Medieval Indian History MCQ Part-1


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Medieval Indian History MCQ Part-1

1. The death of Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb occurred at which among the following places?

(A) Agra
(B) Bijapur
(C) Ahmednagar
(D) Pune

2. Who among the following rulers had stamped the figure of Goddess Lakshmi on his coins and had his name inscribed in Nagari Characters?

(A) Muhammad Ghazni
(B) Muhammad Ghori
(C) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(D) Iltutmish

3. Ibn Battuta, the famous Muslim explorer who came to India during regime of Mohammad Bin Tughlaq, belonged to which country?

(A) Afghanistan
(B) Morocco
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran

4. Which of the following Rajput rulers is known to have donated for the reconstruction of a mosque?

(A) Mihir Bhoja
(B) Bhoja Parmar
(C) Prithviraj III
(D) Jai Singh Siddharaj

5. The lowest in rank in the Maratha infantry was of__?

(A) Nayak
(B) Havaldar
(C) Jumladar
(D) Hazari

6. During the invasion of Mohammed Bin Kasim, many Hindus in Sindh were forcibly converted to Islam. They were reconverted to Hinduism by the authority of __?

(A) Devali Smriti
(B) Narada Smriti
(C) Vishnu Smriti
(D) Yajnavalkya Smriti

7.The irrigation tax was charged on the farmers for the first time by which among the following Sultans?

(A) Alauddin Khilji
(B) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(C) Mohammad Tughlaq
(D) Firoz Tughlaq

8.Who among the following Sultans of Delhi assumed the title Sikandar-i-Sani?

(A) Balban
(B) Alauddin Khalji
(C) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
(D) Sikandar Lodi

9.The Sayyid dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate is called so because__?

(A) Its founder and his successors adopted the title Sayyid
(B) Its founder and his successors belonged to the Sayyid tribe of eastern Turkistan
(C) Its founder and his successors were descendant of the prophet Muhammad
(D) Its founder was a scholar of Islamic theology

10.During the Delhi Sultanate, who among the following were called the Barids?

(A) Craftsmen
(B) Bodyguards of the Sultan
(C) Officer-in-charge of state exchequer
(D) The spy / news reporters

11.Which among the following terms was used for the Royal cavalry of the Maratha Army System?

(A) The Shiledars
(B) The Bargirs
(C) The Hazari
(D) The Subedars

12.The real name of Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II was__:

(A) Alamgir II
(B) Ahmed Shah Durrani
(C) Mirza Najaf Khan
(D) Ali Gauhar

13.Who among the following was appointed as the supreme authority in justice during the era of Mughal Emperors ?

(A) Qazi-ul-Quzat
(B) Qazi-ul-Hazat
(C) Qazi-Faiz-ul-Islam
(D) None of these

14.Who was Sultan of Delhi Sultanate when Timur invaded India in 1398?

(A) Mahmud Shah Tughluq
(B) Jalal ud din Firuz Khilji
(C) Aram Shah
(D) Ghiyas-ud-din Balban

15.“Silver Tanka” and “Copper Jital” coins were introduced by:

(A) Iltutmish
(B) Abu Bakr Shah
(C) Firuz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Sikander Lodi

16.In 1293 A.D., Marco Polo, an Italian traveller, visited which Indian Kingdom?

(A) Kakatiya
(B) Satavahana
(C) Pandyan
(D) Chera

17.Who among the following is associated with translation of Rajatarangini in Persian?

(A) Dara Shikoh
(B) Zain-ul-Abidin
(C) Abdul Razzaq Jilani
(D) Bande Nawaz

18.Which of the following rulers died in the Kalinjar Fort situated in the Bundelkhand region of central India?

(A) Mahmud of Ghazni
(B) Sher Shah Suri
(C) Humayun
(D) Jahangir

19.Which among the following Sikh Gurus had been given the “Palace of Amritsar” by Mughal Emperor Akbar?

(A) Guru Ram Das
(B) Guru Arjun Das
(C) Guru Angad
(D) Guru Hargovind

20.Which among the following building built by Shah Jahan at Agra is similar in pattern of the Saint Basil’s Cathedral in Moscow?

(A) Taj Mahal
(B) Agra fort
(C) Pearl Mosque
(D) Shah Jahani Mahal

Answer Key:

  1. C
  2. B
  3. B
  4. D
  5. B
  6. A
  7. D
  8. B
  9. C
  10. D
  11. B
  12. D
  13. A
  14. A
  15. A
  16. A
  17. B
  18. B
  19. A
  20. C
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Medieval Indian History MCQ Part-1

Current Affairs MCQ 27 December 2019

MYUPSC.COM Daily Current Affairs MCQS: 27 December 2019 covered from The Hindu, Indian Express and PIB for UPSC IAS Prelims, Mains and Other State PSC Exams. Current Affairs Daily Quiz 27 December 2019: MYUPSC.COM is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc.

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Question Bank – 27 December 2019

Q1. Which of the following are the main salt producing states in India?

1) Andhra Pradesh

2) Kerala

3) Gujarat

4) Tamilnadu

a) 1, 2& 3 only

b) 2, 3 & 4 only

c) 1, 3 & 4 only

d) all of the above

Answer: C – 1, 3 & 4 only

Q2. The Ganga Mahasabha to oppose the damming of Ganges was formed by which of the following Indian freedom struggle leaders:

a) Lala Lajpat rai

b) Madan Mohan Malaviya

c) S Radhakrishnan

d) Annie Besant

Answer:

b) Madan Mohan Malaviya

Q3. Torrefaction, recently seen in news is related to?

 a) Farm extension services and mechanization

 b) Management of pesticides and plant quarantine

 c) Converting biomass into a coal-like material

 d) None of the above

Answer: c)

India tests Swedish torref action technology to reduce stubble burning.

It is a thermal process used to produce high-grade solid biofuels from various streams of woody biomass or agro residues.

Q4. Sukapaika river, recently seen in news is the distributary of which river?

 a) Yamuna

 b) Godavari

 c) Mahanadi

 d) Krishna

Solution: c)

Sukapaika is one of the several distributaries of the mighty Mahanadi river in Odisha.

Embankments have killed Odisha’s Sukapaika river that was the lifeline of over 0.5 million people.

Q5.Which state is going to observe 2020 as Susashan Sankalp Varsh?

 [A] Uttar Pradesh

 [B] Gujarat

 [C] Haryana  

[D] Madhya Pradesh

Answer: C  Haryana

Q6.The followers of which religion are called the “Hynniew Trep”?

[A] Shinto

[B] Taoism

[C] Seng Khasi

[D] Confucianism

Answer: C  Seng Khasi

Q7.Which government is going to conduct ‘Night Walk’ to promote women empowerment?

[A] Tamil Nadu

[B] Andhra Pradesh

[C] Karnataka

[D] Kerala

Answer: D  Kerala

Q8.In which state, India’s first university for transgender community will be opened?

[A] Uttar Pradesh

[B] Kerala

[C] Gujarat

[D] Andhra Pradesh

Answer: A   Uttar Pradesh

Q9.Which of the following is called the Falcon Capital of the World?

[A] Siberia

[B] Nagaland

[C] Meghalaya

[D] China

Answer: B     Nagaland

Q10. Which American firm is developing the Project Kuiper, which is to launch thousands of satellites into space?

[A] SpaceX

[B] NASA

[C] Amazon

[D] Blue Origin

Answer: C   Amazon

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MYUPSC Current Affairs MCQ 05 December 2019

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 3

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Practice Mock Test – 3

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. Jaimini Brahmana speaks collectively on dance only.

2. In Hindustani music, Dhrupad is the pure music without distraction of words.

3. There was no evidence of musical instruments found at the sites of Indus valley civilization.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 2 only

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2

Answer: b

Q2. Consider the following with reference to Central Indian paintings.

1. They take inspiration from Puranas and Indian folk-lore.

2. Vaishnavism, Saivism and Sakti exercised tremendous influence on these paintings.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: c

Q3. Consider the following statements with reference to Sangam Literature

1. Sangam literature dealt both with personal lives such as love and relationships as well as ethics, heroism, values and social customs.

2. Only men were allowed to compose Sangam literature.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q4. Consider the following statements

1. According to this philosophy, Vedas are eternal and possess all knowledge.

2. Religion means the fulfilment of duties prescribed by the Vedas.

3. This philosophy encompasses the Nyaya-Vaisheshika systems and emphasizes the concept of valid knowledge.

The above statements are related to?

a) Mimamsa School

b) Vedanta School

c) Yoga School

d) Samkhya School

Answer: a

Q5. Consider the following about Kalighat paintings which originated in Bengal.

1. The school produced paintings that were irreproducible by lithography.

2. The school restricted itself to the depiction of natural, nationalistic and secular themes.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Answer: d

Q6. Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?

1. Arasavalli

2. Amarakantak

3. Omkareshwar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a

Q7. With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements regarding Samkhya School.

1. Samkhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.

2. Samkhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Explaination: The Samkhya School denies the existence of God. However, rebirth and transmigration of soul are inherent in the Samkhya School.  Liberation results from the disappearance of the limitations of self-awareness.

Q8. With reference to Giddha, Ghoomar and Garba, consider the following statements:

1. All three dances are primarily performed by women only

2. All three are folk dances

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q9. Which of the following are correctly matched?

Reform movement: Region of influence

1. Sri Narayana Dharma Paripalana Sabha: Karnataka

2. Sarin Sabha: Punjab

3. Paramhansa Mandali: Madhya Pradesh

4. Kayastha Sabha: Uttar Pradesh

Select from the codes below

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: b

Q10. Which of these is NOT one of the eight components of Yoga as described by Patanjali?

a) Yamas

b) Niyama

c) Asana

d) Mulahara

Answer: d

Q11. MANIYARO a variety of folk dance is of which state?

a) Assam

b) Andhra Pradesh

c) Gujarat

d) Manipur

Answer: c

Q12. Consider the following statements about National School of Drama.

1. It was set up by the Sangeet Natak Akademi as one of its constituent units in 1959.

2. It is fully financed by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.

3. The School has two performing wings – the Repertory Company and Theatre-in- Education Company.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q13. Consider the following pairs:

Classical Dance Feature

1. Bharatanatyam Fire Dance

2. Kuchipudi Lasya and Tandava elements

3. Odissi Mobile Sculpture

4. Mohiniattam Tandava aspect is dominant

Which of the above is correctly matched?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 2, 3

c) 1, 2, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q14. Which of the following temples have ‘Nagara Style of Architecture’?

1. Sun Temple at Konark

2. Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar

3. Vishwanath Temple at Khajuraho

4. Doddabasappa temple at Dambal

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Q15. Consider the following pairs.

     Temple                                          Country

1. Prambanan Temple                      Indonesia

2. Angkoar Vat                                   Cambodia

3. Pashupatinath Temple                 Sri Lanka

4. Munneswaram Temple                Nepal

Which of the above are correctly matched?

a) 1, 3

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Explaination:

Pashupatinath Temple – Nepal

Munneswaram Temple – Sri Lanka

Q16. The prominent construction works undertaken during Akbar’s reign are:

1. Agra Fort

2. Ibadat Khana

3. Buland Darwaza

Select the correct code:

a) 2 only

b) 1, 2

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q17. Consider the following statements about Kalbelia.

1. Folk dance performed by the women of the Kalbelia community of Gujarat.

2. ‘Been’ is the popular musical instrument of this dance form.

3. The UNESCO has inscribed Kalbelia folk songs and dances in the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Explaination:

Kalbelia is a sensuous folk dance performed by the women of the Kalbelia community of Rajasthan. The costumes and dance movement are similar to that of the serpents. ‘Been’ (wind instrument played by snake charmers) is the popular musical instrument of this dance form.

The UNESCO has inscribed Kalbelia folk songs and dances in the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2010.

Q18. With reference to Giddha, Gangore and Jhumar, consider the following statements:

1. All three dances are primarily performed by women only

2. All three are folk dances

Select the correct code:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q19. Which of the following is the earliest treatise on mathematics?

a) Aryabhattiya

b) Brahmasputa Siddhantika

c) Siddhanta Shiromani

d) Sulvasutra

Answer: d

Q20. Consider the following statements.

1. This Veda is also known as Brahma Veda

2. It is mostly concerned with peace and prosperity of the human society

3. It focuses on treatment of several ailments

The above statements refer to

a) Rig Veda

b) Sama Veda

c) Atharva Veda

d) Yajur Veda

Answer: c

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 2

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Practice Mock Test – 2

Q1. Consider the following statements about Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD).

1. The western Indian Ocean becomes alternately warmer and then colder than the eastern part of the ocean.

2. A study has demonstrated a significant correlation between the IOD and drought in the southern half of Australia.

3. IOD can either aggravate or weaken the impact of El Nino on Indian monsoon.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q2. Consider the following statements about anticyclone?

1. It is an area of high pressure.

2. The wind direction is Anticlockwise in the Northern Hemisphere.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: a

Q3. The most prominent feature in the oceans, forming an almost continuous mountain range, is the

a) Seamount

b) Deep ocean trench

c) Abyssal plain

d) Mid-ocean ridge

Answer: d

Q4. Qatar is bordered by which of the following countries.

1. United Arab Emirates

2. Bahrain

3. Saudi Arabia

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 3

b) 2, 3

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2

Answer: c)

Explaination:

Qatar has one land border. The country borders Saudi Arabia to the south.

Q5. The California Ocean current, which flows along the west coast of North America, is a

a) Cold current, flowing north

b) Cold current, flowing south

c) Warm current, flowing south

d) Warm current, flowing north

Answer: b

Explaination:

The California Current is a Pacific Ocean current that moves southward along the western coast of North America, beginning off southern British Columbia and ending off southern Baja California Peninsula. It is considered an Eastern boundary current due to the influence of the North American coastline on its course. It is also one of five major coastal currents affiliated with strong upwelling zones, the others being the Humboldt Current, the Canary Current, the Benguela Current, and the Somali Current. The California Current is part of the North Pacific Gyre, a large swirling current that occupies the northern basin of the Pacific.

Q6. Which of the following port is known as “Queen of Arabian Sea”?

a) Jawaharlal Nehru port

b) Marmagao port

c) Kochi port

d) New Mangalore port

Answer: c

Explaination:

Kochi is a major port city on the south-west coast of India bordering the Laccadive Sea. Called the Queen of the Arabian Sea, Kochi was an important spice trading centre on the west coast of India from the 14th century onward.

Q7. Which of the following factors affect Ocean Salinity?

1. Evaporation

2. Wind

3. Influx of river water

4. Ocean currents

5. Precipitation

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 3, 5

b) 1, 2, 3, 5

c) 1, 3, 4, 5

d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Answer: d

Q8. December and January are the coldest months in the northern plain. The reasons for the excessive cold in north India are:

1. far away from the sea.

2. Snowfall in the nearby Himalayan ranges

3. Cold winds coming from Taklamakan Desert and Plateau of Tibet.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: a

Explaination:

There are three main reasons for the excessive cold in north India during this season:

(i) States like Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan being far away from the moderating influence of sea experience continental climate.

