrax World Airport Awards.At number two on the list is Tokyo International Airport (Haneda), up one place from 2018. This hub also won World’s Best Domestic Airport and World’s Cleanest Airport. Breaching the top three is Incheon International Airport, down one place from its second-place spot in 2018. Incheon remains a stalwart of the airport rankings, also nabbing an award for World’s Best Transit Airport.

12) Answer: B)

Vijayawada railway station, one of the busiest railway junctions in the country, has received Gold Rating by the Indian Green Building Council.The IGBC-CII, with the support of the Environment Directorate of Indian Railways, developed the Green Railway Stations Rating System to facilitate adoption of green concepts, thereby reduce the adverse environmental impact due to station operation and maintenance and also enhance the overall commuter experience. Vijayawada Railway Station was ranked fourth in the Indian Railways for cleanliness among A-1 category stations.

13) Answer: A)

Researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) here have developed an artificial intelligence (AI)-based low-power electronic hardware system that can help in detecting malaria, tuberculosis, intestinal parasite and cervical cancer in a few milliseconds.The research focuses on building a neuromorphic system which can be used for healthcare access in resource-constrained areas with limited access to human specialists. The portable device is trained to detect microorganisms in the biological samples.

14) Answer: A)

The city of Perth in Western Australia (WA) will no longer play host to the Hopman Cup, Tennis Australia confirmed.The 31st edition of the tournament was the last edition of the game and ended in January 2019. Instead, the mixed tournament format will be replaced with an all men’s event called the ATP (Association of Tennis Professionals) Cup. Played across three cities, Perth will join Sydney and Brisbane as the hosts of the new competition which is set to feature 100 of the world’s top male players.

15) Answer: E)

The Executive Board of the International Olympic Committee (IOC) has recommended adding break dancing, skateboarding, and sport climbing and surfing to the 2024 Paris Olympic Games. This decision was taken by the IOC’s executive board in the meeting held in Lausanne, Switzerland. Final Decision will be taken after the end of 2020.

Geography of India Study Notes for Competitive Exams

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Based on physical features, India physical geography is broadly divided into following sections-

  • The Great mountain of North
  • Northern Plain
  • River,Parks,Wildlife
  • Peninsular Plateau
  • Coastal Plains
  • Thar Desert
  • Islands

10 Practice Set-IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper-I

Indian Polity Test Series for IAS Prelims 2019

IAS Prelims 2019 Test Series: 10 Practice Set with 500+ Current Affairs MCQ

IAS Prelims Exam 2019: Current Affairs Study Notes with MCQ

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Important Study Notes GS Paper-I

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Prelims Test Series-2019 Updated

Important Study Notes IAS Prelims 2019

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Study Notes with MCQ

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Important Topics for IAS Prelims Exam-2019

  • Current Affairs from Oct 2018 to March 2019
  • Practice MCQ
  • Financial Stability Report
  • Mission Shakti
  • Law Commission favours One Nation, One poll proposal
  • India forest report
  • Human Development index
  • UNHRC Report
  • Geographical indication
  • Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY)
  • Swachh Bharat Mission- Gramin in States/ UTs
  • Development of Inland Fisheries and Aquaculture
  • Shekatkar committee
  • Recent WTO Reports
  • Climates Conferences
  • Law Commission on Uniform Civil Code (UCC)
  • New India @75
  • SDG India Index Baseline Report
  • Sarkaria Commission & Punchhi Commission
  • Health System for New India
  • Move Summit Reports
  • Chilika Lake possesses 20% of India’s sea grass
  • Kyasanur Forest Disease
  • National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)
  • New quota and basic structure
  • Congenital Central Hypoventilation Syndrome (CCHS)
  • ASER surveys since 2010 show
  • Advanced Motor Fuels Technology Collaboration Programme
  • Cabinet approves IRSDC as nodal agency for railway station redevelopment
  • Jharkhand to become ODF by 15th of this month
  • India elected as a Member of the International Telecommunications Union (ITU) Council
  • Operation Greens
  • UTSONMOBILE
  • DHARMA GUARDIAN – 2018
  • Deep Submergence Rescue Vessel (DSRV)
  • 2nd International Conference on Primary Health Care towards UHC & SDGs at Astana, Kazakhstan
  • Asian Economic Integration Report 2018
  • National Monitoring Framework on Sustainable Development Goals
  • IIP: how this index is calculated, and what it says about factory output
  • India warming: what trends show
  • Three Year Action Agenda
  • Young India-Vibrant India initiative for IAS Exam
  • Triple Talaq Bill
  • The Fugitive Economic Offenders Bill 2018
  • Model Agricultural Produce and Livestock Marketing (Promotion & Facilitation) Act, 2017
  • Geospatial Information Regulation Bill
  • Land Acquisition Act and Reforms
  • GST Bill
  • Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2017
  • National Water Framework Bill
  • Real Estate Bill
  • Enemy Property Amendment Bill 2016
  • Carriage by Air (Amendment) Bill, 2015
  • Juvenile Justice Act, 2015
  • Anti-Hijacking Bill
  • Compensatory Afforestation Fund Bill, 2015
  • Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2015
  • Regional Centre for Biotechnology Bill, 2016
  • Industries (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2015
  • Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill, 2016
  • Most Important Government Schemes II
  • Most Important Government Schemes I
  • Provisions of National Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs)
  • National Mineral Exploration Policy
  • National Health Policy
  • What is the Golden Globe Race?
  • What is hypersonic aircraft?
  • What is West Nile Virus?
  • Antarctica
  • Did you know?
  • What is ‘mating mind hypothesis’ in biology?
  • What is ‘patriotic correctness’ in politics?
  • WHAT ARE NORTHERN LIGHTS?
  • Modi Government’s Schemes and Policy
  • NITI Aayog’s Draft National Energy Policy
  • National Wind-Solar Hybrid Policy
  • New Aviation Policy
  • National Disaster Management Plan
  • Hydrocarbon Vision 2030 for North-East
  • Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy
  • Bills and Acts
  • SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Rules, 2016
  • Representation of the People Act, 1950
  • Rights of Transgender Persons Bill, 2015
  • Model Shops and Establishments (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Bill, 2016
  • Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code Bill 2016
  • Sugar Cess (Amendment) Bill, 2015
  • PMJAY
  • Ayushman Bharat – National Health Protection Mission
  • Indradhanush Scheme for Banks
  • Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Shramev Jayate Karyakram
  • SETU BHARATAM PROJECT
  • Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
  • Gram Uday se Bharat Uday Abhiyaan
  • Smart Cities Mission
  • Agriculture Marketing in India
  • Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
  • Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Scheme
  • Rurban Mission
  • Project Sunrise
  • Ganga Gram Yojana
  • Autonomy of RBI
  • The future of crypto-financing in India
  • Universal Basic Income
  • India’s Infrastructure needs and the Smart Cities Mission
  • Asia Africa Growth Corridor
  • EPF Tax Issues
  • Economic Survey Questions 2018-19
  • Demonetisation
  • Cashless Economy
  • Economic Survey 2018-19
  • Union Budget 2019-20: Highlights
  • Union Budget 2019-20: Financial Sector Reforms
  • Payment and Settlement Systems in India: Vision-2018
  • India Post Payments Bank
  • Reforms in FDI Policy
  • National Capital Goods Policy 2016
  • Inflation and its dynamics
  • CRR, SLR, Repo Rate, Reverse Repo Rate, Bank Rate
  • 4th Industrial Revolution
  • New Silk Route
  • 14th Finance Commission Recommendations
  • Stand Up India Scheme
  • Agriculture Schemes
  • NBFC Guidelines
  • Double Taxation Avoidance Treaties with other countries
  • Economic Survey 2018-19: Analysis and Questions
  • European Refugee Crisis
  • Missile Technology Control Regime and India
  • Brexit Issue
  • India and NSG Membership dynamics
  • Nuclear Security Summit
  • Convention on Supplementary Compensation for Nuclear Damage
  • Supporting Syria and the Region Conference 2016
  • International Solar Alliance
  • Potassium Bromate
  • Zika Virus
  • IRNSS
  • 3D Printing Technology
  • Solar Cells
  • GPS
  • Blood
  • Mineral important for Human Growth
  • National Anti-Profiteering Authority
  • Indian Foreign Policy
  • National Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) Provisions
  • Aadhaar and the Right to Privacy
  • Naga Peace Accord
  • The Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Ordinance
  • Police Reforms in India
  • Religious Liberty and Women Rights
  • Cooperative Federalism
  • Representation of the People Act, 1950
  • Fundamental Rights
  • DPSP—Uniform Civil Code, Animal Husbandry, Child Labour
  • Union Executive—Prime Minister and Union Council of Ministers
  • Types of Bills- Money Bill, Finance Bill, Private Member Bill
  • Veto Powers of President
  • Union Judiciary and related provisions
  • Union and State – Administrative Relations
  • Union and State – Financial Relations
  • State Judiciary
  • Transaction of Business Rules
  • Constitutional Position of NCT of Delhi
  • Geography + Environment
  • Effectiveness of National Disaster Management Authority in India
  • Cleaning of River Ganga: Programme and Achievement
  • Green Climate Fund
  • Effectiveness of NDMA in India
  • National Green Tribunal of India
  • Climate Change and Food Security
  • GM Mustard Crop Approval and Other Issues
  • Role of Governments in flood mitigation
  • Indus Water Treaty and Analysis
  • Cauvery Water Dispute and Analysis
  • Labour Reforms in India
  • Earth Interior and Earthquake
  • Geological Time scale of Evolution
  • Himalayas in India
  • Landforms
  • Climate and Types of Climates
  • Census 2011
  • Different Indices related to Human Development
  • Monsoon, ITCZ
  • Forests in India
  • Water Resources of India—River systems, Waterfalls
  • Soils in India
  • Climate Change and related Conferences Chronology — Paris Summit
  • Major Disasters in the Year
  • Renewable Energy
  • Noise Pollution
  • Air Pollution
  • Food Web and Food Chain
  • CoP24 Summit 2018
  • 1857 Revolt and Associated Leaders
  • Social Reforms in the Indian Society and related Acts
  • Indian National Congress
  • India After the arrival of Mahatma Gandhi
  • Life of Mahatma Gandhi and the Movements
  • HSRA and associated leaders
  • Bengal Partition and Delhi Darbar
  • List of Governor General and Associated Works
  • Muslim League
  • Education Under British
  • Agriculture Taxing Structure under Britishers
  • Agrarian Revolts
  • Indus Valley Civilisation- Harappan, Mohenjodaro
  • Gautama Buddha, Buddhist Councils and principles of Buddhism
  • Jainism, its principles and 24 Jain Tirthankars
  • Temple Architectures
  • Mauryan Rule overview
  • Ashokan Inscriptions
  • Gupta Rulers and its overview
  • Foreign Visitors
  • Accession of Qutub-ud-Din Aibak
  • Sultanate Period
  • Tughlaq Rulers
  • Vijay Nagar Empire-Harihara and Bukka
  • Mughals Rulers, Arts, Architecture and major achievement of Mughal Rulers
  • Akbar and his religious philosophy- in Details
  • Aurangzeb and his Policies
  • Hyder Ali, Tipu Sultan and wars they fought
  • Peshwas
  • Solid Waste Management in India
  • National Company Law Tribunal and Appellate Tribunal
  • Animal Husbandry in India
  • National Agriculture Market

10 Practice Set-IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper-I


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UPSC CSE IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Practice Solved Paper-10 Set.
we have covered the following topics in this PDF:
Current Affairs (from Sep-2018 to Feb 2019)
Art and Culture
Indian Economy
Environment and Ecology
Geography (India + world)
Indian History
International Relations
Indian Polity
Latest Govt Schemes
Science and Technology

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Daily Current Affairs 29 March 2019

UPSC IAS, PSC, SSC, Banking, LIC and other Exams Practice MCQ

Q1. India has approved the continuation of the Biomedical Research Career Programme (BRCP), and Wellcome Trust (WT) / DBT India Alliance beyond its initial 10-year term.

Which of the following statements regarding the BRC Programme are true?

1) The Programme has fulfilled its objectives of building and nurturing talent of highest global standards in cutting-edge biomedical research in India, which has led to important scientific breakthroughs and applications to meet societal needs.

2) BRCP has made it attractive for high quality Indian scientists working abroad to return to India, and has increased the number of locations geographically within India where world-class biomedical research is undertaken.

3) In the extending phase, the Programme would continue to build this capacity as also strengthen clinical research and work towards addressing important health challenges for India.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

Answer-d

Q2. Consider the following statements:

1) TheBumpheads are the world’s largest parrotfish. Ramming its enormous green head against corals to dislodge them, a single bump head can nibble up to five tonnes of coral every year.

2) This activity by the parrot fish destroys the coral growth and keeps reef ecosystems unhealthy.

3) But the survival of the threatened bump head parrotfish in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands hinges on the persistence of coral reefs and presence of marine protected areas.

Which of the above statements are true?

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

Answer- c

Q3. The coffee board has launched blockchain based coffee e-marketplace in India. Which of the following statements regarding the technology and the coffee production in the country are true?

1) Blockchain based market place app for trading of Indian coffees is intended to bring in transparency in the trade of Indian coffee, maintain the traceability of Indian coffee from bean to cup so as the consumer tastes real Indian coffee and the grower is paid fairly for his coffee produced.

2) India is the only country in the world where entire coffee is grown under shade, handpicked and sun dried.

3) Indian coffee is highly valued in the world market and sold as premium coffees. The share of farmers in the final returns from coffee is also high.

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

Answer- a

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding money multiplier in India:

1) A higher value for this ratio, called the money multiplier, indicates that the banking system generates a higher money supply out of money given by central bank.

2) India has a higher money multiplier than the EU and the U.S.

3) In India, the recent push to financial inclusion has led to people holding less cash in hand (relative to deposits) leading to an increase in the money multiplier.

Which of the above statements are true?

A) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

Answer-C

Q5. The recently concluded “AFINDEX 2019” field training military exercise took place between India and which of the following country/ countries?

a) Afghanistan

b) African nations

c) Maldives

d) Islands of Micronesia

Answer:-b

Q 6. —— passes resolution to combat terrorist financing

 A.UN Council

B. European Council 

C. World Affairs Councils of America

D. World Future Council

Correct Ans: A

  • UN Council passes resolution to combat terrorist financing.

Q7.Delhi government school teacher Manu Gulati honoured with ———-

 A. Martha Farrell Award 2019

B. Padma Awards 

C. Padma Bhushan

D. Padma Shri award 2019

Correct Ans: A

  • Delhi government school teacher, Manu Gulati was honoured with the Martha Farrell award for Excellence in Women’s Empowerment 2019 in the Most Promising Individual category with prize money of INR 1, 50,000 for promoting gender equality and women’s empowerment.

Q8. —— government unveiled its Digital portal for MSMEs

 A. Tamilnadu

B. Telengana 

C. Himachal Pradesh

D. Bihar

Correct Ans: B

  • Telengana government unveiled its Digital portal for MSMEs.

9. Which of the following was awarded the ‘Best Sports Federation’ award in the country?

 A. Sports Authority of India (SAI)

B. Netaji Subhash National Institute of Sports 

C.National Rifle Association of India (NRAI)

D. Sports Association of India (SAI)

Correct Ans: C

  • The National Rifle Association of India (NRAI) was awarded the ‘Best Sports Federation’ award in the country by the Association Chambers of Commerce and Industry (ASSOCHAM).

