UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test -9

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination-2020 daily practice test series, IAS Prelims exam 2020 mock test mcq, IAS Prelims exam 2020 daily practice question bank. Practice mcq for competitive exams.

Join Our Telegram channel for regular updates

 

Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2020

IAS Prelims Exam 2020 General Studies Paper-1

 

 

Join our UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Test Series Programme

 

We have the best product in the market to ace UPSC Prelims Test Series 2020. We also have CSAT and previous-year UPSC question paper. Every test series will boost your confidence and level of knowledge so you can crack the exam with maximum score so you should join atleast two-three test series.

These are strongly recommended test series for UPSC Preparation.

  1. Forum IAS.
  2. VajiRam.
  3. Chanakya IAS.
  4. IAS Baba.
  5. Myupsc.com
  6. GS Score.
  7. Insight IAS.
  8. Apti Plus.

 

If you are new to UPSC field, we recommend you to know about UPSC CSE Prelims and UPSC CSE Mains and UPSC Optional subjects and Test Series [Prelims/Mains] and also Magazine for better Understanding.

 

 

Practice Test – 9

 

Q1. With reference to the ‘Maitree Exercise’, which of the following statements is/are true?

  1. It is a joint military exercise between Indian Army and Royal Bhutan Army.
  2. The exercise seeks to enhance the skills in joint counter insurgency and counter terrorist operations in rural and urban scenario.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Solution: B

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect: Exercise Maitree is a joint military exercise between Indian Army and Royal Thai Army.  It is a platoon level exercise which comprises of infantry component.

STATEMENT 2 is correct: The exercise emphasizes to hone the tactical and technical skills in joint counter insurgency and counter terrorist operations in rural and urban scenario under UN mandate. Due emphasis is laid on increasing interoperability between forces from both countries which is crucial for success of any joint operation. Approach: Military exercises are important from exam point of view.

 

Q2. Consider the following questions about ‘Exercise Pitch Black’:

  1. Pitch Black is a biennial multinational large force employment warfare exercise hosted by The Royal Australian Air Force.
  2. Indian Air Force participated for the first time with air assets in the exercise.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

EXERCISE PITCH BLACK

STATEMENT 1 is correct: Pitch Black is a biennial multinational large force employment warfare exercise hosted by The Royal Australian Air Force.

STATEMENT 2 is correct: Indian Air Force participated for the first time with air assets in the exercise.

Objective: to foster closer relationship between the participating friendly forces and to promote interoperability through exchange of knowledge and experience.

 

Q3. Consider the following questions about ‘Anti-tank Guided Missile HELINA’’:

  1. It is indigenously developed by DRDO.
  2. It is the helicopter launched version of NAG.
  3. It has a range of 70-80km.

Select the correct Answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 1 and 2 only
  3. c) 2 and 3 only
  4. d) All of the above

Solution: B

Anti-tank Guided Missile HELINA

STATEMENT 2 is correct: The Helicopter-Launched NAG (HELINA) missile is the helicopter launched version of the NAG Missile.

STATEMENT 1 is correct: It has been designed and developed indigenously by DRDO for Indian Army under Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).It works on “fire and forget” principle.

STATEMENT 3 is incorrect: It has a range of 7-8 km. The Missile is guided by an Infrared Imaging Seeker (IIR) along with integrated avionics.

 

Q4.Consider the following statement about ‘National Security Guard’

  1. It is an Indian Special Forces unit under the Ministry of Defence.
  2. The National Security Guard (NSG) was set up in 2001 after Indian Parliament attack as a Federal Contingency Deployment Force to tackle all facets of terrorism in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as it is an Indian Special Forces unit under the Ministry of Home Affairs and not under the Ministry of Defence. However, it is not categorized under the uniform nomenclature of Central Armed Police Forces. It has a Special Forces mandate, and its core operational capability is provided by the Special Action Group (SAG) which is drawn from the Indian Army.

STATEMENT 2 is incorrect as it was raised in 1984, following Operation Blue Star and the assassination of Indira Gandhi, “for combating terrorist activities with a view to protecting states against internal disturbances. It was not established after Indian Parliament attack as a Federal Contingency Deployment Force to tackle all facets of terrorism in the country.

 

Q.5 Consider the following statement about ‘Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO)’

  1. It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  2. It works for enhancing self-reliance in Defence Systems and production of world class weapon systems

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as DRDO is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence.

It was formed in 1958 by the merger of Technical Development Establishment and the Directorate of Technical Development and Production with the Defence Science Organization.

STATEMENT 2 is correct as it works for enhancing self-reliance in Defence Systems and production of world class weapon systems.

 

Q6. Consider the following statements about Draft Defence Production Policy (DProP) 2018:

  1. It proposes to increase the foreign direct investment (FDI) cap in niche technology areas to 100% under the automatic route.
  2. It also hopes to transform India into a global leader in cyberspace and AI (artificial intelligence) technologies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as Draft Defence Production Policy (DProP) 2018 proposes to increase the foreign direct investment (FDI) cap in niche technology areas to 74% under the automatic route. Under a niche technology route, FDI was not raised to 100 %. India hopes to achieve a turnover of Rs1.7 trillion in defense goods and services by 2025. It has a goal of becoming an arms exporter to the tune of Rs. 35, 000 crore in defense goods and services by 2025.

STATEMENT 2 is correct it also hopes to transform India into a global leader in cyberspace and AI (artificial intelligence) technologies.

 

Q7.Consider the following statements about “grey” lists and “black” lists of Financial Action Task Force:

  1. Blacklisted countries are those that took weak measures to combat money laundering and terror Financing
  2. Grey Lists countries are those that are unwilling to fight money laundering and terrorist Financing

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

 

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as Blacklisted countries are those that are unwilling to fight money laundering and Terrorist Financing. Those who took weak measures are in the grey list and not in the blacklist.

STATEMENT 2 is incorrect as Grey Lists countries are those that took weak measures to combat money laundering and terror.

Information: The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 by the Ministers of its Member jurisdictions. The objectives of the FATF are to set standards and promote effective implementation of legal, regulatory and operational measures for combating money laundering, terrorist financing and other related threats to the integrity of the international financial system. The FATF is therefore a “policy-making body” which works to generate the necessary political will to bring about national legislative and regulatory reforms in these areas.

 

Q8. Consider the following statements about the Global Peace Index (GPI):

  1. The GPI is a report produced by the World Peace Forum.
  2. GPI measure global peace using three broad indicators like the level of societal safety and security, the extent of the ongoing domestic and international conflict and the degree of militarization

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as GPI is a report produced by the Australia based Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) and developed in consultation with an international panel of peace experts from peace institutes and think tanks with data collected and collated by the Economist Intelligence Unit.

STATEMENT 2 is correct as GPI measure global peace using three broad indicators like the level of societal safety and security, extent of the ongoing domestic and international conflict and the degree of militarization. India’s rank has marginally improved in “global peacefulness”, at a time when there is an overall decline of global peace owing to an escalation of violence in West Asia and North Africa.

 

Q9.’ Vidyalakshmi Portal’ has been launched for

  1. a) To provide students with single window electronic platform for scholarships and educational loans.
  2. b) To provide easy loans to farmers
  3. c) To provide easy loans to MSME
  4. d) To provide easy loan to unemployed

Solution: A

Vidya Lakshmi is a first of its kind portal for students seeking Education Loan. This portal has been developed under the guidance of Department of Financial Services, (Ministry of Finance), Department of Higher Education (Ministry of Human Resource Development) and Indian Banks Association (IBA).

