MYUPSC.COM is dedicated to preparation of UPSC Civil Services and State PSC Prelims and Mains Examination 2020. we are providing here the best quality study material and Test Series for UPSC IAS Prelims and Mains Exam 2020. you can get India yearbook 2020 and State wise Current Affairs and General Knowledge Yearbook 2020. The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/PSC exams that can help to crack these Examinations. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of General Studies of World, India and all the Indian states. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India, Indian States regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc. Medieval Indian History MCQ
Important solved MCQ for UPSC, State PSC and Other competitive exams. Objective GK & GS Multiple Choice Questions and Answer. These are fact based quizzes written for aspirants of UPSC, IAS, PSC, SSC, SSC-CGL and State SSC exams, IBPS, Banking, Railways, CLAT, State PCS etc. exams. PDF compilation of these questions can be downloaded from MYUPSC.COM. Medieval Indian History MCQ
There is a substantial overlap expected in the static and dynamic UPSC questions asked in the IAS examination, as has been seen in the recent trends. MYUPSC.COM also links, relates and explains the static and dynamic portions of the syllabus that is, connecting the current affairs with the basic concepts for their best comprehension for better grasp and command on the knowledge for the aspirants. Medieval Indian History MCQ
1. The death of Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb
occurred at which among the following places?
(A) Agra
(B) Bijapur
(C) Ahmednagar
(D) Pune
2. Who among the following rulers had stamped
the figure of Goddess Lakshmi on his coins and had his name inscribed in Nagari
Characters?
(A) Muhammad Ghazni
(B) Muhammad Ghori
(C) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(D) Iltutmish
3. Ibn Battuta, the famous Muslim explorer
who came to India during regime of Mohammad Bin Tughlaq, belonged to which country?
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Morocco
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran
4. Which of the following Rajput rulers is
known to have donated for the reconstruction of a mosque?
(A) Mihir Bhoja
(B) Bhoja Parmar
(C) Prithviraj III
(D) Jai Singh Siddharaj
5. The lowest in rank in the Maratha infantry
was of__?
(A) Nayak
(B) Havaldar
(C) Jumladar
(D) Hazari
6. During the invasion of Mohammed Bin Kasim,
many Hindus in Sindh were forcibly converted to Islam. They were reconverted to
Hinduism by the authority of __?
8.Who among the following Sultans of Delhi
assumed the title Sikandar-i-Sani?
(A) Balban
(B) Alauddin Khalji
(C) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
(D) Sikandar Lodi
9.The Sayyid dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate
is called so because__?
(A) Its founder and his successors adopted
the title Sayyid
(B) Its founder and his successors belonged to the Sayyid tribe of eastern
Turkistan
(C) Its founder and his successors were descendant of the prophet Muhammad
(D) Its founder was a scholar of Islamic theology
10.During the Delhi Sultanate, who among the
following were called the Barids?
(A) Craftsmen
(B) Bodyguards of the Sultan
(C) Officer-in-charge of state exchequer
(D) The spy / news reporters
11.Which among the following terms was used
for the Royal cavalry of the Maratha Army System?
(A) The Shiledars
(B) The Bargirs
(C) The Hazari
(D) The Subedars
12.The real name of Mughal Emperor Shah Alam
II was__:
(A) Alamgir II
(B) Ahmed Shah Durrani
(C) Mirza Najaf Khan
(D) Ali Gauhar
13.Who among the following was appointed as
the supreme authority in justice during the era of Mughal Emperors ?
(A) Qazi-ul-Quzat
(B) Qazi-ul-Hazat
(C) Qazi-Faiz-ul-Islam
(D) None of these
14.Who was Sultan of Delhi Sultanate when
Timur invaded India in 1398?
(A) Mahmud Shah Tughluq
(B) Jalal ud din Firuz Khilji
(C) Aram Shah
(D) Ghiyas-ud-din Balban
15.“Silver Tanka” and “Copper Jital”
coins were introduced by:
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Abu Bakr Shah
(C) Firuz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Sikander Lodi
16.In 1293 A.D., Marco Polo, an Italian
traveller, visited which Indian Kingdom?
(A) Kakatiya
(B) Satavahana
(C) Pandyan
(D) Chera
17.Who among the following is associated with
translation of Rajatarangini in Persian?
(A) Dara Shikoh
(B) Zain-ul-Abidin
(C) Abdul Razzaq Jilani
(D) Bande Nawaz
18.Which of the following rulers died in the
Kalinjar Fort situated in the Bundelkhand region of central India?
(A) Mahmud of Ghazni
(B) Sher Shah Suri
(C) Humayun
(D) Jahangir
19.Which among the following Sikh Gurus had
been given the “Palace of Amritsar” by Mughal Emperor Akbar?
(A) Guru Ram Das
(B) Guru Arjun Das
(C) Guru Angad
(D) Guru Hargovind
20.Which among the following building built
by Shah Jahan at Agra is similar in pattern of the Saint Basil’s Cathedral in
Moscow?
(A) Taj Mahal (B) Agra fort (C) Pearl Mosque (D) Shah Jahani Mahal
MYUPSC.COM – Current Affairs Yearbook 2020: Volume-3 covered from The Hindu, Indian Express, PIB, Yojana and some useful government resources for UPSC IAS Prelims, Mains ... Read More
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MYUPSC.COM Daily Current Affairs MCQS:27 December 2019 covered from The Hindu, Indian Express and PIB for UPSC IAS Prelims, Mains and Other State PSC Exams. Current Affairs Daily Quiz 27 December 2019: MYUPSC.COM is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc.
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1. Jaimini Brahmana speaks
collectively on dance only.
2. In Hindustani music, Dhrupad
is the pure music without distraction of words.
3. There was no evidence of
musical instruments found at the sites of Indus valley civilization.
Which of the above statements
is/are incorrect?
a) 2 only
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2
Answer: b
Q2. Consider the following with
reference to Central Indian paintings.
1. They take inspiration from
Puranas and Indian folk-lore.
2. Vaishnavism, Saivism and
Sakti exercised tremendous influence on these paintings.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer: c
Q3. Consider the following
statements with reference to Sangam Literature
1. Sangam literature dealt both
with personal lives such as love and relationships as well as ethics, heroism,
values and social customs.
2. Only men were allowed to
compose Sangam literature.
Which of the above statements
is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer: b
Q4. Consider the following
statements
1. According to this
philosophy, Vedas are eternal and possess all knowledge.
2. Religion means the
fulfilment of duties prescribed by the Vedas.
3. This philosophy encompasses
the Nyaya-Vaisheshika systems and emphasizes the concept of valid knowledge.
The above statements are
related to?
a) Mimamsa School
b) Vedanta School
c) Yoga School
d) Samkhya School
Answer: a
Q5. Consider the following
about Kalighat paintings which originated in Bengal.
1. The school produced
paintings that were irreproducible by lithography.
2. The school restricted itself
to the depiction of natural, nationalistic and secular themes.
Which of the above is/are
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Answer: d
Q6. Which of the following
is/are famous for Sun temples?
1. Arasavalli
2. Amarakantak
3. Omkareshwar
Select the correct answer using
the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
Q7. With reference to the
history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements
regarding Samkhya School.
1. Samkhya does not accept the
theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.
2. Samkhya holds that it is the
self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or
agent.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer: b
Explaination: The Samkhya
School denies the existence of God. However, rebirth and transmigration of soul
are inherent in the Samkhya School. Liberation results from the disappearance
of the limitations of self-awareness.