10. What is the following is the first Indian Ship between India and Bangladesh?

 A. Goa Bengal 

B. Chilika Bengal  

C. Brahmaputra Bengal 

D.R V Bengal Ganga

Correct Ans: D

  • A regular river cruise will start between Kolkata, India and Dhaka, Bangladesh for the first time in the history of the two countries. The Indian ship, R V Bengal Ganga, will start at 11 a.m. from a west Kolkata jetty.

11. Which railway station received Gold Rating for being Clean & Eco-Friendly?

 A. Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus

B. Allahabad Junction 

C. Vijayawada Junction

D. Howrah Junction

Correct Ans: C

  • Vijayawada railway station, one of the busiest railway junctions in India, has received Gold Rating by the Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) for Green Measures.

12 .Which of the following Salt cave held the record of World’s longest salt cave before Israel’s Melham?

 A.N0 cave

B.N1 cave 

C.N2 cave

D.N3 cave

Correct Ans: D

  • In 2006, researchers mapped over 6 km of the N3 cave in southern Iran’s Qeshm Island, granting it the widely recognized status of the world’s longest salt cave.

13. Which Country recently discovered the world’s longest salt cave?

 A. Iran 

B. Israel  

C. Saudi Arabia 

D. Palestine

Correct Ans: B

  • Israeli cave explorers discovered, Malham, the world’s longest salt cave with striking stalactites near the Dead Sea. Previously, Iran’s N3 cave held the record.

14. Who can pass the Ordinance on the recommendation of the Union Cabinet?

 A. Cabinet Members

B. Prime Minister 

C. President

D.MPs

Correct Ans: C

  • Ordinances are laws that are promulgated by the President of India on the recommendation of the Union Cabinet. They can only be issued when Parliament is not in session.

15. Ordinance can be passed when _________.

 A. Parliament is not in session

B. Parliament is in session 

C. President/PM seat is vacant

D. Anytime for emergency

Correct Ans: A

  • An Ordinance can be passed when parliament is not in session matured at number 59

Daily Current Affairs 28 March 2019

UPSC IAS, State PSC and Other Exams- Important MCQ

Q1. Which of the following statements regarding the newly released Drugs and clinical Trial rules by the central government are true?

1) It creates a new state level authority with the power to waive off clinical trial for a new drug if it is approved and marketed in any of the countries (EU, U.K., Australia, Japan and U.S.) specified by the Drugs Controller General of India.

2) The rules will apply to all new drugs, investigational new drugs for human use, clinical trials, bio-equivalence studies and ethics committees.

3) The new rules will ensure patient safety and an ethics committee will monitor the trials and decide on the amount of compensation in cases of adverse events.

(A) 1 & 2 only

(B) 2 & 3 only

(C) 1 & 3 only

(D) all of the above

Answer- C

Q2. Consider the following pairs of volcano types and their corresponding examples:

1) Shield Volcano: Mt.Fuji (Japan)

2) Composite Volcano: Mt. St Helens (USA)

3) Lava Domes: Katmai, Alaska

4) Cinder cone: Paricutin, Mexico

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) 1, 2& 3 only

 (B) 2, 3 & 4 only

(C) 1 & 4 only

s) All of the above

Answer- B

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the recently released Global Transition Index by WEF (World Economic forum):

1) The report said India is amongst the countries with high pollution levels and has a relatively high CO2 intensity in its energy system.

2) While the US has made progress in reducing the use of coal in power generation, it slipped in the rankings by four places reflecting concerns about the affordability of energy to households, and regulatory uncertainty on environmental sustainability.

3) India is also the second best in the BRICS block of emerging economies, with China being the best at 46th place globally.

Which of the above statements are true?

(A) 1 & 2 only

(B) 2 & 3 only

(C) 1 & 3 only

(D) all of the above

Answer- A

Q4. With respect to the formal employment perspective of employees in India which of the following statements are true?

1) The Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF) is a mandatory savings scheme under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952,managed under the aegis of EPFO.The number of members subscribing to this scheme gives an idea of the level of employment in the formal sector

2) ESI Scheme for India is an integrated social security scheme tailored to provide socio-economic protection to the workers in the unorganized sector and their dependents, in contingencies, such as Sickness, Maternity and Death or Disablement due to an employment injury or occupational hazard.

3)The NPS is designed on defined contribution basis wherein the subscriber contributes to his account, there is no defined benefit that would be available at the time of exit from the system and the accumulated wealth depends onthe contributions made and the income generated from investment of such wealth.

(A)1 & 2 only

(B) 2 & 3 only

(C) 1 & 3 only

(D) all of the above

Answer- C

Q5. An island country in the Indian Ocean located at the northern end of the Mozambique Channel off the eastern coast of Africa between northeastern Mozambique, the French region of Mayotte, and northwesternMadagascar.The religion of the majority of the population is Sunni Islam.The sovereign state is an archipelago consisting of three major islands and numerous smaller islands.

The above description refers to which of the following countries/island groups ?

(A)Maldives

(B)Comoros

(C)Seychelles

(D)Glorioso islands

Answer- B

India started joint military exercise “MITRA SHAKTI” with which country?

A) Nepal

B) China

C) Australia

D) Sri Lanka

Option -D

Explanation: In a bid to further cement the relationship between armies of both the nations, a contingent of Indian Army left for Sri Lanka to participate in 6th edition of joint military exercise “Mitra Shakti” involving practicing tactical level operations in an international Counter Insurgency and Counter Terrorist environment under UN mandate.

According to Joint United Nations Programme on the UNAIDS, India recorded how much percent reduction in TB deaths among people living with HIV by 2017?

A) 76%

B) 87%

C) 84%

D) 78%

Option -C

Explanation: India has achieved an 84 percent reduction in TB deaths among people living with HIV by 2017. According to the Joint United Nations Programme on the UNAIDS , it is the highest recorded decline among over 20 nations and it is also three years ahead of the 2020 deadline.

Which Indian INS to participate in LIMA 19 in Malaysia?

A) Tarini

B) Makar

C) Kadmatt

D) Madei

Option -C

Explanation: Indian Navy’s frontline anti submarine warfare (ASW) corvette INS Kadmatt reached at Langkawi in Malaysia, on a seven-day official visit, to participate in Langkawi International Maritime and Aerospace Exhibition.

Which country becomes the first country in the world to install wireless charging systems for electric taxis?

A) Norway

B) Australia

C) USA

D) Canada

Option -A

Explanation: Norway’s capital Oslo will become the first city in the world to install wireless charging systems for electric taxis , hoping to make recharging quick and efficient enough to speed the take up of non-polluting cabs.

Recently, RBI slapped which bank with a penalty of Rs 2 crore for non-compliance of regulatory directions with regard to SWIFT operations?

A) IOB

B) PNB

C) IDBI

D) BOB

Option- B

Explanation: The RBI has slapped a penalty of Rs 2 crore on PNB for non-compliance of regulatory directions with regard to SWIFT operations. SWIFT is global messaging software used for transactions by financial entities.

Who will head the committee that has been formed Nilekani to further deepen digital payments and enhance financial inclusion through Fintech?

A) Nandan Nilekani

B) Viral Acharya

C) Pranav Sehgal

D) Ravened Singh Gill

Option- A

Explanation: RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das has said that the central bank of the country has appointed 5-member committee under the chairmanship of Nandan Nilekani to further deepen digital payments and enhance financial inclusion through Fintech.

Recently,Conor Mcgregor announced his retirement.He was related to which sports?

A)MMA

B) Cricket

C) Basketball

D) Tennis

Option -A

Explanation: Connor Mcgregor, the Irish UFC Star, announced his retirement from MMA.McGregor, the former two-division UFC champion, last fought at UFC 229 in October, falling in a lightweight title fight to Khabib Nurmagomedov by fourth-round submission.

Recently, Nikki Bella announced her retirement.She was related to which sports?

A)Volleyball

B)Wrestling

C)Tennis

D)Cricket

Recently, Rafi Eitan passed away. He belongs to which profession?

A)Tennis

B)Spy

C)Journalism

D)Wrestling

Option -B

Explanation: Rafi Eitan, the legendary Israeli Spy who led the operation to capture the architect of the Holocaust, Adolf Eichmann, has passed away aged 92. Eitan was among the founders of Israel’s revered intelligence agencies.

When is the International Day of Remembrance of the Victims of Slavery and the transatlantic slave trade is observed?

A) March 25

B) March 26

C) March 27

D) March 28

Option -A

Explanation: Every year on March 25, the International Day of Remembrance of the Victims of Slavery and the transatlantic slave trade is observed.

IAS Prelims Exam 2019: Current Affairs Study Notes with MCQ

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper-I
1. 400+ Important topics from oct-18 to April 19
2. Important Study Notes with Practice MCQs
3. Useful for UPSC and State PSC Prelims Exam-2019



IAS Prelims 2019 Test Series: 10 Practice Set with 500+ Current Affairs MCQ

UPSC Civil Services IAS Prelims General Studies Paper I, 2019 comprehensive study material with dedicated focus on syllabus prescribed by the UPSC for Preliminary and Main examinations. There are three main attributes of this edition viz. excellent quality, updated data and Practice questions based on structured analysis and emerging trends. Content development by the best in class authors, experienced subject experts for the aspirants

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2. 10- Practice Test with 500+ Current Affairs MCQ Covered Indian Polity, Geography, History, Economy, Environment and Current Affairs important topic.

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Important Study Notes GS Paper-I

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2019 Study Notes with MCQ

UPSC Civil Services IAS Prelims General Studies Paper I, 2019 comprehensive study material with dedicated focus on syllabus prescribed by the UPSC for Preliminary and Main examinations. There are three main attributes of this edition viz. excellent quality, updated data and Practice questions based on structured analysis and emerging trends. Content development by the best in class authors, experienced subject experts for the aspirants

Key Features:

UPSC CSE IAS Prelims Examination 2019 General Studies Paper-I: Important Study Notes updated.

1. Current Affairs Nov 2018 to March 2019.

2. Trending Topics of: History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Science and Technology Covered from November 2018 to March 2019.

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper-1

Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2019

Important Study Notes for UPSC and State PSC Exams from Oct 2018 to January 2019 with Practice MCQ

UPSC Civil Services IAS Prelims General Studies Paper I, 2019 comprehensive study material with dedicated focus on syllabus prescribed by the UPSC for Preliminary and Main examinations. There are three main attributes of this edition viz. excellent quality, updated data and Practice questions based on structured analysis and emerging trends. Content development by the best in class authors, experienced subject experts for the aspirants

Key Features:

1. We covered Current Affairs with Static portion and related MCQ in this Book.

2. More than 500 important topics for prelims 2019

3. A reliable recipe for success

4. Major transformational changes and innovative administrative reforms and policy decision-making

5. Important summits, events, facts and figures with analysis and global as well as regional implications

6. Standard questions with matching techniques based on the emerging trends

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UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2019:

IAS Prelims General Studies Paper-I Test Papers/Mock Test/Solved Test Papers.

1. PRACTICE TEST PAPER-FULL LENGTH (700+MCQ) as per analysis by expert team.

2. SOLVED QUESTIONS-PREVIOUS YEAR (200+MCQ)

3. CURRENT AFFAIRS-MCQ (500+) from July 2018 to March 2019

Daily Current Affairs 27 March 2019

UPSC CSE IAS / STATE PSC /SSC/BANKING/RAILWAYS AND OTHER EXAMS DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS MCQ 

Q1. Consider following statement about Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)

i. It is published by Central Statistical Organization.

ii. Government recently released this report.

iii. PLFS was first published in 2016

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) i and ii only

(B) ii and iii only

(C)All of the above

(D)None of the above

  • The NSSO used to conduct 5-year LFP (labour force participation) surveys. 2017- 18 is the first the Periodic Labour Force Survey conducted by NSSO. It is an annual survey mapping of unemployment to provide a clearer picture of unemployment. Government refused to publish it. Rather Government used MUDRA data for job growth projection.

Q2. Periodic Labour Force Survey consists of

i. Quarterly employment survey

ii. Quarterly unemployment survey

iii. The survey of urban areas only

iv. The survey is done on the basis of households

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) i and ii only

(B) i, ii and iv only

(C) ii, iii and iv only

(D) all of the above

  • PLFS quarterly survey of both employment and unemployment in both urban and rural areas. The survey is done on the basis of households.

Q3. Bharat New Vehicle Safety Assessment Programme proposes to make makes following safety features mandatory:

i. front airbags

ii. ABS (anti-lock braking system)

iii. Seat belt reminders

iv. Child restraint systems

V. electronic stability program/ pedestrian safety programme

(A)i, ii, iii, iv

(B) i, ii, iii

(C) i, iii, iv, v

(D)All of the above

Q4. Which of the following is not true about Polar vortex?

(A)It is a wind circulation in Troposphere

(B)The phenomenon affects severity of winter

(C)Warming weakens the Polar Vortex

(D)Polar Vortex causes heavy snowfall in USA and Canada

  • It is wind circulation in stratosphere

Q5. Consider the following statements:

1. NABARD is an apex body to coordinate the activities of all institutions involved in the rural financing system.

2. ‘Kudumbashree’ is a women-oriented community-based poverty reduction programme implemented by the Government of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A)1 only

(B) 2 only

(C)Both 1 and 2

(D)Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong.

‘Kudumbashree’ is a women-oriented community-based poverty reduction programme being implemented in Kerala. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was set up in 1982 as an apex body to coordinate the activities of all institutions involved in the rural financing system.

Q6. Regarding ‘Indian dairy sector’, which of the following statements is/are true?

1. Milk production in the country has increased by more than eight times between 1951-2014.

2. This can be attributed mainly to the successful implementation of ‘Operation Flood’.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C)Both 1 and 2

(D)Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

Q7. Why does the matchstick start burning on rubbing it on the side of the matchbox?

(A)On rubbing the matchstick combustible substance of matchstick gets ignition temperature.

 (B)On rubbing the matchstick combustible substance on the side of the matchbox gets ignition temperature.

(C)On rubbing the matchstick very high temperature develops within a fraction of seconds.

(D)None of the above

Explanation: Option (A) is correct.

  • The lowest temperature at which a substance catches fire is called its ignition temperature.
  • These days the head of the safety match contains only antimony tri-sulphide and potassium chlorate.
  • The rubbing surface has powdered glass and a little red phosphorus (which is much less dangerous).
  • When the match is struck against the rubbing surface, some red phosphorus gets converted into white phosphorus.
  • This immediately reacts with potassium chlorate in the matchstick head to produce enough heat to ignite antimony tri-sulphide and start the combustion.

Q8. It has been seen that some time tadpoles in a water body are unable to become adults. The Appropriate explanation for the above would be:

(A)BOD of the water is poor.

(B)The Iodine content of the water is poor.

(C)The water is highly rich in fat content.

(D)The Nitrogen content of the water is poor.

Explanation: Option (B) is correct.

  • The change from larva to adult is called metamorphosis.
  • Metamorphosis in insects is controlled by insect hormones.
  • In a frog, it is controlled by thyroxin, the hormone produced by thyroid.
  • Thyroxin production requires the presence of iodine in water.
  • If the water in which the tadpoles are growing does not contain sufficient iodine, the tadpoles cannot become adults.

Q9. With reference to the ‘Ashokan inscriptions’, consider the following statements:

1. Inscriptions of Shahbazgarhi and Mansehra were engraved in Kharosthi.

2. Kandhar inscriptions were engraved in Greek and Aramaic.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C)Both 1 and 2

(D)Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

  • Ashokan Inscriptions of Shahbazgarhi and Mansehra (Pakistan) were engraved in ‘Kharosthi’. While Kandhar inscriptions were engraved in Greek and Aramaic.

