How to start UPSC CSE Exam Preparation

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MYUPSC UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

If you have joined MYUPSC Study Portal, just follow the curriculum of the batch, you will reach the destination. If you are starting on your own, to begin with follow the initial steps.

  • Analysis of previous question papers
  • Understanding of Syllabus
  • Read a good newspaper daily preferably The Hindu or Indian Express
  • Read all basic NCERTs before reading reference books
  • Reading of basic study material/reference books
  • Read YOJANA and KURUKSHETRA magazine monthly
  • Start writing-This will be the deciding factor in the Mains

 

Let us analyze the critical areas according to their weightage in IAS-UPSC Exam.

  • GS Based Marks= GS Prelims, 200 marks + GS Mains, 1000 marks + Essay, 250 marks (Essay means Mains GS and writing style) + Interview, 275 marks (It means Mains GS and communication style) = 1725 marks
  • Optional Based Marks = 500 marks
  • Aptitude based Marks = Prelims Aptitude = 200 marks

 

When to start preparation

  • One should start preparation around eight or nine months prior to the exam.
  • If you are going to prepare immediately after graduation, then don’t waste time, start immediately after your final exam.
  • If you are going to study while working, it is possible but starts earliest. Don’t delay to start otherwise you will experience time crunch later.
  • If you are preparing during graduation, generalized plan cannot be suggested, so discuss personally with us to evolve an individual plan.

 

What is required to get success in IAS-UPSC exam

  • Critical self-assessment
  • Patience and Self confidence
  • Good writing practice
  • Basic command over English and Aptitude
  • Good grasp over current affairs
  • Healthy competitions and feedback
  • Quality material and guidance
  • Devoted study

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2020 COMPLETE STUDY MATERIAL GS PAPER-1

Current Affairs Half Yearly July-December for Civil Services Examination 2020

Current Affairs Yearbook 2020 Useful for UPSC & PSC Exams

Physical Economic and Human Geography of India

Indian Polity for Civil Services Examination

Indian History Complete Study Notes

Indian Art, Culture, Heritage and Architecture for Civil Services Examination

India Yearbook Question Bank: UPSC CSE Prelims Exam 2020

Indian Economy Question Bank: UPSC CSE Prelims 2020

Indian History Question Bank

Indian Geography Question Bank

Indian Polity Topic Wise Question Bank

UPSC IAS Prelims Previous Year Solved Paper 2010-19

Indian Geography-NCERT MCQ Compilation Class 6-12th

Science & Technology Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20

Geography & Environment Current issues yearbook 2019

Indian Polity and Governance Yearbook 2019-20

2000 MCQ: IAS Preliminary exam 2020

UPSC Civil Services Mains Exam 2020 GS Paper Study Material

UPSC IAS Main exam GS Paper-1 Complete study notes

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-2 Complete Study Notes

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-3 Complete Study Notes

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-4 Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude

RPSC RAS/RTS Prelims Exam Rajasthan GK Complete Study Material in English

Geography of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Polity and Administration of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with MCQ

History of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Art Culture & Heritage of Rajasthan

Economy of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Current Affairs Rajasthan Yearbook 2019

Polity & Administration of Rajasthan: RAS Mains Solved Questions-200+

RPSC RAS Mains Exam Solved Questions: Geography of Rajasthan

APPSC Andhra Pradesh Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20

Haryana Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20 Updated

How to fill services preference in detailed application form (DAF) for UPSC CSE

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MYUPSC UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

SERVICES/DEPARTMENTS IN CIVIL SERVICES

The Indian Civil Services are organized into two main sections. These are the All India Services and the Central Services. Officers of the All India Services, on appointment by the Government of India, are placed at the disposal of the different State Governments. These services include:

  • The Indian Administrative Service (IAS)
  • The Indian Police Service (IPS)
  • The Indian Forest Service (IFS)

Officers of the Central Services, on the other hand, wherever they might be posted, serve the Government of India only. Central Services are of two types-Groups A&B.

GROUP ‘A’ SERVICES

Central Services comprise various different services/ posts. These include:

  • The Indian Foreign Service (IFS)
  • The Indian Railway Service
  • Indian Postal Service
  • Accounts and Auditing Services (including The Indian Audit and Accounts Service, The Indian Civil Accounts Service, The Indian Defence Accounts Service, The Indian Revenue Service.)
  • Indian Customs and Central Excise
  • The Indian Ordnance Factories Service
  • The Indian Defence Estates Service
  • The Indian Information Service
  • The Central Trade Services

GROUP ‘B’ SERVICES

  • The Group ‘B’ Services include the Central Secretariat Service (Section Officers Grade-CSS), the Railway Board Secretariat Service (Section Officers’ Grade- RBSS), the Indian Foreign Service (Section Officers’ Grade- IFS ‘B’), the Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Service (Assistant Civilian Staff Officers Grade), the Customs’ Appraisers Service, the Delhi and Andaman & Nicobar Islands Civil Service (DANICS), the Goa, Daman and Diu Police Service, Posts of Assistant Commandant, Post of Deputy Superintendents of Police in the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). Though officers of the Group ‘B’ Services start off almost at par with their Group ‘A’ counterparts, yet after the fourth year they lag behind by five to seven years. This gap widens further by the 18th year when Group’A’ Officers enter the Super Time Scale. The most coveted service among the “Group B” services is the Central Secretariat Service (CSS).

THE INDIAN ADMINISTRATIVE SERVICE (IAS)

The IAS (Indian Administrative Service) was formally constituted in 1947. The IAS handles affairs of the government. At the central level, this involves the framing and implementation of policy. At the district level, it is concerned with district affairs, including developmental functions. At the divisional level, the IAS officers look after law and order, general administration and development work. In the Government of India (i.e. in the ministries), IAS officers deal with the formulation of policies and supervise their implementation. In each Ministry they supervise the allotment and utilization of funds by the field officers in the Ministry. They may also be asked to furnish information to the Parliament in response to queries relating to the Ministry. Sometimes, their works entail visits to the States. Depending on the rank, an IAS officer might even be the government nominee on the Board of Directors of some Public Sector Corporation. They may also at times be nominated to independently represent India at International forums or accompany the Minister for such meetings. From the rank of Deputy Secretary to the Government of India, they can sign international agreements on behalf of the Government of India. However, more than half their career life will be spent in the State they are allocated, where they will look after law and order, general administration, revenue work and developmental functions. During the course of their two-year probation they will be attached to various training schools, to the Secretariat and field offices and to a district collector’s office. Here they will do the work of a sub magistrate. On completion of their two-year’s probation they will be appointed as a Sub Divisional Magistrate (SDM). As SDM they will look after law and order, general administration, revenue work and such developmental work as may be assigned to them. In the next three scales i.e. Senior Scale, Junior Administrative Grade and Selection Grade they will serve as District Magistrate, Chief Development Officer, Director of a department, Managing Director of a Public Sector Unit or a Senior officer in the State Secretariat. In other words, they could be a District Magistrate in their fifth year of service and remain a DM till they are promoted to the Super Time Scale in the 17th year of their service. Following this there are promotions in scale to the ranks of Principal Secretary and additional Chief Secretary. The highest post in the State is that of the Chief Secretary.

INDIAN FOREIGN SERVICE (IFS)

The Indian Foreign Service deals with the country’s external affairs, including diplomacy, trade and cultural relations. It is responsible for the administration and activities of Indian missions abroad, and for the framing and implementation of the Government’s foreign policy. After the training at Mussoorie, the IFS probationers are attached to the Ministry of External Affairs and have to become conversant in a major foreign language. During the second year they are appointed as Third Secretaries in Indian Embassy/High Commission where that language is spoken. They spend another two years in the same Embassy as Second Secretaries. After two postings abroad, the IFS Officers are posted in India in the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA). In the MEA, they will look after India’s political, economic and commercial work. In the Senior Scale and the Junior Administrative Grade the IFS Officers are appointed as First Secretaries. In the Selection Grade, IFS Officers serve as Counsellors. In very small countries the Indian Ambassador would be in that grade. In the super time scale, many IFS Officers become Ambassadors of medium sized countries while others are appointed as Ministers in the large embassies like Washington and Moscow. In the Additional Secretaries Grade, IFS Officers are made ambassadors in relatively big embassies or as Deputy High Commissioner in London. The Indian Embassies/High Commissions like Moscow, Washington and London are headed by Ambassadors of the rank of Secretary. At this level, some Ambassadors are non-IFS Officers like politicians, retired or serving IAS Officers or retired Defence Chief. There are four to five Secretary level officers in the MEA- the senior most being the Foreign Secretary.

INDIAN POLICE SERVICE (IPS)

The IPS (Indian Police Service) is responsible for public safety and security. The IPS mainly takes care of law and order, which, at the district level, is a responsibility shared with the IAS; crime prevention and detection; and traffic control and accident prevention and management. In order to fulfill these functions with greater efficiency, this service is divided into various functional departments, including: a) Crime Branch b) Criminal Investigation Department (CID) c) Home Guards d) Traffic Bureau. A number of Central Policing Agencies are also headed by the IPS. These include: the Intelligence Bureau (IB), Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), Cabinet Secretariat Security, the Border Security Force (BSF), and the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF). During the probation period they will undergo a year training in the office of a Superintendent of Police of a district in the State they have been allocated. On completing their two-year probation, they will be confirmed as a three star Assistant Superintendent of Police (ASP). They will then in all probability be posted as the Police Officer of a sub-division (SDPO) for two years till they are promoted to the Senior Scale. As the SDPO, Superintendent of Police, Senior Superintendent of Police of a District and as Deputy Inspector General of a Range (group of districts), they will be exclusively responsible for the prevention and detection of crime. However, the law and order duties will be shared with their IAS counterpart. In cities like Delhi, Mumbai and Bangalore, the law and order duties are the exclusive responsibility of the police force. In these cities the ASP, SP, and the DIG are called Assistant Commissioner of Police (ACPO), Deputy Commissioner of Police (DCP) and Commissioner of Police (CP). On being promoted to the Senior Scale they could serve as ASP of a larger district for the first two years or SP of a small district. They are likely to spend about thirteen years covering the Senior Scale, Junior Administrative Grade and Selection Grade as SP/SSP of a district, SP (Crime), SP (CID), SP (Home Guards), the head of some police battalion, SP (Traffic) and so on. Outside the districts, the most satisfying jobs are in the intelligence agencies of the Government of India especially in the Intelligence Bureau (IB) and the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). There are many other Central agencies to which the IPS Officers may be sent on deputation at every stage of their career, except in the Junior Scale. Some of these are the Cabinet Secretariat, the Border Security Force, the Central Reserve Police Force and the Central Industrial Security Force. Unlike IAS Officers who cannot permanently serve the Central government, some IPS dominated central agencies absorb the IPS Officers till they retire. The senior posts in the IPS are those of the Deputy Inspector General, Inspector General, Additional DG and Director General.

INDIAN CUSTOMS AND CENTRAL EXCISE SERVICE

It is basically concerned with two main aspects, mainly Customs and Excise. While Customs is concerned with the checking and levy of duty on taxable goods brought into the country, the Excise department is involved with the taxation of goods manufactured within the country.

CUSTOMS

Customs officers could be dealing with customs, excise or narcotics related matters. They are not only posted in important coastal and border towns or in towns with international airports, they can be posted anywhere. Their probation will be either in Chennai, Mumbai, Kolkata or Delhi and in the Junior and Senior scales they will be designated as Assistant Commissioner of Customs. As Deputy Commissioner in the JAG they will move to much bigger towns. In this grade of Junior Administration Grade (JAG) they could later become Additional Commissioner of Customs.

CENTRAL EXCISE

Probation will be in Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai or Chennai and will be posted in industrial townships to begin with and then in big cities. In the Junior Scale, the Central excise officer could serve as Assistant Commissioner of Central Excise. They can hold the latter rank in the senior scale also. In the JAG they could be a Deputy or Additional Commissioner of Central Excise. Commissioners of Customs and Central Excise are officers in the Senior Administrative Grade. They wield enormous power and the jurisdiction which normally extends over several states. Chief Commissioners of Customs and Central Excise are placed in the next higher grade which is similar to that of Additional Secretaries. After that they can aspire to become a member of the Central Board of Excise and Customs and later even its Chairman.

INDIAN REVENUE SERVICE

The job involves all the processes from investigation to decisions and policy planning. As the job deals with the fiscal policy and budget, aptitude for accounts as well as a legal aptitude is useful. The professional training is conducted in the National Academy of Direct Taxes, Nagpur and the probationer will also receive on-the-job training at an Assistant Commissioner’s office for some time. Following this they will serve as an Assistant Commissioner for about eight years. They will examine cases in which the tax assessed is more than the prescribed figure. In the Junior Administrative Grade (JAG) and Selection Grade they would be a Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax or Deputy Director (Investigation). In the Senior Administrative Grade they could be a Commissioner of Income Tax in a metropolitan town or one of the state capitals or a Director of Income Tax. Some of these Commissioners are designated Chief-Commissioners of Income Tax and are in a scale similar to that of Additional Secretaries. The Director General of Income Tax is also in this scale. The head of the Income Tax hierarchy is the Chairman of the Central Board of Direct Taxes and is assisted by six members.

INDIAN RAILWAY SERVICE

It is essentially responsible for the running of India’s vast railway network. There are four non-technical and technical or engineering cadres in the railways. Entry for non-technical services- the Indian Railway Traffic Services (IRTS), the Indian Railway Personnel Services (IRPS), the Indian Railway Accounts Services (IRAS), and the Railway Police Service is through the Civil Services examination. However, the engineering services have a different recruitment procedure.

INDIAN RAILWAY TRAFFIC SERVICES (IRTS)

This service looks after commercial (goods and passengers) and operational (movement of trains) functions with an emphasis on safety. In the Junior Scale, they will serve as either Assistant Commercial Manager or Assistant Operating Manager and posted at the Divisional Headquarters. If posted at a very big railway station they may be designated as Assistant Transport Manager. Within four years of service they are likely to get the senior scale and posted at divisional headquarters as Divisional Commercial Manager or Divisional Operating Manager or Divisional Safety Officer. Most of the branch officers like the Senior Divisional Commercial Manager or Senior Divisional Operating Manager are in the JAG. At the zonal level the hierarchy is as follows: On the Commercial side, the structure is headed by the Chief Commercial Manager followed by the Additional Chief Commercial Manager and the Deputy Chief Commercial Manager. On the operations side, the Chief Operations Manager is at the head, followed by the Additional Chief Operations Manager, Chief Freight Traffic Manager, Chief Passenger Traffic Manager and the Deputy Chief Operations Manager.

INDIAN RAILWAY ACCOUNTS SERVICES (IRAS)

This service monitors all the income and expenditure of the vast railway network. In the Junior Scale, as an IRAS officer they will be posted to divisional headquarters as Assistant Accounts Officers. On being promoted to the senior scale they will become a Divisional Accounts Officer and in the JAG they will be designated as Senior Divisional Accounts Officer. In the Senior Administrative Grade they are promoted to the coveted position of Financial Advisor-cum-Chief Accounts Officer of a zone.

INDIAN RAILWAY PERSONNEL SERVICE (IRPS)

As an officer in this service the IRPS officers will deal with recruitment, promotions, in service training and welfare of the employees. They will be interested to know that IRPS officers get the equivalent of the Super time Scale before any other service of the Government of India. The postings are as follows: In the junior scale, they will be designated Assistant Personnel Officer and posted at Divisional Headquarters. Following this they will become a Divisional Personnel Officer in the Senior Scale and Senior Divisional Personnel Officer of Deputy Chief Planning Officer in the JAG. They will be made Additional Chief Planning Officer once they get the selection grade. In the Senior Administrative Grade they will be designated Chief Personnel Officer and serve at Zonal Headquarters. At a non-divisional set-up there are commensurate posts for officers belonging to all the railway services.

RAILWAY PROTECTION FORCE

This force protects one of the biggest railway networks in the world. RPF officer’s training will be at Vadodra and Lucknow. The Junior and Senior scales are similar to the other railway services. There is no equivalent of JAG or SG. Instead, they have the grades of Senior Commandant, Head Quarters and Deputy Inspector General (DIG) respectively. The Inspector General’s grade is the same as the IAS suppertime scale or the IPS IGP’s scale. The final promotion is as the Director General of the Force.

INDIAN AUDIT AND ACCOUNTS SERVICES

This service audits the accounts of all Central and State government departments, P&T departments, defence, public sector organizations, railways, etc. It functions within the federal structure and coordinates effectively between the Centre and the states. As the head of the organization, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is a constitutional authority with a fixed tenure. During the career, the officer can go on deputation to various ministries, state governments, autonomous bodies, public sector organizations etc. They can also be posted at one of the two audit offices abroad- Washington or London. Presently India is one of the three countries auditing the accounts of the United Nations and a Director General of the service is based at New York for this purpose. Officers selected to this service undergo training in Shimla. They serve either in account offices in Central or State Governments or in Statutory Audit Offices under the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG). In the Junior Scale, they will be posted as an Assistant AG in the office of an Accountant General (AG). They will be posted in similar offices throughout the career; only their designation and responsibilities will keep changing. In the senior scale, they will be a Deputy AG, in the JAG and Selection Grade a Senior DAG and in the Senior Administrative Grade a fully fledged AG. At the next rung is the Additional Deputy Comptroller and Auditor General. Above this is the Deputy Comptroller and Auditor General of India, who gets a Secretary’s salary. At the very top of the accounts/audit hierarchy is a constitutional authority, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

INDIAN POSTAL SERVICE

It is the only service from which one can go on a deputation to the army and serve from Captain to Major General. An attractive aspect of a career in the Indian Postal Service is that there is job mobility as well as variety.

An Indian Postal Service officer can serve in any ministry at any level depending on the seniority and aptitude. Officers are also sent on deputation to the Universal Postal Union at Berne, Switzerland or on assignments to other countries.

Professional course is at the Postal Staff College, Ghaziabad. During probation the officer will be “attached” to “field” offices of the department, where they will work in various capacities. They will serve in divisional headquarters as Senior Superintendent of Post Office (SSPO) or Senior Superintendent Railway Mail (SSRM) in the junior scale as well as in the first 2-3 years of the senior scale. Only personnel from the Indian Postal Service go on deputation to the Army Postal Service. Later in the Senior Scale they will be promoted to the rank of Assistant PMG (Post Master General) or Assistant Director General at the Directorate. In the JAG they will be made a Director. In the selection grade they will remain as a Director. They can be promoted to the senior most level of PMG of a “Circle”. Promotions after that are to the posts of (a) Additional Secretary in a ministry (b) One of the members of the Postal Services Board (c) Chief PMG or rather HAG i.e. Higher Administrative Grade d) Secretary, Department of Post who is also ex-officio DG and Chairman of the Postal Services Board.