Q8. With reference to Giddha,
Ghoomar and Garba, consider the following statements:
1. All three dances are
primarily performed by women only
2. All three are folk dances
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer: b
Q9. Which of the following are
correctly matched?
Reform
movement: Region of influence
1. Sri Narayana Dharma
Paripalana Sabha: Karnataka
2. Sarin Sabha: Punjab
3. Paramhansa Mandali: Madhya
Pradesh
4. Kayastha Sabha: Uttar
Pradesh
Select from the codes below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: b
Q10. Which of these is NOT one
of the eight components of Yoga as described by Patanjali?
a) Yamas
b) Niyama
c) Asana
d) Mulahara
Answer: d
Q11. MANIYARO a variety of folk
dance is of which state?
a) Assam
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Gujarat
d) Manipur
Answer: c
Q12. Consider the following
statements about National School of Drama.
1. It was set up by the Sangeet
Natak Akademi as one of its constituent units in 1959.
2. It is fully financed by the
Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
3. The School has two
performing wings – the Repertory Company and Theatre-in- Education Company.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: d
Q13. Consider the following
pairs:
Classical
Dance Feature
1. Bharatanatyam Fire Dance
2. Kuchipudi Lasya and Tandava
elements
3. Odissi Mobile Sculpture
4. Mohiniattam Tandava aspect
is dominant
Which of the above is correctly
matched?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: b
Q14. Which of the following
temples have ‘Nagara Style of Architecture’?
1. Sun Temple at Konark
2. Lingaraja Temple at
Bhubaneswar
3. Vishwanath Temple at
Khajuraho
4. Doddabasappa temple at
Dambal
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: c
Q15. Consider the following
pairs.
Temple
Country
1. Prambanan Temple Indonesia
2. Angkoar Vat Cambodia
3. Pashupatinath Temple Sri Lanka
4. Munneswaram Temple Nepal
Which of the above are
correctly matched?
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3, 4
Answer: b
Explaination:
Pashupatinath Temple – Nepal
Munneswaram Temple – Sri Lanka
Q16. The prominent construction
works undertaken during Akbar’s reign are:
1. Agra Fort
2. Ibadat Khana
3. Buland Darwaza
Select the correct code:
a) 2 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: d
Q17. Consider the following
statements about Kalbelia.
1. Folk dance performed by the
women of the Kalbelia community of Gujarat.
2. ‘Been’ is the popular
musical instrument of this dance form.
3. The UNESCO has inscribed
Kalbelia folk songs and dances in the Representative List of the Intangible
Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: b
Explaination:
Kalbelia is a sensuous folk
dance performed by the women of the Kalbelia community of Rajasthan. The
costumes and dance movement are similar to that of the serpents. ‘Been’ (wind instrument
played by snake charmers) is the popular musical instrument of this dance form.
The UNESCO has inscribed
Kalbelia folk songs and dances in the Representative List of the Intangible
Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2010.
Q18. With reference to Giddha,
Gangore and Jhumar, consider the following statements:
1. All three dances are
primarily performed by women only
2. All three are folk dances
Select the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer: b
Q19. Which of the following is
the earliest treatise on mathematics?
a) Aryabhattiya
b) Brahmasputa Siddhantika
c) Siddhanta Shiromani
d) Sulvasutra
Answer: d
Q20. Consider the following
statements.
1. This Veda is also known as
Brahma Veda
2. It is mostly concerned with
peace and prosperity of the human society
3. It focuses on treatment of
several ailments
The above statements refer to
a) Rig Veda
b) Sama Veda
c) Atharva Veda
d) Yajur Veda
Answer: c
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Q1. Consider the following statements
about Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD).
1. The western Indian Ocean
becomes alternately warmer and then colder than the eastern part of the ocean.
2. A study has demonstrated a
significant correlation between the IOD and drought in the southern half of Australia.
3. IOD can either aggravate or
weaken the impact of El Nino on Indian monsoon.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: d
Q2. Consider the following
statements about anticyclone?
1. It is an area of high
pressure.
2. The wind direction is
Anticlockwise in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer: a
Q3. The most prominent feature
in the oceans, forming an almost continuous mountain range, is the
a) Seamount
b) Deep ocean trench
c) Abyssal plain
d) Mid-ocean ridge
Answer: d
Q4. Qatar is bordered by which
of the following countries.
1. United Arab Emirates
2. Bahrain
3. Saudi Arabia
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2
Answer: c)
Explaination:
Qatar has one land border. The
country borders Saudi Arabia to the south.
Q5. The California Ocean
current, which flows along the west coast of North America, is a
a) Cold current, flowing north
b) Cold current, flowing south
c) Warm current, flowing south
d) Warm current, flowing north
Answer: b
Explaination:
The California Current is a
Pacific Ocean current that moves southward along the western coast of North
America, beginning off southern British Columbia and ending off southern Baja California
Peninsula. It is considered an Eastern boundary current due to the influence of
the North American coastline on its course. It is also one of five major
coastal currents affiliated with strong upwelling zones, the others being the
Humboldt Current, the Canary Current, the Benguela Current, and the Somali
Current. The California Current is part of the North Pacific Gyre, a large
swirling current that occupies the northern basin of the Pacific.
Q6. Which of the following port
is known as “Queen of Arabian Sea”?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru port
b) Marmagao port
c) Kochi port
d) New Mangalore port
Answer: c
Explaination:
Kochi is a major port city on
the south-west coast of India bordering the Laccadive Sea. Called the Queen of
the Arabian Sea, Kochi was an important spice trading centre on the west coast
of India from the 14th century onward.
Q7. Which of the following
factors affect Ocean Salinity?
1. Evaporation
2. Wind
3. Influx of river water
4. Ocean currents
5. Precipitation
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 3, 5
b) 1, 2, 3, 5
c) 1, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Answer: d
Q8. December and January are
the coldest months in the northern plain. The reasons for the excessive cold in
north India are:
1. far away from the sea.
2. Snowfall in the nearby
Himalayan ranges
3. Cold winds coming from
Taklamakan Desert and Plateau of Tibet.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: a
Explaination:
There are three main reasons
for the excessive cold in north India during this season:
(i) States like Punjab, Haryana
and Rajasthan being far away from the moderating influence of sea experience
continental climate.
(ii) The snowfall in the nearby
Himalayan ranges creates cold wave situation; and
(iii) Around February, the cold
winds coming from the Caspian Sea and Turkmenistan bring cold wave along with
frost and fog over the north-western parts of India.
Q9. Consider the following
statements about Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ).
1. ITCZ is also known as
doldrums
2. ITCZ is an area encircling
the Earth near the Equator, where the northeast and southeast trade winds
converge
3. ITCZ has no effect on
tropical cyclone formation
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: a
Q10. Which of the following
explains why one side of a mountain usually has more precipitation than the
other side?
a) Temperatures are higher on
one side of a mountain than on the other
b) The atmosphere gets denser
as elevation increases
c) The land on one side is more
green and lush than the other
d) Mountains force air to rise,
and air cools and releases moisture as it rises
Answer: d
Q11. Consider the following
statements about Inflation Indexed Bond (IIB)
1. It is a bond issued by the
Government and the corporate sector.
2. There are no special tax
concessions for these bonds.
3. They are eligible to be kept
as part of Statutory Liquidity Ratio requirements of banks.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: b
Q12. Consider the following
statements about Peer to peer (P2P) lending.
1. It is a form of crowd
funding used to raise unsecured loans which are re-paid with interest.
2. Only individuals can borrow
money.
3. RBI enabled P2P entities as
Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC).