Q10. With reference to the ‘Mahajanpadas Tax System’, consider the following statements:

1. The tax was fixed at 1/6th of what was produced.

2. Craftsperson may have had to work for a day every month for the King.

3. There were no taxes on goods that were bought and sold, through trade.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct while statement 3 is wrong.

  • Instead of depending on occasional gifts brought by people, as in the case of the king of the Janapadas, they started collecting regular taxes. Taxes on crops were the most important, usually; the tax was fixed at 1/6th of what was produced. The craftsperson may have had to work for a day every month for the King. There were also taxes on goods that were bought and sold through trade.

Q11. Which Indian naval ship is participating in the 15th edition of Langkawi International Maritime and Aerospace Exhibition, LIMA-19?

(A)INS Kadmatt

(B)INS Viraat

(C)INS Vikrant

(D)INS Gangotri

(E)INS Kaladaan

Q12. The Indian Navy’s state of the art Nuclear, Biological, and Chemical Training Facility (NBCTF) was inaugurated by Chief of Naval Staff Admiral Sunil Lanba at INS Shivaji, Lonavala. The training facility has been named_____________.

(A)ANUPAM

(B)AKHAND

(C)SURAKSHA

(D)ABHEDYA

(E)ATULNIYA

Q13. Kala Prapoorna awardee, Vinjamuri Anasuya Devi passed away. She was a well-known_____.

(A)Quiz Master

(B)Magician

(C)Human rights activist

(D)Painter

(E)Folk artist

Q14. Which of the following city will become the world’s first city to install wireless, induction-based charging stations for its fleet of electric taxis?

(A)Oslo

(B)Copenhagen

(C)Stockholm

(D)Bergen

(E)Gothenburg

Q15. Who among the following has won the prestigious Global Teacher Prize for 2019 at a ceremony in Dubai?

(A)J.K. Rowling

(B)Tabiko Gibson

(C)Kailash Satyarthi

(D)Peter Tabichi

(E)Amartya Sen

Q16. The Indian Air Force formally inducted the CH 47 F (I) – Chinook heavy-lift helicopters into its inventory at Air Force Station Chandigarh. These helicopters are manufactured by which of the following organisation?

(A)General Dynamics

(B)BAE Systems

(C)Boeing

(D)Lockheed Martin

(E)Finmeccanica

Q17- The joint training exercise MITRASHAKTI – VI between Indian and which Countries Army kick-started at Diyatalawa

(A)Thailand

(B)Sri Lanka

(C)Malaysia

(D)Nepal

(E)Bhutan

Q18. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has appointed 5-member committee to strengthen digital payments as well as to boost financial inclusion through Financial Technology. The Chairman/headed of committee will be?

(A) Nandan Nilekani

(B)Ratan Wattal

(C)Raj Kumar Ratan

(D)Vinayak Lal

(E)Bimal Jalan

Q19. A consortium of two Indian oil companies has been awarded the exploration rights for Abu Dhabi’s Onshore Block 1. These two companies’ are________ and _________.

(A)BHEL, BEL

(B)ONGC, NTPC

(C)IOCL, HPCL

(D)IOCL, NTPC

(E)BPCL, IOCL

Q20. US President Donald Trump has signed a proclamation recognising Israel’s sovereignty over the _____________.

(A)Haifa

(B)Izara Heights

(C)Golan Heights

(D)Damascus

(E)Arar City

 Solutions

Ans.11. (A)

  • Indian Navy’s frontline ASW corvette, INS Kadmatt arrived at Langkawi, Malaysia on a 7 days official visit. The ship is scheduled to participate in the 15th edition of Langkawi International Maritime and Aerospace Exhibition, LIMA-19 during the visit.

Ans.12. (B)

  • The Indian Navy’s state of the art Nuclear, Biological, and Chemical Training Facility (NBCTF) was inaugurated by Chief of Naval Staff Admiral Sunil Lanba at INS Shivaji, Lonavala. The training facility has been named ABHEDYA, which means impenetrable in Sanskrit.

Ans.13. (E)

  • Kala Prapoorna awardee, Vinjamuri Anasuya Devi passed away at the age of 99 due to illness in the USA. She was an eminent folk artist, radio commentator and author. She was also an awardee of lifetime achievement award in America and ‘Queen of Folk’ award in Paris.

Ans.14. (A)

  • Oslo, the capital city of Norway will become the world’s first city to install wireless, induction-based charging stations for its fleet of electric taxis with an aim to have a zero-emission cab system by the year 2023 according to a report by Reuters.

Ans.15. (D)

  • Peter Tabichi, a member of the Franciscan religious order has been conferred with the prestigious Global Teacher Prize for 2019 at a ceremony in Dubai hosted by Hollywood actor, Hugh Jackman.

Ans.16. (C)

  • The Indian Air Force formally inducted the CH 47 F (I) – Chinook heavy-lift helicopters into its inventory at Air Force Station Chandigarh. IAF had signed a contract with M/s Boeing Ltd in September 2015 for 15 Chinook helicopters.

Ans.17. (B)

  • The joint training exercise MITRASHAKTI – VI between Indian and Sri Lanka Army kick-started at Diyatalawa in Sri Lanka.

Ans.18. (A)

  • Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has appointed 5-member committee under the chairmanship of Nandan Nilekani to strengthen digital payments as well as to boost financial inclusion through Financial Technology.

Ans.19. (E)

  • A consortium of two Indian oil companies, Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited, and Indian Oil Corporation Limited has been awarded the exploration rights for Abu Dhabi’s Onshore Block 1. The Abu Dhabi National Oil Company (ADNOC) signed agreements awarding the exploration rights.

Ans.20. (C)

  • US President Donald Trump has signed a proclamation recognising Israel’s sovereignty over the Golan Heights and told the visiting Israeli Prime Minister, Benjamin Netanyahu, that Israel has an absolute right to self-defence.

Daily Current Affairs 26 March 2019

Daily Current Affairs MCQ for All Competitive Exams

Q. 1 With reference to Peer to Peer Lending (P2P), consider the following statements:

It connects verified borrowers seeking secured personal loans with investors looking to earn higher returns on their investments.

P2P lenders are registered as non-banking financial companies (NBFCs).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Peer to Peer lending, also known as P2P Lending, is a financial innovation which connects verified borrowers seeking unsecured personal loans with investors looking to earn higher returns on their investments. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

P2P lending service providers have been in business in India since early 2014. However, it was in September 2017, RBI notified that these will be registered as non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) and subsequently came out with guidelines for P2P lending. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q2. With reference to Olive Ridley Turtle, consider the following statements:

  1. They are the least abundant sea turtles in the world.
  2. It is a species under Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
  3. Coast of Odisha is the largest mass nesting sites for olive ridleys.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation

The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world, inhabiting warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

The species is listed as Vulnerable in the IUCN Red List, Appendix 1 in CITES, and Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The coast of Orissa in India is the largest mass nesting site for the Olive-ridley, followed by the coasts of Mexico and Costa Rica. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

3. With reference to El Nino, consider the following statements:

  1. It refers to the unusual warming of the central and east-central equatorial Pacific Ocean.
  2. It increases the upwelling of cold water, increasing the uplift of nutrients from the bottom of the ocean.
  3. Strong El Nino brings heavy rains to India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation

El Nino refers to the unusual warming of the central and east-central equatorial Pacific Ocean which affects global weather. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

El Nino reduces the upwelling of cold water, decreasing the uplift of nutrients from the bottom of the ocean. This affects marine life and sea birds. The fishing industry is also affected. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Over India, the El Nino has usually been the harbinger of drought whereas La Nina is associated with good rain. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Q4. With reference to Gilt Funds, consider the following statements:

  1. Gilt funds are investment funds in fixed-interest generating securities of the central and state governments.
  2. Since these are issued by the Governments, they are high-grade securities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Gilt funds are a type of investment fund that invests in gilt securities (fixed-interest generating securities of the central and state governments). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Since these are issued by the Governments, they are high-grade securities (government rarely fails financially and there is no risk for losing money), consequently carrying low yields. Because of higher credit ratings (AA), these offer a very low rate, say 4%. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

5. With reference to Bhitarkanika National Park, consider the following statements:

  1. It is the only Ramsar Site in Odisha.
  2. It has been recently included in the Montreux Records.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Odisha has two wetlands of international importance under Ramsar Convention namely Chilika and Bhitarkanika. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Only two wetlands of India are in Montreux record viz. Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan and Loktak Lake, Manipur. Chilka Lake was also placed in the record but it was later removed from it making it the first site from Asia to be removed from the record. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q6. Consider the following statements with respect to the importance of oceans and its economic potential:

1) Oceans cover 72 per cent of the surface of our blue planet and provide humankind with food, minerals, energy, fresh water and oxygen. They regulate climate, emission absorption and shoreline protection and support livelihoods as well as job creation.

2) Considering the importance of oceans on the life and sustenance of humanity, the United Nations has taken steps to declare the period 2021–2030 as the Decade of Ocean Science for Sustainable Development.

3) The objective of the Blue Economy is to promote smart, sustainable and inclusive growth and employment opportunities through maritime economic activities.

Which of the above statements are true?

A) 1 & 2 only

B) 2 & 3 only

C) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

Answer: D

Q7. With respect to Virtual Simcard, which of the following statements are true?

1) Unlike a SIM card, virtual SIMs are not attached to a mobile and created online to help you communicate.

2) It is a cloud-based number that can be used from any device via an app.

3) One can Travel and communicate at the rates of the home operator, with anonymity and security, because Virtual SIM works as a VPN.

A) 1 & 2 only

B) 2 & 3 only

C) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

Answer: D

Q8. Which of the following statements regarding India’s FinTech prospects are true?

1) India is one of the fastest growing FinTech markets globally and industry research has projected that USD 1 Trillion or 60% of retail and SME credit, will be digitally disbursed by 2029.

2) The Indian FinTech ecosystem is the second largest in the globe after China, attracting nearly USD 6 billion in investments since 2014.

3) The Indian FinTech industry is creating cutting edge intellectual property assets in advanced risk management and artificial intelligence that will propel India forward in the global digital economy while simultaneously enabling paperless access to finance for every Indian.

A) 1 & 2 only

B) 2 & 3 only

C) 1 & 3 only}

D) all of the above

Answer: C

Q9. With respect to recent UN report on Tb released on World Tb day, which of the following statements are correct?

1) India has achieved an 84 per cent reduction in tuberculosis deaths among people living with HIV by 2017.

2)According to the Joint United Nations Programme on the UNAIDS, it is the highest recorded decline among over 20 nations and it is also three years ahead of the 2020 deadline.

3) UNAIDS has urged countries to step up action to meet the 2020 target of reducing TB deaths among people living with HIV by 75 per cent, as outlined in the 2016 United Nations Political Declaration on Ending AIDS.

A) 1 & 2 only

B) 2 & 3 only

C) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

Answer: D

Q10. The “Moluccas Island” recently struck by a massive earthquake is a part of which of the following island groups?

A) Lakshadweep islands

B) Andaman & Nicobar islands

C) Indonesia

D) Greater Antilles

Answer: C

Source: The Hindu, PIB, Indian Express

Daily Current Affairs 25 March 2019

Current Affairs Solved MCQ- 25 March 2019

Part-I

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Sunderbans delta:

1) The Sundarbans is a mangrove area in the delta formed by the confluence of Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna Rivers in the Bay of Bengal.

2) Despite a total ban on all killing or capture of wildlife other than fish and some invertebrates, it appears that there is a consistent pattern of depleted biodiversity or loss of species in the 20th century, and that the ecological quality of the forest is declining.

3) Being a Ramsar wetland site the whole administration of Sunderbans national park lies with the Ministry of environment & Forests.

Which of the above statements are true?

A) 1 & 2 only

B) 2 & 3 only

C) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

Answer- A

Q2. The tribes Tai ahom,Chutia, Koch Rajbongshi,Moran recently accorded Scheduled tribe status belongs to which of the following states of India ?

A) Andhra Pradesh

B) Assam

C) Madhya Pradesh

D) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer- B

Q3. Which of the following statements regarding India’s FDI policy are true?

1) India has become the most attractive emerging market for global partners (GP) investment for the coming 12 months, as per a recent market attractiveness survey conducted by Emerging Market Private Equity Association (EMPEA).

2) The Government of India is aiming to achieve US$ 200 billion worth of FDI inflows in the next two years.

3) The World Bank has stated that private investments in India is expected to overtake private consumption growth and thereby drive the growth in India’s gross domestic product (GDP) in FY 2018-19.

A) 1 & 2 only

B) 2 & 3 only

C) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

Answer-C

Q4. Which of the following statements regarding SevaBhojyojana scheme of central government are true?

1) The scheme aims reimburse Central Government share of CGST and Integrated Goods and Service Tax (IGST) of Charitable Religious Institutions (CRIs) who provide food, Prasad, langar (Community Kitchen), Bhandara free of cost without any discrimination to public and devotees.

2) Only those institutions registered under Societies registration act are eligible under the scheme.

3) Those CRI’s having existence for at least five years and serve free food to at least 5000 people in month can apply for the reimbursement as per ministry of culture guidelines.

A) 1 & 2 only

B) 2 & 3 only

C) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

Answer-C

Q5. India was ranked at 140 on the United Nation’s latest World Happiness Report that gauged 156 countries, a decline of seven spots from the last edition of the survey.

Which of the following global institutions releases the report?

A) International Labour Organisation (ILO)

B) World Bank

C) UNESCO

D) UN sustainable development Solutions network

Answer-D

Part-II

1. Who was sworn-in as the 11th Chief Minister of Goa?

a) Pramod Sawant

b) Ramkrishna Dhavlikar

c) Vijai Sardesai

d) Vinod Palyekar

2. Who was appointed as India’s first Lokpal on March 19, 2019?

a) Dinesh Kumar Jain

b) Pinaki Chandra Ghose

c) Pradip Kumar Mohanty

d) Ajay Kumar Tripathi

3. When was Global Recycling Day 2019 observed globally?

a) 16 March

b) 17 March

c) 18 March

d) 19 March

4. The Union Health Ministry reviewed preparedness on West Nile Virus Fever in which state?

a) Maharashtra

b) Bihar

c) Haryana

d) Kerala

5. Which regulatory body has directed the Central Pollution Control Board to prepare noise pollution maps?

a) Supreme Court

b) Delhi HC

c) National Green Tribunal

d) Uttarakhand HC

6. Which nation’s President has resigned from his position after nearly 30 years in power?

a) Afghanistan

b) Tajikistan

c) Zimbabwe

d) Kazakhstan

7. Cyclone IDAI has affected over 1.5 million people in which among the following continents?

a) Oceania

b) Australia

c) Africa

d) South America

8. Which nation piloted two resolutions on single-use plastics and sustainable nitrogen management at the fourth session of United Nations Environment Assembly?

a) France

b) India

c) US

d) Japan

9. Gauri Sawant has been appointed as the first transgender election ambassador in which state?

a) Karnataka

b) Maharashtra

c) Tamil Nadu

d) Telangana

10. India Post has released a special stamp cover on which environmental initiative?

a) Green Energy

b) Ice Stupas

c) Hydrogen Lights

d) Green Electricity

11. Name the Second Scorpene Class Submarine which is set to be inducted into the Indian Navy by May 2019?

a) INS Khanderi

b) INS Kalvari

c) INS Karanj

d) INS Vela

12. Which country will host the FIFA U-17 Women’s World Cup 2020?

a) France

b) India

c) South Korea

d) Japan

Answer Key:

1. (A) Pramod Sawant

Goa Legislative Assembly Speaker and Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) leader, Pramod Sawant was sworn-in as the 11th Chief Minister of Goa in a late-night ceremony, hours after his predecessor, Manohar Parrikar was cremated with state honours.