P&T FINANCE AND ACCOUNTS SERVICES

As in the case of the Indian Railways there is a separate P&T Finance and Accounts Service. Here an officer works for the Postal & Telecom departments. They are posted in major cities and as this is a comparatively new service, (established in 1974) the promotions are fast. Within 17 years one can be Joint Secretary (SAG) which corresponds with the Super Time Scale of the IAS. Officers start their career as the Assistant Chief Accounts Officer. Within two years, they are the Chief Accounts Officers. After six years they become the Director Finance and Accounts in the Junior Administrative Grade. In another eleven years they enter the SAG as GM Finance which is a field posting or as Deputy Director General at the Directorate. Following this promotions to the higher posts are limited as there is just one member Finance and one Senior DDG, Finance. However, they can go on deputation to other ministries or to the Videsh Sanchar Nigam Limited (VSNL) or Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited (MTNL) as Director Finance.

INDIAN INFORMATION SERVICES AND INDIAN DEFENCE ACCOUNTS SERVICES THE INDIAN INFORMATION SERVICES (IIS)

This was initially called the Central Information Service (CIS) which was constituted as late as 1960. As it is a comparatively new and expanding service there is scope for quicker promotions. The scales in this service are exactly the same as in the other services, till the Senior Administrative Grade (SAG). At the top is a grade which is called Selection Grade and has a fixed salary, equal to what the senior most Additional Secretary would get. Training during probation is at the Indian Institute of Mass Communication (IIMC), New Delhi. An IIS Officer can be posted in organizations dealing with print media, in the electronic media or in an advertising agency. In short, IIS Officers can be posted to any of the several organizations that are controlled by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting or the Ministry of Defence (Directorate of Public Relations).

THE INDIAN DEFENCE ACCOUNTS SERVICES (IDAS)

An IDAS officer start off, after probation, as an Assistant CDA (Controller of Defence Accounts) in the Junior Scale, and will work in cantonment towns. In the next three scales, they will be Deputy CDAs, posted at State capitals (or bigger towns). In the Senior Administrative Grade (SAG) they will become a full-fledged CDA and will be posted at places where headquarters of defence ‘commands’ are located. In the Additional Secretaries’ Scale IDAS Officer’s are made Additional CGDAs (Controller General of Defence Accounts) incharge of Audit or Inspection. They could also be posted as Controller of Accounts (Factories), Calcutta.

Indian Ordnance & Factories Services and Indian Civil Accounts Services

THE INDIAN ORDNANCE AND FACTORIES SERVICES (IOFS)

IOFS officers will be required to serve mostly where ordnance factories (i.e. factories that make equipment including sleeping bags and tents, for the defence services) are located e.g. Jabalpur. During the first 10 years in the Service, they could even be asked to serve for up to 4 years, as a Commissioned Officer in the Armed Forces. The promotions up to the Senior Administrative Grade are standard Central Service Promotions. In the Additional Secretaries’ Grade they would most probably be made a General Manager. After that, there is a scale which begins at the AS level. In this scale are the Members of the OFS (ordinance Factories Board)/the Additional DGOF (Director General Ordnance Factories). The head of the service is the chairman of the OFB/DGOF, who has the same fixed salary as the Secretaries.

THE INDIAN CIVIL ACCOUNTS SERVICES (ICAS)

Training will be in the office of the CGA (Controller General of Accounts), Department of Expenditure (Ministry of Finance) Delhi and in the offices of the Chief Controller of Accounts in the various ministries of Government of India. The first posting will be as Assistant Controller of Accounts in some ministry of the Government of India. In the Senior Scale, they will become the Deputy Controller of Accounts. In the Senior Administrative Grade they will be made Chief Controller of Accounts. The highest career post for an ICAS officer is Controller General of Accounts and has a salary fixed higher than that of the Additional Secretaries’ Scale.

THE INDIAN DEFENCE ESTATES SERVICES (IDES)

This service deals entirely with spacious, well-planned, green, landscaped cantonments. In this service an IDES officer will begin his career in the junior scale, as an Executive Officer in a Class I or a Class II Cantonment. In the Senior Scale he would normally be sent to a Class I Cantonment as an Executive Officer of Assistant Director or Deputy Assistant Director General or Defence Estate Officer. Next promotion in the “Ordinary Grade” (similar to the JAG) will be as Joint Director the designation which he will retain in the Selection Grade as well. After the Selection Grade the IDES Officers are first promoted as Directors (Level I) before they are made Directors (Level III). The latter post is in the Senior Administrative Grade. The top officer is the Director General Defence Estates.

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2020 COMPLETE STUDY MATERIAL GS PAPER-1

Current Affairs Half Yearly July-December for Civil Services Examination 2020

Current Affairs Yearbook 2020 Useful for UPSC & PSC Exams

Physical Economic and Human Geography of India

Indian Polity for Civil Services Examination

Indian History Complete Study Notes

Indian Art, Culture, Heritage and Architecture for Civil Services Examination

India Yearbook Question Bank: UPSC CSE Prelims Exam 2020

Indian Economy Question Bank: UPSC CSE Prelims 2020

Indian History Question Bank

Indian Geography Question Bank

Indian Polity Topic Wise Question Bank

UPSC IAS Prelims Previous Year Solved Paper 2010-19

Indian Geography-NCERT MCQ Compilation Class 6-12th

Science & Technology Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20

Geography & Environment Current issues yearbook 2019

Indian Polity and Governance Yearbook 2019-20

2000 MCQ: IAS Preliminary exam 2020

UPSC Civil Services Mains Exam 2020 GS Paper Study Material

UPSC IAS Main exam GS Paper-1 Complete study notes

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-2 Complete Study Notes

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-3 Complete Study Notes

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-4 Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude

RPSC RAS/RTS Prelims Exam Rajasthan GK Complete Study Material in English

Geography of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Polity and Administration of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with MCQ

History of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Art Culture & Heritage of Rajasthan

Economy of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Current Affairs Rajasthan Yearbook 2019

Polity & Administration of Rajasthan: RAS Mains Solved Questions-200+

RPSC RAS Mains Exam Solved Questions: Geography of Rajasthan

APPSC Andhra Pradesh Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20

Haryana Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20 Updated

How to Apply for UPSC Civil Services Exam 2020?

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MYUPSC UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series
  1. Login to the official website of UPSC and search a link for “Application Form”.
  2. Once you get the link, click on it and application form window will be opened consisting of 2 stages registration- part I & Part II.
  3. You need to click on Part I registration & fill all the details as required in the application form.
  4. Once all the details are entered, you have to click on submit. On submission, a registration ID will be generated.
  5. Now the applicants will have to proceed with Part II registration by using registration ID generated during Part I registration.
  6. Here you have to choose the examination you want to appear for.
  7. Now upload the scanned images of your photograph & signature in specified format.
  8. Also pay application fee as mentioned in the website.
  9. On successful completion of application fee, the registration process will be completed.
  10. The applicants can take down the print out of their online submitted application forms for future reference.

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2020 COMPLETE STUDY MATERIAL GS PAPER-1

Current Affairs Half Yearly July-December for Civil Services Examination 2020

Current Affairs Yearbook 2020 Useful for UPSC & PSC Exams

Physical Economic and Human Geography of India

Indian Polity for Civil Services Examination

Indian History Complete Study Notes

Indian Art, Culture, Heritage and Architecture for Civil Services Examination

India Yearbook Question Bank: UPSC CSE Prelims Exam 2020

Indian Economy Question Bank: UPSC CSE Prelims 2020

Indian History Question Bank

Indian Geography Question Bank

Indian Polity Topic Wise Question Bank

UPSC IAS Prelims Previous Year Solved Paper 2010-19

Indian Geography-NCERT MCQ Compilation Class 6-12th

Science & Technology Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20

Geography & Environment Current issues yearbook 2019

Indian Polity and Governance Yearbook 2019-20

2000 MCQ: IAS Preliminary exam 2020

UPSC Civil Services Mains Exam 2020 GS Paper Study Material

UPSC IAS Main exam GS Paper-1 Complete study notes

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-2 Complete Study Notes

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-3 Complete Study Notes

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-4 Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude

RPSC RAS/RTS Prelims Exam Rajasthan GK Complete Study Material in English

Geography of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Polity and Administration of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with MCQ

History of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Art Culture & Heritage of Rajasthan

Economy of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Current Affairs Rajasthan Yearbook 2019

Polity & Administration of Rajasthan: RAS Mains Solved Questions-200+

RPSC RAS Mains Exam Solved Questions: Geography of Rajasthan

APPSC Andhra Pradesh Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20

Haryana Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20 Updated

UPSC Civil Services Prelims and Mains Exam Syllabus

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MYUPSC UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

Exam Syllabus

S.No. Subject (Paper-I)S.No. Subject (Paper-II)
1. Indian History and Freedom Struggle 1. Decision Making & Problem Solving
2. World and Indian Geography : Physical, Social, Economic, Political Geog. 2. Interpersonal Skill & Communication Skill)
3. Indian Polity : (i) Constitution 3. Comprehension
4. Indian Economy 4. Administrative Analytical Reasoning
5. General Science : (i) Zoology (ii) Botany (iii) Physics and Chemistry 5. Basic Numeracy
6. Bio diversity 6. General Mental Ability
7. Ecology & Environment 7. Data Interpretation
8. Current Events of National and International Importance

Note 1: The CSAT aptitude test or Paper-II of the Civil Services (Preliminary) examination will be a qualifying paper only with a minimum of 33% to be secured to sit for the Civil Services (Mains) exam.

Note 2: The questions in both Paper-I (current affairs) and Paper-II (aptitude test) will be of multiple choice, objective type for 200 marks each and the time allotted for each paper is two hours.

Note 3: It is mandatory for the candidate to appear in both the papers of Civil Services (Prelim) examination for the purpose of evaluation. Therefore a candidate will be disqualified in case he or she does not appear in both the papers of the (Prelims) exam.

Civil Services Mains Exam 2020 Syllabus

The written examination will consist of the following papers:

Paper A – Modern Indian language 300 Marks – Qualifying nature – Marks not counted – Passing mandatory-

Comprehension of given passages.

Precise Writing

Usage and Vocabulary

Short Essay

Translation from English to the Indian language and vice-versa

Note 1: The Papers on Indian Languages and English will be of Matriculation or equivalent standard and will be of qualifying nature only. The marks obtained in these papers will not be counted for ranking.

Note 2: The candidates will have to answer the English and Indian Languages papers in English and the respective Indian language (except where translation is involved).

Paper B – English -300 marks – Qualifying nature – Marks not counted- Passing mandatory. The aim of the paper is to test the candidates’ ability to read and understand serious discursive prose, and to express his ideas clearly and correctly, in English and Indian Language concerned.

The pattern of questions would be broadly as follows:-

Comprehension of given passages

Precise Writing

Usage and Vocabulary

Short Essay

Paper-I

Essay – 250 Marks:-

  • To be written in the medium or language of the candidate’s choice – Candidates will be required to write an essay on a specific topic.
  • The choice of subjects will be given. They will be expected to keep closely to the subject of the essay to arrange their ideas in orderly fashion, and to write concisely.
  • Credit will be given for effective and exact expression.

Paper-II

General Studies-I 250 Marks :-( Indian Heritage and Culture, History and Geography of the World and Society)

  • Indian culture will cover the salient aspects of Art Forms, Literature and Architecture from ancient to modern times.
  • Modern Indian history from about the middle of the eighteenth century until the present- significant events, personalities, issues The Freedom Struggle – its various stages and important contributors /contributions from different parts of the country.
  • Post-independence consolidation and reorganization within the country.
  • History of the world will include events from 18th century such as industrial revolution, world wars, redrawal of national boundaries, colonization, decolonization, political philosophies like communism, capitalism, socialism etc.- their forms and effect on the society. Salient features of Indian Society, Diversity of India.
  • Role of women and women’s organization, population and associated issues, poverty and developmental issues, urbanization, their problems and their remedies.
  • Effects of globalization on Indian society
  • Social empowerment, communalism, regionalism & secularism.
  • Salient features of world’s physical geography.
  • Distribution of key natural resources across the world (including South Asia and the Indian sub-continent); factors responsible for the location of primary, secondary, and tertiary sector industries in various parts of the world (including India)
  • Important Geophysical phenomena such as earthquakes, Tsunami, Volcanic activity, cyclone etc., geographical features and their location- changes in critical geographical features (including water-bodies and ice-caps) and in flora and fauna and the effects of such changes.

Paper-III

General Studies -II: 250 Marks: – (Governance, Constitution, Polity, Social Justice and International relations)

  • Indian Constitution- historical underpinnings, evolution, features, amendments, significant provisions and basic structure.
  • Functions and responsibilities of the Union and the States, issues and challenges pertaining to the federal structure, devolution of powers and finances up to local levels and challenges therein.
  • Separation of powers between various organs dispute redressal mechanisms and institutions.
  • Comparison of the Indian constitutional scheme with that of other countries Parliament and State Legislatures – structure, functioning, conduct of business, powers & privileges and issues arising out of these. Structure, organization and functioning of the Executive and the Judiciary Ministries and Departments of the Government; pressure groups and formal/informal associations and their role in the Polity.
  • Salient features of the Representation of People’s Act.
  • Appointment to various Constitutional posts, powers, functions and responsibilities of various Constitutional Bodies. Statutory, regulatory and various quasi-judicial bodies.
  • Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation.
  • Development processes and the development industry the role of NGOs, SHGs, various groups and associations, donors, charities, institutional and other stakeholders.
  • Welfare schemes for vulnerable sections of the population by the Centre and States and the performance of these schemes; mechanisms, laws, institutions and Bodies constituted for the protection and betterment of these vulnerable sections.
  • Issues relating to development and management of Social Sector/Services relating to Health, Education, Human Resources.
  • Issues relating to poverty and hunger.
  • Important aspects of governance, transparency and accountability, e-governance- applications, models, successes, limitations, and potential; citizens charters, transparency & accountability and institutional and other measures.
  • Role of civil services in a democracy.
  • India and its neighborhood- relations.
  • Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affecting India’s interests Effect of policies and politics of developed and developing countries on India’s interests, Indian diaspora.
  • Important International institutions, agencies and fora, their structure, mandate.

PAPER-IV

General Studies -III 250 Marks :-( Technology, Economic Development, Bio-diversity, Environment, Security and Disaster Management)

  • Development, Bio diversity, Environment, Security and Disaster Management.
  • Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization of resources, growth, development and employment.
  • Inclusive growth and issues arising from it.
  • Government Budgeting.
  • Major crops cropping patterns in various parts of the country, different types of irrigation and irrigation systems storage, transport and marketing of agricultural produce and issues and related constraints; e-technology in the aid of farmers.
  • Issues related to direct and indirect farm subsidies and minimum support prices; Public Distribution System objectives, functioning, limitations, revamping; issues of buffer stocks and food security; Technology missions; economics of animal-rearing.
  • Food processing and related industries in India- scope and significance, location, upstream and downstream requirements, supply chain management Land reforms in India.
  • Effects of liberalization on the economy, changes in industrial policy and their effects on industrial growth.
  • Infrastructure: Energy, Ports, Roads, Airports, Railways etc.
  • Investment models.
  • Science and Technology- developments and their applications and effects in everyday life Achievements of Indians in science & technology; indigenization of technology and developing new technology.
  • Awareness in the fields of IT, Space, Computers, robotics, nano-technology, bio-technology and issues relating to intellectual property rights. Conservation, environmental pollution and degradation, environmental impact assessment Disaster and disaster management.
  • Linkages between development and spread of extremism.
  • Role of external state and non-state actors in creating challenges to internal security.
  • Challenges to internal security through communication networks, role of media and social networking sites in internal security challenges, basics of cyber security; money-laundering and its prevention.
  • Security challenges and their management in border areas; linkages of organized crime with terrorism.
  • Various Security forces and agencies and their mandate.

Paper-V

General Studies -IV 250 Marks (Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude)

  •  This paper will include questions to test the candidates’ attitude and approach to issues relating to integrity, probity in public life and his problem solving approach to various issues and conflicts faced by him in dealing with society. Questions may utilise the case study approach to determine these aspects. The following broad areas will be covered.
  • Ethics and Human Interface: Essence, determinants and consequences of Ethics in human actions; dimensions of ethics; ethics in private and public relationships.
  • Human Values – lessons from the lives and teachings of great leaders, reformers and administrators; role of family, society and educational institutions in inculcating values.
  • Attitude: content, structure, function; its influence and relation with thought and behaviour; moral and political attitudes; social influence and persuasion.
  • Aptitude and foundational values for Civil Service , integrity, impartiality and non-partisanship, objectivity, dedication to public service, empathy, tolerance and compassion towards the weaker-sections.
  • Emotional intelligence-concepts, and their utilities and application in administration and governance.
  • Contributions of moral thinkers and philosophers from India and world.
  • Public/Civil service values and Ethics in Public administration: Status and problems; ethical concerns and dilemmas in government and private institutions; laws, rules, regulations and conscience as sources of ethical guidance; accountability and ethical governance; strengthening of ethical and moral values in governance; ethical issues in international relations and funding; corporate governance.
  • Probity in Governance: Concept of public service; Philosophical basis of governance and probity; Information sharing and transparency in government, Right to Information, Codes of Ethics, Codes of Conduct, Citizen’s Charters, Work culture, Quality of service delivery, Utilization of public funds, challenges of corruption.
  • Case Studies on above issues.

Paper-VI

Optional Subject – Paper I -250 Marks

Paper-VII

Optional Subject – Paper II -250 Marks

NOTE:
Marks obtained by the candidates for all papers EXCEPT PAPER -A & B will be counted for merit ranking. However, the Commission will have the discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all papers of the examination Aspirants can log on to UPSC’s official website (www.upsc.gov.in) to see the detailed notification.