4. Minimum net worth
requirement for these platforms is kept at Rs. 5 Cr.
Which of the above statements
is/are incorrect?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 2, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
Answer: c
Q13. Under Statutory Liquidity
Ratio (SLR) all Scheduled Commercial Banks in India must maintain an amount in
which of the following forms?
1. Cash
2. Gold
3. Treasury-Bills of the
Government of India
4. Corporate Bonds
5. State Development Loans
(SDLs)
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 3, 5
c) 1, 2, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Answer: b
Q14. Buoyancy of tax refers to?
a) Relationship between the
changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in Inflation.
b) Relationship between the
changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in GDP.
c) Relationship between the
changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in Investment.
d) Relationship between the
changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in demand.
Answer: b
Q15. Which of the following
developments may not likely reduce the fiscal deficit?
1. Increasing Foreign Direct
Investment (FDI)
2. Providing budgetary support
to public sector enterprises
3. Waiving off farm loans.
4. Austerity measures should be
adopted.
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 4
b) 2, 3
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: b
Q16. Consider the following
statements about Reserve Bank of India.
1. The bank was set up based on
the recommendations of the Hilton–Young Commission.
2. Performs merchant banking function
for the central and the state governments; also acts as their banker.
3. Manages the Foreign Exchange
Management Act, 1999.
4. Issues and exchanges or
destroys currency and coins not fit for circulation.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: d
Q17. Consider the following
statements about Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF).
1. Government of India created
the RIDF in NABARD.
2. The eligible activities are
classified into Agriculture and related sector, Social sector and rural
connectivity.
3. Panchayat Raj Institutions,
Self Help Groups (SHGs) and NGOs are also eligible to receive funds.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: d
Q18. Consider the following
statements about ‘Fiat Money’.
1. It is a currency that a
government has declared to be legal tender.
2. It is backed by a physical
commodity.
3. Its value increases during
hyperinflation.
Which of the above statements
is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: b
Q19. Consider the following
statements about fugitive economic offender.
1. It is an individual who has
committed some specified offence(s) involving an amount of one hundred crore
rupees or more and has absconded from India.
2. He is declared so by a
‘Special Court’ set up under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
3. The property of a fugitive
economic offender, resulting from the proceeds of crime, including benami
property, can be confiscated once he is declared so by the Court.
4. Properties abroad are not
liable for confiscation.
Which of the above statements
is/are incorrect?
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 4
c) 2 only
d) 1, 3, 4
Answer: b
Q20. Consider the following
statements about Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI).
1. It is a measure of change in
retail prices of food products consumed by a defined population group in a
given area
2. It is released by Central
Statistics Office (CSO) for three categories -rural, urban and combined.
3. Cereals and products constitute
more than 50 percent weight within CFPI.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: a
Q21. Which of the following
statement about ‘White Label ATMs’ is correct?
a) These ATMs are set up, owned
and operated by Non-bank entities.
b) These ATMs are set up, owned
and operated by the sponsor bank whose brand is used on the ATM. c) ATMs owned
by a service provider, but cash management and connectivity to banking networks
is provided by a sponsor bank whose brand is used on the ATM. d) These are ATMs
operated abroad to withdraw Indian currency.
Answer: a
Q22. Sunil Mehta Committee is
related to
a) To prepare a blueprint for
doubling farmers’ income by 2022.
b) Drafting New Direct Tax
Legislation.
c) Examine the setting up of an
Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) for faster resolution of stressed assets.
d) Resolving raising fuel
prices in India.
Answer: c
Explaination:
Sunil Mehta Committee was
constituted to examine the setting up of an Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC)
and/or Asset Management Company (AMC) for faster resolution of stressed assets.
Q23. Which of the following
factors can lead to Demand-pull inflation?
1. Strong consumer demand
2. Increase in money supply
3. When prices go up
4. Technological innovation
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: b
Q24. A country can reduce its
current account deficit by
1. Improving domestic
companies’ global competitiveness
2. Decreasing the value of its
exports relative to the value of imports
3. Placing restrictions on
imports, such as tariffs or quotas
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: c
Q25. Consider the following
statements:
1. India’s tax-GDP ratio is
very low compared to other developing countries or emerging markets
2. Lower tax-GDP ratio can be
addressed by mobilising greater tax revenues
Select the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer: b
Q26. APMCs are intended to be
responsible for:
1. Providing market-led
extension services to farmers.
2. Ensuring payment for
agricultural produce sold by farmers on the same day.
3. Setup public private
partnership in the management of agricultural markets.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: d
Q27. In India, Alternative
Investment Funds (AIFs) include:
1. Mutual funds
2. Venture Capital Fund
3. Private equity funds
4. Infrastructure funds
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: b
Q28. Which of the following
statements about Monetary Policy Framework Agreement is correct?
a) It is an agreement between
Government and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on the maximum tolerable inflation
rate that RBI should target to achieve price stability.
b) It is an agreement between
Government and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on the minimum inflation rate that
RBI should target to achieve growth.
c) It is an agreement between
Banks and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ensure that the changes in the
Interest rates are passed on to the customers.
d) Both b and c
Answer: a
Q29. With reference to the
Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC), consider the following
statements:
1. It is headed by the Governor
of RBI
2. It will monitor macro prudential
supervision of the economy, including the functioning of large financial
conglomerates.
3. It will focus on financial
literacy and financial inclusion.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: c
Q30. Consider the following
statements about National Anti-profiteering Authority (NAA).
1. It is headed by the Finance
Minister.
2. The Authority’s core
function is to ensure that the benefits of the reduction in GST rates are
passed on to the ultimate consumers.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer: b
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
1. Consider the following
statements regarding PM Rozgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY):
1) PMRPY is a scheme to
incentivise employers registered with the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation
(EPFO) for job creation by the Government paying the full contribution of
employers to the Employee Pension Scheme (EPS) and Employees’ Provident Fund
(EPF) .
2) The PMRPY Scheme is targeted
for employees earning wages more than Rs 15,000/- per month. Thus, new
employees earning wages less than Rs 15,000/- per month will not be eligible.
3) All establishment availing
benefits under PMRPY scheme should be registered with EPFO under EPF Act 1952
and have a valid LIN.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
2. Consider the following pairs
of recent places in news and the corresponding country:
1) Khyber Pakhtunkhwa:
Afganishtan
2) Baramchal: Bangladesh
3) Oyigbo: Nigeria
Which of the above pairs are
correctly matched?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
3. Consider the following
statements:
1) Antibiotic-resistant
infections are a threat to global public health, food safety and an economic
burden.
2) Plant-based foods can
transmit antibiotic resistance to the microbes living in our gut.
3) Spread of
antibiotic-resistant superbugs from plants to humans is similar to outbreaks of
diarrheal illnesses caused immediately after eating contaminated vegetables
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
4. Which of the following
statements regarding ‘side pocketing’ in market economy stands true?
1) Side pocketing is a
framework that allows mutual funds to segregate the bad assets in a separate
portfolio within their debt schemes.
2) As per the rule, if a debt
instrument is downgraded to default rating by credit rating agencies, then the
fund house has the option to create a side pocket so that good assets can be
ring fenced.
3) Market regulator SEBI has
said that side pocket should not be looked upon as a sign of encouraging undue
credit risks as any misuse of the option would be considered serious and
stringent action can be taken.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
5. When the CJI writes to the
President and the PM for removal of a High Court judge, which of the following
offices/persons appoints a three-judge inquiry committee in consultation with
the CJI to look into the allegations?
a) President
b) Prime minister
c) Rajya Sabha chairman
d) Lok Sabha chairman
Answer:
1(c)
2(b)
3(a)
4(d)
5(c)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 25
Q1. An MoU was signed between
Dr.Ambedkar International Centre (DAIC), Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment and Dalit Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industry (DICCI) to
empower SC and ST Communities through research on Dalit Entrepreneurship
Which of the following
statements regarding the same are true?