(ii) The snowfall in the nearby Himalayan ranges creates cold wave situation; and

(iii) Around February, the cold winds coming from the Caspian Sea and Turkmenistan bring cold wave along with frost and fog over the north-western parts of India.

Q9. Consider the following statements about Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ).

1. ITCZ is also known as doldrums

2. ITCZ is an area encircling the Earth near the Equator, where the northeast and southeast trade winds converge

3. ITCZ has no effect on tropical cyclone formation

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: a

Q10. Which of the following explains why one side of a mountain usually has more precipitation than the other side?

a) Temperatures are higher on one side of a mountain than on the other

b) The atmosphere gets denser as elevation increases

c) The land on one side is more green and lush than the other

d) Mountains force air to rise, and air cools and releases moisture as it rises

Answer: d

Q11. Consider the following statements about Inflation Indexed Bond (IIB)

1. It is a bond issued by the Government and the corporate sector.

2. There are no special tax concessions for these bonds.

3. They are eligible to be kept as part of Statutory Liquidity Ratio requirements of banks.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Q12. Consider the following statements about Peer to peer (P2P) lending.

1. It is a form of crowd funding used to raise unsecured loans which are re-paid with interest.

2. Only individuals can borrow money.

3. RBI enabled P2P entities as Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC).

4. Minimum net worth requirement for these platforms is kept at Rs. 5 Cr.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 2, 3

c) 2, 4

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Q13. Under Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) all Scheduled Commercial Banks in India must maintain an amount in which of the following forms?

1. Cash

2. Gold

3. Treasury-Bills of the Government of India

4. Corporate Bonds

5. State Development Loans (SDLs)

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 2, 3, 5

c) 1, 2, 5

d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Answer: b

Q14. Buoyancy of tax refers to?

a) Relationship between the changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in Inflation.

b) Relationship between the changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in GDP.

c) Relationship between the changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in Investment.

d) Relationship between the changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in demand.

Answer: b

Q15. Which of the following developments may not likely reduce the fiscal deficit?

1. Increasing Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)

2. Providing budgetary support to public sector enterprises

3. Waiving off farm loans.

4. Austerity measures should be adopted.

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 4

b) 2, 3

c) 2, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Q16. Consider the following statements about Reserve Bank of India.

1. The bank was set up based on the recommendations of the Hilton–Young Commission.

2. Performs merchant banking function for the central and the state governments; also acts as their banker.

3. Manages the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.

4. Issues and exchanges or destroys currency and coins not fit for circulation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 2, 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: d

Q17. Consider the following statements about Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF).

1. Government of India created the RIDF in NABARD.

2. The eligible activities are classified into Agriculture and related sector, Social sector and rural connectivity.

3. Panchayat Raj Institutions, Self Help Groups (SHGs) and NGOs are also eligible to receive funds.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q18. Consider the following statements about ‘Fiat Money’.

1. It is a currency that a government has declared to be legal tender.

2. It is backed by a physical commodity.

3. Its value increases during hyperinflation.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Q19. Consider the following statements about fugitive economic offender.

1. It is an individual who has committed some specified offence(s) involving an amount of one hundred crore rupees or more and has absconded from India.

2. He is declared so by a ‘Special Court’ set up under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.

3. The property of a fugitive economic offender, resulting from the proceeds of crime, including benami property, can be confiscated once he is declared so by the Court.

4. Properties abroad are not liable for confiscation.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 3

b) 2, 4

c) 2 only

d) 1, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q20. Consider the following statements about Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI).

1. It is a measure of change in retail prices of food products consumed by a defined population group in a given area

2. It is released by Central Statistics Office (CSO) for three categories -rural, urban and combined.

3. Cereals and products constitute more than 50 percent weight within CFPI.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: a

Q21. Which of the following statement about ‘White Label ATMs’ is correct?

a) These ATMs are set up, owned and operated by Non-bank entities.

b) These ATMs are set up, owned and operated by the sponsor bank whose brand is used on the ATM. c) ATMs owned by a service provider, but cash management and connectivity to banking networks is provided by a sponsor bank whose brand is used on the ATM. d) These are ATMs operated abroad to withdraw Indian currency.

Answer: a

Q22. Sunil Mehta Committee is related to

a) To prepare a blueprint for doubling farmers’ income by 2022.

b) Drafting New Direct Tax Legislation.

c) Examine the setting up of an Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) for faster resolution of stressed assets.

d) Resolving raising fuel prices in India.

Answer: c

Explaination:

Sunil Mehta Committee was constituted to examine the setting up of an Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) and/or Asset Management Company (AMC) for faster resolution of stressed assets.

Q23. Which of the following factors can lead to Demand-pull inflation?

1. Strong consumer demand

2. Increase in money supply

3. When prices go up

4. Technological innovation

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 2, 4

c) 1, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q24. A country can reduce its current account deficit by

1. Improving domestic companies’ global competitiveness

2. Decreasing the value of its exports relative to the value of imports

3. Placing restrictions on imports, such as tariffs or quotas

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q25. Consider the following statements:

1. India’s tax-GDP ratio is very low compared to other developing countries or emerging markets

2. Lower tax-GDP ratio can be addressed by mobilising greater tax revenues

Select the correct code:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q26. APMCs are intended to be responsible for:

1. Providing market-led extension services to farmers.

2. Ensuring payment for agricultural produce sold by farmers on the same day.

3. Setup public private partnership in the management of agricultural markets.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q27. In India, Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) include:

1. Mutual funds

2. Venture Capital Fund

3. Private equity funds

4. Infrastructure funds

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 2, 3, 4

c) 1, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q28. Which of the following statements about Monetary Policy Framework Agreement is correct?

a) It is an agreement between Government and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on the maximum tolerable inflation rate that RBI should target to achieve price stability.

b) It is an agreement between Government and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on the minimum inflation rate that RBI should target to achieve growth.

c) It is an agreement between Banks and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ensure that the changes in the Interest rates are passed on to the customers.

d) Both b and c

Answer: a

Q29. With reference to the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC), consider the following statements:

1. It is headed by the Governor of RBI

2. It will monitor macro prudential supervision of the economy, including the functioning of large financial conglomerates.

3. It will focus on financial literacy and financial inclusion.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q30. Consider the following statements about National Anti-profiteering Authority (NAA).

1. It is headed by the Finance Minister.

2. The Authority’s core function is to ensure that the benefits of the reduction in GST rates are passed on to the ultimate consumers.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

1. Consider the following statements regarding PM Rozgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY):

1) PMRPY is a scheme to incentivise employers registered with the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) for job creation by the Government paying the full contribution of employers to the Employee Pension Scheme (EPS) and Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF) .

2) The PMRPY Scheme is targeted for employees earning wages more than Rs 15,000/- per month. Thus, new employees earning wages less than Rs 15,000/- per month will not be eligible.

3) All establishment availing benefits under PMRPY scheme should be registered with EPFO under EPF Act 1952 and have a valid LIN.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of recent places in news and the corresponding country:

1) Khyber Pakhtunkhwa: Afganishtan

2) Baramchal: Bangladesh

3) Oyigbo: Nigeria

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

3. Consider the following statements:

1) Antibiotic-resistant infections are a threat to global public health, food safety and an economic burden.

2) Plant-based foods can transmit antibiotic resistance to the microbes living in our gut.

3) Spread of antibiotic-resistant superbugs from plants to humans is similar to outbreaks of diarrheal illnesses caused immediately after eating contaminated vegetables

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding ‘side pocketing’ in market economy stands true?

1) Side pocketing is a framework that allows mutual funds to segregate the bad assets in a separate portfolio within their debt schemes.

2) As per the rule, if a debt instrument is downgraded to default rating by credit rating agencies, then the fund house has the option to create a side pocket so that good assets can be ring fenced.

3) Market regulator SEBI has said that side pocket should not be looked upon as a sign of encouraging undue credit risks as any misuse of the option would be considered serious and stringent action can be taken.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. When the CJI writes to the President and the PM for removal of a High Court judge, which of the following offices/persons appoints a three-judge inquiry committee in consultation with the CJI to look into the allegations?

a) President

b) Prime minister

c) Rajya Sabha chairman

d) Lok Sabha chairman

Answer:

1(c)

2(b)

3(a)

4(d)

5(c)

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 25

Q1. An MoU was signed between Dr.Ambedkar International Centre (DAIC), Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and Dalit Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industry (DICCI) to empower SC and ST Communities through research on Dalit Entrepreneurship

Which of the following statements regarding the same are true?

1) DICCI brings together all Dalit entrepreneurs under one umbrella and acts as a one-stop Resource Centre for existing and aspiring Dalit entrepreneurs and promotes entrepreneurship among Dalits as a solution to their socio-economic problems.

2) DAIC through this collaboration will try to find out how far the SC and ST communities have engaged themselves in starting and establishing their own businesses.

3) The data will be used to identify the reason why the spirit of entrepreneurship has not been infused among Dalit youth to develop business leadership for empowering them to walk in step with the world.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of Himalayan Rivers and their corresponding tributaries:

1) Ganga: Tamsa

2) Brahmaputra: Tons

3) Yamuna: Tawa

4) Ravi: Saho

5) Satluj: Baspa

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 2 & 4 only

c) all of the above

d) 1, 4& 5 only

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding vaccinations:

1) Vaccines protect billions of people around the world. They have completely got rid of one disease – smallpox – and are bringing the world close to eliminating others, such as polio.

2) But some other diseases, such as measles, are making a resurgence and experts say people avoiding vaccines, fuelled by fear and misinformation, is one of the main causes.

3) As per surveys people in richer countries have a higher trust in vaccines.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements:

1) LTE (Long Term Evolution) is a standard for 3G wireless broadband technology that offers increased network capacity and speed to mobile device users.

2) LTE offers higher peak data transfer rates of up to 100 Mbps downstream and 30 Mbps upstream. It also provides reduced latency, scalable bandwidth capacity and backward-compatibility with existing GSM and UMTS technology.

Which of the above statements are not true ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 & 2

d) None

5. “Asian development outlook” is a publication released by which of the following institutions?

a) World Bank

b) Asian development Bank (ADB)

c) Asian infrastructure and investment bank (AIIB)

d) BRICS Bank

Answer:

1 – (d)

2- (d)

3- (a)

4- (a)

5- (b)

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 23

1. Which of the following adaptations is/are found in desert animals?

  1. Long legs for avoiding excessive heat from sand
  2. Nocturnal in habit
  3. Aestivation during summer months

Select the correct answer code:

 a) 2 only

 b) 1, 2 and 3

 c) 1, 3

 d) 1, 2

Solution: b

2.  Which of the following Ramsar site is manmade?

 a) Deepor Beel

 b) Harike Wetland

 c) Bhoj Wetland

 d) Loktak Lake

Solution: c

3. Consider the following statements regarding Great Indian Bustard:

  1. Great Indian Bustard is considered the flagship grassland species, representing the health of the grassland ecology.
  2. It is one of the heaviest flying birds.
  3. In India, Gujarat is home to a greater number of Great Indian Bustard.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 1, 2

 c) 1, 3

 d) 2, 3

Solution: b

4.  Consider the following statements regarding Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).

  1. It is an International agreement between governments that is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  2. CITES is legally binding on state parties to the convention, which are obliged to adopt their own domestic legislation to implement its goals.
  3. CITES was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted at a meeting of members of IUCN.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1, 2

 b) 2, 3

 c) 1, 3

 d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: d

5.  Consider the following statements:

  1. It is located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River.
  2. It is the only stronghold of rhinoceros on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River.
  3. It is also known as ‘Mini Kaziranga National Park’.

The above statements refer to.

 a) Manas National Park

 b) Nameri National Park

 c) Orang National Park

 d) Dibru-Saikhowa National Park

Solution: c

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 22

1. Consider the following statements regarding Buddhism:

  1. Buddha laid great emphasis on the law of karma.
  2. Buddha rejected the existence of god and emphasized on Ahimsa.
  3. Buddhism was more a religious revolution than social revolution.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1, 2

 b) 1, 3

 c) 2, 3

 d) 1 only

Solution: d

2.  Consider the following statements regarding Buddhism:

The membership for Sangha was open to all persons without any caste restrictions.

Buddhism made rapid progress in North India only after the death of Buddha.

Asoka spread Buddhism into West Asia and Ceylon.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1, 2

 b) 1, 3

 c) 2, 3

 d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: b

3. Which of the following statements are correct regarding civil rebellions and tribal uprisings from 1757 to 1900?

  1. These uprisings drew a large number of participants but were localised and isolated.
  2. They mostly arose out of national grievances.
  3. The leadership was semi-feudal in character, backward-looking and traditional in outlook.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 1, 2

 c) 1, 3

 d) 2, 3

Solution: c

4.  Kuka Revolt of Punjab is aimed at?

 a) Achieve justice for the martyrs of Punjab in the 1857 Revolt

 b) Freeing the Gurudwaras (Sikh temples) from the control of ignorant and corrupt Mahants

 c) Making Sikh land independent from British control

 d) Reforming the Sikh religion by removing all the abuses, superstitions and ill-practices

Solution: d

5.  Who among the following suggested the winding up of the Indian National Congress after India attained independence?

 a) C. Rajagopalachari

 b) Acharya Kripalani

 c) Mahatma Gandhi

 d) Jayaprakash Narain

Solution: c

Mahatma Gandhi suggested the winding up of the Indian National Congress after India attained Independence.

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 21

1. Which of the following are the major Buddhist pilgrimage sites in India?

  1. Mahabodhi temple.
  2. Shravanabelagola
  3. Nagapattinam
  4. Sittannavasala Caves

Select the correct answer code:

 a) 1, 2, 3

 b) 1, 3

 c) 2, 3, 4

 d) 1, 3, 4

Solution: b

  • Sittannavasala Caves in Tamil Nadu and Shravanabelagola in Karnataka are Jain pilgrimage sites in India.

2. Which of the following are the features of Indo-Islamic architecture?

  1. Indo-Islamic architecture used human and animal figures.
  2. The architecture of this period heavily used the principles of Geometry.
  3. An important feature of the architecture during this period was the use of water in the premises of the constructions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1, 2

 b) 1, 3

 c) 2, 3

 d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: c

3. Which of the following are the features of trabeate style of architecture?

  1. Minars were present on the four corners of the mosques.
  2. Stone was the primary component of all constructions.

Select the correct answer code:

 a) 1 only

 b) 2 only

 c) Both

 d) None

Solution: b

4. Consider the following statements:

  1. The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from Chandogya Upanishad
  2. The Words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ were originally inscribed on the Lion Capital of Ashoka around 250 BCE.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 2 only

 c) Both

 d) None

Solution: d

5.  With reference to the ‘Sugam Sangeet’, consider the following statements

  1. It is the genre of devotional music, which brings classical and folk together.
  2. Bhajan, Shabad and Qawwali are different forms of Sugam Sangeet.
  3. Tevaram is sung in the praise of Lord Vishnu.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 1, 2

 c) 3 only

 d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: b

  • Tevaram denotes the first seven volumes of the Tirumurai, the twelve-volume collection of Lord Shiva devotional poetry.