Must Read Books For UPSC Prelims

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES EXAM PATTERN

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MYUPSC UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

The Civil Services Examination (CSE) is a nationwide competitive exam in India conducted by the UPSC for recruitment to various Civil Services, including IAS, IFS, IPS, and IRS among others. The examination is one of the toughest examinations in India with success rate of 0.1%-0.3% with more than 900,000 applicants. It is conducted in two phases – the Preliminary examination, consisting of two objective-type papers (General Studies and Aptitude Test), and The Mains examination, consisting of nine papers of conventional (essay) type followed by the Personality Test (Interview). The entire process from the notification of the Preliminary examination to declaration of the final results takes roughly one year. Aspirants must complete a three-stage process, with a final success rate of about 0.1% of the total applicants.

Stage I: Preliminary examination – This is qualifying test held in August every year. Notification for this is published in May. Results are published in mid-October.

Stage II: Mains examination – This is the main test, held in December every year. Results are usually published in the second week of March.

Stage III: Personality Test (Interview) – It is the final test and is held in April/May every year. Final results are usually announced in the month of May every year.

IAS/IPS/UPSC Civil Services Prelims Exam Pattern 2019-20

The UPSC prelims exam is meant to serve as a screening test only; the marks obtained in the Preliminary Examination by the candidates who are declared qualified for admission to the UPSC Mains Examination will not be counted for determining their final order of merit. The number of candidates to be admitted to the UPSC Mains Examination will be about twelve to thirteen times the total approximate number of vacancies to be filled in the year in the various Services and Posts.

The Preliminary Examination consists of two papers with objective questions or generally called as multiple choice questions.

Paper – I Paper – II (CSAT)
General Studies – Will be counted for qualifying to the Mains exam Aptitude test – Of qualifying nature, must score at least 33%. Marks not counted for going to mains.
200 Marks 200 Marks
2 Hours 2 Hours

Both the papers carry 200 marks each (total 400 marks), this exam is designed to serve as a screening test only. In the CSAT or Paper-II of Preliminary Exam, that is the General Studies-II, the candidate will have to score a minimum 33% of marks for qualifying in Mains (written).

The syllabus for Preliminary Exams Paper-I includes mainly the current affairs for which the candidates have to update themselves with the national and international happenings all over.

A candidate qualified for mains in a particular year will be eligible to appear for main exams of that particular year only.

The Preliminary Examination of Union Public Service Commission for Civil Services Examination is also popularly called CSAT or Civil Services Aptitude Test. The CSAT paper is actually the second paper of General Studies that was introduced in 2011. The CSAT was implemented to end the use of scaling system for varying subjects in the General Studies paper and was a matter of concern for many Civil Services councillors. With the introduction of the CSAT, the UPSC now intends to choose Civil Servants who not only have the knowledge but also the aptitude for reasoning and analytical brain. However there was much opposition to this move made by the UPSC and the government had to intervene, This year in 2015, the UPSC has made the CSAT of only qualifying nature and one needs to only get 33%. Only marks of Paper 1 will now be considered for ranking in the prelims, based on which candidates will appear for the Mains exam. A very important point to be noted is that there is Negative Marking in the prelims and 1/3rd of marks allotted for every question is reduced from your score if you get it wrong. So do not guess!

There are some changes made in the Civil Services Examination from 2013. It’s for the first time the Indian Forest Service (IFS) aspirants were combined with the Civil Services aspirants and are made to take Preliminary examination. Those Indian Forest Service aspirants who may eventually clear the Preliminary examination have to write separate exams for their Mains Indian Forest Service examination. This was done keeping in mind that the UPSC holds both the exams and most science students give both the exams. This will facilitate aspirants and save time.

Must Read Books For UPSC Prelims

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR UPSC CIVIL SERVICES EXAM

MYUPSC UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

Civil Services Examination (CSE): Am I eligible?

“Where do you see yourself when you grow up?”

This is the most cliché question a child must answer. And the most common answer given by children is engineer or doctor (given by the more ambitious ones).

Little do these young ones know about the wonderful job that IAS is? Otherwise, why would we have so many engineers qualifying the Civil Services Examination, Kanishka Kataria Rank 1, and CSE 2019 being the latest example. Ira Singhal, Athar Aamir khan, Srushti Jayant Deshmukh and Akshat Jain are some of the engineer-turned-IAS officers. Dr Shah Faesal and Dr Sheena Aggrawal are the doctor-turned-IAS officers.

Being a civil servant offers something that many top corporate jobs, businesses and even many reputed government jobs can’t.

It could be power, fame, prestige, self-actualization, perks, a grand accommodation, very own staff, an opportunity to serve the nation and comfortable life.

Many young aspirants start preparing for CSE just after completing their intermediate (12th standard).

But it is very vital for a candidate, especially for a fresher to know the right time to take the mother of all examinations.

This is not as simple as it sounds. Many deserving candidates fall short of their attempts because they come to know about the existence of Civil Services Examination (CSE) very late in their life when they are on the verge of completing the maximum age limit.

It takes time to understand the demand for this examination and everybody has his/her speed of assessing their strengths and weaknesses. Having no time or lesser number of attempts due to age issues creates additional pressure on the candidate. Yet the lucky ones can sail through.

Many officers who qualify CSE cannot get the service of their choice since they have crossed the age limit, they can’t give it another shot.

If you are OBC/SC/ST /Physically Handicapped (PH), you should know that you are given extra attempts and extended age limit as compared to the general category students. You can feel thankful about it and start preparing for the exam more rigorously.

If you are a GENERAL category student, you should know that you have limited attempts as compared to others and try cracking the examination in one go.

The point is that it is crucial to know the various eligibility criteria to prepare yourself the best possible way and start at the right time in advance.

Knowing all the UPSC eligibility criteria thoroughly, in fact, makes you smarter and gives you an edge over others who are unaware( believe it or not) because then you can plan your UPSC journey( the journey of a lifetime) in a manner best suitable for you.

In the light of that, below are the various UPSC eligibility criteria you must know to give your best shot.

UPSC EXAM ELIGIBILITY

 

NATIONALITY

For Indian administrative service, Indian Foreign Service, & Indian Police Service

  • A candidate must be a citizen of India.

For other services

  • A candidate must be a citizen of India/ Nepal/Bhutan.
  • A Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India. or
  • A person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.

If you are from Nepal, Bhutan, Tibet or other above-mentioned countries ( having the intention of permanently settling in India), knowing only the fact that you are eligible for such coveted posts will boost your confidence and surely, you would not want to miss this chance.

There are many youngsters from such countries living in India yet unaware of this golden opportunity in their way. 

By studying the job profiles, you are eligible for, you can choose one dream job that drives you crazy and it will motivate you in your hard times throughout the UPSC journey.

A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination but the offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him/her by the Government of India.

AGE LIMITS

You should be at least 21 year of age to sit in the Civil Services Examination. Further, you can give your valid number of attempts till you attain the age of 32 years. (Relaxations described below excluded).

CATEGORY AGE RELAXATIONS
SC/ST Five years
OBC Three years
Defence Services Personnel Three years
Ex-servicemen Five years
Blindness and low vision, deaf and hard of hearing, loco motor disability including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attack victims and muscular dystrophy, autism, intellectual disability, specific learning disability, mental illness and multiple disabilities including deaf blindness. Ten years
If you are domiciled in State of Jammu and Kashmir Five years

 

MINIMUM EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION

The candidate must hold a degree, or possess an equivalent qualification to fulfil the eligibility criteria for IAS. Your degree should be recognized either by an act of parliament or state legislature or University Grants Commission. With the intention of bringing socio-economic balance in our society, government encourages women to apply for CSE in large numbers.

Candidates who have appeared or intend to appear for the qualifying examination and are awaiting results are also eligible to appear for the Preliminary Examination.

Candidates who have passed the final year of MBBS or any Medical Examination but are yet to complete the internship can also appear for the Main Examination.

The UPSC may in exceptional cases treat a candidate without the foregoing requisite qualification as an eligible candidate if he / she have passed an examination conducted by other institutions, the standard of which justifies his / her admission in the opinion of the Commission.

Candidates with professional and technical qualifications recognized by the Government as equivalent to professional and technical degrees can also appear for Civil Services Examination.

NUMBER OF ATTEMPTS

Every candidate appearing at the examination, who is otherwise eligible, shall be permitted six attempts at the examination.
Age Educational Qualification No. of Attempts
General 21-32 Yrs Graduate (any stream) Six
OBC 21-35 Years Graduate (any stream) Nine
SC/ST 21-37 Years Graduate (any stream) Any number of attempts till the age limit

PHYSICALLY HANDICAPPED (PH) AGE CRITERIA & NUMBER OF ATTEMPTS

CATEGORY AGE LIMIT (MIN. AGE- MAX. AGE) NUMBER OF ATTEMPTS
General 21-42 years Nine
OBC 21-42 years Nine
SC/ST 21-47 years Any number of attempts till the age limit

What will count as an attempt at the Civil Services Examination?

An attempt at a Preliminary Examination shall be deemed to be an attempt at the Civil Services Examination If:

Appearance of the candidate at the examination will count as an attempt.

If a candidate just applies for UPSC CSE but don’t appear, that won’t be counted as an attempt by UPSC.

If a candidate actually appears in any one paper in the Preliminary Examination, he/she shall be deemed to have made an attempt at the Examination.

RESTRICTIONS ON APPLYING FOR EXAMINATION

  • A candidate who is appointed to the Indian Administrative Service or the Indian Foreign Service on the results of an earlier examination and continues to be a member of that service will not be eligible to compete at this examination. In case such a candidate is appointed to the IAS/IFS after the Preliminary Examination of Civil Services Examination, 2019 is over and he/she continues to be a member of that service, he/she shall not be eligible to appear in the Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2019 notwithstanding his/her having qualified in the Preliminary Examination, 2019. 
  • Also provided that if such a candidate is appointed to IAS/IFS after the commencement of the Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2019 but before the result thereof and continues to be a member of that service, he/she shall not be considered for appointment to any service/post on the basis of the result of this examination viz. Civil Services Examination, 2019.
  • A candidate who is appointed to the Indian Police Service on the results of an earlier examination and continues to be a member of that service will not be eligible to opt for the Indian Police Service in Civil Services Examination, 2019.

PHYSICAL STANDARDS

Candidates must be physically fit for admission to Civil Services Examination, 2019. Guidelines are given in Appendix-III of rules of examination.

These were some of the criteria which will surely help you in a manner that will guide before you start your UPSC journey.

(Batch-2)MOCK TEST SERIES FOR UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2020

MYUPSC UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

TEST SERIES AVAILABLE ONLY IN ENGLISH

2018 Prelims- 33+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme 

2019 Prelims- 40+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme

There are Full Length 60 Very High Quality Tests that match very UPSC standard (acknowledged by hundreds of toppers every year).

  1. These 60 Tests are structured in such a way as to help you start from scratch and gradually gain advanced knowledge through self study using standard textbooks and multiple revisions.
  2. First 10 Tests are based on all Important NCERT Textbooks (New NCERTs).
  3. There will be full length REVISION TEST after every 5 Tests. This helps in timetaly revision of every important topic you have read, including current affairs, before you move on to new topics.
  4. Every Test will cover Current Affairs comprehensively from May 1, 2019. This helps you read and revise current affairs from the beginning.
  5. All tests will cover previous year question papers of UPSC civil services. NDA, CDS, IES, CAPF exams. This feature helps you understand the expectations of UPSC and prepare accordingly.
  6. Every test will cover 10 percent of previous test’s syllabus. This is to let you not forget what you have read for first test and thereafter. Helps you revise previous tests before the next test.
  7. There will be section-wise analysis of your performance in each test. This helps you know where you need to put extra efforts to prepare well for your weakest areas.
  8. Unlimited access to previous tests in the form of PDFs.

This test series will seriously prepare you to tackle actual exam with full confidence.

MYUPSC – UPSC CSP (2020) Test series will strategically provide its students with an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically designed revision plans covering the entire static and current portions (multiple times). With the help of guidance, we aim to make sure that our students are exam ready, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

  1. Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs
  2. Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
  3. Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
  4. Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
  5. All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

Performance Analysis of aspirants, Section wise analysis, Difficulty Analysis, All India Rank, comparison with toppers, Integrated Score Card, Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction

UPSC (CSE Prelims) IAS Test Series 2020 Schedule Batch – 2

IAS Test Series 2020   Date
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 11 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 24 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 38 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 412 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 516 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 620  December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 724 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 828 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 92 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 106 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1110 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1214 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1318 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1422 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1527 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1630 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 172 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 186 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1910 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2014 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2118 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2222 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2326 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 242 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 256 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2610 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2714 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2818 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2922 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 3026 March 2020
Next Schedule to be updated soon………………….

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MYUPSC! UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Test 6 with solution

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MYUPSC UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

MYUPSC – UPSC CSP (2020) Test series will strategically provide its students with an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically designed revision plans covering the entire static and current portions (multiple times). With the help of guidance, we aim to make sure that our students are exam ready, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

  1. Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs
  2. Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
  3. Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
  4. Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
  5. All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

Performance Analysis of aspirants, Section wise analysis, Difficulty Analysis, All India Rank, comparison with toppers, Integrated Score Card, Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction

Click Here To Download

MYUPSC! UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Test 5 with solution

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MYUPSC UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

MYUPSC – UPSC CSP (2020) Test series will strategically provide its students with an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically designed revision plans covering the entire static and current portions (multiple times). With the help of guidance, we aim to make sure that our students are exam ready, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

  1. Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs
  2. Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
  3. Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
  4. Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
  5. All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

Performance Analysis of aspirants, Section wise analysis, Difficulty Analysis, All India Rank, comparison with toppers, Integrated Score Card, Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction

Click Here To Download

Must Read Books For UPSC Prelims

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

MYUPSC! UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Test 4 with solution

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MYUPSC UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

MYUPSC – UPSC CSP (2020) Test series will strategically provide its students with an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically designed revision plans covering the entire static and current portions (multiple times). With the help of guidance, we aim to make sure that our students are exam ready, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs

Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests

Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers

Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions

All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

Performance Analysis of aspirants, Section wise analysis, Difficulty Analysis, All India Rank, comparison with toppers, Integrated Score Card, Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction

Click Here To Download

Must Read Books For UPSC Prelims;

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

MYUPSC UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Test 3 with solution

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MYUPSC UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 Test Series

MYUPSC – UPSC CSP (2020) Test series will strategically provide its students with an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically designed revision plans covering the entire static and current portions (multiple times). With the help of guidance, we aim to make sure that our students are exam ready, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

  1. Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs
  2. Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
  3. Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
  4. Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
  5. All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

Performance Analysis of aspirants, Section wise analysis, Difficulty Analysis, All India Rank, comparison with toppers, Integrated Score Card, Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction

CLICK HERE TO DOWNLOAD

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

Must Read Books For UPSC Prelims

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

MYUPSC! UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2 with solution

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All PDF which are provided on myupsc.com are for Education purposes only. Please utilize them for building your knowledge and don’t make them Commercial. We request you to respect our Hard Work. Best wishes!!

Click to Download

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Must Read Books For UPSC Prelims

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

Vajiram and Ravi Recitals October 2019 [Q&A] Compilations PDF

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All PDF which are provided on myupsc.com are for Education purposes only. Please utilize them for building your knowledge and don’t make them Commercial. We request you to respect our Hard Work. Best wishes!!

Vajiram and Ravi Recitals October 2019 [Current Affairs Question & Answer] Compilations PDF

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Must Read Books For UPSC Prelims

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

GS Score Prelims 2020 Test 9 with Solutions

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

GS Score Prelims 2020 Test 9 with Solutions PDF [Prelims 2020 Test Series]

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UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Test Series plays most important role in clearing any competitive exam. Like other competitive exams UPSC also need more Hard Work and dedication and in fact 200% more efforts are needed for clearing this exam.

How much you study doesn’t matter here, what matters is how much practice that you did before the exams and test series fulfill their need for this purpose. To say simply, TEST SERIES are the Key to Success and the more tests you practice, more chances of clearing the exam.

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ISRO Successfully Launches Earth Imaging Satellite Cartosat-3 and 13 Other Nano Satellites

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PSLV-C47 / Cartosat-3 Mission

India’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, PSLV-C47 will launch Cartosat-3 and 13 commercial nanosatellites into Sun Synchronous orbit from Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota. The space agency has planned for the launch of CARTOSAT-3 satellite, ninth in the series, from the second launch pad at spaceport of Sriharikota, about 120 kms from here on November 27 at 09.28 am.

PSLV-C47 is the 21st flight of PSLV in ‘XL’ configuration (with 6 solid strap-on motors). This will be the 74th launch vehicle mission from SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota.

Cartosat-3 satellite is a third generation agile advanced satellite having high resolution imaging capability.  The satellite will be placed in an orbit of 509 km at an inclination of 97.5 degree.

PSLV-C47 will also carry 13 commercial nanosatellites from United States of America as part of commercial arrangement with New Space India Limited (NSIL), Department of Space.

About ISRO

India decided to go to space when Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR) was set up by the Government of India in 1962. With the visionary Dr Vikram Sarabhai at its helm, INCOSPAR set up the Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS) in Thiruvananthapuram for upper atmospheric research.

Indian Space Research Organisation, formed in 1969, superseded the erstwhile INCOSPAR. Vikram Sarabhai, having identified the role and importance of space technology in a Nation’s development, provided ISRO the necessary direction to function as an agent of development. ISRO then embarked on its mission to provide the Nation space based services and to develop the technologies to achieve the same independently.

Throughout the years, ISRO has upheld its mission of bringing space to the service of the common man, to the service of the Nation. In the process, it has become one of the six largest space agencies in the world. ISRO maintains one of the largest fleet of communication satellites (INSAT) and remote sensing (IRS) satellites, that cater to the ever growing demand for fast and reliable communication and earth observation respectively. ISRO develops and delivers application specific satellite products and tools to the Nation: broadcasts, communications, weather forecasts, disaster management tools, Geographic Information Systems, cartography, navigation, telemedicine, dedicated distance education satellites being some of them.

To achieve complete self reliance in terms of these applications, it was essential to develop cost efficient and reliable launch systems, which took shape in the form of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV). The famed PSLV went on to become a favoured carrier for satellites of various countries due to its reliability and cost efficiency, promoting unprecedented international collaboration. The Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) was developed keeping in mind the heavier and more demanding geosynchronous communication satellites.

Apart from technological capability, ISRO has also contributed to science and science education in the country. Various dedicated research centres and autonomous institutions for remote sensing, astronomy and astrophysics, atmospheric sciences and space sciences in general function under the aegis of Department of Space. ISRO’s own Lunar and interplanetary missions along with other scientific projects encourage and promote science education, apart from providing valuable data to the scientific community which in turn enriches science.