1) DICCI brings together all
Dalit entrepreneurs under one umbrella and acts as a one-stop Resource Centre
for existing and aspiring Dalit entrepreneurs and promotes entrepreneurship
among Dalits as a solution to their socio-economic problems.
2) DAIC through this
collaboration will try to find out how far the SC and ST communities have
engaged themselves in starting and establishing their own businesses.
3) The data will be used to
identify the reason why the spirit of entrepreneurship has not been infused
among Dalit youth to develop business leadership for empowering them to walk in
step with the world.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
2. Consider the following pairs
of Himalayan Rivers and their corresponding tributaries:
1) Ganga: Tamsa
2) Brahmaputra: Tons
3) Yamuna: Tawa
4) Ravi: Saho
5) Satluj: Baspa
Which of the following pairs
are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 & 3 only
b) 2 & 4 only
c) all of the above
d) 1, 4& 5 only
Q3. Consider the following
statements regarding vaccinations:
1) Vaccines protect billions of
people around the world. They have completely got rid of one disease – smallpox
– and are bringing the world close to eliminating others, such as polio.
2) But some other diseases,
such as measles, are making a resurgence and experts say people avoiding
vaccines, fuelled by fear and misinformation, is one of the main causes.
3) As per surveys people in
richer countries have a higher trust in vaccines.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q4. Consider the following statements:
1) LTE (Long Term Evolution) is
a standard for 3G wireless broadband technology that offers increased network
capacity and speed to mobile device users.
2) LTE offers higher peak data
transfer rates of up to 100 Mbps downstream and 30 Mbps upstream. It also
provides reduced latency, scalable bandwidth capacity and backward-compatibility
with existing GSM and UMTS technology.
Which of the above statements
are not true ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) None
5. “Asian development outlook”
is a publication released by which of the following institutions?
a) World Bank
b) Asian development Bank (ADB)
c) Asian infrastructure and
investment bank (AIIB)
d) BRICS Bank
Answer:
1 – (d)
2- (d)
3- (a)
4- (a)
5- (b)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 20
1. Union Cabinet has approved
the Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill 2019 to replace Aadhaar and Other
Laws (Amendment) Ordinance 2019.
Which of the following
statements regarding the same are true?
1) This will enable UIDAI to
have a more robust mechanism to serve the public interest and restrain the
misuse of Aadhar.
2) After the amendment, all
individuals will be compelled to provide proof of possession of Aadhaar number
to undergo authentication for the purpose of establishing his identity.
3) For the convenience of the
general public in the opening of bank accounts, the proposed amendments will
allow the use of Aadhaar number for authentication on a voluntary basis as an
acceptable KYC document.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
2. Consider the following pairs
of bilateral military exercises conducted by India with the corresponding nations:
1) Mitra Shakti: Srilanka
2) Al Nagah: Israel
3) Maitree: Bangladesh
4) Ajeya Warrior: United
Kingdom
5) Surya Kiran : Nepal
Which of the above pairs are
correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 & 3 only
b) 1, 4 & 5 only
c) 2 & 4 only
d) all of the above
Q3. Consider the following statements:
1) The impact of Climate Change
on farmers, especially small and marginal ones is high in any part of the
country. If the affected areas are flood-prone and drought-prone, the impact is
enormous.
2) National Institute of Rural
Development and Panchayati Raj (NIRDPR) has launched a training programme of
Sustainable Livelihoods and Adaptation to Climate Change (SLACC) to help Rural
Poor Farm Holds adapt to Climate Change and sustain their livelihoods.
3) Total 638 drought and
flood-prone villages all over India will be covered as pilot basis under this
first of its kind initiative.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
4. Which of the following
statements regarding the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)’s
indigenously developed Hypersonic Technology Demonstrator Vehicle (HSTDV) are true?
1) Through the HSTDV project
the idea was to demonstrate the performance of a scram-jet engine at an
altitude of 15 km to 20 km, is on.
2) It can be used for launching
satellites at low cost. It will also be available for long-range cruise
missiles of the future.
3) In scram-jet technology, combustion
of fuel takes place in a chamber in the missile at hypersonic speeds whereas in
a ramjet engine air is collected from the surrounding atmosphere during the
flight at supersonic speeds.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
5. 19th Shanghai Cooperation Organization
(SCO) Summit is all set to begin in Bishkek from today. Bishkek is the capital
city of which of the following countries?
a) Kazakhstan
b) Kyrgyzstan
c) Uzbekistan
d) Turkmenistan
Answer:
1(c), 2(b), 3(a), 4(a), 5(b)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 19
1. Consider the following statements regarding the newly introduced e-governance initiatives launched for the welfare of ST’s:
1) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
has developed online portals namely DBT Tribal and NGO Grants Online
Application & Tracking System for bringing in greater e-Governance in
implementation of welfare schemes for STs.
2) In NGO portal, there are 2
main modules for Pre-Matric & Post-Matric Scholarship. Data sharing module
is mainly meant for sharing beneficiary-data by States & in Communication
module, the States have facility to upload documents, raise query for faster
release of funds.
3) The DBT tribal portal,
developed for implementing scheme of Aid to Voluntary Organizations working for
the welfare of STs, has been fully revamped & redesigned with simplified
Application form, Inspection Report and Fund Processing module.
Which of the above statements
are not true ?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q2. Which of the following are
classified as non communicable diseases?
1) Cancer
2) Osteoporosis
3) Chronic Lung disease
4) Diabetes
5) Alzheimer’s
a) 1, 2 & 3 only
b) 3, 4 & 5 only
c) all of the above
d) None of the above
Q3. Which of the following
statements regarding child labour legislation in India & abroad are true?
1) The government has enacted
the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016 which came
into force with effect from September 01, 2016. Now the employment of a Child
below 14 years is completely prohibited in any occupation or processes.
2) The census 2011 shows an
increase in Child Labour to 1.26 crore as compared to 1.01 crore in 2001.
3) The Theme of World Day
against Child Labour for the year 2019 is ‘Children shouldn’t Work in Fields,
but on Dreams’ which focuses on the importance of ending child labour and calls
for evolving strategies to end child labour.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q4. The Cabinet Committee on
Security headed by Prime Minister has cleared the setting up of the Defence
Space Research Agency. Which of the following statements regarding the same are
true?
1) The agency has been
entrusted with the task of creating space warfare weapon systems and
technologies.
2) The agency would be provided
with a team of scientists which would be working in close coordination with the
ISRO.
3) It would be providing the
research and development support to the Defence Space Agency (DSA) which
comprises members of the three services.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q5. External Affairs Minister S
Jaishankar will flag off the first batch of yatris of Kailash Mansarovar Yatra
from New Delhi. The route is possible only through which of the following
passes in India?
a) Nathu la Pass
b) Diphu Pass
c) Khardung la Pass
d) Shipki la Pass
Answer:
1(b), 2(c), 3(c), 4(c), 5(a)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 18
1. India has called upon the G-20 countries to urgently fix the issue of taxing profits made by digital economy companies in countries where they do not have significant physical presence. Which of the following statements with respect to the above context are true?
1) The aim is to bring offshore
companies with significant economic presence in India into the tax net to
address the shortcomings in taxing the digital economy.