The portal has been developed and maintained by NSDL e-Governance Infrastructure Limited. Students can view, apply and track the education loan applications to banks anytime, anywhere by accessing the portal. The portal also provides linkages to National Scholarship Portal.

 

Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Global Liveability Index’:

  1. It is released by Economist Intelligence Unit.
  2. It ranks 140 cities worldwide based on 30 qualitative and quantitative factors across five broad categories of Stability, Healthcare, Culture and environment, Education and Infrastructure.

Select the correct Answer using the codes given below:

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

STATEMENT 1 is correct: The Economist Intelligence Unit’s liveability rating quantifies the challenges that might be presented to an individual’s lifestyle in 140 cities worldwide.

STATEMENT 2 is correct: Each city is assigned a score for over 30 qualitative and quantitative factors across five broad categories of Stability, Healthcare, Culture and environment, Education and Infrastructure.

THE ECONOMIST INTELLIGENCE UNIT (EIU)

The Economist Intelligence Unit (The EIU) is the world leader in global business intelligence. We help businesses, the financial sector and governments to understand how the world is changing and how that creates opportunities to be seized and risks to be managed.

 

UPSC IAS Prelims exam 2020 Practice Test 8

UPSC/IAS/CSE/Prelims/Test/Series/GS/Paper/2020

Join Our Telegram channel for regular updates

Union Public Service Commission Exam – 2020

Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2020

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Practice Solved Questions

IAS Prelims Exam 2020 General Studies Paper-1

Join our UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Test Series Programme

We have the best product in the market to ace UPSC Prelims Test Series 2020. We also have CSAT and previous-year UPSC question paper. Every test series will boost your confidence and level of knowledge so you can crack the exam with maximum score so you should join atleast two-three test series.

These are strongly recommended test series for UPSC Preparation.

  1. Forum IAS.
  2. VajiRam.
  3. Chanakya IAS.
  4. IAS Baba.
  5. Myupsc.com
  6. GS Score.
  7. Insight IAS.
  8. Apti Plus.

Practice Test – 8

If you are new to UPSC field, we recommend you to know about UPSC CSE Prelims and UPSC CSE Mains and UPSC Optional subjects and Test Series [Prelims/Mains] and also Magazine for better Understanding.

Important Books for UPSC RPSC and Other Competitive Exams

APPSC Andhra Pradesh Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20
Haryana Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20 Updated
2000 MCQ: IAS Preliminary exam 2020
Indian Geography-NCERT MCQ Compilation Class 6-12th
UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test -10
Geography & Environment Current issues yearbook 2019
Indian Polity and Governance Yearbook 2019-20
Indian Polity and Governance Yearbook 2019-20
UPSC IAS Prelims Previous Year Solved Paper 2010-19
UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Practice Test 9
UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-4 Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude
UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-3 Complete Study Notes
UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-2 Complete Study Notes
UPSC IAS Main exam GS Paper-1 Complete study notes
Art & Culture of India
Indian History Complete Study Notes
Indian Polity for Civil Services Examination
Physical Economic and Human Geography of India
Art Culture & Heritage of Rajasthan
Economy of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ
Geography of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ
Polity and Administration of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with MCQ
History of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ
Current Affairs Rajasthan Yearbook 2019
राजस्थान सामान्य अध्ययन:नोट्स एवं अभ्यास 1000+प्रश्नोत्तर
Current Affairs Study Notes January – August 2019

 

Geography-of-india-civil-services-examination
indian-polity

Current affairs weekly 5-12 September- 2019

UPSC CSE and PSC Exams Study Notes- Current Affairs

Current Affairs – Weekly (5-12 September, 2019)

UPSC IAS Prelims – 2020

Civil Services Preliminary Exam- 2020

Join – IAS Prelims-2020 Test Series

As per the official UPSC Exam Calendar, Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 (objective) will be conducted on May 31, 2020 (Sunday). The Main Exam (written) 2020 will start from September 18, 2020.

current-affairs-indian-polity

UPSC Examination Calendar 2020 – Important Dates

Date of Notification for Civil Service Prelims and Indian Forest Service Prelims: February 12, 2020

Last date to apply for Civil Service Prelims and Indian Forest Service Prelims: March 03, 2020

Date of UPSC CSE Prelims 2020 and IFS Prelims 2018: May 31, 2020

Date of UPSC CSE Mains 2020: September 18, 2020

Date of UPSC IFS Mains 2020: November 22, 2020 (Only for Indian Forest Service Aspirants)

UPSC IAS Preliminary 2020 Practice test 7

UPSC/CSE/IAS/Preliminary/Exam/2020/Free/Test/Series

Union Public Service Commission Exam – 2020

Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2020

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Practice Solved Questions

IAS Prelims Exam 2020 General Studies Paper-1 Free Test

Practice Test – 7

1. What were the reasons for the failure of the Portuguese in India?

1. The policy of “Socio-Cultural Synthesis” followed by the Portuguese Governor “Alphonso De Albuquerque”.

2. The disinterest to control hinterland territory in India

3. The fall of a trusted ally – the Vijayanagara Empire.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Consider the following statements regarding “Blue water Doctrine

1. It was formulated by Francisco Almeida.

2. It was a Dutch doctrine intended to establish Naval Supremacy.

3. It was conceived as a Counter-narrative to the monopoly of the Turkish and Arab traders in the Arabian Sea

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

3. Awadh was annexed by the British under

(a) Doctrine of Lapse

(b) Non-payment of revenue as promised under the ‘Subsidiary Alliance’

(c) A military campaign by conspiring with the Rajputs.

(d) Doctrine of Good Governance

4. Consider the following statements regarding “Dastak”

1. It was the tax levied on British Traders who operated in the mid-18th century at Bengal.

2. The British were involved in large scale malpractices when Dastak was in place.

3. It was abolished by Aurangzeb. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

5. Which of the following is/are correct about the Regulation Act of 1773?

1. It established a Supreme Court in Calcutta.

2. It appointed an executive council consisting of 8 members to assist the Governor General of Bengal.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. Consider the following statements regarding Battle of Wandiwash in 1760

1. The defeat in this battle proved to be a severe blow to the French ambitions in India

2. This battle coincided with the Austrian War of succession in Europe.

3. Sir Eyre Coote was the Commander-in- Chief of the British troops in this battle.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

7. Consider the following statements with respect to the Treaty of Salbai 1782.

1. The treaty provided the British twenty years of peace with the Marathas.

2. British promised to support Marathas in case Marathas attacked Hyder Ali of Mysore and retook the territories of Carnatic.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Who among the following Governor Generals is considered as the maker of Modern India?

(a) Lord William Bentinck

(b) Lord Warren Hastings

(c) Lord Dalhousie

(d) Lord Cornwallis

9. Consider the following statements with regards to Warren Hastings

1. He brought the dual Government of Bengal to an end.

2. He codified the Hindu and Muslim laws.

3. He introduced Permanent Settlement in Bengal.

4. He laid the foundation for Asiatic society of Bengal in 1784

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

10. Which of the following lakes in Africa is/are transboundary Lakes?

(a) Lake Victoria

(b) Lake Tanganyika

(c) Lake Malawi

(d) All the above

11. With reference to Permanent settlement land reforms in the colonial period, consider the following statements

1. Under permanent settlement, the zamindars were free to fix the rent and the ryots (cultivators) were considered as tenants/ tillers of the soil.