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 20

1. Union Cabinet has approved the Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill 2019 to replace Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Ordinance 2019.

Which of the following statements regarding the same are true?

1) This will enable UIDAI to have a more robust mechanism to serve the public interest and restrain the misuse of Aadhar.

2) After the amendment, all individuals will be compelled to provide proof of possession of Aadhaar number to undergo authentication for the purpose of establishing his identity.

3) For the convenience of the general public in the opening of bank accounts, the proposed amendments will allow the use of Aadhaar number for authentication on a voluntary basis as an acceptable KYC document.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of bilateral military exercises conducted by India with the corresponding nations:

1) Mitra Shakti: Srilanka

2) Al Nagah: Israel

3) Maitree: Bangladesh

4) Ajeya Warrior: United Kingdom

5) Surya Kiran : Nepal

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 1, 4 & 5 only

c) 2 & 4 only

d) all of the above

Q3. Consider the following statements:

1) The impact of Climate Change on farmers, especially small and marginal ones is high in any part of the country. If the affected areas are flood-prone and drought-prone, the impact is enormous.

2) National Institute of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj (NIRDPR) has launched a training programme of Sustainable Livelihoods and Adaptation to Climate Change (SLACC) to help Rural Poor Farm Holds adapt to Climate Change and sustain their livelihoods.

3) Total 638 drought and flood-prone villages all over India will be covered as pilot basis under this first of its kind initiative.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)’s indigenously developed Hypersonic Technology Demonstrator Vehicle (HSTDV) are true?

1) Through the HSTDV project the idea was to demonstrate the performance of a scram-jet engine at an altitude of 15 km to 20 km, is on.

2) It can be used for launching satellites at low cost. It will also be available for long-range cruise missiles of the future.

3) In scram-jet technology, combustion of fuel takes place in a chamber in the missile at hypersonic speeds whereas in a ramjet engine air is collected from the surrounding atmosphere during the flight at supersonic speeds.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. 19th Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Summit is all set to begin in Bishkek from today. Bishkek is the capital city of which of the following countries?

a) Kazakhstan

b) Kyrgyzstan

c) Uzbekistan

d) Turkmenistan

Answer:

1(c), 2(b), 3(a), 4(a), 5(b)

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UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 19

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 19

1. Consider the following statements regarding the newly introduced e-governance initiatives launched for the welfare of ST’s:

1) Ministry of Tribal Affairs has developed online portals namely DBT Tribal and NGO Grants Online Application & Tracking System for bringing in greater e-Governance in implementation of welfare schemes for STs.

2) In NGO portal, there are 2 main modules for Pre-Matric & Post-Matric Scholarship. Data sharing module is mainly meant for sharing beneficiary-data by States & in Communication module, the States have facility to upload documents, raise query for faster release of funds.

3) The DBT tribal portal, developed for implementing scheme of Aid to Voluntary Organizations working for the welfare of STs, has been fully revamped & redesigned with simplified Application form, Inspection Report and Fund Processing module.

Which of the above statements are not true ?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q2. Which of the following are classified as non communicable diseases?

1) Cancer

2) Osteoporosis

3) Chronic Lung disease

4) Diabetes

5) Alzheimer’s

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 3, 4 & 5 only

c) all of the above

d) None of the above

Q3. Which of the following statements regarding child labour legislation in India & abroad are true?

1) The government has enacted the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016 which came into force with effect from September 01, 2016. Now the employment of a Child below 14 years is completely prohibited in any occupation or processes.

2) The census 2011 shows an increase in Child Labour to 1.26 crore as compared to 1.01 crore in 2001.

3) The Theme of World Day against Child Labour for the year 2019 is ‘Children shouldn’t Work in Fields, but on Dreams’ which focuses on the importance of ending child labour and calls for evolving strategies to end child labour.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. The Cabinet Committee on Security headed by Prime Minister has cleared the setting up of the Defence Space Research Agency. Which of the following statements regarding the same are true?

1) The agency has been entrusted with the task of creating space warfare weapon systems and technologies.

2) The agency would be provided with a team of scientists which would be working in close coordination with the ISRO.

3) It would be providing the research and development support to the Defence Space Agency (DSA) which comprises members of the three services.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q5. External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar will flag off the first batch of yatris of Kailash Mansarovar Yatra from New Delhi. The route is possible only through which of the following passes in India?

a) Nathu la Pass

b) Diphu Pass

c) Khardung la Pass

d) Shipki la Pass

Answer:

1(b), 2(c), 3(c), 4(c), 5(a)

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UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 18

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 18

1. India has called upon the G-20 countries to urgently fix the issue of taxing profits made by digital economy companies in countries where they do not have significant physical presence. Which of the following statements with respect to the above context are true?

1) The aim is to bring offshore companies with significant economic presence in India into the tax net to address the shortcomings in taxing the digital economy.

2) Offshore digital companies such as Facebook, Google and Netflix have little presence in India, taxing their profits is not possible.

3) This prompted the government to roll out equalization levy as a tax deducted at source on payments made to them by Indian firms with effect from April 2018.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q2. Which of the following countries constitutes the Nordic countries?

1) Iceland

2) Russia

3) Norway

4) Georgia

5) Denmark

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 3, 4 & 5 only

c) 1, 3 & 5 only

d) all of the above

Q3. Which of the following statements regarding the National cyclone risk mitigation project (NCRMP) are true?

1) The Government of India has initiated the National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project (NCRMP) with a view to address cyclone risks in the country.

2) The overall objective of the Project is to undertake suitable structural and non-structural measures to mitigate the effects of cyclones in the coastal states and UTs of India.

3) National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) under the aegis of Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) will implement the Project in coordination with participating State Governments and the National Institute for Disaster Management (NIDM).

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the ethical concepts of adoption of Artificial Intelligence:

1) AI has several positive applications, but the capability of AI systems to learn from experience and to perform autonomously for humans makes AI the most disruptive and self-transformative technology of the 21st century.

2) Given the importance of intention in India’s criminal law jurisprudence, it is essential to establish the legal personality of AI (which means AI will have a bundle of rights and obligations), and whether any sort of intention can be attributed to it.

3) Germany has come up with ethical rules for autonomous vehicles stipulating that human life should always have priority over property or animal life.

Which of the above statements stands true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q5. India is set to adopt the “Osaka summit declaration” in near future. The declaration pertains to which of the following?

a) To adopt the climate change resolutions put forwarded in Paris summit.

b) Deliberations on trade, investment and digital economy.

c) For the conservation of archaeological sites in the routes of swadesh Darshan scheme.

d) To promote artificial intelligence in the banking as well as insurance sectors.

Answer:

1(a), 2(c), 3(d), 4(d), 5(b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 17

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 17

1. Consider the following statements regarding the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI):

1) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) is the national professional accounting body of India. It was established as a statutory body under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 enacted by the Parliament.

2) It recommends the accounting standards to be followed by companies in India to National Advisory Committee on Accounting Standards (NACAS) and sets the accounting standards to be followed by other types of organisations.

3) It works closely with the Government of India, Reserve Bank of India and the Securities and Exchange Board of India in formulating and enforcing such standards.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following palaces/forts in India and their corresponding locations:

1) Victoria memorial: Mumbai

2) Neermahal Palace: Tripura

3) Fort.St.george: Kolkata

4) Kumbhalgarh Fort: Rajsamand

5) Lalgarh palace: Bikaner

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 2, 4 & 5 only

c) 1, 3 & 5 only

d) all of the above

3. Scientists have created high-resolution maps of points around the globe where groundwater meets the oceans, which of the following statements regarding the study are true?

1) The study found that in some parts of the world, groundwater could be polluting oceans and lakes with nutrients and other chemicals.

2) Groundwater can carry higher concentrations of nitrates a key contributor of the types of harmful algal blooms as well as high concentrations of mercury.

3) Most of the water that gets to lakes and oceans comes from ground water sources carrying minerals and, in some cases, pollutants, to surface bodies of water.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) All the of above

4. Which of the following statements regarding the recently published UNICEF report on child marriage are true?

1) The study reveals that child marriage among boys is prevalent across a range of countries around the world, spanning sub-Saharan Africa, Latin America and the Caribbean, South Asia, and East Asia and the Pacific.

2) According to the data, the India has the highest prevalence of child marriage among males (28%), followed by Nicaragua (19%) and Madagascar (13%).

3) Early marriage brings early fatherhood, and with it added pressure to provide for a family, cutting short education and job opportunities.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Which of the following countries of the Indian subcontinent recently passed a law legalizing homosexuality?

a) Srilanka

b) Nepal

c) Bhutan

d) Myanmar

Answer:

1(d), 2(b), 3(a), 4(c), 5(c)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 16

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 16

1. Consider the following statements regarding food safety:

1) An estimated 600 million cases of foodborne diseases occur annually worldwide.

2) Unsafe food is a threat to human health and economies, disproportionately affecting vulnerable and marginalized people, especially women and children, populations affected by conflict and migrants.

3) World Food Safety Day adopted by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations is aimed at imposing non tariff barriers to protect local foods/agri products.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of space missions and their respective countries/space agencies:

1) Sputnik -1: Russia

2) Long March -1: China

3) Giotto: European space agency

4) Explorer 1: Japan

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 4 only

c) 2 & 3 only

d) 1 & 4 only

3. Which of the following statements air quality and BS emission standards are true?

1) India is among those nine countries where the forest cover has increased by one percent.

2) Vehicular pollution which is 28 to 30 per cent of air pollution is expected to be reduced drastically after implementation of Bharat Stage (BS)-6 emission norms from next year.

3) However in 2014 in the National Capital the number of poor air quality days was 300 and it increased to 326 days in 2018.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding RBI’s regulation of leverage ratio in the banking sector stands true?

1) The leverage ratio was introduced for banks post the financial crisis of 2008, as one of the underlying features of the crisis was the build-up of excessive on- and off-balance sheet leverage in the banking system.

2) The central bank has mandated leverage ratio of 3.5% for all the banks except for the domestic systemically important banks (D-SIBs), which will have a 4% ratio.

3) The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to bring leverage ratio for banks is in line with Basel-III standards.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Which of the following countries recently organised the “Gandhi cycle rally for peace” to mark the 150th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi?

a) India

b) China

c) Saudi Arabia

d) Australia

Answer:

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 15

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 15

1. Consider the following statements regarding air pollution:

1) While poor air quality days which was 246 in the year 2014 have now come down below 200, the number of moderate to good air quality days have increased from just 108 in 2016 to 159 in 2018.

2) To combat air pollution, Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change has launched the National Clean Air programme (NCAP) which is a mid-term 5 Year Action Plan with targets of 20-30% reduction of PM 2.5 and PM 10 concentration in 102 cities.

3) It has been decided that each Panchayat will tie up with a leading academic institution in the State that would act as the technical partner at the State level for the programme.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Which of the following Indian cities lies in the tropic of cancer?

1) Jaipur

2) Ahmedabad

3) Kolkata

4) Shillong

5) Agartala

a)1,2& 3 only

b) 1, 3 & 5 only

c) 2 & 4 only

d) all of the above

3. With respect to the newly signed tax information exchange agreement (TIEA) between India and Marshall islands, which of the following statements are true?

1) The Agreement enables exchange of information, including banking and ownership information, between the two countries for tax purposes.

2) It is based on international standards of tax transparency and exchange of information and enables sharing of information on request.

3) The Agreement also provides for representatives of one country to undertake tax examinations in the other country.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding the newly introduced Swachh Survekshan 2020(SS 2020) league initiative by ministry of housing & urban affairs are true?

1) SS League 2020 has been introduced with the objective of sustaining the on ground performance of cities along with continuous monitoring of service level performance when it comes to cleanliness.

2) The performance of cities in SS League 2020 will be crucial to their ranking in SwachhSurvekshan 2020 due to the 25% weightage of the quarterly assessments to be included in the annual survey in January 2020.

3) While SS 2016 had seen Indore emerge as the cleanest city in India, Bengaluru has retained the title of the Cleanest City in the last three years.

a) 1 & 2 only

 b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Sudan has been suspended from the African Union (AU) amid growing fears that splits among the ruling military regime could lead to civil war and anarchy.

Which of the following places forms the headquarters of the African union?

a) Johannesburg, South Africa

b) Nairobi, Kenya

c) AdisAbaba, Ethiopia

d) Mogadishu, Somalia

Answer

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 14

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 14

1. Consider the following statements with respect to the micro finance sector in India?

1) The Indian microfinance sector is expected to register a more than 30% year-on-year growth to Rs. 90,000 crore in 2018-19.

2) Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), cooperative societies and other large lenders have played an important role in providing refinance facility to MFIs.

3) The RBI formed Malegam committee aimed to address the primary customer complaints that led to the crisis, including coercive collection practices, usurious interest rates, and selling practices that resulted in over-indebtedness.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q2. Consider the following pairs of mineral resources in India and their corresponding locations:

1) Uranium, Mica: Karnataka

2) Limestone, Mica: Rajasthan

3) Bauxite, Manganese: Andhra Pradesh

4) Chromite, coal : Tamilnadu

5) Iron ore and clay: Goa

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2& 3 only

b) 1, 3 & 5 only

c) 2 & 5 only

d) 1 & 4 only

Q3. With respect to the recently released gender equality index report, which of the following statements are true ?

1) The index, covering 14 of the 17 SDGs, measures countries on 51 issues ranging from health, gender-based violence, climate change, decent work and others.

2) The overall index score and individual goal scores are based on a scale of 0-100. A score of zero reflects the achievement of gender equality in relation to the targets set for each indicator.

3) India ranks 95 out of 129 countries, below countries such as Ghana, Rwanda and Bhutan in the new gender equality index.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM):

1) GDM is defined as glucose intolerance with onset or first recognition during pregnancy, GDM simply represents relatively high glucose levels at one point in the life of a young woman.

2) Higher glucose transfer to the foetus, when the mother has high blood sugar, stimulates the foetal pancreatic cells to start secreting insulin earlier and in higher quantities.

3) It has become imperative that every pregnant woman be screened for high blood glucose even if no symptoms are exhibited in order to avoid GDM.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q5. Which of the following countries have launched the first arctic train named Zarengold which will travel from Saint Petersburg through Petrozavodsk, the historic town of Kem and Murmansk?

a) Germany

b) Russia

c) Norway

d) Denmark

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 13

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 13

1. Consider the following statements regarding the newly released RBI report on “Benchmarking of India’s Payment Systems” :

1) While there has been robust growth in the volume of retail electronic transactions amid a strong regulatory framework, the country needs to enhance its payments acceptance infrastructure.

2) In 2018-19, the volume growth of retail electronic transactions was 95%, compared to 51% in the previous year, mainly due to to the steep growth in the use of the Unified Payments Interface (UPI).

3) The report also said that the level of credit card penetration in India was low when compared to advanced countries, where it was a preferred option for making payments.