2) Offshore digital companies
such as Facebook, Google and Netflix have little presence in India, taxing
their profits is not possible.
3) This prompted the government
to roll out equalization levy as a tax deducted at source on payments made to
them by Indian firms with effect from April 2018.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q2. Which of the following
countries constitutes the Nordic countries?
1) Iceland
2) Russia
3) Norway
4) Georgia
5) Denmark
a) 1, 2 & 3 only
b) 3, 4 & 5 only
c) 1, 3 & 5 only
d) all of the above
Q3. Which of the following
statements regarding the National cyclone risk mitigation project (NCRMP) are true?
1) The Government of India has
initiated the National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project (NCRMP) with a view to
address cyclone risks in the country.
2) The overall objective of the
Project is to undertake suitable structural and non-structural measures to
mitigate the effects of cyclones in the coastal states and UTs of India.
3) National Disaster Management
Authority (NDMA) under the aegis of Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) will
implement the Project in coordination with participating State Governments and
the National Institute for Disaster Management (NIDM).
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q4. Consider the following statements
regarding the ethical concepts of adoption of Artificial Intelligence:
1) AI has several positive
applications, but the capability of AI systems to learn from experience and to
perform autonomously for humans makes AI the most disruptive and self-transformative
technology of the 21st century.
2) Given the importance of
intention in India’s criminal law jurisprudence, it is essential to establish
the legal personality of AI (which means AI will have a bundle of rights and
obligations), and whether any sort of intention can be attributed to it.
3) Germany has come up with
ethical rules for autonomous vehicles stipulating that human life should always
have priority over property or animal life.
Which of the above statements
stands true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q5. India is set to adopt the
“Osaka summit declaration” in near future. The declaration pertains to which of
the following?
a) To adopt the climate change
resolutions put forwarded in Paris summit.
b) Deliberations on trade,
investment and digital economy.
c) For the conservation of
archaeological sites in the routes of swadesh Darshan scheme.
d) To promote artificial
intelligence in the banking as well as insurance sectors.
Answer:
1(a), 2(c), 3(d), 4(d), 5(b)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 17
1. Consider the following
statements regarding the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI):
1) The Institute of Chartered
Accountants of India (ICAI) is the national professional accounting body of
India. It was established as a statutory body under the Chartered Accountants
Act, 1949 enacted by the Parliament.
2) It recommends the accounting
standards to be followed by companies in India to National Advisory Committee on
Accounting Standards (NACAS) and sets the accounting standards to be followed
by other types of organisations.
3) It works closely with the
Government of India, Reserve Bank of India and the Securities and Exchange
Board of India in formulating and enforcing such standards.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
2. Consider the following
palaces/forts in India and their corresponding locations:
1) Victoria memorial: Mumbai
2) Neermahal Palace: Tripura
3) Fort.St.george: Kolkata
4) Kumbhalgarh Fort: Rajsamand
5) Lalgarh palace: Bikaner
Which of the above pairs are
correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 & 3 only
b) 2, 4 & 5 only
c) 1, 3 & 5 only
d) all of the above
3. Scientists have created
high-resolution maps of points around the globe where groundwater meets the
oceans, which of the following statements regarding the study are true?
1) The study found that in some
parts of the world, groundwater could be polluting oceans and lakes with
nutrients and other chemicals.
2) Groundwater can carry higher
concentrations of nitrates a key contributor of the types of harmful algal
blooms as well as high concentrations of mercury.
3) Most of the water that gets
to lakes and oceans comes from ground water sources carrying minerals and, in
some cases, pollutants, to surface bodies of water.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) All the of above
4. Which of the following
statements regarding the recently published UNICEF report on child marriage are
true?
1) The study reveals that child
marriage among boys is prevalent across a range of countries around the world,
spanning sub-Saharan Africa, Latin America and the Caribbean, South Asia, and
East Asia and the Pacific.
2) According to the data, the
India has the highest prevalence of child marriage among males (28%), followed
by Nicaragua (19%) and Madagascar (13%).
3) Early marriage brings early
fatherhood, and with it added pressure to provide for a family, cutting short
education and job opportunities.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
5. Which of the following
countries of the Indian subcontinent recently passed a law legalizing homosexuality?
a) Srilanka
b) Nepal
c) Bhutan
d) Myanmar
Answer:
1(d), 2(b), 3(a), 4(c), 5(c)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 16
1. Consider the following statements regarding food safety:
1) An estimated 600 million
cases of foodborne diseases occur annually worldwide.
2) Unsafe food is a threat to
human health and economies, disproportionately affecting vulnerable and
marginalized people, especially women and children, populations affected by
conflict and migrants.
3) World Food Safety Day
adopted by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations is aimed
at imposing non tariff barriers to protect local foods/agri products.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
2. Consider the following pairs
of space missions and their respective countries/space agencies:
1) Sputnik -1: Russia
2) Long March -1: China
3) Giotto: European space
agency
4) Explorer 1: Japan
Which of the above pairs are
correctly matched?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 4 only
c) 2 & 3 only
d) 1 & 4 only
3. Which of the following
statements air quality and BS emission standards are true?
1) India is among those nine
countries where the forest cover has increased by one percent.
2) Vehicular pollution which is
28 to 30 per cent of air pollution is expected to be reduced drastically after
implementation of Bharat Stage (BS)-6 emission norms from next year.
3) However in 2014 in the
National Capital the number of poor air quality days was 300 and it increased
to 326 days in 2018.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
4. Which of the following
statements regarding RBI’s regulation of leverage ratio in the banking sector
stands true?
1) The leverage ratio was
introduced for banks post the financial crisis of 2008, as one of the
underlying features of the crisis was the build-up of excessive on- and
off-balance sheet leverage in the banking system.
2) The central bank has
mandated leverage ratio of 3.5% for all the banks except for the domestic
systemically important banks (D-SIBs), which will have a 4% ratio.
3) The Reserve Bank of India’s
decision to bring leverage ratio for banks is in line with Basel-III standards.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
5. Which of the following countries
recently organised the “Gandhi cycle rally for peace” to mark the 150th birth
anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi?
a) India
b) China
c) Saudi Arabia
d) Australia
Answer:
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 15
1. Consider the following statements regarding air pollution:
1) While poor air quality days
which was 246 in the year 2014 have now come down below 200, the number of
moderate to good air quality days have increased from just 108 in 2016 to 159
in 2018.
2) To combat air pollution,
Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change has launched the National
Clean Air programme (NCAP) which is a mid-term 5 Year Action Plan with targets
of 20-30% reduction of PM 2.5 and PM 10 concentration in 102 cities.
3) It has been decided that
each Panchayat will tie up with a leading academic institution in the State
that would act as the technical partner at the State level for the programme.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
2. Which of the following Indian cities lies in the tropic of cancer?
1) Jaipur
2) Ahmedabad
3) Kolkata
4) Shillong
5) Agartala
a)1,2& 3 only
b) 1, 3 & 5 only
c) 2 & 4 only
d) all of the above
3. With respect to the newly signed tax information exchange agreement (TIEA) between India and Marshall islands, which of the following statements are true?
1) The Agreement enables
exchange of information, including banking and ownership information, between
the two countries for tax purposes.
2) It is based on international
standards of tax transparency and exchange of information and enables sharing
of information on request.
3) The Agreement also provides
for representatives of one country to undertake tax examinations in the other
country.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
4. Which of the following statements regarding the newly introduced Swachh Survekshan 2020(SS 2020) league initiative by ministry of housing & urban affairs are true?