2. Under Permanent settlement, zamindars lost their administrative and judicial functions which were performed by the Company now.

3. Since zamindars were assured of their ownership of lands, many of them stayed in towns and entrusted rent collection to agents who extracted additional illegal taxes besides the legal ones from the tenets.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. Which of the following were the reasons for the failure of the 1857 revolt?

1. The rebels lacked in sophisticated arms and ammunition unlike the British army.

2. The 1857 Revolt remained concentrated in the Central India and some parts of north-Western India, and did not spread to South India and most of Eastern and Western India.

3. The rebel units did not have common plans of military action or centralised leadership.

Select the correct answer using the codes below

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

13. Consider the following statements with regards to Sayyid Ahmed Khan

1. Sayyid advised the Muslims to join active politics by concentrating on Political education.

2. He came out strongly against Indian National Congress and its objectives.

3. He started to work on a commentary on the Bible in which he stated that Islam and Christianity shared a common lineage from Abrahamic religions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

14. The Modern Educated Indians did not support the 1857 revolt because

(a) They believed that the British rule would help India modernise.

(b) They were sympathetic to the British rulers

(c) They had faith in the feudal society introduced by the British.

(d) They thought the rebel soldiers were reactionary and backward in nature.

15. Consider the following statements with respect to the objective of education policy in British India

1. Development of education system during the British period was determined by the needs of the colonial powers.

2. The development of modern system of education in India is said to have begun with the Charter Act of 1833. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. Consider the following statements with regards to Subsidiary Alliance

1. The concept of Subsidiary Alliance was first introduced by Lord Wellesley

2. Those Indian rulers who would accept the Subsidiary Alliance should agree not to fight with any other power without the permission of the British. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17. Consider the following statements about the Policy of Ring of fence or Buffer state

1. This policy was introduced by Lord Warren Hastings.

2. The buffer states were created mainly for the defence of the frontiers of the company

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

18. Consider the following statements with reference to Santhal uprising

1. Introduction of Ryotwari settlement in the tribal areas was the major reason for the Santhal uprising.

2. The Santhal uprising of 1855-57 was master minded by four brothers Sidhu, Kanhu, Chand and Bhairav.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

19. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding modern industries during British era?

(a) Most of the industrial factories were owned by Indians.

(b) Industrialization in India was spread across diverse sectors.

(c) Industrialization failed to alleviate poverty in India.

(d) Industrialization was evenly spread across the Indian Subcontinent

20. Consider the following statements regarding Suez Canal

1. It connects Mediterranean & Red Sea.

2. It is present in the Gulf of Aden. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

21. Which of the following Acts granted permission to the Christian Missionaries to propagate their religion in India?

(a) Pitts India Act, 1784

(b) Charter Act, 1813

(c) Charter Act, 1833

(d) Regulating Act, 1773

22. Which among the following best describes the term “Dikus”?

(a) Tax collectors in zamindari areas

(b) Law Enforcement officers appointed by the British in Sindh.

(c) Term used to refer to outsiders by Tribal people such as the British people and Moneylenders etc.

(d) A dance form emerged in Awadh area in late 18th century.

23. The “Wagheras” resented the impositions of foreign rule from the very beginning which resulted in uprising during 1819-20. Wagheras are situated in the state of

(a) Madhya Pradesh

(b) Bihar

(c) Gujarat

(d) Jharkhand

24. Consider the following statements with reference to Theosophical Society

1. The Theosophical Society was founded in New York (USA) in 1875 by Madam H.P. Blavatsky, a Russian lady, and Henry Steel Olcott, an American colonel.

2. Their main objective was to form a universal brotherhood of man without any distinction of race, colour or creed and to promote the study of modern scientific philosophies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

25. Consider the following statements with reference to Diwani rights

1. Diwani Rights were the rights granted to British East India Company to collect revenues and decide civil cases.

2. It was granted to British immediately after the battle of Buxar.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer Key:

1.D ,2.C ,3.D ,4.B ,5.A ,6.C ,7.C ,8.C ,9.C ,10.D ,11.D ,12.D ,13.B ,14.A ,15.C ,16.C ,17.C ,18.B ,19.C ,20.A ,21.B ,22.C ,23.C ,24.A ,25.C

Click Here to download PDF

Some other useful links:

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Free Practice Test 1-3

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Free Practice Test 5

India & World Geography

Indian Geography Question Bank 1000+

Indian Geography Question Bank Based on 6-12th NCERT

Art & Culture

History of India

History of India Question Bank

Indian Polity

Indian Polity Question Bank

Indian Polity 35+Practice Set

Environment & Ecology

Science & Technology

NCERT Book

General Studies Of Rajasthan-All In One

राजस्थान सामान्य अध्ययन:नोट्स एवं अभ्यास 1000+प्रश्नोत्तर

UPSC IAS Preliminary

UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Practice test 6

UPSC/CSE/IAS/PRELIMS/EXAM/2020/TEST/SERIES/MCQ/QUIZ/FREE

Union Public Service Commission Exams- 2020

Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2020

IAS Prelims 2020 Test Series GS Paper-I

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test Series

Practice Test – 6

1) Consider the following statements regarding Brucellosis

  1. It is a disease caused by a group of bacteria.
  2. It infects both Human and Animals.
  3. It primarily affects goats, sheep, camels, pigs, elk, deer, cattle, and dogs.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

2) Consider the following statements with respect to Ziro music festival

  1. It an annual festival held in Arunachal Pradesh.
  2. It focuses on eco-friendly practices.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

3) Consider the following statements

  1. Generate employment for women
  2. Reduce food wastage
  3. Reduce post harvest losses
  4. Hedge the farmer’s risk.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are benefits of Mega Food Parks?

A. All except 2 and 3

B. All except 1 and 4

c. All except 4

d. All

Answer: d

The Mega Food Park Scheme is being implemented in order to give a major impetus to the food processing sector by adding value and reducing food wastage at each stage of the supply chain with particular focus on perishables.

Mega Food Parks create modern infrastructure facilities for food processing along the value chain from farm to market with strong forward and backward linkages through a cluster based approach.

Common facilities and enabling infrastructure is created at Central Processing Centre and facilities for primary processing and storage is created near the farm in the form of Primary Processing Centers (PPCs) and Collection Centers (CCs).

Mega Food Parks shall further complement the Govt’s scheme by reducing post harvest losses and hedging the farmer’s risk. Mega Food Park shall provide gainful employment to women and hence help support their livelihood, she added.

4) Consider the following statements regarding Great Indian Bustard

  1. Houbara is a migratory bustard species and it is endemic to the grasslands of India.
  2. Great Indian Bustard is listed as “Critically Endangered” by IUCN.
  3. Gujarat has recently announced Project Great Indian Bustard for its recovery from brink of extinction.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Rajasthan has charted out a plan to recover the population of Great Indian Bustard.

NGT has directed the centre to prepare a time bound action plan for its protection.

5) Consider the following statements with respect to Total Soluble Solids (TSS)

  1. It is a parameter that measures the sugar content in fruits and beverages.
  2. FSSAI has recently removed the mandatory requirement of minimum percentage of TSS in fruit nectars, fruit drinks and carbonated fruit beverages.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

In a move that will enable companies to launch fruit-based beverages with lower sugar content, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has decided to remove the mandatory requirement of minimum percentage of total soluble solids (TSS) in fruit nectars, fruit drinks and carbonated fruit beverages.