2. (B) Pinaki Chandra Ghose

India gets its first Lokpal six years after the passage of Act, former Supreme Court judge, Pinaki Chandra Ghose was on March 19, 2019 appointed as India’s first Lokpal also known as the anti-corruption ombudsman.

3. (C) 18 March 2019

The Global Recycling Day was observed across the world on March 18, 2019 to help recognise, and celebrate the importance recycling plays in preserving the precious primary resources. The theme of 2019 Global Recycling Day was ‘Recycling into the Future’.

4. (D) Kerala

The Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare on March 19, 2019 reviewed the current situation and state preparedness to deal with West Nile Virus Fever in Malappuram district of Kerala along with the officials from National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC).

5. (c) National Green Tribunal (NGT)

The National Green Tribunal has directed the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) to prepare a noise pollution map and remedial action plan to solve the issue across the country. The green bench headed by NGT Chairperson Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel directed the CPCB to identify noise pollution hotspots and categorise cities with specified hotspots and propose a remedial action plan within three months.

6. (D) Kazakhstan

Kazakhstan’s President Nursultan Nazarbayev has announced his resignation after nearly 30 years in power.  The 78-year old leader had ruled the country since it emerged from the collapse of the Soviet Union in the early 1990s. The announcement came less than a month after the President sacked his government, citing a lack of economic development despite the country’s vast energy resources.

7. (c) Africa

In Africa, Mozambique, Zimbabwe and Malawi have been hit by a vicious cyclone, Cyclone IDAI, which has killed nearly 150 people, left hundreds more missing and stranded more than thousands. According to the UN, the cyclone has affected more than 1.5 million people in the three southern African countries.

8. (B) India

India piloted resolutions on two key global environmental issues, single-use plastics and sustainable nitrogen management, at the fourth session of United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA) that was held in Nairobi from March 11-15, 2019. The UN Environment adopted both the resolutions with consensus.

9. (B) Maharashtra

The Election Commission of India has appointed transgender social activist Gauri Sawant, as one of the 12 election ambassadors from Maharashtra. During 2004 and 2009 Lok Sabha elections there was no record of transgender voters.  Sawant’s appointment is expected to help more people from the category to get registered during the final phase of voters enrollment.

10. (B) Ice Stupas

The Department of Post has released a special stamp cover on Ice Stupa. The special stamps aim to create awareness about depleting glaciers and affect the ecology around the Himalayas. Ice Stupas also known as artificial glaciers, are being built with an aim to reduce the problem of water shortage, faced by Ladakhi farmers due to the receding of glaciers.

11. (A) INS Khanderi

INS Khanderi, the second of the 6 Scorpene Class Submarines, will soon be inducted into the Indian Navy by May 2019. INS Khanderi was launched at the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) in Mumbai on January 12, 2017 and since then it has been undergoing trials and tests.

12. (B) India

Gianni Infantino, the President of International Football Federation (FIFA), on March 15, 2019 announced that India will host the U-17 Women’s World Cup in 2020. The 2020 World Cup will be the seventh edition of the U-17 Women’s tournament.

Daily Current Affairs 24 March 2019

Special Questions for UPSC Prelims Exam 2019

1. Consider the following statements about Global Warming Potential (GWP)

  1. It is a measure of how much energy the emissions of 1 ton of a gas will absorb over a given period of time, relative to the emissions of 1 ton of carbon Dioxide (CO2)
  2. Gases with higher GWP absorb more energy, per pound than gases with lower GWP.
  3. Sulfur Hexafluoride has lower GWP than Hydro fluorocarbons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1 and 2

  Only 1

  1 and 3

  1, 2 and 3

The Global Warming Potential (GWP) was developed to allow comparisons of the global warming impacts of different gases. Specifically, it is a measure of how much energy the emissions of 1 ton of a gas will absorb over a given period of time, relative to the emissions of 1 ton of carbon dioxide (CO2). Hence statement 1 is correct.

The larger the GWP, the more that a given gas warms the Earth compared to CO2 over that time period. The time period usually used for GWPs is 100 years. Hence statement 2 is correct.

According to IPCC 5TH Assessment Report, GWP of Sulfur Hexafluoride is 23500 times that of CO2. GWP of Hydro fluorocarbons is around 13000 times that of CO2. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

2. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Biodiversity Hotspots?

  1. There are 5 Biodiversity Hotspots in India.
  2. Contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants found nowhere else on Earth (known as “endemic” species).
  3. Have lost at least 70 percent of its animal species

Select from the given codes:

  Only 3

  Only 2

  1 and 2

  1, 2 and 3

To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, an area must meet two strict criteria:

Contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants found nowhere else on Earth (known as “endemic” species).Have lost at least 70 percent of its primary native vegetation.

Hence Statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is incorrect.

There are currently 36 recognized biodiversity hotspots. Out of these 4 are in India.

Himalaya: Includes the entire Indian Himalayan region (and that falling in Pakistan, Tibet, Nepal, Bhutan, China and Myanmar)

Indo-Burma: Includes entire North-eastern India, except Assam and Andaman group of Islands (and Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia and southern China)

Sundalands: Includes Nicobar group of Islands (and Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Brunei, Philippines)

Western Ghats and Sri Lanka: Includes entire Western Ghats (and Sri Lanka)

3. Consider the following statements regarding Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management& Transboundary Movement) Amendment Rules, 2019

  1. Solid plastic waste has been prohibited from import into the country excluding Special Economic Zones (SEZ) and by Export Oriented Units (EOU).
  2. Exporters of silk waste have now been given exemption from requiring permission from the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  Only 1

  Only 2

  Both 1 and 2

  None of the above

In order to strengthen the implementation of environmentally sound management of hazardous waste in the country, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has amended the Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management & Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016.

Some of the salient features of the Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management& Transboundary Movement) Amendment Rules, 2019 are as follows:

Solid plastic waste has been prohibited from import into the country including in Special Economic Zones (SEZ) and by Export Oriented Units (EOU). 

Hence statement 1 is wrong.

Exporters of silk waste have now been given exemption from requiring permission from the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

Hence statement 2 is correct.

Electrical and electronic assemblies and components manufactured in and exported from India, if found defective can now be imported back into the country, within a year of export, without obtaining permission from the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

Industries which do not require consent under Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974 and Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1981, are now exempted from requiring authorization also under the Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management & Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016, provided that hazardous and other wastes generated by such industries are handed over to the authorized actual users, waste collectors or disposal facilities.

4. Consider the following statements regarding National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)

  1. The NCAP will be a Five year action plan with 2019 as the first year.
  2. The programme may be further extended to a longer time horizon after a mid-term review of the outcomes.
  3. NCAP is implemented by W.H.O
  4. NCAP is a part of National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  2, 3 and 4

  2 and 3

  1 and 4

  1 and 2

A time bound national level strategy for pan India implementation to tackle the increasing air pollution problem across the country in a comprehensive manner in the form of National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was launched.

The NCAP will be a mid-term, five-year action plan with 2019 as the first year.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

The programme may be further extended to a longer time horizon after a mid-term review of the outcomes.

Hence statement 2 is correct.

The NCAP will be institutionalized by respective ministries and will be organized through inter-sectoral groups, which include, Ministry of Road Transport and Highway, Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, Ministry of Heavy Industry, Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, Ministry of Agriculture, Ministry of Health, NITI Aayog, CPCB, experts from the industry, academia, and civil society.

City specific action plans are being formulated for 102 non-attainment cities identified for implementing mitigation actions under NCAP.

Institutional Framework at Centre and State Level comprising of Apex Committee at the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change in the Centre and at Chief Secretary Level in the States are to be constituted.

In addition, sectoral working groups, national level Project Monitoring Unit, Project Implementation Unit, state level project monitoring unit, city level review committee under the Municipal Commissioner and DM level Committee in the Districts are to be constituted under NCAP for effective implementation and success of the Programme.

W.H.O is not the implementing agency. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

NCAP is not a part of NAPCC. So, statement 4 is incorrect.

5. Consider the following statements

  1. The theme for International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer 2018 is “Caring for all life under the Sun”.
  2. This event commemorates the date of the signing of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer.

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

  1 only

  2 only

  Both 1 and 2

  Neither 1 nor 2

 “Keep Cool and Carry on” is the theme of this year’s (2018) International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer. It celebrates the progress in protecting the ozone layer and moves to phase out ozone depleting chemicals which are also potent greenhouse gases.

The theme for International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer 2018 is “Caring for all life under the Sun”. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

The United Nations’ (UN) International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer (World Ozone Day) is celebrated on September 16 every year. This event commemorates the date of the signing of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer in 1987. Hence statement 2 is correct.

6. Consider the following statements

  1. The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol is legally binding.
  2. Kigali amendment is to phase down the usage of HFC’s.
  3. The Agreement upholds the principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDR & RC).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1 and 3

  1 and 2

  2 and 3

  All of the above

The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol is legally binding and will come into force from January 1, 2019. Hence statement 1 is correct.

The Agreement upholds the principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDR & RC). It recognizes the development imperatives of high-growth economies like India, and provides a realistic and viable roadmap for the implementation of a phase-out schedule for high global warming potential (GWP) HFCs.

Hence statement 2 and 3 are correct.

Additional information: The Agreement upholds the principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDR & RC). It recognizes the development imperatives of high-growth economies like India, and provides a realistic and viable roadmap for the implementation of a phase-out schedule for high global warming potential (GWP) HFCs.

On October 15, 2016, with the United States’ leadership, 197 countries adopted an amendment to phase down HFCs under the Montreal Protocol in Kigali, Rwanda. Under the amendment, countries committed to cut the production and consumption of HFCs by more than 80 percent over the next 30 years. The ambitious phase down schedule will avoid more than 80 billion metric tons of carbon dioxide equivalent emissions by 2050—avoiding up to 0.5° Celsius warming by the end of the century—while continuing to protect the ozone layer.

7. Which of the following Biosphere Reserves from India are part of UNESCO designated World Network of Biosphere Reserves (W.N.B.R)?

  1. Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve
  2. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve
  3. Manas Biosphere Reserve
  4. Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve

Select from the given codes:

  1 and 3

  1, 2 and 4

  2 and 4

  1,2 and 3

Thoroughly go through the list of 18 Biosphere Reserves designated by India.

Out of these 11 (which are in bold letters) are a part of UNESCO designated World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR). They are:

Nilgiri, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka. (WNBR)

Nanda Devi, Uttarakhand. (WNBR)

Nokrek, Meghalaya. (WNBR)

Manas, Assam.

Sunderban, West Bengal. (WNBR)

Gulf of Mannar, Tamil Nadu. (WNBR)

Great Nicobar, Andaman and Nicobar islands. (WNBR)

Similipal, Odisha. (WNBR)

Dibru-Saikhova, Assam.

Dehang-Dibang , Arunachal Pradesh.

Pachmarhi, Madhya Pradesh. (WNBR)

Khangchendzonga, Sikkim. (WNBR)

Agasthyamalai, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. (WNBR)

Achanakmar- Amarkantak, Madhya Pradesh and Chattisgarh. (WNBR)

Kachchh , Gujarat.

Cold Desert, Himachal Pradesh.

Seshachalam , Andhra Pradesh.

Panna, Madhya Pradesh

8. Consider the following statements regarding WAYU (Wind Augmentation Purifying Unit)

  1. The device has filters for Particulate Matter removal, but lacks filters to remove activated carbon (charcoal).
  2. It has been indigenously developed by TERI – The Energy and Resources Institute

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

WAYU is developed by Council of Scientific and Industrial Research – National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (CSIR-NEERI) as a part of Technology Development Project being funded by Department of Science and Technology. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

The device works on two principles mainly Wind generation for dilution of air pollutants and Active Pollutants removal.

The device has filters for Particulate Matter removal and activated carbon (charcoal) and UV lamps for poisonous gases removal such as VOCs and Carbon Monoxide. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

The device has one fan and filter for sucking and removing Particulate Matter. There are two UV lamps and half kg of activated carbon charcoal coated with special chemical Titanium Dioxide.

9. Consider the following statements

  1. Alpha diversity refers to a group of organisms sharing the same habitat.
  2. Beta diversity is the expression of diversity between habitats.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Alpha diversity refers to the average species diversity in a habitat or specific area. It is dependent on species richness and species evenness. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Beta diversity refers to ratio between local diversity and regional diversity. This is the diversity of species between two habitats or regions. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Gamma diversity is the total diversity of the landscape.

10. Consider the following statements

  1. Keystone species have low functional dependency.
  2. Flagship species play a major role in creating or maintaining a habitat.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1 only

  2 only

  Both 1 and 2

  Neither 1 nor 2

A keystone species is an organism that helps define an entire ecosystem. It plays a critical role in maintaining the structure of an ecological community and whose impact on the community is greater than would be expected based on its relative abundance or total biomass.

Keystone species have low functional redundancy. This means that if the species were to disappear from the ecosystem, no other species would be able to fill its ecological niche. The ecosystem would be forced to radically change, allowing new and possibly invasive species to populate the habitat. Hence statement 1 is correct.

A flagship species is a species selected to act as an ambassador, icon or symbol for a defined habitat, issue, campaign or environmental cause. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Flagship species are usually relatively large, and considered to be ‘charismatic’ in western cultures. 

Flagship species may or may not be keystone species and may or may not be good indicators of biological process.

Additional Information: Umbrella species are often conflated with keystone species. Both terms describe a single species on which many other species depend. The key distinction between umbrella species and keystone species is that the value of an umbrella species is tied to its geographic species range.Foundation species play a major role in creating or maintaining a habitat.

Corals are a key example of a foundation species. These tiny animals grow as a colony of thousands and even millions of individual polyps. The rocky exoskeletons of these polyps create enormous structures around islands: coral reefs.

11. Consider the following statements

  1. Ecosystem engineer is a plant or animal that is very sensitive to environmental changes in its ecosystem.
  2. Autogenic engineers modify their environment by modifying their own biology.
  3. Allogenic engineers physically change their environment from one state to another.

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

  1 only

  2 and 3 only

  3 only

  1, 2 and 3

Like foundation species, ecosystem engineers contribute to the physical geography of their habitat. Ecosystem engineers modify, create, and maintain habitats.

An indicator species describes an organism that is very sensitive to environmental changes in its ecosystem. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

Autogenic engineers modify their environment by modifying their own biology. Corals and trees are autogenic engineers. As they grow, they are a living part of the environment, providing food and shelter to other organisms. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Allogenic engineers physically change their environment from one state to another. Beavers are a classic example of allogenic engineers. Beavers help maintain woodland ecosystems by thinning out older trees and allowing young saplings to grow. Hence statement 3 is correct.

12. Consider the following statements

  1. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) has promulgated Green Highways (Plantation, Transplantation, Beautification & Maintenance) Policy-2015
  2. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) implements National Mission for Green India (GIM) scheme for plantations along the highway sides and on vacant land along railway tracks.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1 only

  2 only

  Both 1 and 2

  Neither 1 nor 2

The Ministry of Road Transport & Highways has promulgated Green Highways (Plantation, Transplantation and Beautification & Maintenance) Policy-2015, under which plantations have been initiated in collaboration with Forest Departments and other agencies. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) does not implement any scheme for plantations along the highway sides and on vacant land along railway tracks. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Additional Information: MOEF&CC for afforestation and to increase forest cover in the country implements two Centrally Sponsored Schemes namely, National Afforestation Programme (NAP) and National Mission for a Green India (GIM). While NAP is being implemented for afforestation of degraded forest lands, GIM aims at improving the quality of forest/increase in forest cover besides cross-sectoral activities on landscape basis.  These two schemes involve local people through Joint Forest Management Committees (JFMC) at the village level in the afforestation efforts and decision making in their area of implementation.