1) SS League 2020 has been
introduced with the objective of sustaining the on ground performance of cities
along with continuous monitoring of service level performance when it comes to
cleanliness.
2) The performance of cities in
SS League 2020 will be crucial to their ranking in SwachhSurvekshan 2020 due to
the 25% weightage of the quarterly assessments to be included in the annual
survey in January 2020.
3) While SS 2016 had seen
Indore emerge as the cleanest city in India, Bengaluru has retained the title
of the Cleanest City in the last three years.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
5. Sudan has been suspended from the African Union (AU) amid growing fears that splits among the ruling military regime could lead to civil war and anarchy.
Which of the following places
forms the headquarters of the African union?
a) Johannesburg, South Africa
b) Nairobi, Kenya
c) AdisAbaba, Ethiopia
d) Mogadishu, Somalia
Answer
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 14
1. Consider the following statements with respect to the micro finance sector in India?
1) The Indian microfinance
sector is expected to register a more than 30% year-on-year growth to Rs. 90,000
crore in 2018-19.
2) Commercial Banks, Regional
Rural Banks (RRBs), cooperative societies and other large lenders have played
an important role in providing refinance facility to MFIs.
3) The RBI formed Malegam committee
aimed to address the primary customer complaints that led to the crisis,
including coercive collection practices, usurious interest rates, and selling
practices that resulted in over-indebtedness.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q2. Consider the following
pairs of mineral resources in India and their corresponding locations:
1) Uranium, Mica: Karnataka
2) Limestone, Mica: Rajasthan
3) Bauxite, Manganese: Andhra
Pradesh
4) Chromite, coal : Tamilnadu
5) Iron ore and clay: Goa
Which of the above pairs are
correctly matched?
a) 1, 2& 3 only
b) 1, 3 & 5 only
c) 2 & 5 only
d) 1 & 4 only
Q3. With respect to the
recently released gender equality index report, which of the following
statements are true ?
1) The index, covering 14 of
the 17 SDGs, measures countries on 51 issues ranging from health, gender-based
violence, climate change, decent work and others.
2) The overall index score and
individual goal scores are based on a scale of 0-100. A score of zero reflects
the achievement of gender equality in relation to the targets set for each
indicator.
3) India ranks 95 out of 129
countries, below countries such as Ghana, Rwanda and Bhutan in the new gender
equality index.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q4. Consider the following
statements regarding Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM):
1) GDM is defined as glucose
intolerance with onset or first recognition during pregnancy, GDM simply
represents relatively high glucose levels at one point in the life of a young
woman.
2) Higher glucose transfer to
the foetus, when the mother has high blood sugar, stimulates the foetal
pancreatic cells to start secreting insulin earlier and in higher quantities.
3) It has become imperative that
every pregnant woman be screened for high blood glucose even if no symptoms are
exhibited in order to avoid GDM.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q5. Which of the following
countries have launched the first arctic train named Zarengold which will
travel from Saint Petersburg through Petrozavodsk, the historic town of Kem and
Murmansk?
a) Germany
b) Russia
c) Norway
d) Denmark
Answer:
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 13
1. Consider the following
statements regarding the newly released RBI report on “Benchmarking of India’s
Payment Systems” :
1) While there has been robust
growth in the volume of retail electronic transactions amid a strong regulatory
framework, the country needs to enhance its payments acceptance infrastructure.
2) In 2018-19, the volume
growth of retail electronic transactions was 95%, compared to 51% in the
previous year, mainly due to to the steep growth in the use of the Unified
Payments Interface (UPI).
3) The report also said that
the level of credit card penetration in India was low when compared to advanced
countries, where it was a preferred option for making payments.
Which of the following
statements are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
2. Which of the following
Indian states are the major sugarcane producing states of India?
1) Andhra Pradesh
2) Assam
3) Tamilnadu
4) Gujarat
5) Maharashtra
a) 1,2& 3 only
b) 3,4 & 5 only
c) 1,4 & 5 only
d) all of the above
Q3. Which of the following
statements regarding global food safety are true?
1) Food safety is an increasing
threat to human health. Children under 5 years of age carry 40% of the
food-borne disease burden with 1, 25,000 deaths every year
2) Access to sufficient amounts
of safe and nutritious food is key to sustaining life and promoting good
health. Food-borne diseases impede socio-economic development by straining
health care systems and harming national economies, tourism and trade.
3) The first-ever World Food
Safety Day was adopted by the World Health Assembly in 2019.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 &3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
4. Which of the following
statements regarding Nipah virus are true?
1) Nipah virus, which causes
encephalitis and pneumonia, is lethal in about 70% of cases and can be caught
from animals or transmitted between people.
2) The only current treatment
for Nipah virus infection is a monoclonal antibody that is still experimental;
it was tested during an outbreak in India last year.
3) However since Ebola and
Nipah virus belongs to the same family the vaccine used for Ebola can be used
successfully to counter Nipah.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
5. The “Global Economic
Prospects “have been released by which of the following international institutions?
a) World economic forum
b) World Bank
c) World trade Organisation
d) UN General Assembly
Answer:
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 12
1. Consider the following
statements regarding copyright law in India:
1) Indian copyright law is at
parity with the international standards as contained in TRIPS. The (Indian)
Copyright Act, 1957 fully reflects the Berne Convention for Protection of
Literary and Artistic Works.
2) In India, the registration
of copyright is not mandatory as the registration is treated as mere recordal
of a fact.
3) The registration does not
create or confer any new right and is not a prerequisite for initiating action
against infringement.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q2. Which of the following
phenomenons are examples of convergent plate boundaries?
1) Subduction of the Nazca
Plate beneath the South American Plate
2) Formation of the Aravallis.
3) Collision between the
Australian Plate and the Pacific Plate.
4) Formation of New Zealand.
5) Collision between Eurasian
plate and African plate
a) 1, 2 & 3 only
b) 1, 3 & 4 only
c) 1, 3 & 5 only
d) 2 & 4 only
Q3. Which of the following
statements regarding NSSO (National sample survey office) are true?
1) The National Sample Survey
Office (NSSO) is responsible for conduct of large scale sample surveys in
diverse fields on All India basis under the ministry of HRD.
2) Besides these surveys, NSSO
collects data on rural and urban prices and plays a significant role in the
improvement of crop statistics through supervision of the area enumeration and
crop estimation surveys of the State agencies.
3) It also maintains a frame of
urban area units for use in sample surveys in urban areas.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q4. Consider the following
statements with respect to section 376E of IPC frequently seen in news:
1) Section 376E of IPC was
included in the criminal law act as per recommendation by justice Verma
committee which was constituted to enable quicker trials and harsher punishment
for those accused of sexual assault.
2) As per the act, habitual
offenders are punished with death penalty only if they have been convicted
subsequently for section 376A.
3) The section 376E is a
cognisable as well as non bailable offence under IPC.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q5. The recently launched
initiative “Udchalo” serves which of the following purposes?
a) It was started by union
aviation ministry to provide concession to senior citizens for using air
travel.
b) It is a travel portal that
caters for the personal travel of the military and paramilitary forces
personnel by aggregating defence fares and getting exclusive discounts.
c) It is an online platform for
bidding of air routes for both domestic as well as foreign players.
d) It is an initiative by HRD ministry to encourage pilot training amongst women army officers
Answer:
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 11
1. Which of the following statements regarding article 370 of Indian constitution are correct?
1) Article 370 in the part XXI
of the constitution of India provides a special status to the state of Jammu
and Kashmir and other tribal states of India.