TSS norms

TSS is a parameter that measures the sugar content in fruits and beverages.

This is one of the regulatory steps that FSSAI is taking to amplify its Eat Right India initiative.

It will enable companies to reformulate their existing products.

It will also encourage development of products with lower amount of TSS, allowing them to restrict addition of sugar to these products.

6) Consider the following pairs

  1. Jingling – Hurricane
  2. Dorian – Typhoon

Which of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

The typhoon Ling ling has recently hit Japan before moving towards the Korean peninsula.

The Hurricane Dorian struck the North Carolina Island days after causing at least 30 deaths in the Bahamas.

7) Which of the following ministries has been recently awarded the best Ministry for Implementation of Swachhata Action Plan for 2018-19?

a. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

b. Ministry of Railways

c. Ministry of Rural Development

d. Ministry of Environment and Forest

Answer: b

Ministry of Railways adjudged as the Best Ministry for Implementation of Swachhata Action Plan for 2018-19.

8) With which of the following countries India has recently signed a military logistics agreement?

a. South Korea

b. Seychelles

c. Maldives

d. Sri Lanka

Answer: a

9) Consider the following statements with respect to WTO (World Trade Organisation)

Domestic subsidies should not exceed 10% of the value of production under the WTO’s rules on agriculture.

India’s interest subvention, production subsidy, buffer stock subsidy etc are source of contention where as Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) has been resolved.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: a

Countries have challenged various domestic support measures of India such as the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP), the State Advised Price (SAP), interest subvention, production subsidy, buffer stock subsidy, minimum domestic sale price of sugar and state-level measures.

10) Pavagada power plant, world’s largest solar park is in which of the following state?

a. Gujarat

b. Rajasthan

c. Karnataka

D. Andhra Pradesh

Answer: c

It is in Karnataka’s Tumkur region; spread over 13,000 acres of land with a capacity to generate 2000MW.

The first phase of the project is called Shakti Sthala project

11) With respect to Asteroid Impact Deflection Assessment (AIDA), consider the following statements

  1. It is an ambitious double-spacecraft mission to deflect an asteroid in space.
  2. The mission includes NASA and the European Space Agency (ESA).

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Asteroid Impact Deflection Assessment (AIDA) is an ambitious double-spacecraft mission to deflect an asteroid in space, to prove the technique as a viable method of planetary defence.

The mission includes NASA and the European Space Agency (ESA).

The target is the smaller of two bodies in the “double Didymos asteroids” that are in orbit between Earth and Mars.

Didymos is a near-Earth asteroid system.

As part of AIDA, two independent spacecraft would be sent to Didymos:

An asteroid Impactor – the NASA Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART) Mission led by the John Hopkins’ Applied Physics Laboratory in the United States

A follow-up asteroid rendezvous spacecraft – Hera.

In October 2022, the NASA-led part of AIDA would arrive: the Double Asteroid Redirection Test, or DART, probe will approach the binary system – then crash straight into the asteroid moon at about 6 km/s.

Hera will arrive about three years later, to characterise Didymoon in great detail. In particular, it will perform detailed measurements of the physical properties of the body, as well as its orbit, to characterise the consequences of DART’s kinetic impact.

 All this would allow researchers to model the efficiency of the collision.

This can help turn this experiment into a technique that could be repeated, as needed, in the event of a real threat.

12) Consider the following statements with respect to Mount Leo Pargyil

  1. It is the third highest peak of Himachal.
  2. It lies in the Pirpanjal range.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b

It is considered to be among the most challenging and technically difficult peak to scale.

It lies in the Zanskar range.

An Indian Army team successfully summited Mount Leo Pargyil (6773M).

13) With respect to Integrated Tiger Habitat Conservation Programme (ITHCP), consider the following statements

  1. IUCN is the lead executing agency for this Tiger Programme.
  2. The initiative is funded by the World Bank.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : a

Initiated in 2014, the Integrated Tiger Habitat Conservation Programme (ITHCP) or ‘Tiger Programme‘ is a grant-making initiative which contributes to the Global Tiger Recovery Programme (GTRP), a global effort to double tiger numbers in the wild by 2022.

The programme consists of a portfolio of 12 large-scale projects in key Tiger Conservation Landscapes across Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Indonesia, Nepal and Myanmar.

The initiative is funded by The German Cooperation via KfW Development Bank, over two phases.

It is being implemented by the IUCN and KfW.

14) Global Fund (GFTAM) is a partnership designed to accelerate the end of which of the following diseases?

  1. AIDS
  2. Alzheimer
  3. Measles
  4. Malaria
  5. Tetanus
  6. Tuberculosis

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a.  1, 4 and 6 only

b.  2, 3 and 5 only

c.  2, 4 and 6 only

d.  1, 2, 4 and 6 only

Answer : a

The Global Fund is a partnership designed to accelerate the end of AIDS, Tuberculosis and Malaria.

India has had a sustained partnership with the Global Fund since 2002 both as a recipient and as a donor.

15) 65803 Didymos sometimes seen in the news recently is a/an?

a.  Exo-planet

b.  Asteroid

c.  Planet Hunter

d.  Exo-comet

Answer : b

Didymos is a near-Earth asteroid system.

16) Consider the following statements

  1. Both ethanol and rectified spirit are produced mainly from molasses, a byproduct of sugar manufacture.
  2. The normal rectified spirit used for potable purposes has only 95% alcohol content whereas ethanol is basically alcohol of 99%-plus purity.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a.  1 only

b.  2 only

c.  Both 1 and 2

d.  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : c

17) How is Gross Value Added (GVA) differing from Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?

  1. GDP gives a picture of the state of economic activity from the supply side, whereas the GVA gives the picture from the demand side.
  2. GDP is a good measure to compare India with another economy, while GVA is better to compare different sectors within the economy.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a.  1 only

b.  2 only

c.  Both 1 and 2

d.  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : b

While GVA gives a picture of the state of economic activity from the producers’ side or supply side, the GDP gives the picture from the consumers’ side or demand perspective.

GDP is a good measure to compare India with another economy, while GVA is better to compare different sectors within the economy.

18) T. N. Manoharan committee sometimes seen in the news recently was constituted for which of the following purposes?

a.  To develop secondary market for corporate loans

b.  To reconstitute Press Council of India (PCI)

c.  To review existing framework for Corporate Social Responsibility

d.  To enquire into flaws associated with public distribution systems in India

Answer : a

19) The Indian Air Force (IAF) has formally inducted the AH-64E – Apache Guardian helicopter recently. The helicopter is made in?

a.  India

b.  Russia

c.  France

d.  USA

Answer : d

Apache attack helicopters are being purchased to replace the Mi-35 fleet.