Which of the following statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Which of the following Indian states are the major sugarcane producing states of India?

1) Andhra Pradesh

2) Assam

3) Tamilnadu

4) Gujarat

5) Maharashtra

a) 1,2& 3 only

b) 3,4 & 5 only

c) 1,4 & 5 only

d) all of the above

Q3. Which of the following statements regarding global food safety are true?

1) Food safety is an increasing threat to human health. Children under 5 years of age carry 40% of the food-borne disease burden with 1, 25,000 deaths every year

2) Access to sufficient amounts of safe and nutritious food is key to sustaining life and promoting good health. Food-borne diseases impede socio-economic development by straining health care systems and harming national economies, tourism and trade.

3) The first-ever World Food Safety Day was adopted by the World Health Assembly in 2019.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 &3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding Nipah virus are true?

1) Nipah virus, which causes encephalitis and pneumonia, is lethal in about 70% of cases and can be caught from animals or transmitted between people.

2) The only current treatment for Nipah virus infection is a monoclonal antibody that is still experimental; it was tested during an outbreak in India last year.

3) However since Ebola and Nipah virus belongs to the same family the vaccine used for Ebola can be used successfully to counter Nipah.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. The “Global Economic Prospects “have been released by which of the following international institutions?

a) World economic forum

b) World Bank

c) World trade Organisation

d) UN General Assembly

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 12

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 12

1. Consider the following statements regarding copyright law in India:

1) Indian copyright law is at parity with the international standards as contained in TRIPS. The (Indian) Copyright Act, 1957 fully reflects the Berne Convention for Protection of Literary and Artistic Works.

2) In India, the registration of copyright is not mandatory as the registration is treated as mere recordal of a fact.

3) The registration does not create or confer any new right and is not a prerequisite for initiating action against infringement.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q2. Which of the following phenomenons are examples of convergent plate boundaries?

1) Subduction of the Nazca Plate beneath the South American Plate

2) Formation of the Aravallis.

3) Collision between the Australian Plate and the Pacific Plate.

4) Formation of New Zealand.

5) Collision between Eurasian plate and African plate

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 1, 3 & 4 only

c) 1, 3 & 5 only

d) 2 & 4 only

Q3. Which of the following statements regarding NSSO (National sample survey office) are true?

1) The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) is responsible for conduct of large scale sample surveys in diverse fields on All India basis under the ministry of HRD.

2) Besides these surveys, NSSO collects data on rural and urban prices and plays a significant role in the improvement of crop statistics through supervision of the area enumeration and crop estimation surveys of the State agencies.

3) It also maintains a frame of urban area units for use in sample surveys in urban areas.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements with respect to section 376E of IPC frequently seen in news:

1) Section 376E of IPC was included in the criminal law act as per recommendation by justice Verma committee which was constituted to enable quicker trials and harsher punishment for those accused of sexual assault.

2) As per the act, habitual offenders are punished with death penalty only if they have been convicted subsequently for section 376A.

3) The section 376E is a cognisable as well as non bailable offence under IPC.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q5. The recently launched initiative “Udchalo” serves which of the following purposes?

a) It was started by union aviation ministry to provide concession to senior citizens for using air travel.

b) It is a travel portal that caters for the personal travel of the military and paramilitary forces personnel by aggregating defence fares and getting exclusive discounts.

c) It is an online platform for bidding of air routes for both domestic as well as foreign players.

d) It is an initiative by HRD ministry to encourage pilot training amongst women army officers

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 11

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 11

1. Which of the following statements regarding article 370 of Indian constitution are correct?

1) Article 370 in the part XXI of the constitution of India provides a special status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir and other tribal states of India.

2) Laws on Union and concurrent list will be made by centre only with the consent of state of J&K.

3) Dr BR Ambedkar who was the chairman of the drafting committee of the constitution assembly was against the incorporation of article 370 in the constitution.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Which of the following are used as gene editing tools in biotechnology?

1) CRISPR-Cas9

2) TALENs

3) transposons

4) rAAV

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) all of the above

d) 2 & 4 only

3. Which of the following statements regarding the newly approved Agriculture Export Policy are true?

1) It is aimed at increasing India’s exports to $100 billion by 2032 from the current $37 billion.

2) The policy also aims to promote the export of novel, indigenous, organic, ethnic, traditional and non-traditional products.

3) The Mission target the establishment of 15 Technology Innovation Hubs (TIH), six Application Innovation Hubs (AIH) and four Technology Translation Research Parks (TTRP) also.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Consider the following statements:

1) Rice blast, caused by a fungus Magnaportheoryzae, is one of the major diseases of the rice crop.

2) Fungicides are very expensive, harmful for the environment and inappropriate application can cause health issues.

3) The rapid changes in pathogen virulence pose a constant challenge to the success of existing blast-resistant rice varieties.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Which of the following African countries recently banned the importation, production, sale and use of plastic bags in its territory?

a) Zimbabwe

b) Tanzania

c) Nigeria

d) Zambia

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 10

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 10

1. Consider the following statements with respect to the current economic prospects:

1) India’s GDP grew at 5.8% in the January-March 2019 quarter, dragging down the full year growth to a five-year low of 6.8%.

2) The slowdown in the economy was led by sluggish growth in construction, financial, real estate and professional services, and electricity, gas, water supply and other utility services.

3) The unemployment rate in the country rose to a 45-year high of 6.1% in 2017-18, as per official data.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q2. Which of the following art/cultural forms are included in the UNESCO’s List of Intangible Cultural Heritage list from India?

1) Ramleela

2) Ashokan edicts

3) Ajanta caves

4) Kalbelia dance

5) Kumbh mela

a) 1,2 & 3 only

b) 1,4 & 5 only

c) 3,4 & 5 only

d) all of the above

Q3. India will lose access to preferential trade terms with the U.S. under the latter’s Generalised System of Preferences (GSP) programme soon.

Which of the following statements regarding the same are true?

1) The Generalized System of Preference (GSP) is the largest and oldest US trade preference programme and is designed to promote economic development by allowing duty-free entry for thousands of products from designated beneficiary countries.

2) The GSP given by developed countries including the US is a violation of most favoured nation (MFN) status as per WTO norms.

3) India was the largest beneficiary of the program in 2017-2018.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. Which of the following statements regarding the newly submitted draft education policy stands true?

1) The policy draft recommends incorporation of Indian knowledge systems in the curriculum, constituting a National Education Commission and curbing arbitrary fees hikes by private schools.

2) The expert panel also proposed massive transformation in Teacher Education by moving all teacher preparation and education programmes into large multidisciplinary universities or colleges.

3) The existing NEP was framed in 1986 and revised in 2005, and the draft panel is headed by Dr.MS Swaminathan.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q5. Which one of the following countries was not amongst those elected as the non permanent members of UN Security Council recently?

a) Indonesia

b) Brazil

c) Germany

d) Belgium

Answer:

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 8

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 8

1. Consider the following statements about Directive Principles:

  1. They have been derived from the Irish Constitution.
  2. Similar instructions to the State also existed in Government of India Act, 1935
  3. The explicit provision to minimise inequalities was not there in the original Constitution.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 2, 3

 c) 3 only

 d) 1, 2, 3

2.  Consider the following statements regarding Committee on Public Accounts:

  1. It is constituted each year for examination of accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by Parliament for expenditure of Government of India.
  2. The Committee consists of 22 members comprising 15 members elected by Lok Sabha and 7 members elected by Rajya Sabha.
  3. A Minister is not eligible to be elected as a member of the Committee.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1, 2

 b) 1 only

 c) 2, 3

 d) 1, 2, 3

3.  Which of the following are true about qualifications for a Supreme Court Judge?

  1. A naturalised citizen is eligible.
  2. Should be of age more than 35 years.
  3. Should have been a judge of High Court for 10 years.

Select the correct answer code

 a) 1 only

 b) 1, 2

 c) 2, 3

 d) 1, 3

4.  Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills. It states that a bill is deemed to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with?

  1. The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
  2. The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government.
  3. The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 1, 2

 c) 2, 3

 d) 1, 2, 3

5. Consider the following statements regarding Delimitation of Constituencies.

  1. In the delimitation process, the number of seats allocated to different states in Lok Sabha and the total number seats in a Legislative Assembly remains the same.
  2. The Delimitation Commission in India is a high-power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be called in question before any court.
  3. The first delimitation exercise in 1950-51 was carried out by the President with the help of the Election Commission.

Which of the above statements is/are?

 a) 1 only

 b) 1, 2

 c) 3 only

 d) 2, 3

Solution: 1-d, 2-d, 3- a, 4- d, 5- a

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 7

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 7

1. With reference to the Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD), consider the following statements:

  1. The western Indian Ocean becomes alternately warmer and then colder than the eastern part of the ocean
  2. A study has found that IOD results drought in the southern half of Australia

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 2 Only

 c) Both 1 and 2

 d) Neither 1 nor 2

2.  Consider the following statements:

  1. River Narmada runs through only three states
  2. Kaveri River’s basin covers three states and a Union Territory

Which of the above is/are correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 2 only

 c) Both 1 and 2

 d) Neither 1 nor 2

3.  Which of the following ports is/are NOT located in the Bay of Bengal?

  1. Mongla
  2. Paradip
  3. Mundra
  4. Tuticorin
  5. Chittagong

Select correct answer using codes below:

 a) 1 and 3 Only

 b) 1 Only

 c) 3 Only

 d) 1, 3 and 4 Only

4. With reference to the Brahmani River, consider the following statements:

  1. The Brahmani is a major seasonal river in Telangana
  2. Together with the rivers Mahanadi and Baitarani, it forms a large delta before emptying into the Bay of Bengal at Dhamra.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 Only

 b) 2 Only

 c) Both 1 and 2

 d) Neither 1 nor 2

5.  With reference to the Chabahar Port, consider the following statements:

  1. It is located on the Gulf of Oman
  2. It is operated by India Ports Global Private Limited (IPGPL) along with its Iranian partner

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 Only

 b) 2 Only

 c) Both 1 and 2

 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

Solution: 1-c, 2-c, 3-c, 4-b, 5-c

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 5

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 5

1. Consider the following statements regarding Imported Inflation.

  1. When the general price level rises in a country because of the rise in prices of imported commodities, inflation is termed as imported.
  2. The weakening of the domestic currency may lead to imported inflation in the country.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 2 only

 c) Both

 d) None

Solution: c

2.  Consider the following statements regarding Basel III:

  1. Basel III is a global, voluntary regulatory framework on bank capital adequacy.
  2. It was developed in response to the deficiencies in financial regulation revealed by the financial crisis of 2007–08.
  3. It is intended to increase bank liquidity and bank leverage.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1, 2

 b) 1, 3

 c) 2, 3

 d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: a

3.  Participatory Notes commonly known as P-Notes are one of the instruments of foreign investment. In this context, consider the following statements:

  1. These are financial instruments used by overseas investors that are not registered with the SEBI to invest in Indian securities.
  2. The investors enjoy the voting rights in relation to shares invested through the P – Notes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 2 only

 c) Both

 d) None

Solution: a

4. Consider the following statements about Regional Rural Banks (RRBs):

  1. Regional Rural Banks were set up on the basis of the recommendations of Vijay Kelkar committee.
  2. The larger shareholder of regional rural banks is the Central Government.
  3. RRBs are under the ambit of priority sector lending on par with the commercial banks.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1, 2

 b) 2, 3

 c) 1, 3

 d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: b

5. With reference to World Trade Organization (WTO) affairs, which of the following best describes Special Safeguard Mechanism (SSM)?

 a) Mechanism provided for the developed countries to raise tariffs to deal with cheap goods from the developing nations.

 b) Mechanism to restrict the imports of disease infected agricultural products from other countries.

 c) Mechanism to curb the imports of goods whose manufacturing process has violated International labour norms

 d) A tool that will allow developing countries to raise tariffs temporarily to deal with import surges or price falls.

Solution: d

It is a tool that will allow developing countries to raise tariffs temporarily to deal with import surges or price falls.

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 3

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 3

1. With reference to the Vedic period, consider the following statements:

  1. The end of the Vedic period witnessed the rise of Mahajanapada
  2. The Vedic period preceded the Indus Valley Civilisation
  3. Early Vedic culture was tribal and pastoral

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 and 2 Only

 b) 1 and 3 Only

 c) 2 and 3 Only

 d) All are correct

Solution: b

2.  With reference to the Painted Grey Ware culture (PGW), consider the following statements:

  1. It is a Bronze Age culture of the western Gangetic plain and the Ghaggar-Hakra valley
  2. It is associated with the rise of the great Mahajanapada states and of the Magadha Empire.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 2 Only

 c) Both 1 and 2

 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

3. The Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) was a?

 a) Iron-age civilisation

 b) Bronze-age civilisation

 c) Copper-age civilisation

 d) None of the above

Solution: b

4.  Ganweriwala is spread over 80 hectares and comparable in size with the largest sites of the Indus Valley Civilization, such as Mohenjo-daro. It is located in

 a) India

 b) Afghanistan

 c) Pakistan

 d) Iran

Solution: c

5. Sramana movement is mainly associated with which of the following?

 a) Jainism

 b) Buddhism

 c) Ajivikas

 d) All of the above

Solution: d

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 2

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 2

1. Paryushana is the most important annual holy events for which of the following?

 a) Buddhists

 b) Jains

 c) Hindus

 d) Parsis

Solution: b

2.  Jain ethical code prescribes five fundamental vows. Which of the following is/are not one of them?

  1. Ahimsa
  2. Satya
  3. Aparigraha
  4. Brahmacharya

Select the correct answer using codes below:

 a) 1 and 2 Only

 b) 3 Only

 c) 4 Only

 d) None of the above

Solution: d

3.  With reference to Ajivikas (Ajivakas), consider the following statements:

  1. The most important sects to arise at the time of the Buddha were the Ajivikas
  2. They emphasized the rule of fate (niyati)

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 Only

 b) 2 Only

 c) Both 1 and 2

 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

4. The oldest and smallest of the three sections of the Buddhist canonical Tipitaka (“Triple Basket”) and the one that regulates monastic life and the daily affairs of monks and nuns according to rules attributed to the Buddha is?

 a) Vinaya Pitaka

 b) Abhidhamma Pitaka

 c) Sutta Pitaka

 d) All of the above

Solution: a

5.  The Samayasara and the Pravacanasara are considered the bible of

 a) Shwetambaras

 b) Digambara

 c) Ajivaka

 d) Charvaka

Solution: b

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 1

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 1

1. Consider the following statements:

  1. Brahmanism emphasizes on the rites performed by, and the status of priestly class
  2. Brahmanism emerged from Vedanta principles

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 Only

 b) 2 Only

 c) Both 1 and 2

 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

2. Pratyakṣa (perception), Anumāna (inference) and śabda (Āptavacana, word/testimony of reliable sources) are accepted as the only reliable means of gaining knowledge in which of the following schools of the Hindu philosophy?