2) Laws on Union and concurrent
list will be made by centre only with the consent of state of J&K.
3) Dr BR Ambedkar who was the
chairman of the drafting committee of the constitution assembly was against the
incorporation of article 370 in the constitution.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
2. Which of the following are
used as gene editing tools in biotechnology?
1) CRISPR-Cas9
2) TALENs
3) transposons
4) rAAV
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) all of the above
d) 2 & 4 only
3. Which of the following
statements regarding the newly approved Agriculture Export Policy are true?
1) It is aimed at increasing
India’s exports to $100 billion by 2032 from the current $37 billion.
2) The policy also aims to
promote the export of novel, indigenous, organic, ethnic, traditional and
non-traditional products.
3) The Mission target the
establishment of 15 Technology Innovation Hubs (TIH), six Application
Innovation Hubs (AIH) and four Technology Translation Research Parks (TTRP)
also.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
4. Consider the following statements:
1) Rice blast, caused by a
fungus Magnaportheoryzae, is one of the major diseases of the rice crop.
2) Fungicides are very
expensive, harmful for the environment and inappropriate application can cause
health issues.
3) The rapid changes in
pathogen virulence pose a constant challenge to the success of existing
blast-resistant rice varieties.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
5. Which of the following
African countries recently banned the importation, production, sale and use of
plastic bags in its territory?
a) Zimbabwe
b) Tanzania
c) Nigeria
d) Zambia
Answer:
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 10
1. Consider the following statements with respect to the current economic prospects:
1) India’s GDP grew at 5.8% in
the January-March 2019 quarter, dragging down the full year growth to a
five-year low of 6.8%.
2) The slowdown in the economy
was led by sluggish growth in construction, financial, real estate and
professional services, and electricity, gas, water supply and other utility
services.
3) The unemployment rate in the
country rose to a 45-year high of 6.1% in 2017-18, as per official data.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q2. Which of the following
art/cultural forms are included in the UNESCO’s List of Intangible Cultural
Heritage list from India?
1) Ramleela
2) Ashokan edicts
3) Ajanta caves
4) Kalbelia dance
5) Kumbh mela
a) 1,2 & 3 only
b) 1,4 & 5 only
c) 3,4 & 5 only
d) all of the above
Q3. India will lose access to
preferential trade terms with the U.S. under the latter’s Generalised System of
Preferences (GSP) programme soon.
Which of the following
statements regarding the same are true?
1) The Generalized System of
Preference (GSP) is the largest and oldest US trade preference programme and is
designed to promote economic development by allowing duty-free entry for
thousands of products from designated beneficiary countries.
2) The GSP given by developed
countries including the US is a violation of most favoured nation (MFN) status
as per WTO norms.
3) India was the largest
beneficiary of the program in 2017-2018.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q4. Which of the following
statements regarding the newly submitted draft education policy stands true?
1) The policy draft recommends
incorporation of Indian knowledge systems in the curriculum, constituting a
National Education Commission and curbing arbitrary fees hikes by private
schools.
2) The expert panel also
proposed massive transformation in Teacher Education by moving all teacher
preparation and education programmes into large multidisciplinary universities
or colleges.
3) The existing NEP was framed
in 1986 and revised in 2005, and the draft panel is headed by Dr.MS
Swaminathan.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q5. Which one of the following
countries was not amongst those elected as the non permanent members of UN Security
Council recently?
a) Indonesia
b) Brazil
c) Germany
d) Belgium
Answer:
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 8
1. Consider the following statements about Directive Principles:
They
have been derived from the Irish Constitution.
Similar
instructions to the State also existed in Government of India Act, 1935
The
explicit provision to minimise inequalities was not there in the original
Constitution.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2, 3
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3
2. Consider the following statements regarding Committee
on Public Accounts:
It is
constituted each year for examination of accounts showing the appropriation of
sums granted by Parliament for expenditure of Government of India.
The
Committee consists of 22 members comprising 15 members elected by Lok Sabha and
7 members elected by Rajya Sabha.
A
Minister is not eligible to be elected as a member of the Committee.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
3. Which of the following are true about
qualifications for a Supreme Court Judge?
A
naturalised citizen is eligible.
Should
be of age more than 35 years.
Should
have been a judge of High Court for 10 years.
Select the correct answer code
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
4. Article 110 of the Constitution deals
with the definition of money bills. It states that a bill is deemed to be a
money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with?
The
imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
The
regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government.
The
appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
5. Consider the following
statements regarding Delimitation of Constituencies.
In the
delimitation process, the number of seats allocated to different states in Lok
Sabha and the total number seats in a Legislative Assembly remains the same.
The
Delimitation Commission in India is a high-power body whose orders have the
force of law and cannot be called in question before any court.
The
first delimitation exercise in 1950-51 was carried out by the President with
the help of the Election Commission.
Which of the above statements
is/are?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 3 only
d) 2, 3
Solution: 1-d, 2-d, 3- a, 4- d, 5- a
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 3
1. With reference to the Vedic
period, consider the following statements:
The end
of the Vedic period witnessed the rise of Mahajanapada
The
Vedic period preceded the Indus Valley Civilisation
Early
Vedic culture was tribal and pastoral
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 and 3 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All are correct
Solution: b
2. With reference to the Painted Grey Ware
culture (PGW), consider the following statements:
It is a
Bronze Age culture of the western Gangetic plain and the Ghaggar-Hakra valley
It is
associated with the rise of the great Mahajanapada states and of the Magadha
Empire.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d
3. The Indus Valley
Civilisation (IVC) was a?
a) Iron-age civilisation
b) Bronze-age civilisation
c) Copper-age civilisation
d) None of the above
Solution: b
4. Ganweriwala is spread over 80 hectares and
comparable in size with the largest sites of the Indus Valley Civilization,
such as Mohenjo-daro. It is located in
a) India
b) Afghanistan
c) Pakistan
d) Iran
Solution: c
5. Sramana movement is mainly
associated with which of the following?
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 2
1. Paryushana is the most
important annual holy events for which of the following?
a) Buddhists
b) Jains
c) Hindus
d) Parsis
Solution: b
2. Jain ethical code prescribes five fundamental
vows. Which of the following is/are not one of them?
Ahimsa
Satya
Aparigraha
Brahmacharya
Select the correct answer using
codes below:
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 3 Only
c) 4 Only
d) None of the above
Solution: d
3. With reference to Ajivikas (Ajivakas),
consider the following statements:
The
most important sects to arise at the time of the Buddha were the Ajivikas
They
emphasized the rule of fate (niyati)
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c
4. The oldest and smallest of the three sections of the Buddhist canonical Tipitaka (“Triple Basket”) and the one that regulates monastic life and the daily affairs of monks and nuns according to rules attributed to the Buddha is?
a) Vinaya Pitaka
b) Abhidhamma Pitaka
c) Sutta Pitaka
d) All of the above
Solution: a
5. The Samayasara and the Pravacanasara are
considered the bible of
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 1
1. Consider the following
statements:
Brahmanism
emphasizes on the rites performed by, and the status of priestly class
Brahmanism
emerged from Vedanta principles
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a
2. Pratyakṣa (perception), Anumāna
(inference) and śabda (Āptavacana, word/testimony of reliable sources) are
accepted as the only reliable means of gaining knowledge in which of the
following schools of the Hindu philosophy?
a) Yoga
b) Samkhya
c) Nyaya
d) Both b and c
Solution: d
3. which of the following
schools of thought maintained that though events (dharmas) have only momentary
existence, there is a transmigrating substratum of consciousness that contains
within it seeds of goodness that are in every person?
a) Sautrantika
b) Sammitiya
c) Vaisheshika
d) None of the above
Solution: a
4. The major form of Buddhism
practised in Tibet, China, Korea, and Japan is
a) Theravada
b) Vajrayana
c) Mahayana
d) Hinayana
Solution: c
5. With reference to Avalokitesvara,
consider the following statements:
Avalokitesvara
is a divine and compassionate depiction of Jina in certain parts of coastal
Karnataka
Avalokitesvara
is the earthly manifestation of the self-born eternal Amitabha (another name
for Bahubali)
Myupsc.com brings you the complete and important daily Current Affairs August 2019 Quiz to achieve more marks in Banking, Insurance, UPSC, SSC, CLAT, Railways and all other competitive Exams. We have prepared the current affairs quiz questions from our daily current affairs 2019 latest updates.