20) Dharma Guardian is an exercise between India and which of the following countries?

a.  Nepal

b.  Japan

c.  Bhutan

d.  Sri Lanka

Answer : b

Click Here to Download full PDF

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Free Practice Test 1-3

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Free Practice Test 5

India & World Geography

Indian Geography Question Bank 1000+

Indian Geography Question Bank Based on 6-12th NCERT

Art & Culture

History of India

History of India Question Bank

Indian Polity

Indian Polity Question Bank

Indian Polity 35+Practice Set

Environment & Ecology

Science & Technology

NCERT Book

UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Geography-of-india-civil-services-examination

UPSC IAS Prelims exam 2020 Practice test 5

UPSC/IAS/Prelims/Exam/2020/Free/Practice/Solved/MCQ

Union Public Service Commission Exam – 2020

Civil Services Preliminary Examination – 2020

IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Free Test Questions

UPSC IAS Prelims daily Practice Solved Questions

Test Series: UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Click Here

1) Which of the following is not one among the four broad indicators used to rank countries under the Travel and Tourism Competitive Report which was released recently by the World Economic Forum?

a. Infrastructure

b. Enabling environment

c. Visa Requirements

d. Natural and cultural resources

Answer: c

2) Consider the following statements with respect to Eastern Economic Forum (EEF)

  1. It was established to support the economic development of eastern countries in the Asia-Pacific region.
  2. India participated in the 5th Eastern Economic Forum (EEF) that was held recently in Vladivostok, Russia.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b

  • The Eastern Economic Forum (EEF) was established in 2015, with the aim of supporting the economic development of Russia’s Far East, and to expand international cooperation in the Asia-Pacific region.
  • The ongoing EEF Summit at the Far Eastern Federal University is the fifth in its history.
  • Among the participants in the Summit are India, Malaysia, Japan, Australia, and South Korea.
  • Speaking at the Plenary Session of the 5th Eastern Economic Forum (EEF) in Vladivostok, Russia, Indian Prime Minister announced that India would extend a $1 billion line of credit towards the development of the Russian Far East.

3) Consider the following statements with respect to Nuakhai Festival

  1. It is a festival to celebrate the newly harvested food by the farmers.
  2. It will be celebrated especially in the western parts of Odisha.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

4) Mid-Monsoon 2019 Lightning Report was recently released by?

a. Indian Meteorological Department

b. World Meteorological Organisation

c. Centre for Science and Environment

d.  Jointly by A and B

Answer : a

Mid-Monsoon Lightning Report 2019 is a study jointly prepared by the Climate Resilient Observing System Promotion Council (CROPC), the India Meteorological Department, ministry of earth science and World Vision, a voluntary organization.

5) An ocean liner travelling from Vladivostok to Chennai in its shortest route would sail through which of the following?

  1. Sea of Japan
  2. Red Sea
  3. North Channel
  4. Strait of Malacca
  5. Gibraltar Strait

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a. 4 only

b.  1 and 4 only

c.  2, 3 and 5 only

d.  All except 3

Answer : b

During the Indian Prime Minister visit to Vladivostok recently, a Memorandum of Intent was signed to open a full-fledged maritime route between Russia’s eastern port city Vladivostok and Chennai on India’s eastern seaboard.

An ocean liner travelling from Vladivostok to Chennai would sail southward on the Sea of Japan past the Korean peninsula, Taiwan and the Philippines in the South China Sea, past Singapore and through the Strait of Malacca, to emerge into the Bay of Bengal and then cut across through the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago to Chennai.

6) Consider the following statements with respect to Mobile Science Exhibition (MSE) Programme

  1. It was launched in 1965 and celebrated Golden Jubilee in the year 2015.
  2. Mounted on a specially designed bus, a Mobile Science Exhibition carries a number of interactive exhibits related to everyday science.
  3. It was implemented by the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT).

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a.  2 only

b.  1 and 2 only

c.  2 and 3 only

d.  1, 2 and 3

Answer : b

The first Mobile Science Exhibition (MSE) on the theme ‘Our Familiar Electricity’ was inaugurated in 1965.

National Council of Science Museums (NCSM) functions under the Ministry of Culture is running this programme.

Mounted on a specially designed bus, a Mobile Science Exhibition carries a number of interactive exhibits related to everyday science.

The MSE or Museo-bus travels from school to school in rural areas and organize exhibitions there throughout the year.

Along with the exhibition, some other programmes like Sky Observation Programme through telescope, science films show, Science Demonstration Lectures etc. are also organized.

celebrated Golden Jubilee of Mobile Science Exhibition (MSE) program from 17th – 20th November 2015.

7) Consider the following statements with respect to Climate Resilient Observing Systems Promotion Council (CROPC)

  1. It has been formed as a non-profit organization under section 8 of Company Act 2013.
  2. It comes under the regulatory framework of Ministry of Science and Technology.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a.  1 only

b.  2 only

c.  Both 1 and 2

d.  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : a

  • Climate Resilient Observing-Systems Promotion Council (CROPC) has been formed as non-profit organization under section 8 of Company Act 2013 to act as an interface between Central Early warning agencies, line departments, state, Community, NGOs and other stakeholders.
  • CROPC under the regulatory framework of Indian Meteorological Department will function as Center for promotion of Climate Resilient Observing Systems and public notification system for various hazards due to Climate Change extremities.

8) Consider the following statements with respect to National Council of Science Museums (NCSM)

  1. It is primarily engaged in ‘Communicating Science to Empower People’ through its network of twenty-five Science Centres/Museums spread across India.
  2. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a.  1 only

b.  2 only

c.  Both 1 and 2

d.  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : c

National Council of Science Museums (NCSM), an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture, Govt. of India is primarily engaged in ‘Communicating Science to Empower People’ through its network of twenty-five Science Centres/Museums spread across India.

9) Consider the following statements with respect to Exercise TSENTR 2019

  1. It is a bilateral military exercise between India and Tajikistan.
  2. It aims at practicing the participating armies in the fight against the scourge of international terrorism thereby ensuring military security in the strategic central Asian region.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a.  1 only

b.  2 only

c.  Both 1 and 2

d.  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : b

Exercise TSENTR 2019 is part of the annual series of large scale exercises that form part of the Russian Armed Forces’ annual training cycle.

This year’s Exercise TSENTR 2019 will be conducted by Central Military Commission of Russia.

Apart from host Russia, military contingents from China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Pakistan and Uzbekistan will also take part in this mega event.

The exercise aims at evolving drills of the participating armies and practicing them in the fight against the scourge of international terrorism thereby ensuring military security in the strategic central Asian region.

India will be taking part with armies from Pakistan, China among others in the exercises being held by Russia set to be kicked off from September 9, 2019.

10 With respect to Lightning, consider the following statements

  1. It is a result of the difference in electrical charge between the top and bottom of a cloud.
  2. Most lightning occurs within the clouds.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b.  2 only

c.  Both 1 and 2

d.  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : c

  • Lightning is a very rapid and massive discharge of electricity in the atmosphere.
  • Some of it is directed towards the Earth.
  • It is a result of the difference in electrical charge between the top and bottom of a cloud.
  • The lightning-generating clouds are typically about 10-12 km in height, with their base about 1-2 km from the Earth’s surface.
  • The temperatures at the top range from -35°C to -45°C.
  • According to the Mid-Monsoon Lightning Report 2019, 65.55 lakh lightning strikes in India during this four-month period between April and July this year, of which 23.53 lakh (36 per cent) happened to be cloud-to-ground lightning, the kind that reaches the Earth.
  • The other 41.04 lakh (64 per cent) were in-cloud lightning, which remains confined to the clouds in which it was formed.

Click Here to download full test free PDF

Current Affairs Weekly September 2019

Current/Affairs/Weekly/September/Study Notes/2019

WEEKLY CURRENT AFFAIRS: SEPTEMBER WEEK-1

Important Current Affairs for UPSC & PSC Exams

These Current affair topics will definitely help you to understand the topic in very easy way and it improve you score and knowledge in examinations.