13. Consider the following statements

  1. The difference between the Community and Conservation reserve is that the former comprises community or private land and the latter comprises government land.
  2. The number of Protected Areas under Wildlife Protection Act (1972) has steadily increased over the years.

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Legally protected areas in India fall into four categories –

Reserved/ Designated Forest Areas declared as such under the Indian Forest Act, 1927.

Protected Areas declared under any of the four categories of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972– National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Community Reserves and Conservation Reserves.

The difference between the Community and Conservation reserve is that the former comprises community or private land and the latter comprises government land. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Biodiversity Heritage Sites notified under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.

Wetlands identified and notified under Wetland (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017.

The number of Protected Areas under Wildlife Protection Act (1972) has steadily increased over the years. Hence statement 2 is correct.

14. Consider the following statements regarding Acid Rain:

  1. The amount of acid deposition in the form of wet deposition is higher in all the areas across the globe.
  2. Normal Rain water generally has a pH around 7.4 indicating that it is slightly basic in nature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1 only

  2 only

  Both 1 and 2

  Neither 1 nor 2

The amount of acidity in the atmosphere that deposits to earth through dry deposition depends on the amount of rainfall an area receives.  For example, in desert areas the ratio of dry to wet deposition is higher than an area that receives several inches of rain each year. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

Normal, clean rain generally has a pH value of between 5.0 and 5.5, which is slightly acidic. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Background: Acid rain results when sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOX) are emitted into the atmosphere and transported by wind and air currents.  The SO2 and NOX react with water, oxygen and other chemicals to form sulfuric and nitric acids. These then mix with water and other materials before falling to the ground.

There are two forms of Acid Deposition

Wet Deposition: Wet deposition is what we most commonly think of as acid rain.  The sulfuric and nitric acids formed in the atmosphere fall to the ground mixed with rain, snow, fog, or hail. 

Dry Deposition: Acidic particles and gases can also deposit from the atmosphere in the absence of moisture as dry deposition.  The acidic particles and gases may deposit to surfaces (water bodies, vegetation, buildings) quickly or may react during atmospheric transport to form larger particles that can be harmful to human health. When the accumulated acids are washed off a surface by the next rain, this acidic water flows over and through the ground, and can harm plants and wildlife, such as insects and fish.

15. Which of the following correctly explains the term Bio-prospecting?

  1. Systematic exploration of biological diversity with the purpose of developing commercially valuable products.
  2. Appropriating a biological resource without obtaining prior informed consent of the country providing these.
  3. Systematic estimation of the biodiversity of a natural landscape.
  4. The method of valuation used in cost benefit analysis and environmental accounting.

Bio prospecting refers to Systematic exploration, extraction and screening  of biological diversity with the purpose of developing commercially valuable products.

Contingent valuation refers to the method of valuation used in cost benefit analysis and environmental accounting.

Bio piracy or misappropriation refers to appropriating a biological resource without obtaining prior informed consent of the country providing these.

16. Consider the following statements

  1. Ecologically Sensitive Areas (ESAs) have been notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
  2. Notifications declaring areas as ESAs are issued under the Environment (Protection) Act 1986.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1 only

  2 only

  Both 1 and 2

  Neither 1 nor 2

Ecologically Sensitive Areas (ESAs) have been identified and notified by the Indian Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change since 1989. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Notifications declaring areas as ESAs are issued under the Environment (Protection) Act 1986. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Western Ghats is one of the ESA’s in India.

17. Consider the following statements

  1. All Algal Blooms are harmful.
  2. All Harmful Algal Blooms (HAB’s) are toxic.
  3. Harmful Algal Blooms (HAB’s) are generally referred to as “red tides”

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

  1 and 2

  2 and 3

  3 only

  1, 2 and 3

Not all algal blooms are harmful. Most blooms, in fact, are beneficial because the tiny plants are food for animals in the ocean. In fact, they are the major source of energy that fuels the ocean food web. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

A small percentage of algae, however, produce powerful toxins that can kill fish, shellfish, mammals, and birds, and may directly or indirectly cause illness in people. HABs also include blooms of non-toxic species that have harmful effects on marine ecosystems. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Harmful Algal Blooms are generally referred to as ‘red tides,’ Hence statement 3 is correct.

Background: Harmful algal blooms, or HABs, occur when colonies of algae—simple plants that live in the sea and freshwater—grow out of control while producing toxic or harmful effects on people, fish, shellfish, marine mammals, and birds. The human illnesses caused by HABs, though rare, can be debilitating or even fatal.

18. Consider the following statements

  1. Cisgenesis (among plants) is the genetic modification of a recipient plant with a natural gene from a crossable, sexually compatible plant.
  2. Transgenesis is the genetic modification of a recipient plant with genes from any non-plant organism, or from a donor plant that is sexually incompatible with the recipient plant.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1 only

  2 only

  Both 1 and 2

  Neither 1 nor 2

Cisgenesis is the genetic modification of a recipient plant with a natural gene from a crossable, sexually compatible plant. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Transgenesis is the genetic modification of a recipient plant with one or more genes from any non-plant organism, or from a donor plant that is sexually incompatible with the recipient plant. This includes gene sequences of any origin in the anti-sense orientation, any artificial combination of a coding sequence and a regulatory sequence, such as a promoter from another gene, or a synthetic gene. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Transgenesis and Cisgenesis both use the same genetic modification techniques. (Namely the introduction of one or more genes and their promoters into a plant) Cisgenesis involves only genes from the plant itself or from a close relative, and these genes could also be transferred by traditional breeding techniques.

19. Consider the following statements

  1. Noise as a pollutant is recognised as part of air pollution under of Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
  2. Silence zone is referred as areas up to 500 meters around such premises as hospitals, educational institutions and courts.
  3. As per existing rules, noise standards should not exceed 25 decibels (dB) in a Silence zone.
  4. The Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 framed by the Central Government under the provisions of Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

  1, 2 and 4

  2 and 3

  1 and 4

  Only 3

Although originally, the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1981 was enacted exclusively for the control of air pollution, but by Amendment Act 1987, the problem of noise was also covered within the definition of air pollutants under this Act. In this Act no specific provision for the control of noise pollution has been made. Hence statement 1 is correct

Silence zone is referred as areas up to 100 meters around such premises as hospitals, educational institutions and courts. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

The noise standards in Silence zones are laid down as per existing rules, and should not exceed 45 decibels (dB) and 40dB during day and night, respectively. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

The Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 is framed by the Central Government under the provisions of Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 read with Rule 5 of the Environment (Protection) Rules 1986. Hence statement 4 is correct.

20. Consider the following statements about ‘Ocean Acidification’

  1. It leads to increase in the concentration of hydrogen ions and decreases the concentration of carbonate ions.
  2. Ocean water is naturally slightly acidic in nature.

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

  1 only

  2 only

  Both 1 and 2

  Neither 1 nor 2

Ocean acidification is the ongoing decrease in the pH of the Earth’s oceans, caused by the increased uptake of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere. (due to increased CO2 levels because of human activity)

There are two important things that happen when carbon dioxide dissolves in seawater. First, there is an increase in concentration of hydrogen ions (due to chemical reactions), because of which the pH of seawater water gets lower as it becomes more acidic. Second, this process binds up carbonate ions and makes them less abundant. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Carbonate ions that corals, oysters, mussels, and many other shelled organisms need to build shells and skeletons.

Ocean pH has been slightly basic, averaging about 8.2. Today, it is around 8.1, a drop of 0.1 pH units, representing a 25-percent increase in acidity over the past two centuries. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

21. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Ramsar Convention’

  1. It is a global inter-governmental treaty that provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.
  2. It is the only global treaty to focus on one single ecosystem.

Select the correct statements

  1 Only

  2 Only

  Both 1 and 2

  Neither 1 nor 2

The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands, also known as the Ramsar Convention, is a global inter-governmental treaty that provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. It is the only global treaty to focus on one single ecosystem.

The Ramsar Convention is the only international treaty focused on wetlands. It provides a platform of 170 Contracting Parties working together for wetland conservation and wise use, and to develop the best available data, advice and policy recommendations to realize the benefits of fully functional wetlands to nature and society. Parties to the Convention have already committed to maintaining the ecological character of over 2,300 Wetlands of International Importance covering nearly 250million hectares, 13-18% of global wetlands.

22. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?

Phumlenpat Lake – Meghalaya

Ameenpur Lake – Odisha

Loktak Lake – Manipur

Select the correct code:

  1 and 2

  1 and 3

  3 Only

  2 and 3

Phumlenpat Lake – Manipur

Ameenpur Lake – Telangana

Loktak Lake – Manipur

23. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

        Mission to Mars         Space Agency

Hope Mars Mission – European Space Agency (ESA)

Mars Atmosphere and Volatile Evolution (MAVEN) – Roscosmos

ExoMars (Exobiology on Mars) – NASA

Select the correct code:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. All of the above
  4. None of the above

The Hope Mars Mission also called Emirates Mars Mission is a space exploration probe mission to Mars built by the United Arab Emirates and set for launch in 2020.

Mars Atmosphere and Volatile Evolution (MAVEN) mission was developed by NASA to study the Martian atmosphere while orbiting Mars. Mission goals include determining how the planet’s atmosphere and water, presumed to have once been substantial, were lost over time.

ExoMars (Exobiology on Mars) is a two-part astrobiology project to search for evidence of life on Mars, a joint mission of the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Russian space agency Roscosmos.

24. The term ‘Oort Cloud’ was in news recently. It is associated with

  1. Blockchain Technology
  2. Polar mesospheric clouds
  3. Icy objects that exist in the solar system
  4. Far Side of the Moon

The Oort cloud, named after the Dutch astronomer Jan Oort, sometimes called the Öpik–Oort cloud, is a hypothetical cloud of predominantly icy planetesimals proposed to surround the Sun at distances ranging from 2,000 to 200,000 AU (0.03 to 3.2 light-years). It is divided into two regions: a disc-shaped inner Oort cloud (or Hills cloud) and a spherical outer Oort cloud. Both regions lie beyond the heliosphere and in interstellar space. The Kuiper belt and the scattered disc, the other two reservoirs of trans-Neptunian objects, are less than one thousandth as far from the Sun as the Oort cloud.

25. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘HAL Tejas’

  1. It is a delta wing multirole fighter jet
  2. It is integrated with a fly-by-wire flight control system
  3. It is powered with a General Electric F404 afterburning turbofan engine

Select the correct statements

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. All of the above

The HAL Tejas is an Indian single-engine, multirole light fighter designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) for the Indian Air Force and Indian Navy. It came from the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) programme, which began in the 1980s to replace India’s ageing MiG-21 fighters. In 2003, the LCA was officially named “Tejas”.

Tejas has a tail-less compound delta-wing configuration with a single dorsal fin. This provides better high-alpha performance characteristics than conventional wing designs. Its wing root leading edge has a sweep of 50 degrees, the outer wing leading edge has a sweep of 62.5 degrees, and trailing edge has a forward sweep of four degrees. It integrates technologies such as relaxed static stability, fly-by-wire flight control system, multi-mode radar, integrated digital avionics system and composite material structures. It is the smallest and lightest in its class of contemporary supersonic combat aircraft.

It was intended to be powered by the GTRE GTX-35VS Kaveri, but had to be replaced with an off-the-shelf “foreign” engine, the General Electric F404.

26. The exercise ‘IOWave18’ recently in news was conducted by:

  1. Indian Ocean Commission
  2. Indian Ocean Rim Association
  3. Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission
  4. United Nations Convention on Law of the Sea

India, along with 23 other Indian Ocean Nations, participated in a major Indian ocean-wide tsunami mock exercise (drill) on 4th & 5th September, 2018.

The Exercise, known as IOWave18, was organized by the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) of UNESCO, which coordinated the setting up of the Indian Ocean Tsunami Warning and Mitigation System (IOTWMS) in the aftermath of the 26 December 2004 tsunami.

27. Consider the following

  1. Medhar is a bamboo basket-making community in Karnataka.
  2. Chola Naikar is a tribal community of Kerala.

Which of the given statement is/are correct?

  1 only

  2 only

  Both 1 and 2

  Neither 1 nor 2

Both are correct.

28. The project launch of the Green Agriculture project jointly organized by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (MoAFW) and the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) deals with:

  1. Addressing Biodiversity Conservation
  2. Renewable Energy Use
  3. Climate Change Mitigation
  4. Sustainable Forest Management

Select the correct code:

  1. 1 and 4 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

The project aims to transform agricultural production to generate global environmental benefits by addressing biodiversity conservation, land degradation, climate change mitigation and sustainable forest management.

29. Germany launched World’s first hydrogen-powered train recently. Consider the following statements in this regard:

  1. It uses fuel cells that produce electricity through a combination of hydrogen and oxygen, leaving behind only water and steam as residue.
  2. It produces zero-emission unlike other fossil based fuels.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

  1 only

  2 only

  Both 1 and 2

  Neither 1 nor 2

It uses fuel cells that produce electricity through a combination of hydrogen and oxygen, leaving behind water and steam.

Hydrogen produced via electrolysis commonly costs roughly the same as natural gas and almost double that of diesel fuel; however, unlike either of these fossil-based fuels, hydrogen propulsion produces zero emissions.

30. International Sea power Symposium (ISS) which was held recently is organized by:

  1. Indian Ocean Naval Symposium
  2. RIM Association
  3. US Navy
  4. UNCLOS

Admiral Sunil Lanba, Chairman Chiefs of Staff Committee and the Chief of the Naval Staff visited Rhode Island, USA on a bilateral visit from 18 to 22 September 2018 for attending the 23rd edition of the International Sea power Symposium (ISS) organised by the US Navy.

The biennial ISS was first held in 1969 in Newport and was designed to allow naval leaders from around the world to meet and discuss common issues they faced, how to address these issues, and ultimately find solutions for them.

Source:iasbaba

Important Current Affairs Quiz 23rd March 2019

Que. 1 Which state government’s transport department suspended app-based Ola Cabs’s aggregator license for 6 months in March 2019?

1. Tamil Nadu

2. Kerala

3. Karnataka

4. Andhra Pradesh

5. Telangana

Answer: The Karnataka government’s transport department suspended app-based Ola Cabs’s aggregator license for 6 months.

    The Ola is charged with running bike taxis in violation of license conditions and violated government rules.

    Aggregator means a person who is an aggregator or operator or an intermediary/market place who canvasses or solicits or facilitates passengers for travel by taxi.

Que. 2 Read the following statements carefully:

1. The European Union has agreed to postpone Brexit from 29 March 2019.

2. EU leaders agreed to delay Brexit after the UK Parliament twice overwhelmingly rejected the deal that was agreed with the EU on how to withdraw from the bloc and voted against a no-deal exit.

3. More than 17 million Britons voted against leaving the EU in a 2016 referendum.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

1. Only 1

2. Only 1 and 2

3. Only 1 and 3

4. Only 2 and 3

5. All of the above

Answer: The European Union has agreed to postpone Brexit from 29 March 2019.

    EU leaders agreed to delay Brexit after the UK Parliament twice overwhelmingly rejected the deal that was agreed with the EU on how to withdraw from the bloc and voted against a no-deal exit.

    More than 17 million Britons voted in favor of leaving the EU in a 2016 referendum.

Que. 3 Who has been appointed as the Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer of Tata Coffee in March 2019?