 a) Yoga

 b) Samkhya

 c) Nyaya

 d) Both b and c

Solution: d

3. which of the following schools of thought maintained that though events (dharmas) have only momentary existence, there is a transmigrating substratum of consciousness that contains within it seeds of goodness that are in every person?

 a) Sautrantika

 b) Sammitiya

 c) Vaisheshika

 d) None of the above

Solution: a

4. The major form of Buddhism practised in Tibet, China, Korea, and Japan is

 a) Theravada

 b) Vajrayana

 c) Mahayana

 d) Hinayana

Solution: c

5. With reference to Avalokitesvara, consider the following statements:

  1. Avalokitesvara is a divine and compassionate depiction of Jina in certain parts of coastal Karnataka
  2. Avalokitesvara is the earthly manifestation of the self-born eternal Amitabha (another name for Bahubali)

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 Only

 b) 2 Only

 c) Both 1 and 2

 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

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Some other important links

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam Solved Test 1-15 GS Paper-I

India Yearbook Question Bank: UPSC CSE Prelims Exam 2020

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Practice Test 1-12

Indian History Question Bank

Indian Geography Question Bank

Indian Polity Topic Wise Question Bank

Science & Technology Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20

APPSC Andhra Pradesh Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20

Haryana Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20 Updated

2000 MCQ: IAS Preliminary exam 2020

Indian Geography-NCERT MCQ Compilation Class 6-12th

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test -10

Geography & Environment Current issues yearbook 2019

Indian Polity and Governance Yearbook 2019-20

UPSC IAS Prelims Previous Year Solved Paper 2010-19

UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Practice Test 9

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-4 Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-3 Complete Study Notes

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-2 Complete Study Notes

UPSC IAS Main exam GS Paper-1 Complete study notes

Art & Culture of India

Indian History Complete Study Notes

Indian Polity for Civil Services Examination

Physical Economic and Human Geography of India

Art Culture & Heritage of Rajasthan

Economy of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Geography of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Polity and Administration of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with MCQ

History of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Current Affairs Rajasthan Yearbook 2019

राजस्थान सामान्य अध्ययन:नोट्स एवं अभ्यास 1000+प्रश्नोत्तर

Current Affairs Study Notes January – August 2019

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Insights Daily Current Affairs + PIB: 31 October 2019

Insights Revision through MCQs – 31 October 2019

Insights Current Affairs Quiz, 31 October 2019

Insights Static Quiz – 31 October 2019

Some other important links

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam Solved Test 1-15 GS Paper-I

India Yearbook Question Bank: UPSC CSE Prelims Exam 2020

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Practice Test 1-12

Indian History Question Bank

Indian Geography Question Bank

Indian Polity Topic Wise Question Bank

Science & Technology Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20

APPSC Andhra Pradesh Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20

Haryana Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20 Updated

2000 MCQ: IAS Preliminary exam 2020

Indian Geography-NCERT MCQ Compilation Class 6-12th

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test -10

Geography & Environment Current issues yearbook 2019

Indian Polity and Governance Yearbook 2019-20

UPSC IAS Prelims Previous Year Solved Paper 2010-19

UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Practice Test 9

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-4 Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-3 Complete Study Notes

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-2 Complete Study Notes

UPSC IAS Main exam GS Paper-1 Complete study notes

Art & Culture of India

Indian History Complete Study Notes

Indian Polity for Civil Services Examination

Physical Economic and Human Geography of India

Art Culture & Heritage of Rajasthan

Economy of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Geography of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Polity and Administration of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with MCQ

History of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Current Affairs Rajasthan Yearbook 2019

राजस्थान सामान्य अध्ययन:नोट्स एवं अभ्यास 1000+प्रश्नोत्तर

Current Affairs Study Notes January – August 2019

Insights IAS Daily Current Affairs 30 October 2019

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Insights Daily Current Affairs + PIB: 30 October 2019

Insights Revision through MCQs – 30 October 2019

Insights Current Affairs Quiz, 30 October 2019

Insights Static Quiz – 30 October 2019

Some other important links

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam Solved Test 1-15 GS Paper-I

India Yearbook Question Bank: UPSC CSE Prelims Exam 2020

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Practice Test 1-12

Indian History Question Bank

Indian Geography Question Bank

Indian Polity Topic Wise Question Bank

Science & Technology Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20

APPSC Andhra Pradesh Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20

Haryana Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20 Updated

2000 MCQ: IAS Preliminary exam 2020

Indian Geography-NCERT MCQ Compilation Class 6-12th

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test -10

Geography & Environment Current issues yearbook 2019

Indian Polity and Governance Yearbook 2019-20

UPSC IAS Prelims Previous Year Solved Paper 2010-19

UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Practice Test 9

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-4 Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-3 Complete Study Notes

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-2 Complete Study Notes

UPSC IAS Main exam GS Paper-1 Complete study notes

Art & Culture of India

Indian History Complete Study Notes

Indian Polity for Civil Services Examination

Physical Economic and Human Geography of India

Art Culture & Heritage of Rajasthan

Economy of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Geography of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Polity and Administration of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with MCQ

History of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Current Affairs Rajasthan Yearbook 2019

राजस्थान सामान्य अध्ययन:नोट्स एवं अभ्यास 1000+प्रश्नोत्तर

Current Affairs Study Notes January – August 2019

Current Affairs Quiz – 7

Myupsc.com brings you the complete and important daily Current Affairs August 2019 Quiz to achieve more marks in Banking, Insurance, UPSC, SSC, CLAT, Railways and all other competitive Exams. We have prepared the current affairs quiz questions from our daily current affairs 2019 latest updates.

General Studies of Rajasthan-All in One

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam – 2020

UPSC IAS Mains Exam – 2019

RPSC RAS Prelims Exam

RPSC RAS Mains Exam

General Knowledge

Current Affairs

General Studies of Rajasthan-All in OneCurrent Affairs Quarterly (June-August) 2019 Study Magazine in HindiCurrent Affairs Yearbook 2019-Polity and Governance Special Issue 
Geography and Environment-Current Affairs 2019 Yearbook Special Issue  Current Affairs Rajasthan Yearbook 2019 For RPSC and RSMSSB ExamsCurrent Affairs Question Bank March-July 2019
Current Affairs Study Notes January-August 2019HSSC Haryana Police Constable 2019-20 Solved Test PaperHSSC Clerk Recruitment Exam 2019-20 Practice Solved Test Paper  
Half Yearly Current Affairs Question Bank: January – July 2019Electrical Engineering Objective Question Bank for All Competitive Exams500+ Current Affairs MCQ for All Competitive Exams 2019  
UPSC IAS Prelims last 10 years solved questions GS Paper-IEconomy of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQAdministrative Ethics-RPSC RAS Mains Exam GS Paper-2  
UPSC IAS Mains Exam GS Paper-IV Ethics Integrity and Aptitude Complete Study Notes  RPSC RAS Mains Exam GS Paper-2 Study NotesRPSC RAS Mains Exam GS Paper-I Study Notes
UPSC IAS Mains GS Paper-3 Study Notes with Practice QuestionsRevision Notes: Environment and EcologyIAS Prelims 2020: Art and Culture Revision Notes    
UPSC IAS Mains Exam GS Paper-2 Complete Study Notes  Geography of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes- HindiRPSC RAS Mains Art and Culture Practice Solved Question
UPSC IAS Mains Exam GS Paper-I Complete Study Notes with Practice Questions  Art Culture and Heritage of Rajasthan Complete Study NotesHistory of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes
Polity and Administration of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes Geography of Rajasthan Study notes with MCQ2000 Solved MCQ for IAS Preliminary Exam 2020:GS Paper-I
RPSC RAS Mains Exam Practice Solved Test-3  RAS MAIN EXAM PRACTICE  TEST-2RPSC RAS Mains Exam Practice Solved Test-1
Polity & Administration of Rajasthan Solved Practice Question  RAS MAINS EXAM ECONOMY SOLVED QUESTIONSGeography of Rajasthan Solved Question for RPSC RAS Mains Exam
History Of India Practice Question Bank  Indian Polity Question Bank eBookGeography of India Question Bank

Current Affairs important question answer for all competitive exams-2019-20

The following current affairs quiz will help in facing General Studies Paper for all competitive exams. Questions will be both conceptual and factual. Current affairs form the bulk of all exams preparation. Solving daily questions based on current affairs will help you both understand issues and remember facts better.

1.         Chief Minister BS Yediyurappa proved the majority in the state assembly in Karnataka recently. The present governor of the state is

1)         Vajubhai Vala

2)        Lal ji Tandon

3)        Anandiben Patel

4)        Jagdeep Dhankhar

5)         RN Ravi

2.         Dr Subir Vithal Gokarn passed away recently. He was a former

1)         Chief Economic Advisor

2)        Finance Secretary

3)        Revenue Secretary

4)        RBI Governor

5)         RBI Deputy Governor

3.         The Pattadakallu temple complex in Bagalkot is a UNESCO site located in which state? According to a recently decision by the government, it will stay open till 9pm.

1)         Kerala

2)        Tamil Nadu

3)        Telangana

4)        Karnataka

5)         Andhra Pradesh

4.         Prime Minister Narendra Modi released All India Tiger Estimation Report 2018 recently. According to the report, which state has the highest number of tigers as of now?

1)         Karnataka

2)        Tamil Nadu

3)        Madhya Pradesh

4)        Maharashtra

5)         Uttrakhand

5.         India is set to hand over a submarine (INS Sindhuvir) to which of the following countries? The country will use its first ever submarine for training purposes.

1)         Sri Lanka

2)        Myanmar

3)        Bangladesh

4)        Maldives

5)         Thailand

6.         Who among the following has been appointed as the new Finance Secretary in the present Govt?

1)         Ajay Kumar Bhalla

2)        Anuradha Mitra

3)        Atanu Chakraborty

4)        Rajiv Gauba

5)         Rajiv Kumar

7.         According to a government report, India received the highest-ever foreign direct investment (FDI) inflow of what amount during the fiscal 2018-19?

1)         $60.43 billion

2)        $62.12 billion

3)        $62.32 billion

4)        $64.37 billion

5)         $64.73 billion

8.         The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has relaxed norms for end-use of money raised through ECBs. Here, the term ECB means

1)         Enhanced Commercial Borrowings

2)        External Commercial Borrowings

3)        External Corporate Borrowings

4)        External Collateral Borrowings

5)         Extended Corporate Borrowings

9.         Under the Consumer Protection Bill 2019 passed in Lok Sabha, celebrity endorsers are liable for misleading ads and can be fined by Central Consumer Protection Authority up to

1)         Rs 10 lakh

2)        Rs 15 lakh

3)        Rs 20 lakh

4)        Rs 25 lakh

5)         Rs 40 lakh

10.       Venugopal Rao announced his retirement recently. He is associated with which of the following games?

1)         Badminton

2)        Tennis

3)        Cricket

4)        Squash

5)         Boxing

11.        Boris Johnson is the present Prime Minister of which of the following countries?

1)         Spain

2)        Greece

3)        New Zealand

4)        Australia

5)         UK

12.       The International Cricket Council (ICC) has officially launched the inaugural World Test Championship (WTC). The World Test Championship final will be held in 2021 in

1)         India

2)        Australia

3)        United Kingdom

4)        New Zealand

5)         South Africa

13.       Ten monuments in the country will now remain open from sunrise till 9 pm. One of these monuments is Man Mahal which is located in

1)         Varanasi

2)        Jaipur

3)        Bhopal

4)        Hyderabad

5)         Chandigarh

14.       India’s seventh Economic Census began from which state recently? The fieldwork in other States and Union Territories would be undertaken in August and September.

1)         Odisha

2)        Tamil Nadu

3)        Jammu & Kashmir

4)        Tripura

5)         Gujarat

15.       Which of the following states bagged the much-awaited Geographical Indication (GI) tag for its ‘Rasagola’ recently? A GI tag recognises a product as distinctive to a particular locality or region.

1)         Assam

2)        Odisha

3)        Sikkim

4)        Bihar

5)         Uttarakhand

16.       Which of the following online payment solutions providers has/have been levied a total penalty of around Rs 26 lakh by the RBI for non-compliance of regulatory guidelines?

1)         Hip Bar and Mobikwik

2)        Mobikwik and Freecharge

3)        Freecharge and PhonePe

4)        PhonePe and Paytm

5)         Paytm and Google Pay

17.       In the present Union Cabinet, Anurag Thakur is the Minister of State for

1)         Home Affairs

2)        Chemical and Fertilizers

3)        Food Processing Industries

4)        Human Resource Development

5)         Finance and Corporate Affairs

18.       The Indian Federation of Sports Gaming (IFSG) has appointed who among the following as its ombudsman and ethics officer? It is a self-regulatory industry body for the online fantasy sports gaming sector.

1)         Ashok Bhushan

2)        Madan Lokur

3)        Arjan Kumar Sikri

4)        Sharad Arvind Bobde

5)         Jasti Chelameswar

19.       India and Myanmar signed a defence co-operation agreement recently. What is the currency of Myanmar?

1)         Baht

2)        Kyat

3)        Rufiyaa

4)        Rupiah

5)         Taka

20.      Prime Minister Narendra Modi will feature in an episode of the iconic survival television series Man Vs Wild with the host Bear Grylls that will air on Discovery TV on 12 August. The special episode has been shot in the

1)         Ranthambore National Park (Rajasthan)

2)        Kaziranga National Park (Assam)

3)        Kanha Tiger Reserve (Madhya Pradesh)

4)        Jim Corbett National Park (Uttarakhand)

5)         Gir National Park (Gujarat)

21.       Donkupar Roy passed away recently. He was the assembly speaker and the former Chief Minister of

1)         Meghalaya

2)        Sikkim

3)        Tripura

4)        Nagaland

5)         Mizoram

22.       The 2022 Commonwealth Games will be held at which of the following places? Indian Olympic Association has written to the government to boycott the games for dropping shooting from the roster.

1)         Victoria (Canada)

2)        Glasgow (Scotland)

3)        Melbourne (Australia)

4)        Birmingham (England)

5)         Kuala Lumpur (Malaysia)

23.       Who among the following won the 2019 German Grand Prix F1 championship?

1)         Sebastian Vettel

2)        Max Verstappen

3)        Charles Leclerc

4)        Daniel Ricciardo

5)         Lewis Hamilton

24.       Simranjit Kaur won a gold medal in 23rd President’s Cup in Labuan Bajo, Indonesia. She is associated with which of the following games?

1)         Shooting

2)        Archery

3)        Badminton

4)        Squash

5)         Boxing

25.       The former Union Minister S Jaipal Reddy passed away recently. In IK Gujral cabinet in 1998, he served as a Union Minister for

1)         Information and Broadcasting

2)        Corporate Affairs

3)        Agriculture

4)        Human Resource Development

5)         Textiles

26.       Indian Police Service (IPS) officer VK Johri has been appointed as the next Director General of

1)         Border Security Force

2)        Indo-Tibetan Border Police

3)        Central Industrial Security Force

4)        Sashastra Seema Bal

5)         National Security Guard

27.       Defence Minister Rajnath Singh visited Mozambique recently. The capital of Mozambique is

1)         Harare

2)        Gaborone

3)        Windhoek

4)        Dodoma

5)         Maputo

28.      Haryana Chief Minister Manohar Lal Khattar has invited which of the following countries to be the partner country for this year’s ‘Gita Jayanti Mahotsav’?