  1. Exercise Yudh Abhyas 2019.
  2. Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP)
  3. ‘Angikaar campaign’
  4. China’s One Country Two Systems policy
  5. Apache attack helicopters.
  6. Child well-being index
  7. Desertification
  8. Poshan Maah (National Nutrition Month).
  9. Kun.
  10. Country’s longest electrified rail tunnel between Cherlopalli and Rapuru.
  11. Kerala Champions Boat League.
  12. What is an Interpol Red Notice, what does it do?
  13. Interpol General Assembly.
  14. Association of World Election Bodies.
  15. RBI annual report
  16. AH-64 Apache combat helicopters.
  17. ANDREX Project.
  18. Asteroid Impact Deflection Assessment.
  19. ASEAN-US Maritime Exercise (AUMX).
  20. Food fortification
  21. PIL in Supreme Court for community kitchens in all states to combat hunger.
  22. One Nation-One Ration Card scheme.
  23. Money Laundering in India
  24. Malé Declaration.
  25. ‘Build for Digital India’ programme.
  26. Swachh Iconic Places.
  27. North Eastern Regional Agricultural Marketing Corporation Limited (NERAMAC).
  28. The Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis and Malaria.
  29. Joint Naval Annual Quality Conclave (JNAQC).
  30. Terracotta Grinder.
  31. Asiatic Society of Mumbai.
  32. Ethanol
  33. Press Council of India
  34. Delhi under Firoz Shah Tuglaq: Reign of the third ruler of Tughlaq dynasty.
  35. Munich Agreement.
  36. PRESIDENT appoints new governors.
  37. Automatic Exchange of Information (AEOI).
  38. Inter-ministerial panel on fintech.
  39. Code of Conduct for MPs and MLAs
  40. WorldSkills Kazan
  41. Security cover of VIPs
  42. Government releases Rs 47,436 crore funds for afforestation
  43. Who is a Professor Emerita/Emeritus, and how is she/he appointed?
  44. Lignin
  45.  ‘Samudrayaan’ project.
  46. National Register of Citizens (NRC)
  47. EPFO to restore commutation of pension
  48. Oxytocin Ban
  49. SEBI’s norms for FPIs
  50. Sabka Vishwas Scheme
  51. Tibetan Democracy Day.
  52. 18 endangered sharks and rays afforded protection
  53. Gravitational Lensing
  54. Great Barrier Reef
  55. United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).
  56. Water management practices dismal in states: Niti Aayog
  57. WorldSkills Kazan
  58. Formation of Interim government of India.

Click Here to Download

Current-affairs-study-notes-with-mcq-september-2019

Must Read Books for Competitive Exams

Some Other Useful Links:-

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam – 2020

UPSC IAS Mains Exam – 2019

RPSC RAS Prelims Exam

RPSC RAS Mains Exam

General Knowledge

Current Affairs

General Studies of Rajasthan-All in One

राजस्थान सामान्य अध्ययन:नोट्स एवं अभ्यास 1000+प्रश्नोत्तर

Current Affairs Study Notes with MCQ July-Sept 2019

Current Affair Notes/PDF/MCQ/2019

Current Affairs Study Notes with MCQ

July – August – September 2019

Useful for All Competitive Exams: 2019-20

Click Here to Download

Demo MCQ:

For Complete Study Notes + Solved MCQ

Buy This Book

Current-affairs-study-notes-with-mcq-2019

Part -I

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding occurrence of forest fires:

1) Human activities near or within forested areas are the number one cause of forest fires.

2) Lightning is the biggest natural cause of forest fires.

3) Sometime volcanic activities such as eruptions and lava flow can cause forest fires.

4) Human-caused fires constitute the greater percentage of forest fires in our forests, but natural fires constitute the great majority of the total area burned.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q2. Consider the following hill stations of India with their location states :

1) Panchgani : Madhya Pradesh

2) Chail : Himachal pradesh

3) Horsley hills : Maharashtra

4) Patnitop : Jammu & Kashmir

5) Almora :Uttarakhand

Which of the above pairs are incorrectlymatched ?

a) 1,2& 3 only

b) 3 & 5 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) 2 & 4 only

Q3. Recently beaches in Chennai witnessed a blue shimmer on the waves. The visitors spotted a magical blue glow on the beach. Which of the following statements regarding the same stands true ?

1) According to marine experts, the blue glow is known as Bioluminescence. The phenomenon is caused by Noctilucascintillans, a type of phytoplankton that converts their chemical energy into light energy when washed ashore.

2) Similar to the sight of fireflies, bioluminescence is found in many marine organisms such as bacteria, algae, jellyfish, worms, crustaceans, sea stars, fish and sharks.

3) The occurrence of these phytoplanktons is highly beneficial to the ecosystem in the long run as they provide food for the fishes.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements :

1) The RBI earns money in a variety of ways like the Open market operations, wherein a central bank purchases or sells bonds in the open market in order to regulate money supply in the economy, are a major source of income for the RBI.

2) Dealings in the foreign exchange market that the RBI engages in may also contribute to the bank’s profits.

3) However, that unlike commercial banks, the primary mandate of the RBI is not to earn profits but to preserve the value of the rupee. Profit and loss are thus merely a side effect of its regular operations to shape monetary policy.

Which of the above statements stands true ?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q5. Which of the following cities have been ranked number one in the safe city index (SCI-2019) by the economic intelligence unit ?

a) London

b) Tokyo

c) Beijing

d) Ottawa

Q6. The Centre has asked all milk cooperatives and private dairies to halve plastic usage by October 2, which of the following statements regarding the same stands true?

1) The milk industry is one of the largest users of single use plastics, with the growing use of disposable pouches replacing milk vendors and vending machines in many areas.

2) Under the Extended Producer Responsibility component of the Plastic Waste Management (PWM) Rules, revised in 2018, industries are already required to recover and recycle part of the plastic packaging they generate.

3) In case of plastic wastage in milk industry, only the packets collected by rag pickers get recycled while the rest of them end up clogging drains, rivers, lakes, creating sewage and toxic foam.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q7. The Earth’s surface- geologically called the Lithosphere- is made up of large plates, in constant motion, travelling a few centimeters every year. The hot magma or molten rock inside the core of the earth causes convection currents which move the plates in different directions. Which of the following plates are connected with the Indian plates?

1) Nazca plate

2) Indo-Australian plate

3) Cocos plate

4) Eurasian plate

5) Arabian plate

a) 1,2 & 3 only

b) 2,4 & 5 only

c) 3,4 & 5 only

d) all of the above

Q8. Which of the following statements regarding the LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational Wave Observatory) project consortium stands true?

1) The LIGO-India project is an international collaboration between the LIGO Laboratory and three lead institutions in the LIGO-India consortium which can detect even the faintest ripples from cosmic explosions millions of light years away.

2) The project operates three gravitational-wave (GW) detectors. Two are at Hanford in the State of Washington, north-western USA, and one is at Livingston in Louisiana, south-eastern USA.

3) The project, piloted by ISRO and Department of Science and Technology (DST), reportedly costs ₹1,200 crore and is expected to be ready by 2030.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation of India (NCCF):

1) NCCF was established on 16thOctober, 1965 to function as the apex body of consumer cooperatives in the country.