1. Martin Pieters

2. Shinzo Nakanishi

3. Parmit Jhaveri

4. Chacko Purackal Thomas

5. BD Park

Answer:

    Tata Coffee appointed Chacko Purackal Thomas as the Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer.

    He will replace Sanjiv Sarin, who retires on 31 March 2019.

    He will assume the charge from 1 April 2019.

    He currently works as the executive director and deputy CEO of the Tata Group firm.

Que. 4 Which of the following countries will be funding Pakistan over US$ 2 billion loans to provide a boost to its ailing economy, in March 2019?

1. USA

2. China

3. Russia

4. North Korea

5. Israel

Answer:

    Pakistan will receive over US$ 2 billion loans from China by 25 March 2019 to provide a boost to its ailing economy.

    The funds will be deposited in the State Bank of Pakistan.

    The loan facility will further strengthen foreign exchange reserves and ensure the balance of payment stability.

    Pakistan has received USD 1 billion each from Saudi Arabia and the UAE.

Que. 5 Which of the following sports organizations of India launched its ambitious coaching education pathway in March 2019?

1. Board of Control for Cricket in India

2. Hockey India

3. All India Football Federation

4. Indian Olympic Association

5. Badminton Association of India

Answer: Hockey India launched its ambitious ‘Hockey India Coaching Education Pathway’ on 22 March 2019.

    It aims to provide certification to those candidates who are already coaches or wish to pursue coaching as a career option.

    The program consists of a combination of web-based modules and face-to-face interactive courses.

Que. 6 Where will Facebook organise ‘AI for India Summit’ in March 2019?

1. New Delhi

2. Mumbai

3. Bengaluru

4. Hyderabad

5. Chennai

Answer:

    Facebook will organise ‘AI for India Summit’ on 26 March 2019 in Bengaluru.

    The summit will focus on discussing inclusive growth and solutions to the most enduring social challenges.

    The Summit will bring together key representatives from the AI (Artificial Intelligence) community in India such as policymakers, start-ups, and the developer community.

Que. 7 Which bank launched an issuance of 5-year senior unsecured bonds to the extent of US$ 400 million under Medium Term Note programme, through its London branch in March 2019?

1. Canara

2. Axis

3. PNB

4. HDFC

5. Bank of India

Answer:

Canara Bank launched an issuance of 5-year senior unsecured bonds (Medium Term Notes) to the extent of US$ 400 million under Medium Term Note (MTN) programme, through its London branch on 21 March 2019.

Que. 8 The RBI rejected IDBI Bank’s proposal to change its name following the transfer of controlling 51% stake to ________ from the government of India.

1. SBI

2. LIC

3. NABARD

4. SIDBI

5. EXIM

Answer: The RBI rejected IDBI Bank’s proposal to change its name following the transfer of controlling 51% stake to LIC from the government of India.

Que. 9 Which of the following branches of AIIMS launched mobile methadone vans in March 2019?

1. Delhi

2. Bhopal

3. Patna

4. Bhubaneswar

5. Jodhpur

Answer:  All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) Delhi launched mobile methadone vans on 22 March 2019.

    The vans will provide treatment to Opioid addicts in Delhi.

    The National Drug Dependence Treatment Centre of AIIMS has initiated the new mobile van service.

    Methadone is a drug given in a syrup form to patients as it helps in controlling the craving and withdrawals due to Opioid addiction.

Que. 10 Which IPL team has announced that the entire ticket proceeds of the inaugural match of IPL 2019 will be given to the families of CRPF personnel killed in the terror attack in Pulwama?

1. RCB

2. MI

3. KKR

4. CSK

5. SRH

Answer: According to the Chennai Super Kings’ director, the entire ticket proceeds of the inaugural match will be given to the families of CRPF personnel killed in the February 14 terror attack in Pulwama.

Que. 11 Which of the following things has/have been allowed for the players of the test playing nations to sport on their jerseys by the International Cricket Council?

1. National Flag

2. Player Name

3. Squad Number

1. Only 1

2. Only 1 and 2

3. Only 1 and 3

4. Only 2 and 3

5. All of the above

Answer: The International Cricket Council (ICC) has allowed Test-playing nations to have the players sport their names and numbers on their jerseys.

Que. 12 Which country announced in March 2019 that it will recognise Israel’s sovereignty over the Golan Heights?

1. China

2. UK

3. France

4. USA

5. Russia

Answer:  US President Donald Trump announced that the US will recognise Israel’s sovereignty over the Golan Heights.

    Golan Heights was captured by Israel from Syria in 1967.

    Previous US administrations have treated Golan Heights as occupied Syrian territory, in line with UN Security Council resolutions.

Que. 13 Who has become the longest-living president in United States history by March 2019?

1. Ronald Reagan

2. George W. Bush

3. Jimmy Carter

4. Bill Clinton

5. George H. W. Bush

Answer: Former President Jimmy Carter became the longest-living president in United States history on 22 March 2019.

    Jimmy Carter was the USA’s 39th President.

    He has broken the previous record held by the late President George H.W. Bush, who died in November 2018.

Que. 14 Who has been appointed as the Ambassador of Karnataka Lok Sabha Elections 2019?

1. Devendra Jhajharia

2. Muhammed Anas Yahiya

3. Jinson Johnson

4. Girish N Gowda

5. Manish Singh Rawat

Answer: Paralympic high jumper Girish N Gowda has been appointed as Karnataka Lok Sabha Elections 2019 Ambassador.

Que. 15 Who has been appointed as the brand ambassador of PhonePe in March 2019?

1. Shahrukh Khan

2. Kareena Kapoor

3. Aamir Khan

4. Hrithik Roshan

5. Salman Khan

Answer: PhonePe, the payments and financial services arm of Flipkart, appointed Bollywood actor Aamir Khan as its brand ambassador.

Que. 16 Which of the following has been acquired by NSEIT, the IT-services subsidiary of the National Stock Exchange, in March 2019?

1. Alphabetz Network Pvt. Ltd.

2. Phronesis Corporate Intelligence Services Pvt Ltd

3. Jetair Private Limited

4. Aujas Networks Ltd.

5. netCORE Solutions Pvt Ltd

Answer: NSEIT, the IT-services subsidiary of the National Stock Exchange, acquired Aujas Networks Ltd.

    Aujas Networks Ltd. is a company which provides information security consulting and IT risk management services.

    N Muralidharan is the CEO & MD of NSEIT.

    NSEIT currently provides technology solutions across industries such as capital markets, financial markets, banking, and insurance

Que. 17 How many Indians are among the individuals who have been named in the ‘World’s 100 Most Influential People in Climate Policy for 2019’?

1. 5

2. 7

3. 11

4. 15

5. 23

Answer: Union Ministers Piyush Goyal and Dr. Harsh Vardhan are among the seven Indians who have been named in the ‘World’s 100 Most Influential People in Climate Policy for 2019’ for taking steps in order to combat climate change.

    The list was released by Apolitical, a global network for government helping public servants find the ideas, people and partners they need to solve the hardest challenges.

Que. 18 The RBI informed the Bombay High Court that it constituted a ________ member committee to look into the issue of currency notes, which will be helpful to blind people.

1. 3

2. 4

3. 5

4. 6

5. 7

Answer: The RBI informed the Bombay High Court that it constituted a 4 member committee to look into the issue of currency notes, which will be helpful to blind people.

    Bombay HC was hearing a petition filed by the National Association of the Blind.

    RBI said that it was in the process of developing a mobile application to help the visually impaired identify the denomination of currency notes. 

Que. 19 Read the following statements carefully:

1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has postponed the rollout of the new accounting standards (IndAS) for the second time.

2. It is awaiting amendments to the banking laws before adopting the norms.

3. The loan-loss provision under the IndAS is recognised based on the expected credit loss (ECL) model.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. Only 2

2. Only 1 and 2

3. Only 1 and 3

4. Only 2 and 3

5. All are correct

Answer: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has postponed the rollout of the new accounting standards (IndAS) for the second time.

    It is awaiting amendments to the banking laws before adopting the norms.

    The loan-loss provision under the IndAS is recognised based on the expected credit loss (ECL) model.

    The IndAS will further add to banks’ compliance burden, especially for loan-loss provisions.

Que. 20 Recently, Goldie Small, the oldest person in Broome County in ________ passed away.

1. Los Angeles

2. New York

3. Chicago

4. Brooklyn

5. London

Answer: Goldie Small, the oldest person in Broome County in New York passed away on 22 March 2019.

(Source: The Hindu + PIB + Yojana + Indian Express)

Daily Current Affairs 23 March 2019

Current Affairs 23 March 2019

1. RBI declined which Bank’s proposal to name change after its merger with LIC?

 A. Dena Bank 

B.IDBI Bank  

C.Indus Ind Bank 

D.Karur Vysya Bank

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has turned down IDBI Bank’s proposal to change its name following the transfer of a controlling 51% stake to LIC, insurance behemoth, from the government of India.

2.Due to the squalid conditions in the Gaza Strip 40 animal were moved to the sanctuaries of ________.

 A.Israel

B.Jerusalem 

C.Jordan

D.West Bank

Answer: C

Explanation:

Forty animals, including five lions, are to be rescued from squalid conditions in the Gaza Strip, Palestinian. The animals would be taken out of a zoo in the Palestinian enclave and relocated to sanctuaries in Jordan next week.

3. Which of the following spacecraft has its mission of the asteroid Ryugu?

 A.Hayabusa

B.SELENE  

C.IKAROS 

D.Akatsuki

Answer: A

Explanation:

Japanese space agency, JAXA’s Hayabusa2 spacecraft has its mission of the asteroid Ryugu.

4.Social media platforms and _________ presented a ‘Voluntary Code of Ethics’ for the General Election 2019.

 A.Lok Sabha (House of the People)

B.Election Commission of India (ECI) 

C.Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI)

D.Ministry of Information and Technology 

Answer: C

Explanation:

Social media platforms and the Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI) presented a ‘Voluntary Code of Ethics’ for the General Election 2019 to the Election Commission of India.

5.India Post released a special stamp cover on Ice Stupa in ________.

 A.Jammu 

B.Gulmarg  

C.Pahalgam

 D.Leh

Answer: D

Explanation:

India Post released a special stamp cover on Ice Stupa in Leh at an event in the presence of Himalayan Institute of Alternatives Ladakh founder Sonam Wangchuk who spearheaded the Ice Stupa initiative.

6.What is the position occupied by Indian shuttler PV Sindhu in the latest World Badminton Rankings?

 A.Third

B.Fourth 

C.Fifth

D.Sixth

Answer: D

Explanation:

In the women’s singles rankings, P V Sindhu and Saina Nehwal are static with Sindhu at sixth and Saina at ninth position. Japan’s Kento Momota is leading the men’s chart while Chinese Taipei’s Tai Tzu Ying is topping the women’s singles list.

7.Who is the recipient of the 2019 Templeton Prize?

 A.Gérard Mourou

B.Marcelo Gleiser 

C.Donna Strickland

D.John Templeton

Answer: B

Explanation:

Brazilian physicist and astronomer Marcelo Gleiser (60) was awarded 2019 Templeton Prize worth $1.4 million for his work on blending science and spirituality. It makes him first Latin American to win this award.

8.Power Finance Corporation (PFC) will acquire the entire 52.63 per cent shares of the government in REC for Rs __________.

 A.14,500 crore

B.12,500 crore 

C.18,500 crore

D.16,500 crore

Answer: A

Explanation:

State-owned Power Finance Corporation (PFC) will acquire the entire 52.63 per cent shares of the government in REC for Rs 14,500 crore by the month-end, a move that will help the centre to meet its disinvestment target.

9.Recently, Ministry of Defence has cleared the proposal to procure _______ lakh hand grenades for the Indian Army under its Make in India programme.

 A.20

B.10 

C.5

D.15

Answer: B

Explanation:

Ministry of Defence (MoD) has cleared the proposal to procure 10 lakh hand grenades for the Indian Army under its Make in India programme. The Rs 500 crore proposal comes shortly after the Defence Ministry cleared the acquisition of assault rifles and signed a joint venture with Russia to manufacture AK-203 rifles for the infantry units of the Indian Army.

10.Which of the following Indian shuttler placed in top 10 in the latest World Badminton Rankings?

 A.Sai Praneeth

B.Lakshya Sen 

C.Parupalli Kashyap

D.Kidambi Srikanth

Answer: D

Explanation:

Kidambi Srikanth remains static and is the best placed Indian in the men’s rankings at seventh. He is followed by Sameer Verma (14th), H S Prannoy (24th), Subhankar Dey (43rd), Parupalli Kashyap (48th), Ajay Jayram (52nd) and Sourav Verma (53rd).

11.Fitch Cuts India GDP Growth Forecast For FY20 To ———-

 A.6.8%

B.7.2% 

C.8.5%

D.3.8%

Answer: A

Explanation:

Fitch Cuts India GDP Growth Forecast For FY20 To 6.8%

12.Which country ban Assault Weapons

 A.New Zealand

B.Russia 

C.Thailand

D.Pakistan

Answer: A

Explanation:

New Zealand ban Assault Weapons.

13.—– to donate IPL opener proceeds to families of Pulwama attack

 A.CSK

B.Mumbai Indians 

C.Rajasthan Royals

D.Delhi Daredevils

Answer: A

Explanation:

CSK to donate IPL opener proceeds to families of Pulwama attack.

14.Which Ministry releases national guidelines on responsible business conduct

 A.Ministry of Coroprate Affairs

B.Ministry of Defence 

C.Ministry of External Affairs

D.Ministrey of Internal Affairs

Answer: A

Explanation:

Ministry of Coroprate Affairs releases national guidelines on responsible business conduct.

15.Which state plans to introduce caravans in major spots to boost tourism

 A.Uttarkhand

B.TamilNadu 

C.Andhra Pradesh

D.Himachal Pradesh

Answer: A

Explanation:

Uttarkhand state plans to introduce caravans in major spots to boost tourism.

Q16. The RBI’s decision to infuse rupee liquidity through long term foreign exchange swap, a first of its kind in liquidity management policy, is likely to boost investments by foreign portfolio investors under the voluntary retention route.

Which of the following statements regarding the same are true ?

1) Such a swap route has been explored by various emerging market economies as an effective tool to manage liquidity.

2) Apart from liquidity infusion, the move will boost the country’s foreign exchange reserves and is likely to support the exchange rate.

3) The objective of the regulator (RBI) is also to attract long-term and stable FPI investments in the debt market while providing FPIs with operational flexibility to manage their investments.

A) 1 & 2 only

B) 2 & 3 only

C) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

Answer: D

Q17. Consider the following pairs of hydro power projects in India and their corresponding rivers :

1) NathpaJakri :Satluj

2) Srisailam : Godavari

3) Indira sagar : Narmada

4) Dehar( Pandoh) : Ravi

5) Idukki :Periyar

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched ?

A) 1,2& 3 only

B) 3,4 & 5 only

C) 1,3 & 5 only

D) all of the above

Answer: C

Q18. Which of the following statements regarding Rajiv Gandhi Panchayat Sashaktikaran Yojana (RGPSY) are true?

1) The goals of the scheme include to strengthen Gram Sabhas to function effectively as the basic forum of people’s participation, transparency and accountability within the Panchayat system.

2) The scheme recognizes the fact that States have different needs and priorities and therefore allows for State specific planning, whereby States can choose from a menu of permissible activities.

3) This scheme is applicable to all States/ UTs except those which presently are not covered by Part IX of the Constitution.