1)         Indonesia

2)        Singapore

3)        Nepal

4)        Cambodia

5)         Sri Lanka

29.       Prime Minister Narendra Modi released the All India Tiger Estimation 2018 recently. According to the survey, the count of tigers in India has risen to

1) 1,965

2) 2,168

3) 2,462

4) 2,763

5) 2,967

30.      Payments banks have asked the RBI to relax the cap on deposits for these banks. As per present guidelines, payments banks can accept demand deposits up to a maximum of

1)         Rs 25,000 per customer

2)        Rs 50,000 per customer

3)        Rs 75,000 per customer

4)        Rs 1 lakh per customer

5)         Rs 2 lakh per customer

31.       As informed by the Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Narendra Singh Tomar, recently, the average monthly income per agricultural household from all sources is less than

1) Rs 6,500

2) Rs 6,000

3) Rs 5,500

4) Rs 5,000

5) Rs 4,500

32.       Sudarsan Pattnaik won People’s Choice Award in US for his work ‘Stop Plastic Pollution, Save Our Ocean’ recently. He is an Indian

1)         poet

2)        Sculptor

3)        Painter

4)        cartoonist

5)         sand artist

33.       The fifth international Dharma-Dhamma conference was organised recently at which of the following places?

1)         Kushinagar

2)        Patna

3)        Rajgir

4)        Dharamshala

5)         Varanasi

34.       Prime Minister of Nepal addressed India-Nepal Logistics Summit in Kathmandu recently. The present Prime Minister of Nepal is

1)         Madhav Kumar Nepal

2)        Bidhya Devi Bhandari

3)        Sher Bahadur Deuba

4)        KP Sharma Oli

5)         Pushp Kamal Dahal

35.       A Himalayan Conclave was held recently in which state to discuss various issues related to the development of Himalayan States?

1)         Nagaland

2)        Uttarakhand

3)        Meghalaya

4)        Himachal Pradesh

5)         Jammu & Kashmir

36.       The third edition of Khelo India Youth Games will be held in 2020 in which city?

1)         Guwahati

2)        Bhopal

3)        Chennai

4)        Ranchi

5)         Chandigarh

37.       A high level 10-member committee has been constituted to coordinate and strategise the preparation for the 2020 and 2024 Olympics. The chairman of the Committee is

1)         Pullela Gopichand

2)        Kiren Rijiju

3)        Abhinav Bindra

4)        Sarbananda Sonowal

5)         Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore

38.      Ministry of Mines organised ‘Waste To Wealth’ workshop in New Delhi on Effective utilization of Red Mud in association with the Jawaharlal Nehru Aluminium Research Development and Design Centre which is located in

1)         Barauni

2)        Keonjhar

3)        Nagpur

4)        Cuttack

5)         Ratnagiri

39.       The first batch of Boeing AH-64E Apache Guardian Attack helicopters arrived at the Indian Air Force’s Hindon airbase recently. These choppers have been ordered by India from

1)         Germany

2)        UK

3)        Russia

4)        France

5)         US

40.      The International Tiger Day is observed every year on which date?

1)         02 July

2)        09 July

3)        19 July

4)        29 July

5)         31 July

41.       Union power secretary Ajay Kumar Bhalla has been appointed officer on special duty (OSD) in which of the following ministries?

1)         Ministry of Home Affairs

2)        Ministry of External Affairs

3)        Ministry of Finance

4)        Civil Aviation Ministry

5)         Agriculture and Farmer’s Welfare Ministry

42.       RP Upadhyaya took charge as the new Director-General of Police (DGP) in which of the following states recently?

1)         Himachal Pradesh

2)        Haryana

3)        Arunachal Pradesh

4)        Rajasthan

5)         Andhra Pradesh

43.       Which of the following forces celebrated its 81st raising day on 27 July?

1)         Border Security Force

2)        Shashatra Seema Bal

3)        Central Industrial Security Force

4)        Indo-Tibetan Border Police

5)         Central Reserve Police Force

44.       India along with other BRICS nations has called on all states to prevent the financing of terrorist networks. The host country for 11th BRICS Summit (2019) is

1)         Russia

2)        China

3)        India

4)        Brazil

5)         South Africa

45.       Nikhat Zareen and Deepak Bhoria won silver medals at Thailand Open International Championship recently. Both of them are associated with the game of

1)         Tennis

2)        Boxing

3)        Shooting

4)        Archery

5)         Badminton

46.       The Goods and Services Tax Council recently decided to reduce rates on Electrical Vehicles to 1) 18%

2) 12%

3) 5%

4) 2%

5) 0%

47.       Punjab National Bank (PNB) has reported a net profit of Rs 1,019 crore for June quarter. The headquarters of the bank is located in which city?

1)         Mumbai

2)        New Delhi

3)        Amritsar

4)        Chandigarh

5)         Patiala

48.      Which of the following has become the India’s biggest telecom operator with its subscriber base of

331.3 million in the quarter ended June?

1)         MTNL

2)        BSNL

3)        Airtel

4)        Vodafone Idea

5)         Reliance Jio Infocomm

49.       Jordan recently unveiled its first underwater military museum off the coast of Aqaba. The capital city of Jordan is

1)         Amman

2)        Manama

3)        Nassau

4)        Abuja

5)         Kingston

50.       The Union Cabinet recently approved the sale of 481.79 acres of land held by Fertilizers and Chemicals Travancore Ltd (FACT) to which state government?

1)         Tamil Nadu

2)        Karnataka

3)        Telangana

4)        Kerala

5)         Goa

Answer Key:

1.       Vajubhai Vala

2.      RBI Deputy Governor

3.      Karnataka

4.      Madhya Pradesh

5.      Myanmar

6.      Rajiv Kumar

7.      $64.37 billion

8.     External Commercial Borrowings

9.      Rs 10 lakh

10.  Cricket

11.   UK

12.  United Kingdom

13.  Varanasi

14.  Tripura

15.   Odisha

16.  Hip Bar and MobiKwik

17.   Finance and Corporate Affairs

18.  Arjan Kumar Sikri

19.  Kyat

20. Jim Corbett National Park (Uttarakhand)

21.  Meghalaya

22. Birmingham (England)

23. Max Verstappen

24. Boxing

25.  Information and Broadcasting

26. Border Security Force

27.  Maputo

28. Nepal

29. 2,967

30. Rs 1 lakh per customer

31.  Rs 6,500

32. Sand artist

33. Rajgir

34. KP Sharma Oli

35.  Uttarakhand

36. Guwahati

37.  Kiren Rijiju

38. Nagpur

39. US

40. 29 July

41.  Ministry of Home Affairs

42. Arunachal Pradesh

43. Central Reserve Police Force

44. Brazil

45.  Boxing

46. 5%

47.  New Delhi

48. Reliance Jio Infocomm

49. Amman

50. Kerala

Current Affairs Quiz – 6

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General Studies of Rajasthan-All in One

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Myupsc.com brings you the complete and important daily Current Affairs August 2019 Quiz to achieve more marks in Banking, Insurance, UPSC, SSC, CLAT, Railways and all other competitive Exams. We have prepared the current affairs quiz questions from our daily current affairs 2019 latest updates.

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Myupsc.com brings you the complete and important daily Current Affairs August 2019 Quiz to achieve more marks in Banking, Insurance, UPSC, SSC, CLAT, Railways and all other competitive Exams. We have prepared the current affairs quiz questions from our daily current affairs 2019 latest updates.

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Myupsc.com brings you the complete and important daily Current Affairs August 2019 Quiz to achieve more marks in Banking, Insurance, UPSC, SSC, CLAT, Railways and all other competitive Exams. We have prepared the current affairs quiz questions from our daily current affairs 2019 latest updates.

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IAS Prelims 2020: GS Paper Test-4

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Indian Polity & Constitution

1.       By “Rule of Law”, we mean who among the following are subject to the law of the land?

1.       Every subject of the law of the land only

2.       Every subject of the law of the land including the lawmakers

3.       Every subject of the law of the land, lawmakers, law enforcement officials and judges Choose the correct statements

(a)     1 only

(b)     Both 1 and 2

(c)      2 only

(d)     Both 1 and 2

2. Which of the following could not be construed as apart of concept of “Rule of Law”?

(a) Law must be publicly declared and is established or adopted through popular consent

(b) Prospective application (punishments)

(c) Characteristics of generality equality and protection of individual rights

(d) Requirements with regard to the content of the law

3. Consider the following statements.

1. In the Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narayan case, the Apex Court held that Rule of Law embodied in Article 14 of the Constitution is the “basic feature” of the Indian Constitution.

2. In the Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India case, the Supreme Court held that Indian Constitution is based on the American system of ‘Due Process of Law

Correct statement/s is/are

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

4. Consider the following statements.

1. Constitutionalism can be established in a country even without a written Constitution.

2. Written Constitution in a country would not qualify a country automatically to be a Constitutionalised one

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

5. Consider the following statements.

1. While in case of Written Constitutions there is clear distinction between constitutional laws and other laws (like statutory laws and bylaws), in case of unwritten Constitutions there is no such marked difference as every law

Passed by the parliament becomes constitutional.

2. While in case of Written Constitutions, the structure of government can be federal or unitary, in case of unwritten Constitutions, the structure of government is necessarily unitary because the parliament is considered supreme

The correct statement/s is/are

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

6. Consider the following statements regarding the Parliamentary form of the government and choose the INCORRECT feature.

(a)     Existence of a Titular or Constitutional Ruler

(b)     Absence of clear principle of separation of powers

(c)      Ministry formed from the popular chamber of the legislature

(d)     None of the above

7. Which of the following is NOT considered as an essential nature of Democratic government?

(a)     A belief in the fundamental importance of the individual.

(b)     Equality of All Persons

(c)      Majority Rule but recognition of Minority Rights

(d)     Freedom of the individuals rather than the rights of society

8. Consider the following statements.

1. Fundamental rights acts as a limitation on the authority of the state

2. Directive Principles authorises the state to carry out certain functions The correct statement/s is/are

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

9. Consider the following statements with regard to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

1. Preamble contains the philosophical part of the Constitution, the principles which are essentially uncodified.

2. The principles contained in the Preamble can be altered through an amendment, but without altering the basic features contained in it.

The correct statement/s is/are

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

10. Objective Resolution was silent as to the concept of …..? Which was inserted into the Preamble by the Constituent Assembly?

(a)     Republic

(b)     Sovereignty

(c)      Democratic

(d)     Justice

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Environment & Ecology
Science & Technology
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Current Affairs is the most important, as well as the trickiest part of Civil Services Exam. Making your own notes from any standard national newspaper consumes much of your time, especially if you are a beginner.

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IAS Prelims Test Series

India & World Geography

Indian Geography Question Bank 1000+

Indian Geography Question Bank Based on 6-12th NCERT

Art & Culture

History of India

History of India Question Bank

Indian Polity

Indian Polity Question Bank

Indian Polity 35+Practice Set

Environment & Ecology

Science & Technology

NCERT Book

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(Free) Current Affairs Question Bank June-July 2019 PDF download

Current Affairs is the most important, as well as the trickiest part of Civil Services Exam. Making your own notes from any standard national newspaper consumes much of your time, especially if you are a beginner.

This is because the news articles that appear in the newspaper generally miss certain essential facts, lack the logical flow of content and are complexly worded.

Test Series: UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020

Myupsc.com is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc.

IAS Prelims Test Series

India & World Geography

Indian Geography Question Bank 1000+

Indian Geography Question Bank Based on 6-12th NCERT

Art & Culture

History of India

History of India Question Bank

Indian Polity

Indian Polity Question Bank

Indian Polity 35+Practice Set

Environment & Ecology

Science & Technology

NCERT Book

Current Affairs Question Bank June- July 2019

1) Indrasaurus wangi sometimes seen in the news recently is a/an

a.  Paravian Dinosaur

b.  Ancient Lizard species

c.  Dolphin native to River Indus

d.  None of the above

Answer : b

A team of researchers has recently discovered a new specimen of a microraptor — volant dromaeosaurid Microraptor zhaoianus — with the remains of a nearly complete lizard preserved in its stomach. The researchers have named the lizard after Lord Indra. The lizard is unlike any previously known from the Cretaceous and represents a new species- Indrasaurus wangi. The name Indrasaurus was inspired by a Vedic legend in which the god Indra was swallowed by a dragon during a great battle (the dragon here referring to Microraptor).

2) Consider the following statements with respect to Blue Flag Programme

1. It is an eco-label awarded to beaches, marinas, and sustainable boating tourism operators.

2. It is jointly operated under the auspices of the International Maritime Organisation and UN-Oceans.

3. Shivrajpur and Bhogave beaches are the only beaches in India that have attained the Blue Flag. 

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a.  1 only

b.  1 and 2 only

c.  1 and 3 only

d.  1, 2 and 3

Answer : a

The iconic Blue Flag is one of the world’s most recognised voluntary eco-labels awarded to beaches, marinas, and sustainable boating tourism operators.

The Blue Flag Programme for beaches and marinas is run by the international, non-governmental, non-profit organisation FEE (the Foundation for Environmental Education).

In order to qualify for the Blue Flag, a series of stringent environmental, educational, safety, and accessibility criteria must be met and maintained.

Japan and South Korea are the only countries in South and South-Eastern Asia to have Blue Flag beaches.

The Union Environment Ministry has recently selected 12 beaches in India to vie for a ‘Blue Flag’ certification.

3) Which of the following tribe(s) is/are not belonging to the state of Sikkim?

1.       Bhutia

2.       Lepcha

3.       Limboo

4.       Tamang

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a.  4 only

b.  1 and 4 only

c.  1, 2 and 4 only

d.  None of the above

Answer : d

List of Tribes in Sikkim:

1.       Bhutia (including Chumbipa, Dopthapa, Dukpa, Kagatey, Sherpa, Tibetan, Tromopa, Yolmo)

2.       Lepcha

3.       Limboo

4.       Tamang

A proposal for reservation of seats for Limboo and Tamang communities in Sikkim Legislative Assembly is under consideration of the Government of India.

4) Consider the following statements with respect to Van Mitra Portal

1.       It is an online portal launched by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

2.       It acts as a platform for citizens to report poaching and illegal trade of forest resources.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a.  1 only

b.  2 only

c.  Both 1 and 2

d.  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : d

The Madhya Pradesh government has recently began organising gram sabhas in villages to consider afresh rejected claims of Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers to forest land rights under the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006.

To streamline the application process and deal with the bulk of claims, the State has also launched an online application system, Van Mitra, in the Hoshangabad district on a pilot basis.