2) The main objectives of the NCCF are to provide supply support to the consumer cooperatives and other distributing agencies for distribution of consumer goods at reasonable and affordable rates besides rendering technical guidance and assistance to the consumer cooperatives.

3) It is registered under the society registration at 1860.

Which of the above statements are true ?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q10. The “Dindigul lock” and “Kandangisaree” which recently got Geographical Indication(GI) tag belongs to which of the following southern states of India ?

a) Kerala

b) Tamilnadu

c) Andhra Pradesh

d) Karnataka

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5.(b) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10.(b)

Part – II

1. Amazon rainforest spans over 9 countries. In August 2019, in which country deadly fire broke out in the amazon forest?

(A) Venezuela

(B) Brazil

(C) Colombia

(D) Argentina

2. About how much amazon rainforest contained within Brazil?

(A) 40%

(B) 50%

(C) 60%

(D) 70%

3. In Russian Presidential elections 2018, Vladimir Putin elected as president for the

(A) second time

(B) third time

(C) fourth time

(D) fifth time

4. In Rio Olympics 2016 the women’s football gold was won by

(A) Brazil

(B) Germany

(C) France

(D) Italy

5. The Nobel Prize 2018 in Physiology or Medicine was won by

(A) Yoshinori Ohsumi

(B) Kazuo Ishiguro

(C) James P. Allison and Tasuku Honjo

(D) William D. Nordhaus and Paul M. Romer

6. James P. Allison and Tasuku Honjo won the Nobel Prize-2018 in the field of Physiology or Medicine for their discovery of

(A) molecular mechanisms controlling the circadian rhythm

(B) cancer therapy by inhibition of negative immune regulation

(C) mechanisms for autophagy

(D) novel therapy against malaria

7. The Paris agreement of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change is to limit global warming well below

(A) 1.0 °C

(B) 1.5 °C

(C) 2.0 °C

(D) 2.5 °C

8. Recep Tayyip Erdogan was elected as president of Turkey in the presidential elections 2018 for the

(A) second time

(B) third time

(C) fourth time

(D) fifth time

9. Who is current secretary general of the United Nations?

(A) Javier Perez de Cuellar

(B) Kofi Annan

(C) Ban-Ki-Moon

(D) Antonio Guterres

10. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change deals with

(A) reduction in fossil fuel usage

(B) CO2 emissions mitigation

(C) reduction in Uranium production

(D) greenhouse gases emissions mitigation

11. Antonio Guterres became secretary general of the United Nations on

(A) 1 January 2017

(B) 3 January 2017

(C) 5 January 2017

(D) 7 January 2017

12. Secretary general United Nations Antonio Guterres belongs to

(A) United States

(B) Portugal

(C) Czech Republic

(D) Germany

13. The Paris Agreement entered into force on

(A) October 25, 2016

(B) October 28, 2016

(C) November 1, 2016

(D) November 4, 2016

14. The United States presidential elections were held on

(A) November 5, 2016

(B) November 6, 2016

(C) November 7, 2016

(D) November 8, 2016

15. Barack Obama, who completed his tenure as the president of the United States belongs to

(A) Democratic Party

(B) Republican Party

(C) Libertarian Party

(D) Green Party

16. President Donald Trump was the presidential nominee of the

(A) Democratic Party

(B) Republican Party

(C) Libertarian Party

(D) Green Party

17. President Donald Trump took office of the presidency on

(A) 18 January 2017

(B) 20 January 2017

(C) 22 January 2017

(D) 24 January 2017

18. Hillary Clinton has also served as US __________ from 2009 to 2013.

(A) Vice President

(B) Foreign Minister

(C) Secretary of States

(D) Interior Minister

19. The largest museum in the world is

(A) Vatican Museums

(B) State Hermitage Museum

(C) Louvre Museum

(D) National Museum of China

20. The Louvre Museum is located in

(A) France

(B) Italy

(C) United States

(D) United Kingdom

ANSWERS:

1. B

2. C

3. C

4. B

5. C

6. B

7. C

8. A

9. D

10. D

11. A

12. B

13. D

14. D

15. A

16. B

17. B

18. C

19. C

20. A

Click Here to Download Demo PDF

Must Read Books for Competitive Exams

Some Other Useful Links:-

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam – 2020

UPSC IAS Mains Exam – 2019

RPSC RAS Prelims Exam

RPSC RAS Mains Exam

General Knowledge

Current Affairs

General Studies of Rajasthan-All in One

राजस्थान सामान्य अध्ययन:नोट्स एवं अभ्यास 1000+प्रश्नोत्तर

GS Score PIB Compilation – 1st August to 15th August 2019 for UPSC Civil Services Exam

UPSC IAS Civil Services and State Public Services Commission Examination 2019-20. PIB magazine is must read magazine for all the aspirants preparing for competitive examinations. GS Score compile it and everyone who is preparing for UPSC known very well about GS Score Study Centre, which is one of the best institute. GS Score PIB

The Press Information Bureau (PIB) is a nodal agency of the Government of India. PIB disseminates information to the print, electronic and new media on government plans, policies, programme initiatives and achievements.

Is PIB important for UPSC exam?

The articles published by the Press Information Bureau or PIB have authentic information relating to the government policies, plans, achievements etc. A serious UPSC aspirant should read PIB selectively to gather relevant information to enrich his/her content both for prelims and mains.  Benefits of taking information from PIB fortnightly updates:

  • Authentic information directly from the government
  • Relevant for current affairs section of the UPSC civil services
  • All schemes of the government
  • Our compilations will help you to segregate the topics according to General Studies Papers

Must Read Books for Competitive Exams

Some Other Useful Links:-

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam – 2020

UPSC IAS Mains Exam – 2019

RPSC RAS Prelims Exam

RPSC RAS Mains Exam

General Knowledge

Current Affairs

General Studies of Rajasthan-All in One

राजस्थान सामान्य अध्ययन:नोट्स एवं अभ्यास 1000+प्रश्नोत्तर

Important/Useful Press Information Bureau (PIB) Compilation for All Competitive Examinations 2019-20

Important Topics of Magazine

  • Environment -Army Launches E Car to Combat Pollution
  • Economy -Kabil set up to Ensure Supply of Critical Minerals
  • Education -20 Institution Recommended for Status of ‘Institutions of Eminence
  • Security -DRDO Successfully Flight-Tests State-of the-Art Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air
  • Missiles against Live Aerial Targets from Itr, Chandipur
  • Polity -Landmark Consumer Protection Bill, 2019 Gets Parliamentary Approval
  • Energy -Unido and National Institute of Solar Energy to Partner for Skill Development Program
  • Economy -E-Rozgar Samachar Launched to Spread Awareness about Job Opportunities
  • Social Issues -Niti Aayog to Launch the Fourth Edition of Women Transforming India Awards
  • Defence -INS Tarkash at Bergen, Norway
  • Governance -RPF Launches “Operation Number Plate” Across Indian Railways- a Drive against Unattended/Unclaimed Vehicles in all Railway Premises
  • Social Issues- India’s Largest Rural Sanitation Survey Launched
PIB-Compilation-General-Studies-Civil-services-state-psc-exams

Source

GS Score PIB Compilation – 16th July to 31st July for UPSC Prelims & Mains

The Press Information Bureau (PIB) is a nodal agency of the Government of India. PIB disseminates information to the print, electronic and new media on government plans, policies, programme initiatives and achievements.

Is PIB important for UPSC exam?