A) 1 & 2 only

B) 2 & 3 only

C) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

Answer: A

Q19. Consider the following statements regarding RTI act & the exemptions under the act:

1) The RTI act mandates that all records that are appropriate to be computerized and within a reasonable time and subject to availability be digitized.

2) Under the act any information received under the confidence of a foreign government is deemed to be valid unless it endangers the life or physical property of a person.

3) Even though national parties are public authorities, they are exempted from RTI disclosures under section 8(1) of the RTI act.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

A) 1 & 2 only

B) 2 & 3 only

C) 1 & 3 only

D) all of the above

Answer: B

Q20. The books “Abhyuday Hindustan & Leader was written by which of the following Indian freedom struggle personalities?

A) Lalahardayal

B) Hakim Ajmal Khan

C) Madan Mohan Malviya

D) Arvindo ghosh

Answer: C

Indian Geography Question Bank Based on 6-12th NCERT

Useful for UPSC IAS and State PSC Prelims Exam

We have compiled Questions & Answers on Indian Geography in the form of Practice Sets for Exams like IAS, State PSC, and SSC.

Topic Covered from NCERT Geography:

  1. Indian Geography: General Geography
  2. Mountain
  3. Plateau
  4. Plain
  5. Drainage/River/Lake
  6. National Parks
  7. Biosphere Reserves
  8. Wildlife
  9. Soil
  10. Climate
  11. Vegetation etc.

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Geography of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with MCQ

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Art and Culture of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes

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Current Affairs Important Study Notes with Practice MCQ for IAS 2019

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Important Solved Test Questions for RAS/RTS Mains Exam – 2019

Why Telecom Companies are against the Net-neutrality of the internet network?

Telecom companies are worried due to new technology because new technology has affected their business.

For example, the use of SMS service is almost finished due to free app like WhatsApp app. This has reduced the revenue of telecom companies because the earlier SMS packs were sold in large quantities and even on the occasion of festivals, every message was charged up to 2 rupees. Similar losses are due to facility of free video chats because these companies used to generate a lot of revenue from the International Calling earlier.

What are the rules of Net Neutrality in India?

Net Neutrality is applicable in India and all users have access of internet services with a similar speed. However, telecom companies in India are trying to put pressure on the government to end Net Neutrality.

The Government of India argues that internet is still used by very few peoples in India. India is in the initial phase of conveying the internet to every citizen of the country. The number of mobile Internet users in India is likely to reach 478 million by June 2018 but rural India has miles to go in this area. So it is not possible for the government to introduce the concept of Net Neutrality in the country at this juncture.

What is “OneerTM”?

OneerTM is an innovative technology for drinking water disinfection system which was developed by the Council Scientific and Industrial Research and Indian Institute of Toxicology Research (CSIR-IITR), Lucknow.

All disease causing pathogens like virus, bacteria, fungi, protozoa and cyst will be removed from drinking water making it safe for domestic use and for communities. This technique is useful for continuous treatment of water to meet National and International standards prescribed for potable water (WHO etc.). This technology was transferred to M/s Bluebird Water Purifiers on 17 October, 2018.

Let us tell you that Oneer smaller unit is particularly suitable for homes, street food vendors and small establishments.

According to CSIR-IITR this technology will provide access to safe and clean drinking water at a cost of just 2 Paise/Ltr. We know that infection through drinking water results in an increase in morbidity and mortality particularly amongst children. Therefore, this technology will be helpful for rural people since it can be solar powered and the development is done under ‘Make in India Mission’.

About this technology

The technology is based on the principle of anodic oxidation. Through a chamber, raw water is passed and disinfection occurs with the help of singlet oxygen species which was generated at the anode.

Do you know why this technology has been named as Oneer?

The technology has been named as Oneer as ‘O’ for singlet oxygen species and ‘neer’ for water.

Features of OneerTM

A key feature of OneerTM technology is that purified water will retain all essential minerals and there will be no wastage as it happens in reverse osmosis (RO) based purifiers. Also, there is no need to add any type of chemical and water can be stored around 30 hours without the risk of any recontamination. It also consists of an in-built smart sensor system that will provide the real-time information of all operational steps. Depending upon the quality of water it also provides auto self-cleaning system after fixed number of cycles.

Per 5000 litres of water, this system will consume around one unit if electricity and can be operated with solar power as well. Also, the domestic model can be used at homes, street food vendors and small shops, while the community model is suitable for schools, hospitals, restaurants, railway stations etc.

Therefore, we can say that OneerTM is a water purifier technology which can eliminate disease causing pathogens and provide safe drinking water as per national and international standards.

What is Glioblastoma or GBM Grade IV cancer?

Glioblastoma is also known as Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) which is a type of brain cancer. Among adults, it is most common type of malignant brain tumour. Basically, it is a malignant Grade IV tumour which spread quickly and grows fast in brain.

Let us tell you that there are multiple grades of gliomas i.e. grade II, III and IV but the grade IV is most malignant. Glioblastoma is considered as grade IV tumour.

Where it occurs in the brain?

Glioblastoma is a type of cancer that forms in the brain from star-shaped cells known as astrocytes and the cancer is also called as astrocytoma. It starts in adults in the largest part of the brain that is cerebrum. This type of tumour doesn’t need blood from any where they supply itself due to which they grow easily and quickly.

We can say that Glioblastoma occur is the lobe of the brain, stem of the brain and cerebellum. But more commonly occur in the frontal and temporal lobe.

Is this cancer is common?

It is said that it is most common in males, persons older than 50 and people of Caucasian or Asian ethnicity. Also, brain cancers are not common.

What are the symptoms of Glioblastoma Cancer?

It depends upon the location where the tumour is located in the brain, from where it originated the rate of growth etc. Also, symptoms depend upon the fluid that surrounds the tumour and causes brain swelling.

Common Symptoms are as follows:

– Vomiting

– Constant Headache

– Trouble in thinking or memory loss

– Mood swings and changes in personality

– Blurred vision or sometimes double also.

– Seizures

– Disturbance in speech, problem in speaking

– Nausea

– Muscle weakness

– Weakness or sensory changes of face arm or leg

– Difficulties in balance

Now the question arises that how Glioblastoma tumour is diagnosed?

The diagnosis of Glioblastoma tumour is done by a neurologist, a doctor who has specialization in diagnosing and treating disorders of brain. Several tests, MRI or CT scan are performed which depends upon the symptoms of the patient.

Procedure for the treatment of Glioblastoma

Main focus of the doctors is to slow and control the growth of the tumour as much as possible. The treatments given to the patients are surgery, radiation therapy, Chemotherapy and Electric field therapy.

The first treatment given to the patient is the surgery. Doctors remove tumour in high risk areas of the brain as much as possible.

In Radiation treatment the left over tumour is killed and also slow the growth of the tumour which can’t be removed from the surgery.

In Chemotherapy the most common type of drug given to the patient by the doctors is Temozolomide for glioblastoma. This therapy causes short time side effects but is much less toxic.

Surgically glioblastoma is not curable, only the good part is to remove the tumour as much as possible. But in radiation and chemotherapy treatment progression of the tumour can be delayed.

In Electric field therapy the electric fields are used to target the cells in the tumour while not hurting the normal cells. For this doctor insert electrodes directly into the scalp. The device with the help of this is done is known as Optune. Let us tell you that this FDA therapy has been approved for both newly diagnosed people and people whose glioblastoma has come back.

What is Space Debris and its causes?

The term debris implies that the remains of something that has been destroyed or broken up. When it comes to the Space Debris, it referred to the natural debris found in the solar system such as asteroids, comets, and meteoroids (a small rocky or metallic body in outer space).

What causes Space Debris?

The space debris is consists of not only broken pieces of asteroids, comets, and meteoroids but also abandoned pieces of old satellites and used rocket stages including remainder of rocket fuel, paint flakes, frozen liquid coolant, etc.

According to the report of United States Space Surveillance Network, there are more than 13,000 pieces of space debris larger than 10 cm (4 inches), about 200,000 pieces between 1 and 10 cm (0.4 and 4 inches) and also predicted there could be millions of pieces smaller than 1 cm.

How Space Debris will be threat to the operational satellites as well as Earth’s atmosphere?

These debris travels at a high speeds which is up to 8 km per second which might be threats to both manned and unmanned spaceflight. Most of the debris can be found geostationary orbit above equator.

The threat of the collision came into existence when operational satellite and a piece of space debris took place when a fragment from the upper stage of a European Ariane rocket collided with Cerise (French microsatellite) on July 24 1996. This collide partially damages the Cerise, but still functional. The real threat came into light when Iridium 33 (communications satellite owned by the American company Motorola), collided with Cosmos 2251 that destroyed the operational satellite.

Apart from the threat to the operational satellite, it is also a threat to the Earth’s atmosphere as well. Because most of the debris can be found geostationary orbit above the equator, and if debris burns up in the atmosphere, larger objects can reach the ground intact. Hence, despite of their size, there will be significant property damage from the debris.

Tools for tracking and measuring the Space Debris

Lidar (combination of Radar and optical detector) is the main tool for tracking the space debris. Recently, NASA Orbital Debris Observatory tracked space debris with a 3 m (10 ft.) liquid mirror transit telescope. FM Radio waves can also detect debris, after reflecting off them onto a receiver.

Hence, space agencies around the world come up with a single agenda to clean all the debris. Now, they all are actively involved in tracking the largest bits of space debris to mitigate the problem.

What do you know about India’s first floating laboratory?

1. The Institute of Bioresources and Sustainable Laboratory (IBSD), Imphal has established India’s first floating laboratory at Loktak Lake to monitor the ecosystem of the lake as well as the water quality.

2. It is a joint venture of Loktak Development Authority (LDA) and Bioresources and Sustainable Laboratory Institute (IBSD); and about 15 lakhs spent in setting up this floating laboratory.

3. The Institute of Bioresources and Sustainable laboratory (IBSD) took 4 months to set up this floating laboratory.

4. This floating laboratory will check the oxygen and the pH level of the lake and also will record changes in temperature, acidity, conductivity and dissolved oxygen in the 300 sq. km of the lake. So that the Institute of Bioresources and Sustainable Laboratory (IBSD) can take immediate steps to check water pollution and restore it.

5. This floating laboratory is equipped with all modern equipment such as water quality Analyzer, which will automatically check temperature, temperature, acidity, salinity and electrical conductivity standards.

6. This floating laboratory will have a five-member female researcher who will collect the samples of microorganisms, which may carry potential for use in pharmaceuticals, nutraceuticals and other industries.

7. This floating laboratory model is given by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) of the Central Government to protect the unique ecosystem of the Loktak Lake.

8. The length of the boat is 15 metre and can accommodate 10 people.

9. The lake is shrinking at a speed of 40 sq. km. Therefore, it is a well needed laboratory which will study the nutrients of vegetation and monitor their health so that the hundreds of massive circular rings of floating vegetation called “Phumdis” or floating islands can be taken care of.

10. This floating laboratory will also set up scientific research and social responsibility, because for a few years this has become a dumping yard of lake pollutants which is affecting the ecosystem of the lake.

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Geography of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with MCQ

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Art and Culture of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes

History of India Study Notes with MCQ Part-1

Current Affairs Important Study Notes with Practice MCQ for IAS 2019

Economy of Rajasthan Study Notes with Test Paper

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IMPORTANT SOLVED QUESTIONS FOR RAS/RTS MAINS EXAM

Write short notes on Popular Lok Devtas of Rajasthan?

Pabu Ji

Pabuji is a folk divinity of Rajasthan. He subsisted in Fourteenth century. He was one of 4 kids of Dhadal Rathore of Kolu, Rajasthan. The ancient Pabuji was a Rajput prince. He is now extensively revered as a divine being by Rabari herdsmen throughout Rajasthan; and he is served by priests of Nayak. Pabuji survived in the isolated arid region of Kolu.

Rawal Mallinath

Rawal Mallinath is a folk idol of Rajasthan. He was the elder lad of Rao Salkhaji, the Mehwanagar ruler in Barmer.  The descendants of Rawal Mallinath’s are the eldest among all abodes of Rathores in the state of Rajasthan. The domiciles of Bikaner, Jodhpur, Sitamau, Ratlam, Idar, Alirajpur and Sailana sketch their roots to Viramdeo.

Veer Teja Ji

Veer Teja Ji was a folk divinity who subsisted in Rajasthan state. The narration of Rajasthan is crammed with lots of gallant chronicles and illustrations where people have put their lives at menace and reserved the pride and principles like faithfulness, liberty, genuineness, protection, communal transformation etc. integral. Veer Teja Ji was one of the well-known people in the account of Rajasthan.

Ramdev Ji

Ramdev ji was a folk divinity who subsisted in Rajasthan state. He was the Rajput ruler of 14th century, said to have astounding powers who dedicated his life for the fortifying of subjugated and deprived people and Hindu revivalism which were edged by assailants. He is venerated today by many communal groups. His devotees deem him to be an embodiment of Lord Vishnu.

Khetla Ji

Khetla Ji was a folk divinity who subsisted in Rajasthan state. His one of the temples is situated in Sonana Village, Rajasthan. The place of worship is the spot of a 2 day fair, held annually during the months of May and June in respect of Khetla ji. The fair draws a hefty number of followers who gather together here during the fair to summon the blessing of the divinity. There are number of temples of Khetla Ji in Marwar, for example Sayala, Sewari etc. Kataria society of Rajasthan regards him as their Kul Devta. They also perform some ceremonies after birth and marriage which is known as ‘Juar’.

Goga Ji

Goga Ji is also recognized as Jahar Veer Gogga. He is a folk divinity, revered in the states of Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan. He is a combatant conqueror of the area, acclaimed as a saint. He is venerated as a peer among Muslims, Sikhs and Hindus.

Eloji

Eloji is a folk divinity and is considered to be the deity of villages. Effigies of Eloji can be instituted roughly in every rural community of Rajasthan. He is revealed as a burly man with moustaches and arrogance on his face. Many folk songs and music are played in honor of sexual power of Eloji.

Give an account of the following:

1) SAKAAR

2) PRAGATI

3) Aspirational district programme

SAKAAR: Sakaar is Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) Augmented Reality (AR) application designed for Android devices. The application consists of 3 Dimensional (3D) models of Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), RISAT, indigenous rockets such as PSLV, GSLV Mk-III etc.

PRAGATI: PRO-ACTIVE GOVERNANCE AND TIMELY IMPLEMENTATION, Addressing common man’s grievances, and simultaneously monitoring and reviewing important programmes and projects of the Government of India as well as projects flagged by State Governments.

Aspirational district programme: To quickly and effectively transform some of the most underdeveloped districts of the country. It focuses on transforming 115 districts across 28 states that have witnessed the least progress along certain development parameters

NITI Aayog releases ‘Strategy for New India @75 what are the key features of it?

The forty-one chapters in the document have been merged under four sections – Drivers, Infrastructure, Inclusion and Governance.

Objective

The Strategy document aims to further improve the policy environment in which private investors and other stakeholders can contribute their fullest towards achieving the goals set out for New India 2022 and propels India towards a USD 5 trillion economy by 2030.