5) FinSpy sometimes seen in the news recently is a

a.  Bio capsule

b.  Spyware virus

c.  Vaccine for TB

d.  Disinfectant resistant Pathogen

Answer : b

FinSpy is the latest version of spyware virus designed to track nearly every interaction on a mobile device.

FinSpy collects data from instant messengers—even if they are using encryption programs—such as Russian developed messaging app Telegram, Facebook’s WhatsApp, Skype, Signal, China’s WeChat and BlackBerry Messenger.

It can work both on iOS and Android devices.

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General Studies Test – 3

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1.       With reference to the Rim of the Pacific Exercise (RIMPAC), consider the following statements.

1.       It is the world’s largest international maritime exercise.

2.       Only Pacific Ocean littoral countries participate in this exercise.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)     1 only 4

(b)     2 only

(c)     Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

2.       Which of the following laws are the legacies of British rule in India?

1.       Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code

2.       Section 124-A of the Indian Penal Code

3.       Armed Forces Special Power Act

4.       Section 499 and 500 of the Indian Penal

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)     1 and 3 only

(b)     2 and 4 only

(c)     1, 2 and 4 only

(d)     2 and 3 only

3.       Which of the following were the reasons for French decline in India?

1.       French army was no match for British army

2.       French monarchy had no stakes in the French company

3.       French were engaged in continental expansion in Europe

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)     1 and 2 only

(b)     2 and 3 only

(c)     1 only

(d)     All of these

4.       Consider the following with reference to “Coral reefs”.

1.       Coral reefs are symbiotic association of coral polyps and algae.

2.       Muddy waters are more suitable for the growth of coral reefs.

3.       Coral reefs are equivalent to marine of tropical rain forest.

4.       Lakshadweep islands are of coral origin.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a)     1 and 4 only

(b)     1,3 and 4 only

(c)     2 and 3 only

(d)     1,2,3 and 4

5.       With reference to the Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI), which of the following statements is/are not correct?

1.       BCSBI defines the benchmarks for banking services in India.

2.       It oversees the Scheme of Banking Ombudsman.

3.       It is a statutory body under the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)     1 only

(b)     1 and 2 only

(c)     2 and 3 only

(d)     1, 2 and 3

6.       Which one of the following statements about the provisions of the Constitution of India is correct?

(a)     Minorities can establish and administer educational institutions of their choice

(b)     Only linguistic, ethnic and religious minorities find mention under Article 30

(c)     Every religious denomination has unfettered right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.

(d)     An educational institution established by a religious minority loses its minority status on receiving financial aid from the Government.

7.       The Peshwa accepted the Subsidiary Alliance with the British via which among the following treaties?

(a)     Treaty of Purandhar

(b)     Treaty of Bassein

(c)     Treaty of Salbai

(d)     Treaty of Surji Arjunagaon

8.       Consider the following statements in the context of Peruvian current.

1.       It is cold current

2.       It is responsible for fishing productivity in Peruvian coast.

3.       It cases dryness in Atacama Desert. Which of the statements given above is / are correct

(a)     1 and 2 only

(b)     2 and 3 only

(c)     1 and 3 Only

(d)     1, 2 and 3

9. Match the Following

(a)           (b)           (c)          (d)

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 1 2 3 4

(c) 3 1 2 4

(d) 2 4 1 3

(a)     (b)     (c)     (d)

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 1 2 3 4

(c) 3 1 2 4

(d) 2 4 1 3

10.     With reference to the fish production in India, consider the following statements.

1.       In terms of fish production, the inland fisheries sector contributes more than that of the marine sector.

2.       India’s marine fisheries production is more in Gujarat as compared to other States.

3.       In India is the second largest fish producing country in the World. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)     1 and 2 only

(b)     2 and 3 only

(c)     1, 2 and 3 only

(d)     None of the above statements are correct

11.     With reference to the Asia Pacific Trade Agreement (APTA), consider the following statements.

1.       It is an initiative under the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UN ESCAP) for trade expansion among developing country members of the Asia Pacific Region.

2.       India and Pakistan are among the founding members of this Preferential Trade Agreement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)     Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

12.     Which among the following is correct with regards to the Constituent assembly of India?

(a)     Constituent assembly was democratically elected by the people of India.

(b)     The representatives of each community were elected by the members of that community itself.

(c)     Each province/princely states were allocated seats based on their geographical area.

(d)     Mahatma Gandhi was a member of the constituent assembly until he was assassinated in 1948.

13.     Who among the following signed the Treaty of Bassein in 1802 with the British East India Company?

(a)     Baji Rao II

(b)     Baji Rao I

(c)     Sultan Bahadur

(d)     None of the above

14.     Which of the following is not correct in the context of “Wildfires”?

(a)     These are controlled blazes fuelled by weather, wind, and dry underbrush etc.

(b)     They return nutrients to the soil

(c)     They act as a disinfectant.

(d)     They allow sunlight to reach the forest floor, enabling a new generation of seedlings to grow.

15.     In which of the following states, the indigenous beliefs “Donyi-Polo” and “Rangfra” are practiced?

(a)     Arunachal Pradesh

(b)     Mizoram

(c)     Manipur

(d)     Assam

16.     Which of the following functions were performed by the Constituent Assembly of India?

1.       Enactment of the ordinary laws

2.       Adoption of National Flag and National Anthem.

3.       Election of the First President of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)     1 and 2 only

(b)     1 and 3 only

(c)     2 and 3 only

(d)     1, 2 and 3

17.     In the tenure of which Governor-General an attempt was made for the first time to codify Hindu and Muslim customary laws?

(a)     Lord Cornwallis

(b)     Warren Hastings

(c)     William Bentinck

(d)     Charles Metcalfe

18.     Which of the following factors is / are responsible for tides formation?

1.       Earth’s gravitational pull

2.       Moon’s gravitational pull

3.       Sun’s gravitational pull

4.       Centrifugal force due to earth’s rotation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a)     2 and 3 only

(b)     1,2 and 3 only

(c)     2,3 and 4 only

(d)     1,2,3 and 4

19.     Consider the following statements regarding the Aral Sea

1.       The Aral Sea was an endorheic lake

2.       It lies between Kazakhstan (Aktobe and Kyzylorda Regions) in the north and Uzbekistan (Karakalpakstan autonomous region) in the south.

Which of the above given statements are incorrect?

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)     Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

20.     Consider the following statements about the Lokpal in India.

1.       The institution of Lokpal was first recommended by the first Administrative Reforms Commission.

2.       Under the Lokpal Act (2013), Jurisdiction of Lokpal includes Prime Minister, Ministers, and Members of Parliament.

3. As per the Lokpal Act of 2013, Lokpal can take Suo Motu actions against any public servant.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 and 3 only

(c)     1 and 2 only

(d)     1 and 3 only

21.     With reference to the recently launched “cVIGIL” mobile App, consider the following statements.

1.       The App enables the employees of public sector undertakings to report any instances of corruption in their organization.

2.       The application was launched by the department of personnel and training. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)     Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

22.     Consider the following statements about the “Preamble” of the Indian Constitution

1.       It has been amended only once since its inception.

2.       It is not a part of the constitution.

3. It is justifiable in nature

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)     1 only

(b)     1 and 2 only

(c)     2 and 3 only

(d)     1, 2 and 3

23.     Which among the following was the first municipal corporation set up in India in the year 1687?

(a)     Madras Municipal Corporation

(b)     Bombay Municipal Corporation

(c)     Delhi Municipal Corporation

(d)     None of the above

24.     Which of the following statements is / are correct?

1.       Britain has no climate, only weather.

2.       Egypt has no weather, only climate. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 Only

(c)     Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

25.     With reference to the SAARC development fund (SDF), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.       SDF was setup by the World Bank to accelerate economic growth, social progress and poverty alleviation in the SAARC region.

2.       The headquarters of the SDF is located at the Thimpu, Bhutan. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)     Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

1.A ,2.C ,3.B ,4.B ,5.C ,6.A ,7.B ,8.A ,9.B ,10.C ,11.A ,12.B ,13.A ,14.A ,15.A ,16.D ,17.B ,18.C ,19.D ,20.C ,21.D ,22.A ,23.A ,24.C ,25.B

Rajasthan GK – Test 3

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Daily Practice Multiple Choice Question Answer for RPSC, RAS, RSMSSB, Lecturer, SI and all other competitive exams of Rajasthan.

1. Which article of constitution mentioned “Appointment of Chief Minister”?

1. Article 154

2. Article 161

3. Article 164

4. Article 158

2. Which of the following statement is false about the Chief Minister?

1.  There is no special provision for appointment and election of Chief Minister in the constitution

2.  Article 154 states that the Governor will appoint the Chief Minister

3.  The Governor is free to appoint any person as Chief Minister

4.  There is no such system in the Constitution that the Chief Minister should prove a majority before his appointment

3. What is the minimum age to be appointed as the Chief Minister of a state?

1.  25 years

2.  30 years

3.  35 years

4.  18 years

4. Which of the following post is hold by the Chief Minister?

1.  Chairman of the State Planning Board

2.  Member of National Development Council

3.  Chief Spokesperson of the State Government

4.  All of the above

5. Which of the following is not matched correctly?

1.  Article 167: Duties of the Chief Minister

2.  Article 163: sworn in of the Chief Minister

3.  Article 164: Provisions related to State Ministers

4.  Article 166:  Operations by the State Government

6. Who determines the salary and allowances of the Chief Minister?

1.  Governor

2.  State Legislature

3.  President

4.  Parliament

7. Which of the following statements is false?

1.  Chief Minister’s tenure is not fixed (with some conditions)

2.  If the Chief Minister resigns from his post then the entire Council of Ministers has to resign

3.  The Governor is the President of the Inter-state Council

4.  The collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers is to the State Legislature

8. Which of the following power is not enjoyed by the Chief Minister?

1.  The Governor appoints ministers only to those people who are recommended by the Chief Minister

2.  Chief Minister shifts all the ministers’ departments

3.  Chief Minister can ask the governor to disassociate the Legislative assembly

4.  Chief Minister appoints judges of the state’s high court

9. The State Council is responsible to whom?

1.   to the Governor

2.   to the Legislative Assembly

3.   to the Legislative Council

4.  to the State Legislature

10. Who provide oath to other ministers of the state other than the Chief Minister?

1.   Chief Minister

2.   Speaker of the assembly

3.   Chief Justice of the High Court

4.   Governor

11. The Advocate General of the State is responsible to whom?

1.   Governor

2.   Chief Minister

3.   Speaker of the Assembly

4.   None of these

12. Udaipur, South-eastern margin of Pali & Dungarpur districts are part of which Aravali Region?

1. North-Eastern Aravalli Range             2. Central Aravalli Range

3. Southern Aravalli Range                     4. None of the above

13. According to GSHAP data, the state of Rajasthan falls in a region of which seismic hazard?

1. High seismic zone     2.Moderate seismic zone

3. High to Moderate     4. Moderate to High

14. Rajasthan has divided into different climatic regions, the climatic regions of Rajasthan are based on which of the following parameter?

1. Climatic Regions of Rajasthan based on Rainfall Intensity.

2. Koeppen’s Classification

3. Thornthwaite’s classification

4. All of the above

15. Consider the following statements and choose the right answer:

1.         Rainfall less than 10 cm in extreme west parts of regions and rest areas record less than 20 cm rainfall.

2.         The average temperature during summer is recorded more than 34degree C and during winters it ranges in between 12 DegC to 16DegC.

3.         The region includes Jaisalmer district, Barmer, Jodhpur, western parts of Bikaner and southern parts of Ganganagar district.

1. Semi-Arid Region          2. Arid Region

3. Sub-Humid                            4. Humid Region

16. Alwar, Jaipur, Dausa, Ajmer, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Pali, Jalore and Sirohi districts are included in which of the following category?

1.         Semi-Arid Region         2. Arid Region

3. Sub-Humid                             4. Humid Region

17. Consider the following features and identify the wildlife sanctuary:

1. This Sanctuary is situated in the Banaskantha district in Gujarat at the Gujarat-Rajasthan border.

2. The complete area between Mount Abu and Jessore wildlife sanctuary is home to them.

3. Apart from sloth bear, other fauna reported in the sanctuary are leopard, sambar, blue bull, wild boar, porcupine, and a variety of birds.

1. Mount Abu Wildlife Sanctuary

2. Jessore Wildlife Sanctuary

3.  Daroji bear sanctuary

4. Rajasthan Wildlife Sanctuary

18. Sloth Bear is found in which of the following place?

1. Sawai Madhopur   2 -Alwar

3. Mount Abu                       4- Udaipur

19. Great Indian Bustard is not found in which of the following states of India?

1. Gujarat                            2. Tamil Nadu

3.  Karnataka                     4. Andhra Pradesh

5. Rajasthan                       6. Maharashtra

20. Mahaseer fish is found only in which lake of Rajasthan?

1. Anasagar Lake Ajmer                  2- Fateh Sagar Udaipur

3. Lake Badi Udaipur                      4- Sambhar Lake

21. Find the incorrect matched:

1. Bisalpur Conservation Reserve        Tonk

2. Jodbeed Gadhwala Reserve                         Sirohi

3.  Sundhamata Conservation Reserve      Jodhpur

4.  Gudha Vishnoiyan Reserve                      Jalore

22. Parbati River flows in which of the following districts?

1. Sawai Madhopur             2 Tonk

3. Dholpur                            4.Karauli

1. 1,2,3,4

2. 1, 2, 3

3. 1, 3

4. 1, 3, 4

23.  Berach River is not flow through which of the following District?

1. Udaipur                       2. Chittorgarh

3. Rajsamand                  4- Bhilwara

24. Gogelav and Rotu Conservation Reserve are located in which district of Rajasthan?

1. Udaipur                        2. Jaipur

3. Nagaur                          4. Sariska

25. Find out the incorrect match:

Wildlife Sanctuary                           District

1. Kesarbagh WLS                             Dholpur

2. Phulwari ki Nal WLS                   Udaipur, Pali

3. Ramgarh Vishdhari WLS                      Barmer

4. Sitamata WLS                                         Pratapgarh

26. Which among the following is largest wildlife sanctuary as per their area?

1.  Kailadevi WLS                            2- Kumbhalgarh WLS

3. Phulwari ki Nal WLS                   4. Todgarh Raoli WLS

27. Match the following:

National Park                             District

1.         Ranthambore NP              A. Bharatpur

2.         Keoladeo Ghana NP               B. Alwar

3.         Sariska NP                                C.  Jaisalmer, Barmer

4.         DesertNP                                D. Sawai Madhopur

1.1-A 2-B 3- C 4-D

2. 1-B 2-C 3-D 4-A

3. 1-C 2-D 3-A 4-B

4. 1-D 2-A 3- B 4-C

28. White Rumped Vulture Found in which places of Rajasthan?

1. Udaipur                                       2. Kota

3. All Rajasthan                                4. Mount Abu

29. Which of the following is matching incorrect?

District                           Mascot

1. Bikaner                     Sand grouse

2. Nagaur                       Rajhans

3. Pratapgarh                  wolf

4. Bhilwara                   Peacock

5.  Bundi                         Golden Pheasant

30. Consider the following statement and choose the right answer:

1. These forests which are most abundant in central India, as in Madhya Pradesh, parts of Gujarat and Maharashtra, are found in Sirohi district of Rajasthan.