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 8

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Practice Mock Test – 8

1. Which of the following banks has been listed as a Domestic Systemically Important Banks (DSIBs) by the Reserve bank of India?

(a) Punjab National Bank

(b) Bank of Baroda

(c) HDFC Bank

(d) IndusInd Bank

2. The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution had launched negotiable warehousing receipts (NWR) in electronic format.

Consider the following in this regard:

1. The depositors are bailee against commodities deposited in warehouses for which documents are issued by warehouses.

2. NWRs can be traded, sold, swapped and used as collateral to support borrowing or loans from banks.

3. It is an important step towards doubling farmers’ income by 2022.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

3. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding The National Agricultural Higher Education Project?

1. The project has been formulated by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare in partnership with the World Bank.

2. Project Management and Learning is an important component of the project.

3. The project has been launched with 50:50 cost sharing basis with the World Bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

4. Bharat 22 is the second ETF (Exchange Traded Fund launched by the Government of India. Consider the following in this regard:

1. ETF’s are more liquid than mutual funds as they can be sold quickly on stock exchanges.

2. Bharat 22 comprises of 22 stocks and is managed by SBI Blue-chip Fund.

3. It gives highest sector wise weightage to energy.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

5. Which of the following are the features of the Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP)?

1. Uniform license

2. An open acreage policy

3. Profit sharing model

4. Marketing and pricing freedom

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) Only 1, 2 and 4

(c) Only 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

6. Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY):

1. It is a pension scheme launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

2. It is operated by Life Insurance Company in collaboration with the National Insurance Company (NIC).

3. The scheme also offers loan up to 75% of the purchase price after 3 policy years.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

7. Consider the following statements regarding the Jute-ICARE project:

1. It has been launched by the Ministry of Textiles to double the income of jute farmers.

2. A microbial consortium called SONA has been developed by the National Jute Board under Jute-ICARE project.

3. Retting is a process in which jute is placed in liquid so as to promote tightening of the fibres in the woody tissue.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

8. Administered Price Mechanism (APM) for petrol and diesel was dismantled by the government in 2017. Consider the following statements:

1. In dynamic fuel pricing, the oil retailers fortnightly revise the retail selling prices of petrol and diesel.

2. In India, the dynamic fuel pricing has been introduced for fixing the petrol prices only.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding the Innovate in India (i3) project?

1. I3 is a flagship program of the Government of India under the National Biopharma Mission.

2. It has been launched by the Union Ministry of Science & Technology in collaboration with World Bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. Consider the following statements regarding the Hill Area Development Programme (HADP):

1. The scheme aims to ensure equitable development of every area, tribe and every section in the North Eastern Region.

2. It has been launched by The Ministry for Development of North Eastern Region.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

11. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the National Policy on Marine Fisheries?

1. The policy is in line with the FAO’s Code of Conduct for Responsible Fisheries on conservation, development and management of fisheries.

2. The Policy has proposed chip-based smart registration cards for fishermen and their fishing vessels.

3. It focuses on Species-specific and area specific management plans with spatial and temporal measures for sustainable utilization of resources.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. With respect to information utilities

(IU), consider the following:

1. It maintains information of all financial contracts in a demat format.

2. National E-Governance Services Limited (NeSL) is India’s first Information Utility.

Which of the above statements is /are Incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Which of the following committees has recommended an overhaul of corporate governance norms for listed firms?

(a) Bimal Julka Committee

(b) Vasudev Committee

(c) Tarapore Committee

(d) Uday Kotak Committee

14. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Peer-to Peer lending (P2P)?

1. Peer-to Peer lending allows a business to sell its invoices at a discount to a pool of individual or institutional investors for cash.

2. P2P platforms are now treated as non banking financial companies (NBFCs) and thus regulated by Securities and Exchange Board of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15. With reference to ‘Non Banking Financial Company (NBFC), consider the following statements:

1. NBFC is engaged in loans and advances, industrial activity, the sale, purchase or construction of immovable property.

2. NBFC is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 of India.

3. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched the Ombudsman Scheme for Non Banking Financial Companies (NBFC).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

16. Various activities to promote best practices and enhance agriculture income being undertaken under Krishi Kalyan Abhiyan are

1. Distribution of Soil Health Cards to all farmers

2. Artificial insemination saturation

3. Demonstration programmes on Micro-irrigation

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

17. ‘Project Sashakt ‘has been launched is

(a) Personality development programme through social (or community) service

(b) Comprehensive medical care facilities to Central Government employees and their family members.

(c) One-time cash incentive to pregnant women for institutional/home births through skilled assistance.

(d) A scheme that aims to strengthen the credit capacity, credit culture and credit portfolio of public sector banks.

18. India’s first ‘freight village’ will be developed by

(a) The Inland Waterways Authority of India

(b) The National Highways Authority of India

(c) The State government of Gujarat

(d) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural

Development

19. With reference to the Municipal Bonds in India, which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

1. The market for municipal bonds in India is almost non-existent unlike US and many developing countries.

2. Thiruvananthapuram Municipal Corporation was the first urban local body in India to issue tax-free municipal bonds.

3. RBI has mandated guarantee from the State Government or Central Government for issuing such bond.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 (a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

20. With reference to special economic zone (SEZ) in India, consider the following statements:

1. India’s SEZ Policy was implemented from 1991.

2. The Baba Kalyani led committee was constituted to study the existing SEZ policy of India.

3. There is absence of clear exit mechanism for the SEZ developers in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Q. 1 (c)

Q. 2 (b)

Q. 3 (c)

Q. 4 (a)

Q. 5 (b)

Q. 6 (a)

Q. 7 (a)

Q. 8 (d)

Q. 9 (c)

Q. 10 (c)

Q. 11 (d)

Q. 12 (d)

Q. 13 (d)

Q. 14 (d)

Q. 15 (b)

Q. 16 (d)

Q. 17 (d)

Q. 18 (a)

Q. 19 (c)

Q. 20 (c)

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 7

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Practice Mock Test – 7

Q1. Consider the following about ‘RAILMADAD’:

1. It is a mobile App to register complaints by passengers through mobile phone/web.

2. It relays real time feedback to passengers on the status of redressal of their complaints which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. Consider the following about ‘Renewal Energy Dialogue’:

1. This dialogue is organised by Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW).

2. It offers a platform for engaged deliberations on the role of different stakeholders in advancing renewable energy deployment, balancing both domestic priorities and international mitigation ambitions and commitments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q3. Consider the following about ‘Mission Solar Charkha’:

1. It is an initiative of The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).

2. Its main objective is to leverage low-cost, innovative technologies and processes for sustenance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q4. In which of the following locations Strategic Oil Reserves have not been established?

a) Visakhapatnam

b) Mangalore

c) Padur

d) Ambala

Q5. Which of the following state government has launched ‘Surya Shakti Kisan Scheme’?

a) Uttar Pradesh

b) Gujarat

c) Madhya Pradesh

d) Rajasthan

Q6. Consider the following statements about ‘UDYAM SANGAM’:

1. It is organised by The Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

2. The purpose of the Conclave is to encourage dialogue and partnership among various stakeholders of the MSME ecosystem and for promoting innovation and knowledge sharing on MSME related issues.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q7. Consider the following statements about ‘Unorganised Worker Identification Number’:

1. It is an initiative of The Ministry of

Corporate Affairs under Unorganized Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008

2. It will improve unorganised workers’ access to all social security schemes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q8. Consider the following about ‘Water Productivity Mapping of Major Indian Crops Report’:

1. The report is released by Niti Aayog.

2. The report presents for the first time, maps on the water productivity of ten major Indian crops across cultivating districts and states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q9. Consider the following about ‘Zero Budget Natural Farming’:

1. ‘Zero Budgets’ farming promises to end a reliance on loans and drastically cut production costs, ending the debt cycle for desperate farmers.

2. Under this initiative there is no use of chemicals.

3. The movement first evolved in Karnataka.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 3 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 only

d) All of the above

Q10. With reference to ‘Financial stability report’, consider the following statements:

1. It is released by the Ministry of Finance.

2. It reflects the overall assessment of the stability of India’s financial system and its resilience to risks emanating from global and domestic factors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q11. With reference to ‘Prompt Corrective

Action (PCA) Framework’, consider the following statements:

1. It is a set of guidelines by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to private companies for improving their financial condition.

2. It is a framework for improving the financial condition of the scheduled commercial banks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q12. What is/are possible factor for depreciation of rupees?

a) Rise in international crude oil prices.

b) Tightening of U.S. monetary policy

c) Both a and b

d) None of the above

Q13. With reference to ‘Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016’, consider the following statements:

1. It deals primarily with insolvency issues in the banking sector.

2. Timeline for Insolvency resolution process is 2 years under IBC, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q14. With reference to ‘Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)’, consider the following statements:

1. It is a subsidiary of Life Insurance Corporation.

2. It provides insurance to deposits up to 10 lakhs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q15. ‘Compact2025’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to

a) It is an initiative for ending hunger and under nutrition by 2025.

b) It is an initiative for increasing forest cover up to 30 percent all over the world by 2025.

c) It is an initiative for the elimination of gender inequality by 2025.

d) It is an initiative for increasing primary health coverage by 2025.

Q16. With reference to ‘Consumer Confidence Survey’, consider the following statements:

1. It is released by the Central Statistics Office (CSO)

2. This Survey is being used by the Reserve Bank as one of the important inputs for monetary Policy formulation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q17.With reference to ‘Liberalized Remittance Scheme (LRS)’, consider the following statements:

1. It was launched by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

2. Regulations for the scheme are provided under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q18) ‘MADAD (Mobile Application for Desired Assistance During travel)’, recently in the news is related to

a) Monitoring the Non-performing assets

(NPA) of banks

b) Monitoring dropout rate in primary schools

c) Promotion of girl education in India.

d) Expedite and streamline passenger grievance redressal

Q19. With reference to ‘Monetary Policy

Committee’, consider the following statements:

1. The committee was created in 2016 to bring transparency and accountability in fixing India’s Fiscal Policy.

2. All members of the committee are nominated by the Government of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q20. Consider the following Statements about Advance Pricing Agreement:

1. It is an agreement between the taxpayer and the tax authority regarding transfer pricing in the future.

2. The agreement will be binding on both the taxpayer and the tax authorities.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q21. Which of the following sequence is correct about share capital in Regional Rural Banks?

a) Union Government>Sponsor Bank>State Government

b) Sponsor Bank>State Government>Union Government

c) Union Government>State Government>Sponsor Bank

d) State Government>Sponsor Bank>Union Government

Answer

Q1.  C

Q2.  C

Q3.  B

Q4.  D

Q5.  B

Q6.  B

Q7.  B

Q8.  B

Q9.  D

Q10.  B

Q11.  B

Q12.  C

Q13.  D

Q14.  D

Q15.  A

Q16.  B

Q17.  D

Q18).  D

Q19.  D

Q20.  C

Q21.  A

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UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 6

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Practice Mock Test – 6

Q1. Which of the following is the best description of the term ‘Asian Premium’ often seen in news?

a) It is the money which developed countries agreed to give to the poor countries of Asia to avoid climate change.

b) Extra charges being collected by OPEC countries from Asian countries when selling oil in comparison to Western countries.

c) The total amount of investments Asian

Countries received from World Bank in the last decade.

d) The extra amount of FDI Asian Countries received in last few years due to their population and lack of development.

Q2. Consider the following about ‘Compact 2025’:

1. It is an initiative for ending hunger and under nutrition by 2025.

2. It has been started by Food Corporation of India (FCI).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q3. ‘Consumer Confidence Survey’ often seen in the news is released by:

a) NITI Aayog

b) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

c) The Reserve Bank of India

d) Ministry of Consumer Affairs

Q4 Consider the following about ‘Directorate of Revenue Intelligence’:

1. It is the apex anti-money laundering agency of India.

2. It works under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs, Ministry of Finance, and Government of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q5. Consider the following about ‘Export

Promotion Council for Handicrafts’:

1. It is a non-profit organisation established under the Companies Act in the year 1986- 87.

2. It is an apex body of handicrafts exporters for promotion of exports of Handicrafts from country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q6. ‘Generalised System of Preferences’, often seen in the news is:

a) A preferential tariff system extended by developed countries to developing countries.

b) Non-discriminatory trade policy commitment offered by one country to another on a reciprocal basis.

c) A preferential tariff system extended by India to African countries.

d) A generalized system of mapping consumer preferences

Q7. Consider the following about ‘Global Real Estate Transparency Index’:

1. The survey is released by United Nations Human Settlement Programme.

2. In the latest edition (2018) of index, India has moved up one place due to improvement in market fundamentals, policy reforms, and liberalisation of FDI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q8. Which of the following best describes ‘Liberalised Remittance Scheme’ of RBI?

a) All resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2, 50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.

b) All non-resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2, 50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.

c) All resident individuals, excluding minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2, 50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.

d) All foreigners are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2, 50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.

Q9. Which of the following is the best description of the term ‘Mathew Effect’ sometimes seen in news?

a) A social phenomenon wherein people who already possess high economic or social status continue to do so over time

b) A social phenomenon wherein people who possess high economic or social status suddenly lose that status.

c) A social phenomenon wherein people who possess low economic or social status improve their status over time

d) Convergence of income between the poor and the rich.

Q10. Which of the following best describes ‘No-Fly List’?

a) It is a list prepared by the government, of people who are prohibited to travel through airways.

b) It is a list prepared by the government, of aircrafts which are prohibited from flying.

c) It is a list prepared by the government, of zones where private aircrafts are prohibited from entering.

d) It is a list prepared by the government of types of drones which are prohibited from flying near government premises.

Answer

Q1.  B

Q2.  A

Q3.  C

Q4.  B

Q5.  C

Q6.  A

Q7.  B

Q8.  A

Q9.  A

Q 10.  A

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UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

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MYUPSC! INSIGHTS DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS + PIB: 23 NOVEMBER 2019

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Insights Daily Current Affairs + PIB: 23 November 2019

Insights Revision through MCQs – 23 November 2019

Insights Current Affairs Quiz- 23 November 2019

Insights Static Quiz – 23 November 2019

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

MYUPSC! INSIGHTS DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS + PIB: 22 NOVEMBER 2019

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Insights Daily Current Affairs + PIB: 22 November 2019

Insights Revision through MCQs – 22 November 2019

Insights Current Affairs Quiz- 22 November 2019

Insights Static Quiz – 22 November 2019.

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

INSIGHTS DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS + PIB: 21 NOVEMBER 2019

JOIN OUR TELEGRAM CHANNEL FOR REGULAR UPDATES

Insights Daily Current Affairs + PIB: 21 November 2019

Insights Revision through MCQs – 21 November 2019

Insights Current Affairs Quiz- 21 November 2019

Insights Static Quiz – 21 November 2019

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

Current Affairs Half Yearly July-December for Civil Services Examination 2020

Current Affairs Half Yearly Study Notes for UPSC IAS & State PSC Preliminary Examination 2020. We have covered current affairs from July – December 2019 for competitive exams only.

Topic Covered: Current Affairs trending topics in detail from the following subjects.

1. Geography of India and World

2. History of India and World

3. Polity and Governance

4. Science and Technology

5. Economy of India

6. Art and Culture

7. Environment and Ecology

This is must read book for Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2020