The articles published by the Press Information Bureau or PIB have authentic information relating to the government policies, plans, achievements etc. A serious UPSC aspirant should read PIB selectively to gather relevant information to enrich his/her content both for prelims and mains.  Benefits of taking information from PIB fortnightly updates:

  • Authentic information directly from the government
  • Relevant for current affairs section of the UPSC civil services
  • All schemes of the government
  • Our compilations will help you to segregate the topics according to General Studies Papers

Must Read Books for Competitive Exams

Some Other Useful Links:-

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam – 2020

UPSC IAS Mains Exam – 2019

RPSC RAS Prelims Exam

RPSC RAS Mains Exam

General Knowledge

Current Affairs

GS Score PIB Compilation 1st to 15th July 2019 for UPSC Exam

What is PIB?

The Press Information Bureau (PIB) is a nodal agency of the Government of India. PIB disseminates information to the print, electronic and new media on government plans, policies, programme initiatives and achievements.

Is PIB important for UPSC exam?

The articles published by the Press Information Bureau or PIB have authentic information relating to the government policies, plans, achievements etc. A serious UPSC aspirant should read PIB selectively to gather relevant information to enrich his/her content both for prelims and mains.  Benefits of taking information from PIB fortnightly updates:

  • Authentic information directly from the government
  • Relevant for current affairs section of the UPSC civil services
  • All schemes of the government
  • Our compilations will help you to segregate the topics according to General Studies Papers

Test Series: UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020

Test Series

India & World Geography

Indian Geography Question Bank 1000+

Indian Geography Question Bank Based on 6-12th NCERT

Art & Culture

History of India

History of India Question Bank

Indian Polity

Indian Polity Question Bank

Indian Polity 35+Practice Set

Environment & Ecology

Science & Technology

Rajasthan Patwari Bharti Pariksha 2019 General study notes with 1000+ Question Answer

राजस्थान पटवारी भर्ती परीक्षा 2019 सामान्य अध्ययन एवं प्रैक्टिस 1000 + Question Answer

राजस्थन पटवारी Syllabus 2019: Prelims, Mains Exam Pattern in Hindi & English PDF

Are you searching Rajasthan Patwari 2019 Syllabus, Book, Notes, Guide Magazine, PDF and Previous Paper? Then, this is the best place to get actual results for your search. Here we have given detailed RSMSSB Patwari Pre, Mains Exam pattern & syllabus in Hindi PDF. You can also check for exam dates, cut off percentage, study material, previous papers details in the below sections of the article. However, continue reading the entire article to gather all the information provided. It will be very informatics and useful for your exam 2019-20.

Rajasthan Subordinate Ministerial Services Selection Board released a notification for recruiting Approximate 5000 Patwari vacancies. Many candidates appear for this exam so it is expected that competition will be high this time as well, applicants need to have proper guidelines & study materials to score good marks in the exam.

Here we have updated the latest RSMSSB syllabus & exam pattern details subject wise. Aspirants can also download official syllabus PDF both in Hindi & English by using the link given in the bottom section of the article.

RSMSSB Patwari Exam 2019 – www.rsmssb.rajasthan.gov.in

Description Details
Organization Name Rajasthan Subordinate Ministerial Services Selection Board (RSMSSB)
Post Name Patwari
Vacancies Approx. 5000
Category Syllabus
Rajasthan Patwari Exam Date Update Soon
Official Site www.rsmssb.rajasthan.gov.in

The selection of the applicant for Patwari post is based on Prelims, Mains written exam followed by an interview process. Certainly, check for exam pattern and syllabus PDF details below.

Rajasthan (RSMSSB) Patwari Exam Syllabus & New Pattern 2019

This exam pattern gives you a rough idea about the structure of the exam, the number of questions asked, marks allotted and other norms of the exam. The exam pattern is given for both prelims and mains stages in the below table along with the required details of the exam.

Subjects Level of Exam Questions Marks
General Knowledge 10+2/senior Secondary level 100
Mathematics, Reasoning 10+Secondary level 100
General Hindi 10+2/senior Secondary level 50
Computer Basics Basic Computer Knowledge 50

RSMSSB Rajasthan Patwari Mains Syllabus & Exam Pattern

Subjects Exam Level Questions Marks
General Knowledge (GK) Senior Secondary Level 50 100
General Hindi Senior Secondary level 25 50
Mathematics, Reasoning Secondary level 50 100
Basic Computer Knowledge Computer Basics 25 50
Total 150 300
  • The exam will be of objective type questions.
  • There will be 150 multiple-choice questions.
  • Duration of exam will be 3 Hours.
  • Negative marking of 1/3rd marks will be there for each wrong answer.
  • Each question carries 2 marks.

 The syllabus is given in the subject wise from which questions will be asked considering both Prelims & Mains exam. Applicants searching for the updated syllabus can go through below list of topics that need to be studied to crack the exam successfully.

RSMSSB Patwari Mathematics Syllabus

  • Average
  • simplification
  • Profit & loss
  • SI & CI
  • Trigonometry
  • Partnership
  • Percentage
  • Ratio & proportion
  • Field book
  • Mensuration
  • Height & distance etc.

राजस्थान पटवारी गणित सिलेबस 

  • त्रिकोणमिति
  • साझेदारी
  • प्रतिशत
  • अनुपात और अनुपात
  • औसत
  • फील्ड बुक
  • क्षेत्रमिति
  • सरलीकरण
  • लाभ हानि
  • एसआई और सीआई
  • ऊँचाई और दूरी आदि

 Rajasthan Patwari Syllabus for General Knowledge

  • Current Affairs of Country and State
  • Indian politics
  • Schemes of state government
  • Literature & culture of Rajasthan
  • Geography and history of Rajasthan
  • Knowledge of District, Local and state level administration
  • Land measurement etc.

राजस्थान पटवारी सामान्य ज्ञान पाठ्यक्रम

  • राज्य सरकार की योजनाएं
  • राजस्थान की साहित्य और संस्कृति
  • देश और राज्य के वर्तमान मामलों
  • भारतीय राजनीति
  • जिला, स्थानीय और राज्य स्तर प्रशासन का ज्ञान
  • भूमि माप आदि
  • राजस्थान के भूगोल और इतिहास

www.rsmssb.rajasthan.gov.in Patwari Syllabus for Hindi

  • Idioms & phrases
  • Synonyms
  • Antonyms
  • Paragraph
  • Error correction
  • Noun-Pronoun Adjective, adverb
  • Punctuation
  • General Hindi grammar etc

राजस्थान पटवारी परीक्षा के लिए पाठ्यक्रम – हिंदी में

  • मुहावरे और वाक्यांशों
  • समानार्थक शब्द
  • विलोम शब्द
  • अनुच्छेद
  • गलतीयों का सुधार
  • नाम Pronoun विशेषण, क्रियाविशेषण
  • विराम चिह्न
  • सामान्य हिंदी व्याकरण आदि

Click Here to download Patwari exam Book

राजस्थान पटवारी भर्ती परीक्षा 2019 सामान्य अध्ययन एवं प्रैक्टिस 1000 + Question Answer


राजस्थान पुलिस, ग्राम सेवक एवं सभी प्रतियोगी परीक्षा हेतु उपयोगी

राजस्थान सामान्य अध्ययन:नोट्स एवं अभ्यास 1000+प्रश्नोत्तर

General Studies of Rajasthan-All in One