2. These forests have semi-evergreen and some evergreen species of trees.

3. The vegetation consists of many plants which are similar to Himalayas.

4. They are well represented between 700 to 800 m altitudes.

1. Tropical Dry Deciduous (Dhol) Forests

2. Bamboo Forests

3. Sub-Tropical Forests

4. Tropical Rain Forests

31.  Method of Abolition or Creation of a State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) mentioned in which article of Indian constitution?

1. Article 168

2. Article 169

3. Article 176

4. Article 179

Answer:

  1. 3
  2. 2
  3. 1
  4. 4
  5. 2
  6. 2
  7. 3
  8. 4
  9. 2
  10. 4
  11. 1
  12. 3
  13. 4
  14. 4
  15. 2
  16. 3
  17. 2
  18. 3
  19. 2
  20. 3
  21. 2
  22. 3
  23. 3
  24. 3
  25. 4
  26. 3
  27. 4
  28. 3
  29. 3
  30. 3
  31. 3

Rajasthan GK – Test 2

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Daily Practice Multiple Choice Question Answer for RPSC, RAS, RSMSSB, Lecturer, SI and all other competitive exams of Rajasthan.

1.         In which of the following states Aravalli Range extends in India:

1.         Rajasthan                   2.  Haryana

3.         Delhi                          4. Punjab

5.         Gujarat

Choose the correct pair.

1.         1,2,3,4

2.         2,3,4,5

3.         1,2,3,5

4.         1,2,4,5

2. Consider the following statement and choose the right answer:

1. It is India’s oldest fold mountains.

2. The north end of it continues as secluded hills and rocky ridges into Haryana

3. It is the source of the Mithari, Luni, and Jawai River.

1. North-Eastern Aravalli Range

2. Central Aravalli Range

3. Southern Aravalli Range

4. Aravali Range

3. Luni Basin, Shekhawati Region, Nagaur Upland, and Ghaggar Plain are considered in which region/plain?

1.  Semi-Arid Basin               2. Sandy Arid Plain

3. Mewar Rocky region       4 The Sambhar Basin

4. Chambal Basin, Banas Basin and Mahi Basin are the example of which plain?

1. Eastern Plain                     2. Western Plain

3. Northern Plain                  4. Southern Plain

5. States in which Thar Desert is not extends in India?

1. Rajasthan                     2. Haryana

3. Punjab                        4.  Gujarat

5. Madhya Pradesh

6. Special Industrial Complexes are being built up in Rajasthan to meet the necessities of industries. Match the following pairs correctly.

1. Hosiery Chopanki                                A. Bhiwadi

2. Gems & Jewellery and Gem Park      B. Bikaner

3. Ceramics Khara                                   C. Jaipur

4. Dimensional Stone                              D. Chittorgarh

1. 1-A 2-B 3-C 4-D

2. 1-B 2-A 3-D 4-C

3. 1-A 2-C 3-B 4-D

4. 1-C 2-D 3-A 4-B

7. Arrange the following peaks of Aravali as per their height in descending order:

1. Kamalnath           2. Bhairach

3. Taragarh                       4. Khoh

1. 1-2-3-4

2. 2-3-1-4

3. 3-4-1-2

4. 1-4-3-2

8. Consider the following statements and choose the right answer:

1.         Stretches from Delhi to isolated hills of Alwar & Jaipur.

2.         Average elevation of 300-670 meters.

3.         To North & East it merges with Ganga-Yamuna Plains.

1. Shekhawati hills               2. Marwar Hills

3. Alwar Hills                                  4. Girwa hills

9.  Malkhet, Khetri Group of hills, Torawati Hills & Alwar hills is part of which Aravali range?

1.  North-Eastern Aravalli Range

2. Central Aravalli Range

3. Southern Aravalli Range

4. All of the above

10. Consider the following statements and choose the right answer:

1. Includes districts of Ajmer, south-western Tonk and Jaipur.

2. It Surround on North by Alwar Hills

3. It Surround on East by Karauli table-land South by Banas plains.

4. West by Sambhar basin

1. North-Eastern Aravalli Range             2. Central Aravalli Range

3. Southern Aravalli Range                     4. None of the above

11. Who became the first women governor of Rajasthan?

1. Smt. Vijya Laxmi

2. Smt. Pratibha Patil      

3. Smt. Sudha Srivastava

4. None of the above

12. Which is the state game of Rajasthan?

1. Basketball

2. Kabbadi

3. Hockey

4. Football

13. Rajasthan Revenue Board Headquarter is located at which place?

1. Jaipur

2. Jodhpur

3. Ajmer

4. Kota

14. Which is not a part of Rajasthan Union?       

1. Banswara

2. Bundi

3. Kishangarh

4. Bharatpur

15. Matsya Union merged in Greater Rajasthan and became which of the following?

1. United State of Rajasthan

2. Greater Rajasthan

3. United State of Greater Rajasthan

4. United Rajasthan

16. Who was appointed as the Deputy Head of Rajasthan Union?

1. Bhim singh

2. Manikya Lal Verma

3. Heeralal Shastri

4. Bhadursingh

17. Who said the statement while signing the accession documents, “I am signing on my death warrant”.

1. Banswara State Maharawal, Chandra Veer Singh

2. The ruler of Jodhpur, Hanwant Singh

3. The Maharana Bhupal Singh of Udaipur

4. None of the above

18.  Which of the following appointed by Governor of Rajasthan?

1. Advocate general of state.

2. State election commissioner

3.  Chairman & members of RPSC.

4. All the above

19. Who wrote Upmiti Bharva Prancha Katha?

1. Sidhha Rishi                                 2- Vigrah Raj

3. Somdeva                                        4. Kumbha

20. Who wrote drama named Harkaili?

1. Sidhha Rishi                                  2- Vigrah Raj Chauhan

3. Kumbha                                         4. Somdeva

21. Who wrote Prithvi Raaj Vijay?

1. Kumbha                 2. Somdeva

3. Jayanak                  4. Sidhha Rishi

22. Who wrote treatise of Jai Deva’s Geet Govinda and a book on musicology – Sangeet Raj?

1. Kumbha                 2. Jayanak

3. Sanga                      4. Somdeva

23. Bharatvarsh war Bahubali Ghor written by

1. Vijrasen Suri                        2- Asig

3. Shalibhadra Suri                 4.Hemraj

24. Bharateshwar Bahubali raas authored by?

1. Vijrasen Suri              2- Asig

3. Shalibhadra Suri   4.Hemraj

25. Jiyadarya Raas by

1. Vijrasen Suri                      2- Asig

3. Shalibhadra Suri              4.Hemraj

26. Padmavati Chaupai by

1. Vijhana                               2.  Jinprabha Suri

3. Shalibhadra Suri              4.Hemraj

27. Stulibhadra Phag written by

1. Vijhana                               2.  Jinprabha Suri

3. Shalibhadra Suri               4.Hemraj

28. Who wrote Gyan Manjari?

1. Vijhana                               2.  Jinprabha Suri

3. Shalibhadra Suri              4.Hemraj

Answer:

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 1
  4. 1
  5. 5
  6. 3
  7. 4
  8. 3
  9. 1
  10. 2
  11. 2
  12. 1
  13. 3
  14. 4
  15. 1
  16. 4
  17. 1
  18. 4
  19. 1
  20. 2
  21. 3
  22. 1
  23. 1
  24. 3
  25. 2
  26. 4
  27. 2
  28. 1

General Studies Practice Test-1

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UPSC CSE IAS prelims and State PSC Exams Daily Practice Questions

1. Which of the following organization has recently, tested its Crew Escape System?

(a)        NASA

(b)       ISRO

(c)        DRDO

(d)       Air India

2. Consider the following statements regarding Untouchability

1. The constitution doesn’t define untouchability and it also doesn’t prescribe any punitive punishment

2. Manual scavenging is considered as a form of untouchability and is banned by Manual Scavenging Act, 2013 which provides a blanket ban on the employment of manual scavengers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)        1 only

(b)       2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)       Neither 1 nor 2

3. Consider the following statements:

1. The French were the last to come to India in search of trade opportunities.

2. The Portuguese were the first European community to discover a direct sea route to India.

3. Queen Elizabeth I was a share holder of the British East India Company.

Which of the statements given above is/are are correct?

(a)        1 and 2 only

(b)       2 and 3 only

(c)        1 and 3 only

(d)       All of the above

4.         Consider the Following statements:

1. Rotation of the earth is responsible for holding its atmosphere.

2. Atmosphere rotates along with earth’s rotation

3. Humidity in atmosphere increases from equator towards poles.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a)        1 and 2 Only

(b)       2 only

(c)        2 and 3 only

5. Which of the Mobile App launched by Ministry of Coal to prevent illegal coal mining?

(a)        Khan Prahari

(b)       Coal Bachao

(c)        Khan Helpline

(d)       Koyla Bachao

6. If a new state is to be created which of the following schedules should definitely be altered?

(a)        First

(b)       Second

(c)        Third

(d)       Eighth

7. Who was the Governor General of India at the time of formation of the Indian National Congress?

(a)        Lord Lytton

(b)       Lord Dufferin

(c)        Lord Elgin

(d)       Lord Minto

8. Which of the following can be tapped for electricity generation?

1.         Tidal waves

2.         Volcanoes

3.         Hot springs

4.         Earth Quakes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)        1 and 3 only

(b)       1, 2 and 3 Only

(c)        1, 2 and 4 Only

(d)         1, 2, 3 and 4

9.         Consider the following statements

1.         Africa is the second largest continent after Asia and is ten times the size of India

2.         Also called as The Dark Continent

3.         It is the only continent that crosses the Tropic of Cancer, Equator and Tropic of Capricorn.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a)        1 and 2 only

(b)       2 and 3 only

(c)        1 only

(d)       1 and 3 only

10. Which committee was constituted by the Union Government to upgrade norms for state & district level economic data collection?

(a)        Susheel Kumar Committee

(b)       Ravindra H Dholakia Committee

(c)        Bimal Jalan Committee

(d)       S Kashyap Committee

11. Which among the following sites of Mumbai has recently been inducted into the UNESCO World Heritage Site list?

(a)        Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai

(b)       The Imperial Tower

(c)        1905 Prince’s Triumphal Arch Clock Tower, Mumbai

(d)       Global Vipassana Pagoda

12. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Article 15 of the Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners.

2. Article 16 of the Constitution of India is available to the citizens of India only.

3. Article 21 of the Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners alike within the territory of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)        1 only

(b)       2 and 3 only

(c)        3 only

(d)       1, 2 and 3

13. Which of the following statements is incorrect about “Drain of Wealth” theory in context of Indian freedom struggle?

(a)        The Drain of Wealth theory was systemically initiated by Dadabhai Naoroji.

(b)       Through this theory Naoroji sought to prove that Britain was draining money out of India.

(c)        Drain of Wealth included “Home Charges”.

(d)       All the statements are correct.

14. Which one of the following statements is / are not correct with respect to core of the earth?

1.         it’s made up of high-density materials mostly like nickel and iron

2.         Solid state of the inner core is because of the incumbent pressure.

3.         High temperature of inner core is responsible for the magnetic sphere of the earth.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)        3 Only

(b)       2 and 3 only

(c)        1 and 2 only

(d)       1, 2 and 3

15. Which state government has launched a “happiness curriculum” for school students?

(a)        Delhi

(b)       Rajasthan

(c)        Haryana

(d)       Uttar Pradesh

16. Consider the following statements regarding Article 368 of Indian Constitution

1. If an Indian territory is to be ceded to a foreign nation then it requires a formal amendment process under Article 368

2. The settlement of boundary disputes also requires a formal amendment process under Article 368.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)        1 only

(b)       2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)       Neither 1 nor 2

17.       Who among the following is known as “The Father of the Indian Renaissance”?

(a)        Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

(b)       Swami Vivekananda

(c)        Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(d)       Swami Dayanand Saraswati

18.       Which of the following is not a “Second order relief” feature?

(a)        Himalayas

(b)       Mid Atlantic Ridge

(c)        Grand Canyon

(d)       Great African Rift valley

19.       Consider the following statements

1. Africa is separated from Eurasia at three different points, Strait of Gibraltar, Suez Canal and strait of Bab-el- Mandel.

2. It joins Asia by the narrow Isthmus of Suez

Which of the above given statements is/are incorrect?

(a)        Both 1 and 2

(b)       1 only

(c)        2 only

(d)       none

20. Which ministry has launched India Smart Cities Fellowship (ISCF) and Internship (ISCI)?

(a)        Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

(b)       Ministry for Development of North Eastern Region

(c)        Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

(d)       Ministry of environment

21. Which of the following countries have been put in to the grey list of Financial action task force (FATF) ?

(a)        Iran

(b)       Syria

(c)        Pakistan

(d)       Afghanistan

22. Consider the following statements with regards to “Right to Education Act”

1.         “The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act” is an Act enacted by the Parliament of India and ratified by the states of India

2.         It describes the modalities of the importance of free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 under Article 21A of the Indian Constitution.

3.         It mandates unaided schools with the exception of Minority educational schools to reserve 25% of their seats for children from weaker sections and disadvantaged groups.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)        1 only

(b)       1 and 2 only

(c)        2 and 3 only

(d)       1, 2 and 3

23. Consider the following statements about Permanent Settlement System.

  1. Permanent Settlement System was introduced by Lord Wellesley in 1793.
  2. It was introduced on the recommendations of Sir John Shore. Which of the statements given above is/are are correct?

(a)        1 only

(b)       2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)       Neither 1 nor 2

24. Consider the following layers with reference to atmosphere of the sun

1.         Photosphere

2.         Chromo sphere

3.         Corona

Arrange the layers of atmosphere given below in order from surface towards core of the sun.

(a) 3 – 2 – 1

(b) 1 – 2 – 3

(c) 2 – 1 – 3

(d) 1 – 3 – 2

25. In the first ever India’s inter-state relocation, a tiger was shifted between which two states?

(a)        Uttarakhand & Madhya Pradesh

(b)       Madhya Pradesh & Uttar Pradesh

(c)        Madhya Pradesh & Odisha

(d)       Gujarat & Maharashtra

26. Which of the following agencies come under the definition of “State” mentioned in the Article 12 of the Indian constitution?

1.         Local bodies

2.         Public sector banks

3.         National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)

4.         Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)        1 and 2 only

(b)       1, 2 and 4 only

(c)        1, 2 and 3 only

(d)        1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer Key:

1.B ,2.A ,3.D ,4.B ,5.A ,6.A ,7.B ,8.B ,9.B ,10.B ,11.A ,12.B ,13.C ,14.A ,15.A ,16.A ,17.C ,18.C ,19.D ,20.C ,21.C ,22.C ,23.B ,24.A ,25.C