Click Here To Download

Content

  1. Article 142, Invoked by Supreme Court
  2. Contributions of Homi J. Bhabha
  3. Cyclone Bulbul
  4. Climate change is already damaging health of children, says Lancet report
  5. Global Population Summit in Nairobi
  6. Emperor Penguins would be extinct if climate goals are not met
  7. How successful is cloud seeding technology?
  8. Merging Assam Rifles with ITBP
  9. Kalapani, a small area on the India map that bothers Nepal
  10. Suranga Bawadi on World Monument Watch list
  11. Wifi Access Network Interface (WANI)
  12. OECD tax proposal (BEPS 2.0)
  13. Falling Index of Industrial Production
  14. National grid of ports
  15. Code of Conduct for MPs and MLAs
  16. National Register of Citizens (NRC)
  17. EPFO to restore commutation of pension
  18. Oxytocin Ban
  19. SEBI’s norms for FPIs
  20. Sabka Vishwas Scheme
  21. Money Laundering in India
  22. Press Council of India
  23. WorldSkills Kazan
  24. ‘Angikaar campaign’
  25. child well-being index
  26. Desertification
  27. 18 endangered sharks and rays afforded protection
  28. Gravitational Lensing
  29. Great Barrier Reef
  30. Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP)
  31. RBI annual report
  32. Food fortification
  33. Security cover of VIPs
  34. Water management practices dismal in states: Niti Aayog
  35. WorldSkills Kazan
  36. Government releases Rs 47,436 crore funds for afforestation
  37. Antibiotic resistance
  38. 14th Conference of Parties (COP14) to the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) and report on Soil Organic Carbon (SOC)
  39. Appointment of the Supreme Court judges
  40. Eastern Economic Forum
  41. Code of Conduct for MPs and MLAs
  42. National Register of Citizens (NRC)
  43. EPFO to restore commutation of pension
  44. Oxytocin Ban
  45. SEBI’s norms for FPIs
  46. Sabka Vishwas Scheme
  47. Money Laundering in India
  48. Press Council of India
  49. WorldSkills Kazan
  50. ‘Angikaar campaign’
  51. child well-being index
  52. Desertification
  53. 18 endangered sharks and rays afforded protection
  54. Gravitational Lensing
  55. Great Barrier Reef
  56. Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP)
  57. RBI annual report
  58. Food fortification
  59. Security cover of VIPs
  60. Water management practices dismal in states: Niti Aayog
  61. WorldSkills Kazan
  62. Government releases Rs 47,436 crore fund for afforestation
  63. Antibiotic resistance
  64. Five states to get new Governors
  65. Hurricane Dorian
  66. Project Miniature Sun
  67. Jurisdiction of High Court
  68. Artificial Intelligence Based Solutions to Combat TB
  69. Automatic Exchange of Information
  70. ‘Build for Digital India’ programme
  71. Ethanol blending
  72. Global Liveability Index 2019
  73. Dalits welfare
  74. Mudra loan
  75. Rising Electronics Exports as Bright Spot amid Economic Slowdown
  76. Samudrayaan Project
  77. Poshan Abhiyaan
  78. Inner Line Permit
  79. K2-18b — a potentially ‘habitable’ planet
  80. National Animal Disease Control Programme
  81. Anaemia
  82. Participatory Notes
  83. National Pension Scheme for Traders and Self Employed Persons
  84. September 21 Revolution
  85. World Ozone Day
  86. Hog technology in Railways
  87. India’s Red Corridor
  88. What Is the Rome Statute?
  89. India joins global research hub on antimicrobial resistance
  90. NGOs foreign contribution financing
  91. Gharial conservation in India
  92. International migrants and Indian diaspora
  93. Jan Soochna Portal
  94. Marginal Cost of Funds-based Lending Rate (MCLR)
  95. Global spread of measles infection
  96. MGNREGA Wages Linked with Inflation
  97. Particulate matter emissions trading
  98. Public Safety Act
  99. Sant Ravidas–the mystic Guru of Bhakti movement
  100. Critically Endangered Indian Vulture (Gyps indicus)
  101. Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC)
  102. Climate and Clean Air Coalition
  103. Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya
  104. Zonal Councils
  105. Digital Census
  106. KEELADI – An Urban Settlement of Sangam Age
  107. All India Survey on Higher Education
  108. Caribbean Community and Common Market (CARICOM)
  109. Coastal Regulation Zone
  110. Financial Action Task Force on Money Laundering
  111. Golden Triangle and Golden Crescent
  112. Shifting of tigers
  113. Sagittarius A
  114. Endosulfan
  115. Analgesic
  116. Ganga data collector app
  117. New species of frog discovered in Arunachal
  118. Soay sheep
  119. MOSAIC Mission
  120. Global Goalkeeper Award 2019
  121. World Digital competitiveness ranking 2019
  122. Pollinator Sanctuary: A new sustainable solution model from Canada
  123. Quad Grouping
  124. Prescription for plant-based diet overlooks vitamin B12 deficiency
  125. Double burden of malnutrition
  126. UMMID initiative
  127. The ancient port town of Mamallapuram
  128. Delayed Withdrawal of Monsoon
  129. China’s Continuing Rare Earth Dominance
  130. Dip in growth of core sectors
  131. EC Powers to Reduce/remove Disqualification of MLAs and MPs under RPA
  132. India is now Open Defecation Free
  133. New IPCC report warns of dire threat to ocean
  134. Press Freedom in India
  135. Madhya Pradesh set to get its seventh tiger reserve – Ratapani Tiger Reserve
  136. School Education Quality Index
  137. World Hindu Economic Forum
  138. What is Goldschmidtite?
  139. A peep into the lives of Galo Tribe of Arunachal Pradesh
  140. Bathukamma Festival
  141. INS Nilgiri
  142. Elephant Endotheliotropic herpes virus
  143. National Nutrition Survey
  144. Why Onion prices often shoots up in India?
  145. Mass extinctions
  146. Advanced air pollution warning system
  147. Chalukyas
  148. Electoral Bond Scheme
  149. Guru Nanak Dev
  150. E-Waste Clinic in Madhya Pradesh
  151. Prakash portal
  152. E-Waste Clinic in Madhya Pradesh
  153. Rajasthan has announced the creation of a Pneumoconiosis Fund
  154. Reinventing Border Management: Drone Threat in Border Areas
  155. Semi-presidential system
  156. Strategic Disinvestment
  157. Water management
  158. Interconnect Usage Charge (IUC)
  159. Ramachandran Plot
  160. C40 Cities
  161. 51 Pegasi b
  162. Extinction Rebellion
  163. Military exercises
  164. Kamini Roy
  165. Global Hunger Index
  166. Jayaprakash Narayan
  167. Chenani-Nashri tunnel
  168. Ayushman Bharat scheme empowering several Indians
  169. Chinese President’s Mamallapuram Visit (informal) to India
  170. Food Safety Mitra (FSM) scheme
  171. Geo-engineering
  172. Implications of Nepal-China road connectivity deal
  173. Indus Waters Treaty
  174. Livestock census
  175. National Blindness and Visual Impairment Survey
  176. One Nation One FASTag: Govt’s RFID solution for digital payment of highway toll
  177. Blue Flag Challenge
  178. Chandipura Virus
  179. International Court of Justice (ICJ)
  180. Prevention of tuberculosis
  181. Kaziranga National Park
  182. Mahila Samridhi Yojana
  183. State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World 2019 report
  184. Paramarsh
  185. Polavaram Irrigation Project
  186. Ramanujan Machine
  187. Orchids of India: A Pictorial Guide
  188. Tigers under high stress
  189. Delay in establishment of Human Rights Court
  190. CAG Report on Preparedness for Implementation of Sustainable Development Goals
  191. 5G Debate
  192. Article 35 A
  193. ‘PM Awas Yojana and PRAGATI Platform’
  194. Bio fuel
  195. e-cigarettes
  196. Essential medicines
  197. Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System (ETPBS)
  198. Facial recognition
  199. ‘Genome Sequencing’
  200. Global Innovation Index (GII) 2019
  201. India-South Korea
  202. ‘Strength of Supreme Court Judges’
  203. LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory)
  204. ‘Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (Amendment) Bill, 2019’
  205. Kala azar
  206. Tesla-style giga factories
  207. Tiger census
  208. Zero budget natural farming (ZBNF)
  209. Jai Bhim Mukhyamantri Pratibha Vikas Yojana
  210. UN Convention on International Settlement Agreements resulting
  211. Economic Census
  212. Disqualification under Anti-Defection Law
  213. Khanij Bidesh India Ltd
  214. Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR)
  215. ASAT missile
  216. Atal Community Innovation Centre (ACIC) Program
  217. BrahMos cruise missiles
  218. Corporate Social Responsibility
  219. ‘Deforestation in the Amazon rainforest’
  220. Eugenics
  221. ‘Female foeticide’
  222. Global Coalition of the Willing on Pollinators
  223. Indus Valley inscriptions
  224. Jallianwala Bagh National Memorial (Amendment) Bill, 2019
  225. ‘Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill 2019’
  226. ‘One Nation One Ration Card Scheme’
  227. Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (Amendment) Bill, 2019
  228. ‘Soil health card’
  229. Tiger census
  230. Triple talaq
  231. Diabetes
  232. Relevance of Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
  233. The State of the World’s Children 2019
  234. BHIM 2.0
  235. Carcinogen Aflatoxin detected in FSSAI milk survey samples
  236. Inter-Parliamentary Union
  237. Jal Jeevan Mission
  238. Maharatna, Navratna and Miniratna CPSEs
  239. Reviving exports
  240. Storm quake
  241. TechSagar
  242. Pegasus Spyware
  243. Annual fishing ban to protect Olive Ridleys in Gahirmatha
  244. Parliamentary reforms
  245. Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Program (GSLEP)
  246. The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB)
  247. Kerala on alert as Maha intensifies into super cyclone off its coast
  248. Stages of Economic Integration
  249. Targeted PMKVY and Skills Framework
  250. Top five largest Ramsar sites in India
  251. Danakil Depression
  252. Deforestation, agriculture triggered soil erosion 4,000 years ago
  253. Enhancing Insurance Coverage for Bank Deposits
  254. ICEDASH AND ATITHI
  255. India International Science Festival (IISF) 2019: Experts advise sustainable, climate-smart, diverse farming
  256. India, Uzbekistan sign three defence MoUs
  257. Moody’s cut India’s rating from stable to negative
  258. National Health Profile
  259. Quantum computing
  260. Steel Scrap Recycling Policy
  261. Wastelands Atlas – 2019
  262. What the toxic air did to Delhiites
  263. Why more measles patients die of other infections
  264. Bru refugees of Mizoram
  265. What is a constitution bench?
  266. Basel Ban Amendment
  267. eSIM
  268. Avian Influenza (H5N1)
  269. Uyghur community
  270. Bonn Challenge
  271. What is Cryodrakon Boreas?
  272. 2 new ginger species
  273. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) and Eurasian Economic Union
  274. Gig Economy
  275. Nilgiri Tahr’
  276. Logistics Index Chart
  277. Market Intervention Scheme for Apples of J&K

MYUPSC! INSIGHTS DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS + PIB: 20 NOVEMBER 2019

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Insights Daily Current Affairs + PIB: 20 November 2019

Insights Revision through MCQs – 20 November 2019

Insights Current Affairs Quiz- 20 November 2019

Insights Static Quiz – 20 November 2019

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

MYUPSC ! INSIGHTS DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS + PIB: 19 NOVEMBER 2019

JOIN OUR TELEGRAM CHANNEL FOR REGULAR UPDATES

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Insights Daily Current Affairs + PIB: 19 November 2019

Insights Revision through MCQs – 19 November 2019

Insights Current Affairs Quiz 19 November 2019

Insights Static Quiz – 19 November 2019

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 5

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Practice Mock Test – 5

Q1. Which of the following adaptations is/are found in the mangrove plants?

1. Absence of stomata.

2. Turn their leaves to reduce exposure to the sunlight.

3. Pneumatophores

4. Salt glands

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 3, 4

c) 2, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Q2. Which of the following are responsible for land degradation?

1. Overgrazing

2. Salination

3. Water-logging

4. Landslides

5. Practice of Jhum cultivation

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 2, 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

d) 1, 2, 4, 5

Answer: c

Q3. Consider the following pairs.

Disease                       Pollutant

1. Itai-itai disease                  Cadmium

2. Minamata disease                         Mercury

3. Blue Baby Syndrome                    Arsenic

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

a) 1, 3

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 2

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q4. Which of the following pyramids can be both upright and inverted?

1. Pyramid of Biomass

2. Pyramid of Numbers

3. Pyramid of Productivity

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: a

Q5. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs

a) The water vapours of the air and retains its heat

b) Infrared part of solar radiation

c) The ultraviolet part of the solar radiation

d) All the solar radiations

Answer: b

Q6. Which of the following Ramsar site is manmade?

a) Deepor Beel

b) Wular Lake

c) Bhoj Wetland

d) Loktak Lake

Answer: c

Q7. Consider the following statements about South Asian Nitrogen Hub.

1. The Indian government has announced a research project, South Asian Nitrogen Hub.

2. The project aims to study the impact of different forms of nitrogen pollution, particularly looking at nitrogen in agriculture in eight countries of South Asia.

3. UNEP will partner with different organisations from South Asia.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2 only

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Q8. With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:

1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.

2. Food chains are found within the population of a species.

3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1, 2, 3

d) None

Answer: a

Q9. Consider the following statements about Wildlife Protection Society of India.

1. It is an attached office to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

2. It protects endangered species and their habitats through awareness, support, and training.

3. Collaborate with state governments to monitor the illegal wildlife trade.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q10. Consider the following statements about “ECOMARK” scheme.

1. It is a Scheme on Labelling of Environment Friendly Products.

2. Provide an incentive for manufacturers and importers to reduce adverse environmental impact of products.

3. Reward initiatives by companies to reduce adverse environmental impact of their products.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q11. The composting process is dependent on which of the following micro-organisms?

1. Bacteria

2. Fungi

3. Virus

4. Actino bacteria

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 2, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Q12. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as a financial mechanism for which of the following conventions?

1. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)

2. Convention on the International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Flora and Fauna (CITES)

3. UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)

4. Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 3

c) 1, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q13. Consider the following statements.

1. Bioleaching is used essentially for the recovery of copper, uranium and gold.

2. Bioaugmentation can be involved in bioremediation.

3. Biosparging can be used to reduce concentrations of petroleum constituents that are dissolved in groundwater.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) None

Answer: d

Q14. Consider the following statements about Mammals of India (MAOI) initiative.

1. It is an online, peer- reviewed, freely-accessible portal exclusively for mammals.

2. It is the initiative of Ministry of Environment & Forests (MoEF).

3. It provides a facility to the citizen to upload photographic observations about mammals.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q15. Consider the following statements.

1. It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International.

2. It was declared as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.

3. The forest region is home to world’s largest population of Indian Rhinoceros.

4. It is also a Tiger Reserve.

The above statements are related to which National Park?

a) Manas National Park

b) Nameri National Park

c) Orang National Park

d) Kaziranga National Park

Answer: d

MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 4

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Practice Mock Test – 4

Q1. Consider the following pairs.

     Governor-General                                  Events in their Rule

1. Cornwallis                                      Introduction of Civil services

2. Wellesley                                        Telegraph and postal reforms

3. William Bentinck                           Introduction of English as official language

4. Dalhousie                                       Introduction of Subsidiary Alliance

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 2, 4

b) 1, 3

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: b)

Explaination:

Cornwallis – Europeanisation of administrative machinery and Introduction of Civil services.

Wellesley – Introduction of Subsidiary Alliance, 1798.

William Bentinck – Educational reforms and introduction of English as the official language.

Dalhousie – Telegraph (4000 miles of telegraph lines to connect Calcutta with Bombay, Madras and Peshawar) and postal (Post Office Act, 1854) reforms.

Q2. Consider the following statements.

1. Charter Act of 1813 promoted modern sciences in the country.

2. Macaulay’s Minute led to the promotion of mass education.

3. Hunter Education Commission report is considered as the ‘Magna Carta of English Education in India”.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q3. Muhammad Ali Jinnah in March 1929 gave fourteen points for safeguarding the rights and interests of the Muslims. Which of the following were included in the fourteen points?

1. Federal Constitution with residual powers to provinces.

2. One-third Muslim representation in the central legislature.

3. Separation of Sindh from Bombay.

4. Not separate electorates, but joint electorates with reserved seats for Muslims.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2, 4

b) 1, 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Q4. Which of the following is/are correct about Pathshala under British India?

1. These were institutions working on the principle of decentralized governance with minimum of rules

2. Wood’s Despatch was against the system of Pathshala.

Select the correct answer sing codes below.

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: a

Q5. The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because:

1. The Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence.

2. The rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session.

3. A resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) None

Answer: a

Q6. With reference to medieval kingdoms of North-eastern India what was the position of paiks?

a) They were the patrons of literature and arts.

b) They were mercenaries recruited from other kingdoms.

c) They held large amount of land and gold and donated it for public welfare.

d) They were forced to work for the state.

Answer: d

Q7. Kornish in medieval history refers to:

a) A kind of salutation.

b) A kind of revenue system.

c) A title given to the courtier

d) A kind of crop brought to India by the British.

Answer: a

Explaination:

Kornish was a form of ceremonial salutation in which the courtier placed the palm of his right hand against his forehead and bent his head. It suggested that the subject placed his head – the seat of the senses and the mind – into the hand of humility, presenting it to the royal assembly.

Q8. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Iltutmish, the medieval ruler?

1. He founded the Ilbari dynasty.

2. He introduced the Arabic Coinage into India.

3. He introduced the Persian festival of Nauroz.

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 3

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 2

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q9. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Samudragupta was an ardent follower of Vaishnavism.

2. He had very little interest in music.

3. He patronized the great Buddhist scholar Vasubandu.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q10. Consider the following dynasties of Medieval India.

1. Rajput

2. Lodi

3. Tughluq

4. Sayyid

The correct chronological order in which they appeared in India is?

a) 3, 1, 2, 4

b) 3, 1, 4, 2

c) 1, 3, 2, 4

d) 1, 3, 4, 2

Answer: d

Q11. Which of the following provisions are related to the Charter Act of 1813?

a) It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body.

b) It introduced for the first time, local representation in the Central Legislative Council.

c) For the first time explicitly defined the constitutional position of the British territories in India.

d) It separated for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor- General’s council.

Answer: c

Explaination:

Statement a – Charter Act of 1833

Statement b and d – Charter Act of 1853

Q12. Which of the following statement is correct regarding Hunter Education Commission?

a) Government of India must assume responsibility for education of the masses.

b) Indian learning was inferior to European learning.

c) For improving university education, improving secondary education was a necessary.

d) Primary education should be imparted through vernacular.

Answer: d

Q13. By the time Gandhiji arrived in India

1. Indian National Congress (INC) was already established in India

2. He had already forged a technique of non-violent Satyagraha in South Africa

3. The first Swadeshi movement had already been waged

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q14. The partition of Bengal by Lord Curzon intended to

1. Curb Bengali influence

2. Divide people on the basis of religion

3. Achieve administration convenience

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q15. Which of the following Indian activist, thinker and social reformer was famously known as Lokhitwadi?

a) Mahadev Govind Ranade

b) Akshay Kumar Dutt

c) Gopal Hari Deshmukh

d) Jyotiba Phule

Answer: C

Q16. The Sangam texts mention prominently the ports of

1. Musiri

2. Tondi

3. Korkai

4. Podouke (Arikamedu)

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 2, 4

b) 1, 3

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q17. He was a follower of Jainism in the early part of his career and converted to Saivism later. He is hailed as ‘Vichitra chitta’ who constructed a temple for Brahma, Vishnu and Siva without the use of bricks, timber, metal and mortar. Who is the ruler?

a) Rajaraja Chola 1

b) Kadambas of Banavasi

c) Harihara 1

d) Mahendravarman I

Answer: d

Q18. Why did Buddhism start declining in India in the early medieval times?

1. Vaishnavism, Shaivism and other Hindu traditions became increasingly popular, and

Brahmins developed a new relationship with the state

2. The Kings of Gupta dynasty were strongly opposed to Buddhism.

Select the correct code:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: a

Q19. Consider the following statements.

1. Most of the Ashoka’s inscriptions were in Pali language.

2. Arikamedu is a coastal settlement known for it being a site for unloading goods from distant lands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q20. Consider the following statements about Chalukyas

1. The Chalukya administration was highly decentralized.

2. They developed the Dravidian style in the building of structural temples.

3. Their cave temples are found in Ajanta, Ellora and Nasik.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 3 only

c) 1, 3

d) 2 only

Answer: a

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Practice Mock Test – 3

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. Jaimini Brahmana speaks collectively on dance only.

2. In Hindustani music, Dhrupad is the pure music without distraction of words.

3. There was no evidence of musical instruments found at the sites of Indus valley civilization.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 2 only

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2

Answer: b

Q2. Consider the following with reference to Central Indian paintings.

1. They take inspiration from Puranas and Indian folk-lore.

2. Vaishnavism, Saivism and Sakti exercised tremendous influence on these paintings.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: c

Q3. Consider the following statements with reference to Sangam Literature

1. Sangam literature dealt both with personal lives such as love and relationships as well as ethics, heroism, values and social customs.

2. Only men were allowed to compose Sangam literature.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q4. Consider the following statements

1. According to this philosophy, Vedas are eternal and possess all knowledge.

2. Religion means the fulfilment of duties prescribed by the Vedas.

3. This philosophy encompasses the Nyaya-Vaisheshika systems and emphasizes the concept of valid knowledge.

The above statements are related to?

a) Mimamsa School

b) Vedanta School

c) Yoga School

d) Samkhya School

Answer: a

Q5. Consider the following about Kalighat paintings which originated in Bengal.