Key Takeaways

  • With ‘Strategy for New India @ 75′, Niti Aayog aims to accelerate growth to 9-10 percent and make India a USD 5 trillion economy by 2030.
  • The development strategy includes doubling of farmers’ income, boosting ‘Make in India’, upgrading the science, technology and innovation ecosystem, and promoting sectors like fintech and tourism.
  • NITI Aayog prescribed reducing upper age limit to join the civil services to 27 years from the present 30 years for General Category candidates by 2022-23 in a phased manner and also to have one integrated exam for all civil services.
  • It calls for successfully implementing the Ayushman Bharat programme including the establishment of 150000 health and wellness centres and rolling out Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana.
  • The document outlines the need for creating agripreneurs, which implies creation of agro-processing industry at a much faster pace to enhance farmer participation though agro processing.
  • It calls for participation of Private Sector in Indian Railways. From ownership of locomotives and rolling stocks to modernising stations, improvement of the railways hinges on private participation.
  • It boasts of expanding the scope of Swachh Bharat Mission to cover initiatives for landfills, plastic waste and municipal waste and generating wealth from waste.
  • The government will have to ease the tax compliance burden and eliminate direct interface between taxpayers and tax officials using technology.
  • It suggests better compensation to banking correspondents, facilitating paperless banking and introducing financial literacy chapters in school curricula to spur financial inclusion.

It recommends identification of the poorest among the minority communities through the socio-economic caste census data for proper targeting of various schemes.

Key recommendations stated under four sections

Recommendations stated under Drivers

  • Steadily accelerate the economy to achieve a GDP growth rate of about 8 percent on average during 2018-23. This will raise the economy’s size in real terms from USD 2.7trillion in 2017-18 to nearly USD 4 trillion by 2022-23.
  • In agriculture, shift the emphasis to converting farmers to ‘agripreneurs’ by further expanding e-National Agriculture Markets and replacing the Agricultural Produce Marketing Committee Act with the Agricultural Produce and Livestock Marketing Act.
  • Give a strong push to ‘Zero Budget Natural Farming’ techniques that reduce costs, improve land quality and increase farmers’ incomes.
  • To ensure maximum employment creation, complete codification of labor laws; and upscale and expand apprenticeships.
  • Launch a mission “Explore in India” by revamping minerals exploration and licensing policy.

Recommendations under Infrastructure

  • Expedite the establishment of the Rail Development Authority (RDA), which is already approved.
  • Double the share of freight transported by coastal shipping and inland waterways.
  • Develop an IT-enabled platform for integrating different modes of transport and promoting multi-modal and digitised mobility.
  • Deliver all government services at the state, district, and gram panchayat level digitally by2022-23. With the completion of the Bharat Net programme in 2019, all 2.5 lakh gram panchayats will be digitally connected.
  • The three themes in this section revolve around the dimensions of health, education and mainstreaming of traditionally marginalized sections of the population.

Recommendations under Inclusion

  • Successfully implementing the Ayushman Bharat programme including the establishment of 150000 health and wellness centres across the country, and rolling out the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Abhiyaan (PM-JAY).
  • Create a focal point for public health at the central level with state counterparts.
  • Upgrade the quality of the school education system and skills, including the creation of a new innovation ecosystem at the ground level by establishing at least 10,000 Atal Tinkering Labs by 2020.
  • Conceptualize an electronic national educational registry for tracking each child’s learning outcomes.
  • As already done in rural areas, give a huge push to affordable housing in urban areas to improve workers’ living conditions.
  • Recommendations under Governance
  • Implement the recommendations of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission as a prelude to appointing a successor for designing reforms in the changing context of emerging technologies.
  • Set up a new autonomous body ‘Arbitration Council of India’ to grade arbitral institutions and accredit arbitrators to make the arbitration process cost effective and speedy/
  • Address the backlog of pending cases.
  • Expand the scope of Swachh Bharat Mission to cover initiatives for landfills, plastic waste and municipal waste and generating wealth from waste.

What is the Objective behind States’ Start-up Ranking?

  1. The key objective of the exercise was to encourage States and Union Territories to take proactive steps towards strengthening the Start-up ecosystems in their states.
  • The entire exercise was conducted for capacity development and to further the spirit of cooperative federalism.
  • The methodology behind the exercise was aimed at creating a healthy competition environment wherein States were encouraged further to learn, share and adopt good practices.

Which are five types of State System during Vedic period?

1. Rajya (Central kingdom): Ruled by the Raja

2. Bhojya (Southern kingdom): Ruled by the Bhoja

3. Swarajya (Western kingdom): Ruled by the Svarat

4. Vairajya (Northern kingdom): Ruled by the Virat

5. Samrajya (Eastern kingdom):  Ruled by the Samrat

SAARC

The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is the regional intergovernmental organization in South Asia.

Initially there were 7 members in the SAARC but Afghanistan joined it on April 3, 2007.  Now it has 8 members which includes; Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, the Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

SAARC was founded in Dhaka on 8 December 1985. This organization promotes development of economic and regional integration.

Myanmar is not the member of the SAARC.

SAARC was founded in Dhaka on 8 December 1985. Its secretariat is based in Kathmandu (Nepal). The SAARC Secretariat was established in Kathmandu on 16 January 1987 and was inaugurated by Late King Birendra Bir Bikram Shah of Nepal.

Maitrakas dynasty

Maitrakas was Iranian in origin and ruled in Saurashtra region of Gujarat with Valabhi as capital. Valabhi became centre of learning, culture and trade and commerce under the guidance of Bhatarka. It survived the longest Arab attacks.

What are the causes of water logging in Rajasthan and measures to reduce it?

A study has determined what the most important causes of Water logging is caused by a combination of excess rainfall (for the site), poor external drain- age (runoff), poor internal drainage (water movement in the soil profile) and the inability of the soil to store much water.

Measures:

  1. After flooding, wash down hard surfaces and collect up debris to prevent drains blocking, soil surfaces being covered, and pollutants or contaminants lingering in the garden.
  2. Keep off the soil until it is workable, to avoid compacting it and worsening the conditions.
  3. Remove damaged shoots from affected plants.

Why do the Western Ghats receive more rain than the Eastern Ghats?

The reason why do the Western Ghats receive more rain than the Eastern Ghats are discussed below:

1. The winds from Arabian Sea climb the slopes of the Western Ghats from 900-1200 m. Soon, they become cool, and as a result, the windward side of the Western Ghats receives very heavy rainfall ranging between 250 cm and 400 cm. After crossing the Western Ghats, these winds descend and get heated up. This reduces humidity in the winds. As a result, these winds cause little rainfall in the Eastern Ghats.

2. The Western Ghats block rain-bearing winds which cause rainfall on the western slopes. Whereas South-west monsoon moves parallel to the Eastern Ghats, which cause less rainfall because in the Eastern Ghats unable to block moisture-laden winds

3. The Western Ghats lies in rain-fed area of the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon whereas Eastern Ghats lies in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon.

4. The Western Ghats have gentle slope that provides a greater area for sunlight absorption whereas the Eastern Ghats have an abrupt slope.

What if India has two Time Zones?

Recently, the journal Current Science by the Indian Academy of Sciences states that if India has two time zones then it will not only save the Daylight but also increase the productivity.

In the north-eastern states of India, Sun rises and set earlier, which causes loss of many daylight hours in normal days? But this situation worsens in winter because during winter days get shorter, which causes lower productivity and higher electricity consumption. The study estimated that if India has two time zones then India can save 20 million kWh annual electricity.

Some researcher states that if India has two time zones then it will be havoc situation. For Example- Two time zones could lead to railway collisions.

This study also suggested that “how two time zones are feasible for India”.  For Example- If the train clocks are switched at Alipurduar Junction on the West Bengal and Assam border, such collisions can be avoided.

It will be implemented then we have to generate IST-II for that matter a Primary Time Scale (PTS) must be established to ensemble of five caesium clocks and one hydrogen maser, in one of the north-eastern states similar to PTS for IST-I, which is located in Delhi. A caesium clock measures time on the basis of the resonance (or change of energy state of an isotope of caesium) and a hydrogen maser, which measures time on the basis of the resonance of hydrogen across energy states.

Why India need two time zones?

Indian Standard Time is calculated on the basis of 82.30′ E longitude which divided India into two halves. It is taken as the standard time as it passes through almost the centre of India. But it is worth remembering that it operate a single Time Zone, not for Daylight Saving Time.

But the country’s east–west distance is more than 2,933 kilometres (1,822 mi) covers over 29 degrees of longitude, resulting in the sun rising and setting almost two hours earlier on India’s eastern border than in the Rann of Kutch in the far west. The people of the north-eastern states have to advance their clocks with the early sunrise and avoid the extra consumption of energy after daylight hours.

What is UN Road Safety Trust Fund?

As we know that United Nations Organisation (UNO) is an intergovernmental organization which maintain international peace and security; develop friendly relations among nations, achieve international co-operation and be a centre for harmonizing the actions of nations. Recently, it has launched UN Road Safety Trust Fund in order to enhance road safety worldwide.

UN Road Safety Trust Fund was established in April 2018 with an aims to contribute to two major outcomes, assisting UN Member states to (a) substantially curb the number of fatalities and injuries from road traffic crashes, as well as (b) reduce economic losses resulting from these crashes. Building on the best practices and expertise developed through the Decade of Action for Road Safety, the Trust Fund will focus on supporting concrete actions helping to achieve the road safety-related targets of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

It is a trust fund managed by United Nations Economic Commission for Europe. It aims to accelerate progress in improving global road safety by bridging the gaps in the mobilization of resources for effective action at all levels. Fund will mobilize resources from governments, intergovernmental or nongovernmental organizations, the private sector, philanthropic organizations and individuals. It will focus on strengthening the capacity of government agencies, local governments and city authorities to develop and implement road safety programmes, prioritizing projects in low and middle-income countries.

Initiatives of UN Road Safety Trust Fund

There are two initiatives which are given below:

1. It will support efforts along five pillars of Global Plan for Decade of Action for Road Safety (2011-20), which include improved safety of road infrastructure and broader transport networks; strengthened road safety management capacities; enhanced safety of vehicles; improved behaviour of road users and improved post-crash care.

2. It will serve as catalyst for much-needed progress towards road safety targets of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). SDG targets 3.6 and 11.2 aim to halve number of global deaths and injuries from road traffic accidents and provide access to safe, affordable, accessible and sustainable transport systems as well as improve road safety for all.

Hence, we can say that, it has potential to galvanise global efforts to address road safety situation to save lives and prevent the loss of opportunity associated with road accidents. But all these initiatives can only achieve through cooperation and universal brotherhood.

What is Cyberspace Internet and how it is different from Internet?

The media such as radio, television and world web has great impact on the society and also became an anthropological interest for a long time. Now a day, the internet and cyberspace created a virtual world and become social and cultural practices because it transcends the boundaries of the nation-state and offer new ways of creating identities and new spaces for self-representation. The emergence of virtual reality of cyberspace or internet or electronic communication has led to examine the ways of seeing, representing and communicating.

What is Cyberspace Internet?

The term ‘Cyberspace’ was coined by William Gibson in his book ‘Neuromancer’ written in 1984. He defined the term as a consensual hallucination experienced daily by billions of legitimate operators, in every nation, by children being taught mathematical concepts.

The Cyberspace Internet can be defined as the virtual computer world which is used to form a global computer network to facilitate online communication. In other words, it is a world of information through the internet. More precisely, we can say it is a three-dimensional representation of virtual space in a computer network. It is a large computer network made up of many worldwide computer networks that employ TCP/IP protocol to aid in communication and data exchange activities.

In the last three decades, there has been a shift among global users from USA to the developing countries. The percentage share of the USA has dropped from 66 in 1995 to only 25 in 2005. Now, the majority of the world’s users are in USA, UK, Germany, Japan, China and India. As billions use the internet each year, cyberspace will expand the contemporary economic and social space of humans through e-mail, e-commerce, e-learning and e-governance. Internet together with fax, television and radio will be accessible to more and more people cutting across place and time. It is these modern communications systems, more than transportation, which has made the concept of global village a reality.

How Cyberspace Internet different from Internet?

The internet is basically a global computer network which provides information and communication facilities through interconnected networks by using standardized communication protocols; Whereas, Cyberspace internet is the virtual computer world which is work over the notional environment of computer networks.

In other words, we can say internet is a set of computer networks that communicate using the internet protocol (an intranet) whereas cyberspace is a world of information through the internet.

What is Black Box? How does it Work?

What is ‘Black Box’?

Black Box is also known as the ‘Flight Data Recorder’. The Black Box or Flight Data Recorder of an Airplane is an instrument which records all the activities of the airplane during its flight.

Black Box is generally kept at the back side of the airplane for the security point of view. This Box is made of Titanium metal and is enclosed in a Titanium box which gives it strength to withstand any shock if it falls in sea or falls from the height.

History of Black Box:-

In the year 1953-54, in view of the increasing incidences of Air accidents, it was thought to develop a device which can give information about the reasons for Plane accidents and might also help in saving planes from accidents. Hence, a black box was invented.

Earlier it used to be red in colour and was known by the name ‘Red Egg’. In the early days, its inner walls were black in colour, so it came to be known as a ‘Black Box’.

The Black Box has two separate boxes:

1. Flight Data Recorder: – This box can contain information about direction, altitude, fuel, speed, turbulence, cabin temperature etc. About 88 such values for about 25 hours can be recorded.

This box can withstand a temperature of about 11000°C for one hour and a temperature of 260°C for 10 hours. These boxes are red or pink in color so that can be found easily.

2. Cockpit Voice Recorder:-This box records the sound of the airplane during the last two hours. It records the sound of engine, emergency alarm, cabin and cockpit in order to predict the conditions of the plane before any accident occurred.

How does a Black Box works:-

As we have already told that the Black Box is made up of a strong metal. It can work for 30 days without any electricity. It can withstand a temperature of 11000°C. When this box is lost anywhere, it keeps on emitting the waves along with a beep sound for about 30 days.

This voice can be identified by the investigators from a distance of about 2-3 Kilometers. An interesting fact with regard to Black box is that it can emit waves from the depth of 14000 feet in the sea.

What is the Meaning of Net Neutrality?

The term “Net Neutrality” was coined by the law professor “Tim Wu” at Columbia University in 2003. Net Neutrality refers to the equal treatment for all the internet users. It means all the users of the social media, email, voice calls, online shopping and YouTube videos will have the equal access and speed of the internet.

Under the principle of Net Neutrality; Internet Service Providers will give equal importance to every type of data. So the behaviour of equality with every internet user is called “Net Neutrality”.

What will happen in the absence of the Net Neutrality?

If the Net Neutrality is not in effect then the Internet Service Providers (includes Telecom Operators) may behave like this;

Video calling through WhatsApp may consume more data and speed may also be slow but YouTube may run at good speed and data consumption can also be very low.

What are the main Properties of Net Neutrality?

1. All online content on the network of Internet Service Providers has the same access and speed.

2. Internet Service Providers can not slow down a particular website, that is, it should not happen that the website of Amazon opens quickly and Flipkart at slow speed.

3. Internet Service Providers will not have any preference for any particular company/website.

But if Net Neutrality is eliminated then the speed on the internet will not be equal for all users and internet services will also get costlier.

If I say in very easy words, Net Neutrality is like the road traffic, where every vehicle has the right to move at the same speed. It cannot happen that the owner of a luxury car; cost Rs. 1 crore will run ahead of all vehicles and all the vehicles on the road will give side to the luxury car like an ambulance car but on the other hand the owner of the Rs. 5 lac car will not these benefits.

If Net Neutrality is finished then what will happen?

1. Service providers or big companies can block other sites on their network.

2. Service providers can charge more money for access to a particular website or separate data price can be charged for these services. Like once, Airtel said that if its users want to enjoy video calling on WhatsApp, then users will have to buy a separate data pack of 100 rupees; currently this service is available free for the users.

3. Internet Service Providers may give preference to the content of a particular company. For example, data speed of the WhatsApp can be increased while the speed of the Skype can be reduced.

4. A company can bribe the Internet Service Providers for blocking the website of a particular company and promote website of the briber or others.