1. The school produced paintings that were irreproducible by lithography.

2. The school restricted itself to the depiction of natural, nationalistic and secular themes.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Answer: d

Q6. Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?

1. Arasavalli

2. Amarakantak

3. Omkareshwar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a

Q7. With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements regarding Samkhya School.

1. Samkhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.

2. Samkhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Explaination: The Samkhya School denies the existence of God. However, rebirth and transmigration of soul are inherent in the Samkhya School.  Liberation results from the disappearance of the limitations of self-awareness.

Q8. With reference to Giddha, Ghoomar and Garba, consider the following statements:

1. All three dances are primarily performed by women only

2. All three are folk dances

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q9. Which of the following are correctly matched?

Reform movement: Region of influence

1. Sri Narayana Dharma Paripalana Sabha: Karnataka

2. Sarin Sabha: Punjab

3. Paramhansa Mandali: Madhya Pradesh

4. Kayastha Sabha: Uttar Pradesh

Select from the codes below

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: b

Q10. Which of these is NOT one of the eight components of Yoga as described by Patanjali?

a) Yamas

b) Niyama

c) Asana

d) Mulahara

Answer: d

Q11. MANIYARO a variety of folk dance is of which state?

a) Assam

b) Andhra Pradesh

c) Gujarat

d) Manipur

Answer: c

Q12. Consider the following statements about National School of Drama.

1. It was set up by the Sangeet Natak Akademi as one of its constituent units in 1959.

2. It is fully financed by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.

3. The School has two performing wings – the Repertory Company and Theatre-in- Education Company.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q13. Consider the following pairs:

Classical Dance Feature

1. Bharatanatyam Fire Dance

2. Kuchipudi Lasya and Tandava elements

3. Odissi Mobile Sculpture

4. Mohiniattam Tandava aspect is dominant

Which of the above is correctly matched?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 2, 3

c) 1, 2, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q14. Which of the following temples have ‘Nagara Style of Architecture’?

1. Sun Temple at Konark

2. Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar

3. Vishwanath Temple at Khajuraho

4. Doddabasappa temple at Dambal

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Q15. Consider the following pairs.

     Temple                                          Country

1. Prambanan Temple                      Indonesia

2. Angkoar Vat                                   Cambodia

3. Pashupatinath Temple                 Sri Lanka

4. Munneswaram Temple                Nepal

Which of the above are correctly matched?

a) 1, 3

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Explaination:

Pashupatinath Temple – Nepal

Munneswaram Temple – Sri Lanka

Q16. The prominent construction works undertaken during Akbar’s reign are:

1. Agra Fort

2. Ibadat Khana

3. Buland Darwaza

Select the correct code:

a) 2 only

b) 1, 2

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q17. Consider the following statements about Kalbelia.

1. Folk dance performed by the women of the Kalbelia community of Gujarat.

2. ‘Been’ is the popular musical instrument of this dance form.

3. The UNESCO has inscribed Kalbelia folk songs and dances in the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Explaination:

Kalbelia is a sensuous folk dance performed by the women of the Kalbelia community of Rajasthan. The costumes and dance movement are similar to that of the serpents. ‘Been’ (wind instrument played by snake charmers) is the popular musical instrument of this dance form.

The UNESCO has inscribed Kalbelia folk songs and dances in the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2010.

Q18. With reference to Giddha, Gangore and Jhumar, consider the following statements:

1. All three dances are primarily performed by women only

2. All three are folk dances

Select the correct code:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q19. Which of the following is the earliest treatise on mathematics?

a) Aryabhattiya

b) Brahmasputa Siddhantika

c) Siddhanta Shiromani

d) Sulvasutra

Answer: d

Q20. Consider the following statements.

1. This Veda is also known as Brahma Veda

2. It is mostly concerned with peace and prosperity of the human society

3. It focuses on treatment of several ailments

The above statements refer to

a) Rig Veda

b) Sama Veda

c) Atharva Veda

d) Yajur Veda

Answer: c

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UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 2

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Practice Mock Test – 2

Q1. Consider the following statements about Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD).

1. The western Indian Ocean becomes alternately warmer and then colder than the eastern part of the ocean.

2. A study has demonstrated a significant correlation between the IOD and drought in the southern half of Australia.

3. IOD can either aggravate or weaken the impact of El Nino on Indian monsoon.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q2. Consider the following statements about anticyclone?

1. It is an area of high pressure.

2. The wind direction is Anticlockwise in the Northern Hemisphere.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: a

Q3. The most prominent feature in the oceans, forming an almost continuous mountain range, is the

a) Seamount

b) Deep ocean trench

c) Abyssal plain

d) Mid-ocean ridge

Answer: d

Q4. Qatar is bordered by which of the following countries.

1. United Arab Emirates

2. Bahrain

3. Saudi Arabia

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 3

b) 2, 3

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2

Answer: c)

Explaination:

Qatar has one land border. The country borders Saudi Arabia to the south.

Q5. The California Ocean current, which flows along the west coast of North America, is a

a) Cold current, flowing north

b) Cold current, flowing south

c) Warm current, flowing south

d) Warm current, flowing north

Answer: b

Explaination:

The California Current is a Pacific Ocean current that moves southward along the western coast of North America, beginning off southern British Columbia and ending off southern Baja California Peninsula. It is considered an Eastern boundary current due to the influence of the North American coastline on its course. It is also one of five major coastal currents affiliated with strong upwelling zones, the others being the Humboldt Current, the Canary Current, the Benguela Current, and the Somali Current. The California Current is part of the North Pacific Gyre, a large swirling current that occupies the northern basin of the Pacific.

Q6. Which of the following port is known as “Queen of Arabian Sea”?

a) Jawaharlal Nehru port

b) Marmagao port

c) Kochi port

d) New Mangalore port

Answer: c

Explaination:

Kochi is a major port city on the south-west coast of India bordering the Laccadive Sea. Called the Queen of the Arabian Sea, Kochi was an important spice trading centre on the west coast of India from the 14th century onward.

Q7. Which of the following factors affect Ocean Salinity?

1. Evaporation

2. Wind

3. Influx of river water

4. Ocean currents

5. Precipitation

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 3, 5

b) 1, 2, 3, 5

c) 1, 3, 4, 5

d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Answer: d

Q8. December and January are the coldest months in the northern plain. The reasons for the excessive cold in north India are:

1. far away from the sea.

2. Snowfall in the nearby Himalayan ranges

3. Cold winds coming from Taklamakan Desert and Plateau of Tibet.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: a

Explaination:

There are three main reasons for the excessive cold in north India during this season:

(i) States like Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan being far away from the moderating influence of sea experience continental climate.

(ii) The snowfall in the nearby Himalayan ranges creates cold wave situation; and

(iii) Around February, the cold winds coming from the Caspian Sea and Turkmenistan bring cold wave along with frost and fog over the north-western parts of India.

Q9. Consider the following statements about Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ).

1. ITCZ is also known as doldrums

2. ITCZ is an area encircling the Earth near the Equator, where the northeast and southeast trade winds converge

3. ITCZ has no effect on tropical cyclone formation

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: a

Q10. Which of the following explains why one side of a mountain usually has more precipitation than the other side?

a) Temperatures are higher on one side of a mountain than on the other

b) The atmosphere gets denser as elevation increases

c) The land on one side is more green and lush than the other

d) Mountains force air to rise, and air cools and releases moisture as it rises

Answer: d

Q11. Consider the following statements about Inflation Indexed Bond (IIB)

1. It is a bond issued by the Government and the corporate sector.

2. There are no special tax concessions for these bonds.

3. They are eligible to be kept as part of Statutory Liquidity Ratio requirements of banks.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Q12. Consider the following statements about Peer to peer (P2P) lending.

1. It is a form of crowd funding used to raise unsecured loans which are re-paid with interest.

2. Only individuals can borrow money.

3. RBI enabled P2P entities as Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC).

4. Minimum net worth requirement for these platforms is kept at Rs. 5 Cr.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 2, 3

c) 2, 4

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Q13. Under Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) all Scheduled Commercial Banks in India must maintain an amount in which of the following forms?

1. Cash

2. Gold

3. Treasury-Bills of the Government of India

4. Corporate Bonds

5. State Development Loans (SDLs)

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 2, 3, 5

c) 1, 2, 5

d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Answer: b

Q14. Buoyancy of tax refers to?

a) Relationship between the changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in Inflation.

b) Relationship between the changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in GDP.

c) Relationship between the changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in Investment.

d) Relationship between the changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in demand.

Answer: b

Q15. Which of the following developments may not likely reduce the fiscal deficit?

1. Increasing Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)

2. Providing budgetary support to public sector enterprises

3. Waiving off farm loans.

4. Austerity measures should be adopted.

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 4

b) 2, 3

c) 2, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Q16. Consider the following statements about Reserve Bank of India.

1. The bank was set up based on the recommendations of the Hilton–Young Commission.

2. Performs merchant banking function for the central and the state governments; also acts as their banker.

3. Manages the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.

4. Issues and exchanges or destroys currency and coins not fit for circulation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 2, 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: d

Q17. Consider the following statements about Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF).

1. Government of India created the RIDF in NABARD.

2. The eligible activities are classified into Agriculture and related sector, Social sector and rural connectivity.

3. Panchayat Raj Institutions, Self Help Groups (SHGs) and NGOs are also eligible to receive funds.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q18. Consider the following statements about ‘Fiat Money’.

1. It is a currency that a government has declared to be legal tender.

2. It is backed by a physical commodity.

3. Its value increases during hyperinflation.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Q19. Consider the following statements about fugitive economic offender.

1. It is an individual who has committed some specified offence(s) involving an amount of one hundred crore rupees or more and has absconded from India.

2. He is declared so by a ‘Special Court’ set up under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.

3. The property of a fugitive economic offender, resulting from the proceeds of crime, including benami property, can be confiscated once he is declared so by the Court.

4. Properties abroad are not liable for confiscation.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 3

b) 2, 4

c) 2 only

d) 1, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q20. Consider the following statements about Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI).

1. It is a measure of change in retail prices of food products consumed by a defined population group in a given area

2. It is released by Central Statistics Office (CSO) for three categories -rural, urban and combined.

3. Cereals and products constitute more than 50 percent weight within CFPI.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: a

Q21. Which of the following statement about ‘White Label ATMs’ is correct?

a) These ATMs are set up, owned and operated by Non-bank entities.

b) These ATMs are set up, owned and operated by the sponsor bank whose brand is used on the ATM. c) ATMs owned by a service provider, but cash management and connectivity to banking networks is provided by a sponsor bank whose brand is used on the ATM. d) These are ATMs operated abroad to withdraw Indian currency.

Answer: a

Q22. Sunil Mehta Committee is related to

a) To prepare a blueprint for doubling farmers’ income by 2022.

b) Drafting New Direct Tax Legislation.

c) Examine the setting up of an Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) for faster resolution of stressed assets.

d) Resolving raising fuel prices in India.

Answer: c

Explaination:

Sunil Mehta Committee was constituted to examine the setting up of an Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) and/or Asset Management Company (AMC) for faster resolution of stressed assets.

Q23. Which of the following factors can lead to Demand-pull inflation?

1. Strong consumer demand

2. Increase in money supply

3. When prices go up

4. Technological innovation

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 2, 4

c) 1, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q24. A country can reduce its current account deficit by

1. Improving domestic companies’ global competitiveness

2. Decreasing the value of its exports relative to the value of imports

3. Placing restrictions on imports, such as tariffs or quotas

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q25. Consider the following statements:

1. India’s tax-GDP ratio is very low compared to other developing countries or emerging markets

2. Lower tax-GDP ratio can be addressed by mobilising greater tax revenues

Select the correct code:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q26. APMCs are intended to be responsible for:

1. Providing market-led extension services to farmers.

2. Ensuring payment for agricultural produce sold by farmers on the same day.

3. Setup public private partnership in the management of agricultural markets.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q27. In India, Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) include:

1. Mutual funds

2. Venture Capital Fund

3. Private equity funds

4. Infrastructure funds

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 2, 3, 4

c) 1, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q28. Which of the following statements about Monetary Policy Framework Agreement is correct?

a) It is an agreement between Government and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on the maximum tolerable inflation rate that RBI should target to achieve price stability.

b) It is an agreement between Government and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on the minimum inflation rate that RBI should target to achieve growth.

c) It is an agreement between Banks and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ensure that the changes in the Interest rates are passed on to the customers.

d) Both b and c

Answer: a

Q29. With reference to the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC), consider the following statements:

1. It is headed by the Governor of RBI

2. It will monitor macro prudential supervision of the economy, including the functioning of large financial conglomerates.

3. It will focus on financial literacy and financial inclusion.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q30. Consider the following statements about National Anti-profiteering Authority (NAA).

1. It is headed by the Finance Minister.

2. The Authority’s core function is to ensure that the benefits of the reduction in GST rates are passed on to the ultimate consumers.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 1

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

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Practice Set – 1

Q1. With reference to Right to Constitutional Remedies guaranteed under Article 32, consider the following statements:

1. The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the constitution.

2. Fundamental rights and other statutory rights can be enforced under Article 32.

3. The Supreme Court has both executive and original jurisdiction in case of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

4. Article 32 cannot be invoked to determine the constitutionality of an executive order or legislation unless it directly infringes on any Fundamental Rights.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 and 4

b) 2 and 3

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: b)

Q2. Which of the statements about State Human Rights Commission is correct?

a) State Human Rights Commission is a constitutional body

b) If any case is already being inquired by the National Human Rights Commission then the State Human Rights Commission does not inquire into that case, whereas if the case is being inquired by any other statutory commission then the State Human Rights Commission can inquire into that case.

c) To review the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the protection of human rights.

d) The chairperson and members of State Human Rights Commission are appointed by the President.

Answer: c)

Q3. Consider the following about Secretary of the panchayat

1. Secretary of the panchayat is elected by the Gram Panchayat from amongst its members.

2. Secretary of the panchayat is responsible for calling the meeting of the Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat and keeping a record of the proceedings.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Answer: b)

Explaination:

Gram panchayat has a Secretary who is also the secretary of the Gram Sabah. This person is not an elected person but is appointed by the state government, to oversee panchayat activities. He is responsible for calling the meetings of the Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat and keeps a record of the proceedings.

Q4. Which of the following are the compulsory provisions of the 73rd Constitutional amendment act?

1. Reservation of one-third seats for women in panchayats at all the three levels.

2. Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-government.

3. Granting financial powers to the panchayats to levy collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.

4. Fixing tenure of 5 years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six months in the event of suppression of any panchayat.

a) 1 and 2

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 1 and 4

Answer: d

Q5. A parliamentary committee means a committee that:

1. Is appointed or elected by the House

2. Works under the direction of the Speaker / Chairman

3. Presents its report to the President

4. It has a secretariat provided by the Cabinet secretary

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: a

Explaination:

A parliamentary committee means a committee that:

1. Is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker / Chairman1

2. Works under the direction of the Speaker / Chairman

3. Presents its report to the House or to the Speaker / Chairman

4. It has a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha

Q6. Which of the following is/are not the federal features of the Indian Constitution?

1. The Constitution is written and not easily amendable.

2. Equal representation of all states in Rajya Sabha

3. State governments derive authority from the Centre.

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b)

Explaination:

The division of powers established by the Constitution as well as the supremacy of the Constitution can be maintained only if the method of its amendment is rigid. Hence, the Constitution is rigid to the extent that those provisions which are concerned with the federal structure. State governments derive their authority from the constitution, not the Centre.

The states are given representation in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the membership varies from 1 to 31.

Q7. Consider the following about National Human Rights Commission.

1. It is a constitutional authority.

2. The Commission is independent of the government.

3. There is no fee to approach the NHRC.

4. Its recommendations are binding on the courts but not government.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 4

b) 1, 2, 4

c) 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: c)

Explaination:

The commission has been established by law as autonomous of the government, and not by the constitution.

The NHRC cannot by itself punish the guilty. That is the responsibility of courts. The NHRC is there to make independent and credible inquiry into any case of violation of human rights.

Thus, its recommendations are not binding on neither the courts not the government. Any citizen of India can write a letter to the NHRC to complain against the violation of human rights. There is no fee or any formal procedure to approach the NHRC.

Q8. “It shall be the endeavour of every state and every local authority within the state to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.” This is a

1. Forms part of Fundamental rights under Part III of the Constitution

2. Provision made under an Act of Parliament

3. Justiciable in courts if not implemented by the Government of India

Select the correct code:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) None

Answer: d)

Q9. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the

a) Contingency Fund of India

b) Consolidated Fund of India

c) Consolidated Fund of the State

d) Contingency Fund of the State

Answer: c)

Explaination:

The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the HC are charged to the Consolidated Fund of the state but their pensions are payable as Charged Expenditure /Art 112(3).

Q10. Which of these constitutional bodies are functionally autonomous from the government?

1. State Public Service Commissions

2. Election Commission of India

3. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q11. Under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution, which of the following comes under the definition of State?

1. Government and Parliament of India

2. ONGC and any private agency working for Aadhaar registration

3. District boards and improvement trusts

Select the correct code:

a) 1only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

Answer: d

Explaination:

The term ‘State’ has been used in different provisions concerning the fundamental rights.

Hence, Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State includes the following:

(a) Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union government.

(b) Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state government.

(c) All local authorities that is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.

(d) All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc. According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the ‘State ‘under Article 12.

Q12. With reference to the procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368, consider the following statements.

1. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only in either House of Parliament.

2. The bill can be introduced only by a minister and not by a private member.

3. Prior permission of the president is not required for the introduction of the bill.

4. The ratification by the state legislature is not required.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 3

b) 2, 4

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Explaination:

The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution is laid down in Article 368:

1. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.

2. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.

3. The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.

4. Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.

5. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.

6. After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.

7. The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.

8. After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act.

Q13. Which of the following comes outside the scope of Article 368?

1. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.

2. Rules of procedure in Parliament.

3. Supreme Court and high courts.

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 3

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 2

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Explaination:

A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These include: Elections to Parliament and state legislatures and Rules of procedure in Parliament.

The provisions related to Supreme Court and high courts can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.

Q14. Consider the following statements about State Legislature.

1. The Constitution does not provide for the abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.

2. The governor can nominate two members from the Anglo-Indian community, if the community is not adequately represented in the assembly.

3. The actual strength of a council is fixed by the governor.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Explaination:

The Constitution provides for the abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.

Accordingly, the Parliament can abolish a legislative council (where it already exists) or create it (where it does not exist), if the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect.

The governor can nominate one member from the Anglo-Indian community, if the community is not adequately represented in the assembly.

Though the Constitution has fixed the maximum and the minimum limits, the actual strength of a Council is fixed by Parliament.

Q15. Special provisions for marginalized classes in the constitution are related to

1. Educational Grants

2. Appointment of Commissions to investigate their socio-economic condition

3. Reservation in Legislatures and local bodies

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Explaination:

The Constitution makes special provisions for the scheduled castes (SCs), the scheduled tribes (STs), the backward classes (BCs) and the Anglo-Indians. These special provisions are contained in Part XVI of the Constitution from Articles 330 to 342. They are related to the following:

1. Reservation in Legislatures

2. Special Representation in Legislatures

3. Reservation in Services and Posts

4. Educational Grants

5. Appointment of National Commissions

6. Appointment of Commissions of Investigation

Q16. The value of secularism can be found in which of the following parts of the constitution?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy

2. Fundamental Duties

3. Preamble

4. Fundamental Rights

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 3, 4

c) 2, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: d

Q17. Which of the following is the competent authority to change the name of any State of India?

a) Governor of the State

b) Concerned State Legislature

c) Union Home Minister

d) Parliament

Answer: d

Explaination:

The Constitution authorizes the Parliament to form new states or alter the areas, boundaries or names of the existing states without their consent.

Q18. A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:

1. Quorum in Parliament.

2. Rules of procedure in Parliament

3. Election of the President and its manner

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2 only

c) 1, 3

d) None

Answer: a

Q19. If the Union Parliament wishes to move a matter from Concurrent List to the Union List, which of these follows?

a) The Rajya Sabha must initiate a constitutional amendment bill.

b) The President must consult the Governors of a majority of States and act according to their advice.

c) The Cabinet must pass an executive fiat to this effect.

d) It must obtain the consent of all State Legislatures for the same.

Answer: a

Explaination:

Moving a matter from the Concurrent List to Union List needs an amendment to the constitution

Q20. Which of the following were the suggestions made by Swaran Singh Committee to be included as Fundamental Duties?

1. Duty to pay taxes

2. Family Planning

3. Casting vote

Select from the codes below

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above

Answer: a

Q21. Consider the following statements about Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions

1. The committee classifies bills and allocates time for discussion on bills and resolutions introduced by private members.

2. This is a special committee of the Lok sabha only.

3. In Lok sabha it is chaired by the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Explaination:

This committee classifies bills and allocates time for the discussion on bills and resolutions introduced by private members (other than ministers). This is a special committee of the Lok Sabha and consists of 15 members including the Deputy Speaker as its chairman. The Rajya Sabha does not have any such committee. The same function in the Rajya Sabha is performed by the Business Advisory Committee of that House.

Q22. Consider the following statements about Motion of Thanks.

1. It is addressed by the Leader of the House.

2. The motion is put to vote in both the houses of the parliament.

3. It is addressed at the beginning of every new session of the Parliament.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q23. When a MP has voted against his political party in the Parliament, which among the following authorities will decide on his disqualification pertaining to anti defection law?

a) Parliamentary Committee on Anti defection

b) President of India

c) Election Commission of India

d) Presiding Officer of that House of the Parliament

Answer: d

Explaination:

Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the House.

Q24. Which of these is/are Constitutional bodies?

1. Central Vigilance Commission

2. National Commission for STs

3. National Human Rights Commission

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2 only

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Explaination:

The Constitutional Bodies include:

  • Election Commission
  • Union Public Service Commission
  • State Public Service Commission
  • Finance Commission
  • National Commission for SCs
  • National Commission for STs
  • Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
  • Comptroller and Auditor General of India
  • Attorney General of India
  • Advocate General of the State

Q25. The Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution deal with the oath or affirmations for:

1. Members of Parliament

2. Members of State Legislative Council

3. The Judges of High Courts

4. Attorney General of India

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Explaination:

Third Schedule: Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for-

1. The Union ministers

2. The candidates for election to the Parliament

3. The members of Parliament

4. The judges of the Supreme Court

5. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

6. The state ministers

7. The candidates for election to the state legislature

8. The members of the state legislature

9. The judges of the High Courts

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

1. Consider the following statements regarding PM Rozgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY):

1) PMRPY is a scheme to incentivise employers registered with the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) for job creation by the Government paying the full contribution of employers to the Employee Pension Scheme (EPS) and Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF) .

2) The PMRPY Scheme is targeted for employees earning wages more than Rs 15,000/- per month. Thus, new employees earning wages less than Rs 15,000/- per month will not be eligible.

3) All establishment availing benefits under PMRPY scheme should be registered with EPFO under EPF Act 1952 and have a valid LIN.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of recent places in news and the corresponding country:

1) Khyber Pakhtunkhwa: Afganishtan

2) Baramchal: Bangladesh

3) Oyigbo: Nigeria

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

3. Consider the following statements:

1) Antibiotic-resistant infections are a threat to global public health, food safety and an economic burden.

2) Plant-based foods can transmit antibiotic resistance to the microbes living in our gut.

3) Spread of antibiotic-resistant superbugs from plants to humans is similar to outbreaks of diarrheal illnesses caused immediately after eating contaminated vegetables

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding ‘side pocketing’ in market economy stands true?

1) Side pocketing is a framework that allows mutual funds to segregate the bad assets in a separate portfolio within their debt schemes.

2) As per the rule, if a debt instrument is downgraded to default rating by credit rating agencies, then the fund house has the option to create a side pocket so that good assets can be ring fenced.

3) Market regulator SEBI has said that side pocket should not be looked upon as a sign of encouraging undue credit risks as any misuse of the option would be considered serious and stringent action can be taken.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. When the CJI writes to the President and the PM for removal of a High Court judge, which of the following offices/persons appoints a three-judge inquiry committee in consultation with the CJI to look into the allegations?

a) President

b) Prime minister

c) Rajya Sabha chairman

d) Lok Sabha chairman

Answer:

1(c)

2(b)

3(a)

4(d)

5(c)

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 26

1. Consider the following statements:

1) As per the ASSOCHAM and E&Y report published in 2018, the domestic organic market was valued at Rs. 2500 crores including Rs. 1500 crores in organised retail and Rs. 1000 crores by farmers’ direct market.

2) Government of India has been promoting organic farming under two dedicated schemes namely Mission Organic Value Chain Development North Eastern Region (MOVCDNER) and Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) since 2015.

3) Third party certification of organic farming is promoted by Agriculture Processed Food and Export Development Authority (APEDA) under Ministry of Agriculture.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of vitamins and their corresponding deficiency diseases:

1) Riboflavin: Pellagra

2) Thiamine: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

3) Panthothenic acid: Beri-Beri

4) Biotin: Dermatitis

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) 2 & 4 only

3. Which of the following statements regarding the Nutrient Based Subsidy policy are not true?

1) Under the NBS Policy, the Government announces a fixed rate of subsidy (in Rs. per Kg basis), on each nutrient of subsidized P&K fertilizers, namely Nitrogen (N), Phosphate (P) & Potash (K) only.

2) The difference between the delivered cost of fertilizers at farm gate and net market realization by the urea units is given as subsidy to the urea manufacturer / importer by the Government.

3) The amount of gross fertilizer subsidy paid in 2018-2019 has been lesser than that paid in 2017-2018, due to promotion of organic fertilizers.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Consider the following statements regarding prevalence of anemia in pregnant women & the remedial measures taken by government to prevent the condition:

1) According to National Family Health Survey (NFHS)–IV (2015-16), the prevalence of anemia among women aged 15 to 49 years is 73%.

2) Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) has been launched to focus on conducting special ANC check up on 9th of every month with the help of Medical officers to detect and treat cases of anemia.

3) Health management information system & Mother Child tracking system is being implemented for reporting and tracking the cases of anaemic and severely anaemic pregnant women.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Which of the following cities forms the headquarters of financial action task force (FATF) organisation?

a) Moscow

b) Geneva

c) New York

d) Paris

Answer:

1(a)

2(d)

3(c)

4(b)

5(d)

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 25

Q1. An MoU was signed between Dr.Ambedkar International Centre (DAIC), Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and Dalit Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industry (DICCI) to empower SC and ST Communities through research on Dalit Entrepreneurship

Which of the following statements regarding the same are true?

1) DICCI brings together all Dalit entrepreneurs under one umbrella and acts as a one-stop Resource Centre for existing and aspiring Dalit entrepreneurs and promotes entrepreneurship among Dalits as a solution to their socio-economic problems.

2) DAIC through this collaboration will try to find out how far the SC and ST communities have engaged themselves in starting and establishing their own businesses.

3) The data will be used to identify the reason why the spirit of entrepreneurship has not been infused among Dalit youth to develop business leadership for empowering them to walk in step with the world.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of Himalayan Rivers and their corresponding tributaries:

1) Ganga: Tamsa

2) Brahmaputra: Tons

3) Yamuna: Tawa

4) Ravi: Saho

5) Satluj: Baspa

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 2 & 4 only

c) all of the above

d) 1, 4& 5 only

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding vaccinations:

1) Vaccines protect billions of people around the world. They have completely got rid of one disease – smallpox – and are bringing the world close to eliminating others, such as polio.

2) But some other diseases, such as measles, are making a resurgence and experts say people avoiding vaccines, fuelled by fear and misinformation, is one of the main causes.

3) As per surveys people in richer countries have a higher trust in vaccines.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements:

1) LTE (Long Term Evolution) is a standard for 3G wireless broadband technology that offers increased network capacity and speed to mobile device users.

2) LTE offers higher peak data transfer rates of up to 100 Mbps downstream and 30 Mbps upstream. It also provides reduced latency, scalable bandwidth capacity and backward-compatibility with existing GSM and UMTS technology.

Which of the above statements are not true ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 & 2

d) None

5. “Asian development outlook” is a publication released by which of the following institutions?

a) World Bank

b) Asian development Bank (ADB)

c) Asian infrastructure and investment bank (AIIB)

d) BRICS Bank

Answer:

1 – (d)

2- (d)

3- (a)

4- (a)

5- (b)

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 24

1. Consider the following statements:

1) The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has plans to stop funding coal-fired power plants except in selected countries where the bank considers the alternatives to be limited.

2) The ADB’s new energy policy is being reviewed in line with the Paris Agreement and the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals, and will be released by the end of 2020.

3) India has achieved the fastest growth in the Asia-Pacific economies comprised of 45 countries, according to the Asian Development Bank (ADB).

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of missile defence systems and their corresponding nations:

1) Arrow missile system: Israel

2) PAAMS: UK

3) A-135 anti ballistic missile: U.S

4) AWACS: Russia

5) AAD (Advanced air defence): India

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 3, 4 & 5 only

c) 1, 2 & 5 only

d) 2, 4 & 5 only

3. The Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister today released a detailed note titled GDP estimation in India- Perspectives and Facts.

Which of the following statements regarding the same are true?

1) The new methodology that uses 2011-12 as the base year includes two major improvements, a) Incorporation of MCA21 database, and b) Incorporation of the Recommendations of System of National Accounts (SNA), 2008.

2) This change was in line with other countries that have changed their methodologies in line with SNA 2008 and revised their respective GDP figures.

3) As of today India’s GDP estimation methodology is at par with its global standing as a responsible, transparent and well-managed economy.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding data usage in smartphones India as per the ‘Ericsson Mobility Report’ are true?

1) India has the highest average data usage per smartphone, reaching 9.8 GB per month at the end of 2018, according to a new study.

2) Increased numbers of LTE subscriptions, attractive data plans being offered by service providers, and young people’s changing video viewing habits have driven monthly usage growth.

3) LTE would remain the most dominant access technology in the region up to 2024, even as 5G subscriptions are expected to grow during this period.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Guthis are socio-economic institutions (trusts), both public and private, that fund their obligations from incomes from cultivated or leased land assets. Depending on their obligations, Guthis fulfil religious, public service or social roles and could either involve members from a common lineage, or several

Large scale protest against the controversial “Guthi Bill” has being taking place in which of the following countries recently?

a) Srilanka

b) Myanmar

c) Nepal

d) Bangladesh

Answer:

1 – (a) 2 – (c) 3 – (d) 4 – (d) 5 – (c)

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 23

1. Which of the following adaptations is/are found in desert animals?

  1. Long legs for avoiding excessive heat from sand
  2. Nocturnal in habit
  3. Aestivation during summer months

Select the correct answer code:

 a) 2 only

 b) 1, 2 and 3

 c) 1, 3

 d) 1, 2

Solution: b

2.  Which of the following Ramsar site is manmade?

 a) Deepor Beel

 b) Harike Wetland

 c) Bhoj Wetland

 d) Loktak Lake

Solution: c

3. Consider the following statements regarding Great Indian Bustard:

  1. Great Indian Bustard is considered the flagship grassland species, representing the health of the grassland ecology.
  2. It is one of the heaviest flying birds.
  3. In India, Gujarat is home to a greater number of Great Indian Bustard.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 1, 2

 c) 1, 3

 d) 2, 3

Solution: b

4.  Consider the following statements regarding Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).

  1. It is an International agreement between governments that is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  2. CITES is legally binding on state parties to the convention, which are obliged to adopt their own domestic legislation to implement its goals.
  3. CITES was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted at a meeting of members of IUCN.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1, 2

 b) 2, 3

 c) 1, 3

 d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: d

5.  Consider the following statements:

  1. It is located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River.
  2. It is the only stronghold of rhinoceros on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River.
  3. It is also known as ‘Mini Kaziranga National Park’.

The above statements refer to.

 a) Manas National Park

 b) Nameri National Park

 c) Orang National Park

 d) Dibru-Saikhowa National Park

Solution: c

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 22

1. Consider the following statements regarding Buddhism:

  1. Buddha laid great emphasis on the law of karma.
  2. Buddha rejected the existence of god and emphasized on Ahimsa.
  3. Buddhism was more a religious revolution than social revolution.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1, 2

 b) 1, 3

 c) 2, 3

 d) 1 only

Solution: d

2.  Consider the following statements regarding Buddhism:

The membership for Sangha was open to all persons without any caste restrictions.

Buddhism made rapid progress in North India only after the death of Buddha.

Asoka spread Buddhism into West Asia and Ceylon.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1, 2

 b) 1, 3

 c) 2, 3

 d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: b

3. Which of the following statements are correct regarding civil rebellions and tribal uprisings from 1757 to 1900?

  1. These uprisings drew a large number of participants but were localised and isolated.
  2. They mostly arose out of national grievances.
  3. The leadership was semi-feudal in character, backward-looking and traditional in outlook.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 1, 2

 c) 1, 3

 d) 2, 3

Solution: c

4.  Kuka Revolt of Punjab is aimed at?

 a) Achieve justice for the martyrs of Punjab in the 1857 Revolt

 b) Freeing the Gurudwaras (Sikh temples) from the control of ignorant and corrupt Mahants

 c) Making Sikh land independent from British control

 d) Reforming the Sikh religion by removing all the abuses, superstitions and ill-practices

Solution: d

5.  Who among the following suggested the winding up of the Indian National Congress after India attained independence?

 a) C. Rajagopalachari

 b) Acharya Kripalani

 c) Mahatma Gandhi

 d) Jayaprakash Narain

Solution: c

Mahatma Gandhi suggested the winding up of the Indian National Congress after India attained Independence.

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 21

1. Which of the following are the major Buddhist pilgrimage sites in India?

  1. Mahabodhi temple.
  2. Shravanabelagola
  3. Nagapattinam
  4. Sittannavasala Caves

Select the correct answer code:

 a) 1, 2, 3

 b) 1, 3

 c) 2, 3, 4

 d) 1, 3, 4

Solution: b

  • Sittannavasala Caves in Tamil Nadu and Shravanabelagola in Karnataka are Jain pilgrimage sites in India.

2. Which of the following are the features of Indo-Islamic architecture?

  1. Indo-Islamic architecture used human and animal figures.
  2. The architecture of this period heavily used the principles of Geometry.
  3. An important feature of the architecture during this period was the use of water in the premises of the constructions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1, 2

 b) 1, 3

 c) 2, 3

 d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: c

3. Which of the following are the features of trabeate style of architecture?

  1. Minars were present on the four corners of the mosques.
  2. Stone was the primary component of all constructions.

Select the correct answer code:

 a) 1 only

 b) 2 only

 c) Both

 d) None

Solution: b

4. Consider the following statements:

  1. The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from Chandogya Upanishad
  2. The Words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ were originally inscribed on the Lion Capital of Ashoka around 250 BCE.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 2 only

 c) Both

 d) None

Solution: d

5.  With reference to the ‘Sugam Sangeet’, consider the following statements

  1. It is the genre of devotional music, which brings classical and folk together.
  2. Bhajan, Shabad and Qawwali are different forms of Sugam Sangeet.
  3. Tevaram is sung in the praise of Lord Vishnu.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 1, 2

 c) 3 only

 d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: b

  • Tevaram denotes the first seven volumes of the Tirumurai, the twelve-volume collection of Lord Shiva devotional poetry.

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 20

1. Union Cabinet has approved the Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill 2019 to replace Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Ordinance 2019.

Which of the following statements regarding the same are true?

1) This will enable UIDAI to have a more robust mechanism to serve the public interest and restrain the misuse of Aadhar.

2) After the amendment, all individuals will be compelled to provide proof of possession of Aadhaar number to undergo authentication for the purpose of establishing his identity.

3) For the convenience of the general public in the opening of bank accounts, the proposed amendments will allow the use of Aadhaar number for authentication on a voluntary basis as an acceptable KYC document.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of bilateral military exercises conducted by India with the corresponding nations:

1) Mitra Shakti: Srilanka

2) Al Nagah: Israel

3) Maitree: Bangladesh

4) Ajeya Warrior: United Kingdom

5) Surya Kiran : Nepal

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 1, 4 & 5 only

c) 2 & 4 only

d) all of the above

Q3. Consider the following statements:

1) The impact of Climate Change on farmers, especially small and marginal ones is high in any part of the country. If the affected areas are flood-prone and drought-prone, the impact is enormous.

2) National Institute of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj (NIRDPR) has launched a training programme of Sustainable Livelihoods and Adaptation to Climate Change (SLACC) to help Rural Poor Farm Holds adapt to Climate Change and sustain their livelihoods.

3) Total 638 drought and flood-prone villages all over India will be covered as pilot basis under this first of its kind initiative.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)’s indigenously developed Hypersonic Technology Demonstrator Vehicle (HSTDV) are true?

1) Through the HSTDV project the idea was to demonstrate the performance of a scram-jet engine at an altitude of 15 km to 20 km, is on.

2) It can be used for launching satellites at low cost. It will also be available for long-range cruise missiles of the future.

3) In scram-jet technology, combustion of fuel takes place in a chamber in the missile at hypersonic speeds whereas in a ramjet engine air is collected from the surrounding atmosphere during the flight at supersonic speeds.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. 19th Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Summit is all set to begin in Bishkek from today. Bishkek is the capital city of which of the following countries?

a) Kazakhstan

b) Kyrgyzstan

c) Uzbekistan

d) Turkmenistan

Answer:

1(c), 2(b), 3(a), 4(a), 5(b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 19

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 19

1. Consider the following statements regarding the newly introduced e-governance initiatives launched for the welfare of ST’s:

1) Ministry of Tribal Affairs has developed online portals namely DBT Tribal and NGO Grants Online Application & Tracking System for bringing in greater e-Governance in implementation of welfare schemes for STs.

2) In NGO portal, there are 2 main modules for Pre-Matric & Post-Matric Scholarship. Data sharing module is mainly meant for sharing beneficiary-data by States & in Communication module, the States have facility to upload documents, raise query for faster release of funds.

3) The DBT tribal portal, developed for implementing scheme of Aid to Voluntary Organizations working for the welfare of STs, has been fully revamped & redesigned with simplified Application form, Inspection Report and Fund Processing module.

Which of the above statements are not true ?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q2. Which of the following are classified as non communicable diseases?

1) Cancer

2) Osteoporosis

3) Chronic Lung disease

4) Diabetes

5) Alzheimer’s

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 3, 4 & 5 only

c) all of the above

d) None of the above

Q3. Which of the following statements regarding child labour legislation in India & abroad are true?

1) The government has enacted the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016 which came into force with effect from September 01, 2016. Now the employment of a Child below 14 years is completely prohibited in any occupation or processes.

2) The census 2011 shows an increase in Child Labour to 1.26 crore as compared to 1.01 crore in 2001.

3) The Theme of World Day against Child Labour for the year 2019 is ‘Children shouldn’t Work in Fields, but on Dreams’ which focuses on the importance of ending child labour and calls for evolving strategies to end child labour.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. The Cabinet Committee on Security headed by Prime Minister has cleared the setting up of the Defence Space Research Agency. Which of the following statements regarding the same are true?

1) The agency has been entrusted with the task of creating space warfare weapon systems and technologies.

2) The agency would be provided with a team of scientists which would be working in close coordination with the ISRO.

3) It would be providing the research and development support to the Defence Space Agency (DSA) which comprises members of the three services.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q5. External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar will flag off the first batch of yatris of Kailash Mansarovar Yatra from New Delhi. The route is possible only through which of the following passes in India?

a) Nathu la Pass

b) Diphu Pass

c) Khardung la Pass

d) Shipki la Pass

Answer:

1(b), 2(c), 3(c), 4(c), 5(a)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 18

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 18

1. India has called upon the G-20 countries to urgently fix the issue of taxing profits made by digital economy companies in countries where they do not have significant physical presence. Which of the following statements with respect to the above context are true?

1) The aim is to bring offshore companies with significant economic presence in India into the tax net to address the shortcomings in taxing the digital economy.

2) Offshore digital companies such as Facebook, Google and Netflix have little presence in India, taxing their profits is not possible.

3) This prompted the government to roll out equalization levy as a tax deducted at source on payments made to them by Indian firms with effect from April 2018.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q2. Which of the following countries constitutes the Nordic countries?

1) Iceland

2) Russia

3) Norway

4) Georgia

5) Denmark

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 3, 4 & 5 only

c) 1, 3 & 5 only

d) all of the above

Q3. Which of the following statements regarding the National cyclone risk mitigation project (NCRMP) are true?

1) The Government of India has initiated the National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project (NCRMP) with a view to address cyclone risks in the country.

2) The overall objective of the Project is to undertake suitable structural and non-structural measures to mitigate the effects of cyclones in the coastal states and UTs of India.

3) National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) under the aegis of Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) will implement the Project in coordination with participating State Governments and the National Institute for Disaster Management (NIDM).

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the ethical concepts of adoption of Artificial Intelligence:

1) AI has several positive applications, but the capability of AI systems to learn from experience and to perform autonomously for humans makes AI the most disruptive and self-transformative technology of the 21st century.

2) Given the importance of intention in India’s criminal law jurisprudence, it is essential to establish the legal personality of AI (which means AI will have a bundle of rights and obligations), and whether any sort of intention can be attributed to it.

3) Germany has come up with ethical rules for autonomous vehicles stipulating that human life should always have priority over property or animal life.

Which of the above statements stands true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q5. India is set to adopt the “Osaka summit declaration” in near future. The declaration pertains to which of the following?

a) To adopt the climate change resolutions put forwarded in Paris summit.

b) Deliberations on trade, investment and digital economy.

c) For the conservation of archaeological sites in the routes of swadesh Darshan scheme.

d) To promote artificial intelligence in the banking as well as insurance sectors.

Answer:

1(a), 2(c), 3(d), 4(d), 5(b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 17

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 17

1. Consider the following statements regarding the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI):

1) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) is the national professional accounting body of India. It was established as a statutory body under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 enacted by the Parliament.

2) It recommends the accounting standards to be followed by companies in India to National Advisory Committee on Accounting Standards (NACAS) and sets the accounting standards to be followed by other types of organisations.

3) It works closely with the Government of India, Reserve Bank of India and the Securities and Exchange Board of India in formulating and enforcing such standards.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following palaces/forts in India and their corresponding locations:

1) Victoria memorial: Mumbai

2) Neermahal Palace: Tripura

3) Fort.St.george: Kolkata

4) Kumbhalgarh Fort: Rajsamand

5) Lalgarh palace: Bikaner

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 2, 4 & 5 only

c) 1, 3 & 5 only

d) all of the above

3. Scientists have created high-resolution maps of points around the globe where groundwater meets the oceans, which of the following statements regarding the study are true?

1) The study found that in some parts of the world, groundwater could be polluting oceans and lakes with nutrients and other chemicals.

2) Groundwater can carry higher concentrations of nitrates a key contributor of the types of harmful algal blooms as well as high concentrations of mercury.

3) Most of the water that gets to lakes and oceans comes from ground water sources carrying minerals and, in some cases, pollutants, to surface bodies of water.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) All the of above

4. Which of the following statements regarding the recently published UNICEF report on child marriage are true?

1) The study reveals that child marriage among boys is prevalent across a range of countries around the world, spanning sub-Saharan Africa, Latin America and the Caribbean, South Asia, and East Asia and the Pacific.

2) According to the data, the India has the highest prevalence of child marriage among males (28%), followed by Nicaragua (19%) and Madagascar (13%).

3) Early marriage brings early fatherhood, and with it added pressure to provide for a family, cutting short education and job opportunities.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Which of the following countries of the Indian subcontinent recently passed a law legalizing homosexuality?

a) Srilanka

b) Nepal

c) Bhutan

d) Myanmar

Answer:

1(d), 2(b), 3(a), 4(c), 5(c)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 16

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 16

1. Consider the following statements regarding food safety:

1) An estimated 600 million cases of foodborne diseases occur annually worldwide.

2) Unsafe food is a threat to human health and economies, disproportionately affecting vulnerable and marginalized people, especially women and children, populations affected by conflict and migrants.

3) World Food Safety Day adopted by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations is aimed at imposing non tariff barriers to protect local foods/agri products.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of space missions and their respective countries/space agencies:

1) Sputnik -1: Russia

2) Long March -1: China

3) Giotto: European space agency

4) Explorer 1: Japan

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 4 only

c) 2 & 3 only

d) 1 & 4 only

3. Which of the following statements air quality and BS emission standards are true?

1) India is among those nine countries where the forest cover has increased by one percent.

2) Vehicular pollution which is 28 to 30 per cent of air pollution is expected to be reduced drastically after implementation of Bharat Stage (BS)-6 emission norms from next year.

3) However in 2014 in the National Capital the number of poor air quality days was 300 and it increased to 326 days in 2018.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding RBI’s regulation of leverage ratio in the banking sector stands true?

1) The leverage ratio was introduced for banks post the financial crisis of 2008, as one of the underlying features of the crisis was the build-up of excessive on- and off-balance sheet leverage in the banking system.

2) The central bank has mandated leverage ratio of 3.5% for all the banks except for the domestic systemically important banks (D-SIBs), which will have a 4% ratio.

3) The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to bring leverage ratio for banks is in line with Basel-III standards.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Which of the following countries recently organised the “Gandhi cycle rally for peace” to mark the 150th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi?

a) India

b) China

c) Saudi Arabia

d) Australia

Answer:

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 15

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 15

1. Consider the following statements regarding air pollution:

1) While poor air quality days which was 246 in the year 2014 have now come down below 200, the number of moderate to good air quality days have increased from just 108 in 2016 to 159 in 2018.

2) To combat air pollution, Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change has launched the National Clean Air programme (NCAP) which is a mid-term 5 Year Action Plan with targets of 20-30% reduction of PM 2.5 and PM 10 concentration in 102 cities.

3) It has been decided that each Panchayat will tie up with a leading academic institution in the State that would act as the technical partner at the State level for the programme.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Which of the following Indian cities lies in the tropic of cancer?

1) Jaipur

2) Ahmedabad

3) Kolkata

4) Shillong

5) Agartala

a)1,2& 3 only

b) 1, 3 & 5 only

c) 2 & 4 only

d) all of the above

3. With respect to the newly signed tax information exchange agreement (TIEA) between India and Marshall islands, which of the following statements are true?

1) The Agreement enables exchange of information, including banking and ownership information, between the two countries for tax purposes.

2) It is based on international standards of tax transparency and exchange of information and enables sharing of information on request.

3) The Agreement also provides for representatives of one country to undertake tax examinations in the other country.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding the newly introduced Swachh Survekshan 2020(SS 2020) league initiative by ministry of housing & urban affairs are true?

1) SS League 2020 has been introduced with the objective of sustaining the on ground performance of cities along with continuous monitoring of service level performance when it comes to cleanliness.

2) The performance of cities in SS League 2020 will be crucial to their ranking in SwachhSurvekshan 2020 due to the 25% weightage of the quarterly assessments to be included in the annual survey in January 2020.

3) While SS 2016 had seen Indore emerge as the cleanest city in India, Bengaluru has retained the title of the Cleanest City in the last three years.

a) 1 & 2 only

 b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Sudan has been suspended from the African Union (AU) amid growing fears that splits among the ruling military regime could lead to civil war and anarchy.

Which of the following places forms the headquarters of the African union?

a) Johannesburg, South Africa

b) Nairobi, Kenya

c) AdisAbaba, Ethiopia

d) Mogadishu, Somalia

Answer

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 14

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 14

1. Consider the following statements with respect to the micro finance sector in India?

1) The Indian microfinance sector is expected to register a more than 30% year-on-year growth to Rs. 90,000 crore in 2018-19.

2) Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), cooperative societies and other large lenders have played an important role in providing refinance facility to MFIs.

3) The RBI formed Malegam committee aimed to address the primary customer complaints that led to the crisis, including coercive collection practices, usurious interest rates, and selling practices that resulted in over-indebtedness.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q2. Consider the following pairs of mineral resources in India and their corresponding locations:

1) Uranium, Mica: Karnataka

2) Limestone, Mica: Rajasthan

3) Bauxite, Manganese: Andhra Pradesh

4) Chromite, coal : Tamilnadu

5) Iron ore and clay: Goa

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2& 3 only

b) 1, 3 & 5 only

c) 2 & 5 only

d) 1 & 4 only

Q3. With respect to the recently released gender equality index report, which of the following statements are true ?

1) The index, covering 14 of the 17 SDGs, measures countries on 51 issues ranging from health, gender-based violence, climate change, decent work and others.

2) The overall index score and individual goal scores are based on a scale of 0-100. A score of zero reflects the achievement of gender equality in relation to the targets set for each indicator.

3) India ranks 95 out of 129 countries, below countries such as Ghana, Rwanda and Bhutan in the new gender equality index.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM):

1) GDM is defined as glucose intolerance with onset or first recognition during pregnancy, GDM simply represents relatively high glucose levels at one point in the life of a young woman.

2) Higher glucose transfer to the foetus, when the mother has high blood sugar, stimulates the foetal pancreatic cells to start secreting insulin earlier and in higher quantities.

3) It has become imperative that every pregnant woman be screened for high blood glucose even if no symptoms are exhibited in order to avoid GDM.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q5. Which of the following countries have launched the first arctic train named Zarengold which will travel from Saint Petersburg through Petrozavodsk, the historic town of Kem and Murmansk?

a) Germany

b) Russia

c) Norway

d) Denmark

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 13

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 13

1. Consider the following statements regarding the newly released RBI report on “Benchmarking of India’s Payment Systems” :

1) While there has been robust growth in the volume of retail electronic transactions amid a strong regulatory framework, the country needs to enhance its payments acceptance infrastructure.

2) In 2018-19, the volume growth of retail electronic transactions was 95%, compared to 51% in the previous year, mainly due to to the steep growth in the use of the Unified Payments Interface (UPI).

3) The report also said that the level of credit card penetration in India was low when compared to advanced countries, where it was a preferred option for making payments.

Which of the following statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Which of the following Indian states are the major sugarcane producing states of India?

1) Andhra Pradesh

2) Assam

3) Tamilnadu

4) Gujarat

5) Maharashtra

a) 1,2& 3 only

b) 3,4 & 5 only

c) 1,4 & 5 only

d) all of the above

Q3. Which of the following statements regarding global food safety are true?

1) Food safety is an increasing threat to human health. Children under 5 years of age carry 40% of the food-borne disease burden with 1, 25,000 deaths every year

2) Access to sufficient amounts of safe and nutritious food is key to sustaining life and promoting good health. Food-borne diseases impede socio-economic development by straining health care systems and harming national economies, tourism and trade.

3) The first-ever World Food Safety Day was adopted by the World Health Assembly in 2019.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 &3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding Nipah virus are true?

1) Nipah virus, which causes encephalitis and pneumonia, is lethal in about 70% of cases and can be caught from animals or transmitted between people.

2) The only current treatment for Nipah virus infection is a monoclonal antibody that is still experimental; it was tested during an outbreak in India last year.

3) However since Ebola and Nipah virus belongs to the same family the vaccine used for Ebola can be used successfully to counter Nipah.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. The “Global Economic Prospects “have been released by which of the following international institutions?

a) World economic forum

b) World Bank

c) World trade Organisation

d) UN General Assembly

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 12

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 12

1. Consider the following statements regarding copyright law in India:

1) Indian copyright law is at parity with the international standards as contained in TRIPS. The (Indian) Copyright Act, 1957 fully reflects the Berne Convention for Protection of Literary and Artistic Works.

2) In India, the registration of copyright is not mandatory as the registration is treated as mere recordal of a fact.

3) The registration does not create or confer any new right and is not a prerequisite for initiating action against infringement.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q2. Which of the following phenomenons are examples of convergent plate boundaries?

1) Subduction of the Nazca Plate beneath the South American Plate

2) Formation of the Aravallis.

3) Collision between the Australian Plate and the Pacific Plate.

4) Formation of New Zealand.

5) Collision between Eurasian plate and African plate

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 1, 3 & 4 only

c) 1, 3 & 5 only

d) 2 & 4 only

Q3. Which of the following statements regarding NSSO (National sample survey office) are true?

1) The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) is responsible for conduct of large scale sample surveys in diverse fields on All India basis under the ministry of HRD.

2) Besides these surveys, NSSO collects data on rural and urban prices and plays a significant role in the improvement of crop statistics through supervision of the area enumeration and crop estimation surveys of the State agencies.

3) It also maintains a frame of urban area units for use in sample surveys in urban areas.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements with respect to section 376E of IPC frequently seen in news:

1) Section 376E of IPC was included in the criminal law act as per recommendation by justice Verma committee which was constituted to enable quicker trials and harsher punishment for those accused of sexual assault.

2) As per the act, habitual offenders are punished with death penalty only if they have been convicted subsequently for section 376A.

3) The section 376E is a cognisable as well as non bailable offence under IPC.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q5. The recently launched initiative “Udchalo” serves which of the following purposes?

a) It was started by union aviation ministry to provide concession to senior citizens for using air travel.

b) It is a travel portal that caters for the personal travel of the military and paramilitary forces personnel by aggregating defence fares and getting exclusive discounts.

c) It is an online platform for bidding of air routes for both domestic as well as foreign players.

d) It is an initiative by HRD ministry to encourage pilot training amongst women army officers

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 11

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 11

1. Which of the following statements regarding article 370 of Indian constitution are correct?

1) Article 370 in the part XXI of the constitution of India provides a special status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir and other tribal states of India.

2) Laws on Union and concurrent list will be made by centre only with the consent of state of J&K.

3) Dr BR Ambedkar who was the chairman of the drafting committee of the constitution assembly was against the incorporation of article 370 in the constitution.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Which of the following are used as gene editing tools in biotechnology?

1) CRISPR-Cas9

2) TALENs

3) transposons

4) rAAV

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) all of the above

d) 2 & 4 only

3. Which of the following statements regarding the newly approved Agriculture Export Policy are true?

1) It is aimed at increasing India’s exports to $100 billion by 2032 from the current $37 billion.

2) The policy also aims to promote the export of novel, indigenous, organic, ethnic, traditional and non-traditional products.

3) The Mission target the establishment of 15 Technology Innovation Hubs (TIH), six Application Innovation Hubs (AIH) and four Technology Translation Research Parks (TTRP) also.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Consider the following statements:

1) Rice blast, caused by a fungus Magnaportheoryzae, is one of the major diseases of the rice crop.

2) Fungicides are very expensive, harmful for the environment and inappropriate application can cause health issues.

3) The rapid changes in pathogen virulence pose a constant challenge to the success of existing blast-resistant rice varieties.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Which of the following African countries recently banned the importation, production, sale and use of plastic bags in its territory?

a) Zimbabwe

b) Tanzania

c) Nigeria

d) Zambia

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download