Current Affairs important question answer for all competitive exams-2019-20
The following current affairs quiz will help in facing General Studies Paper for all competitive exams. Questions will be both conceptual and factual. Current affairs form the bulk of all exams preparation. Solving daily questions based on current affairs will help you both understand issues and remember facts better.
1. Chief Minister BS Yediyurappa proved
the majority in the state assembly in Karnataka recently. The present governor
of the state is
1) Vajubhai Vala
2) Lal ji Tandon
3) Anandiben Patel
4) Jagdeep Dhankhar
5) RN Ravi
2. Dr Subir Vithal Gokarn passed away
recently. He was a former
1) Chief Economic Advisor
2) Finance Secretary
3) Revenue Secretary
4) RBI Governor
5) RBI Deputy Governor
3. The Pattadakallu temple complex in
Bagalkot is a UNESCO site located in which state? According to a recently
decision by the government, it will stay open till 9pm.
1) Kerala
2) Tamil Nadu
3) Telangana
4) Karnataka
5) Andhra Pradesh
4. Prime Minister Narendra Modi released
All India Tiger Estimation Report 2018 recently. According to the report, which
state has the highest number of tigers as of now?
1) Karnataka
2) Tamil Nadu
3) Madhya Pradesh
4) Maharashtra
5) Uttrakhand
5. India is set to hand over a submarine
(INS Sindhuvir) to which of the following countries? The country will use its
first ever submarine for training purposes.
1) Sri Lanka
2) Myanmar
3) Bangladesh
4) Maldives
5) Thailand
6. Who among the following has been
appointed as the new Finance Secretary in the present Govt?
1) Ajay Kumar Bhalla
2) Anuradha Mitra
3) Atanu Chakraborty
4) Rajiv Gauba
5) Rajiv Kumar
7. According to a government report, India
received the highest-ever foreign direct investment (FDI) inflow of what amount
during the fiscal 2018-19?
1) $60.43 billion
2) $62.12 billion
3) $62.32 billion
4) $64.37 billion
5) $64.73 billion
8. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has
relaxed norms for end-use of money raised through ECBs. Here, the term ECB
means
1) Enhanced Commercial Borrowings
2) External Commercial Borrowings
3) External Corporate Borrowings
4) External Collateral Borrowings
5) Extended Corporate Borrowings
9. Under the Consumer Protection Bill 2019
passed in Lok Sabha, celebrity endorsers are liable for misleading ads and can
be fined by Central Consumer Protection Authority up to
1) Rs 10 lakh
2) Rs 15 lakh
3) Rs 20 lakh
4) Rs 25 lakh
5) Rs 40 lakh
10. Venugopal Rao announced his retirement
recently. He is associated with which of the following games?
1) Badminton
2) Tennis
3) Cricket
4) Squash
5) Boxing
11. Boris Johnson is the present Prime
Minister of which of the following countries?
1) Spain
2) Greece
3) New Zealand
4) Australia
5) UK
12. The International Cricket Council (ICC)
has officially launched the inaugural World Test Championship (WTC). The World
Test Championship final will be held in 2021 in
1) India
2) Australia
3) United Kingdom
4) New Zealand
5) South Africa
13. Ten monuments in the country will now
remain open from sunrise till 9 pm. One of these monuments is Man Mahal which
is located in
1) Varanasi
2) Jaipur
3) Bhopal
4) Hyderabad
5) Chandigarh
14. India’s seventh Economic Census began
from which state recently? The fieldwork in other States and Union Territories
would be undertaken in August and September.
1) Odisha
2) Tamil Nadu
3) Jammu & Kashmir
4) Tripura
5) Gujarat
15. Which of the following states bagged the
much-awaited Geographical Indication (GI) tag for its ‘Rasagola’ recently? A GI
tag recognises a product as distinctive to a particular locality or region.
1) Assam
2) Odisha
3) Sikkim
4) Bihar
5) Uttarakhand
16. Which of the following online payment
solutions providers has/have been levied a total penalty of around Rs 26 lakh
by the RBI for non-compliance of regulatory guidelines?
1) Hip Bar and Mobikwik
2) Mobikwik and Freecharge
3) Freecharge and PhonePe
4) PhonePe and Paytm
5) Paytm and Google Pay
17. In the present Union Cabinet, Anurag
Thakur is the Minister of State for
1) Home Affairs
2) Chemical and Fertilizers
3) Food Processing Industries
4) Human Resource Development
5) Finance and Corporate Affairs
18. The Indian Federation of Sports Gaming
(IFSG) has appointed who among the following as its ombudsman and ethics
officer? It is a self-regulatory industry body for the online fantasy sports
gaming sector.
1) Ashok Bhushan
2) Madan Lokur
3) Arjan Kumar Sikri
4) Sharad Arvind Bobde
5) Jasti Chelameswar
19. India and Myanmar signed a defence
co-operation agreement recently. What is the currency of Myanmar?
1) Baht
2) Kyat
3) Rufiyaa
4) Rupiah
5) Taka
20. Prime Minister Narendra Modi will feature
in an episode of the iconic survival television series Man Vs Wild with the
host Bear Grylls that will air on Discovery TV on 12 August. The special
episode has been shot in the
1) Ranthambore National Park (Rajasthan)
2) Kaziranga National Park (Assam)
3) Kanha Tiger Reserve (Madhya Pradesh)
4) Jim Corbett National Park (Uttarakhand)
5) Gir National Park (Gujarat)
21. Donkupar Roy passed away recently. He was
the assembly speaker and the former Chief Minister of
1) Meghalaya
2) Sikkim
3) Tripura
4) Nagaland
5) Mizoram
22. The 2022 Commonwealth Games will be held
at which of the following places? Indian Olympic Association has written to the
government to boycott the games for dropping shooting from the roster.
1) Victoria (Canada)
2) Glasgow (Scotland)
3) Melbourne (Australia)
4) Birmingham (England)
5) Kuala Lumpur (Malaysia)
23. Who among the following won the 2019
German Grand Prix F1 championship?
1) Sebastian Vettel
2) Max Verstappen
3) Charles Leclerc
4) Daniel Ricciardo
5) Lewis Hamilton
24. Simranjit Kaur won a gold medal in 23rd
President’s Cup in Labuan Bajo, Indonesia. She is associated with which of the
following games?
1) Shooting
2) Archery
3) Badminton
4) Squash
5) Boxing
25. The former Union Minister S Jaipal Reddy
passed away recently. In IK Gujral cabinet in 1998, he served as a Union
Minister for
1) Information and Broadcasting
2) Corporate Affairs
3) Agriculture
4) Human Resource Development
5) Textiles
26. Indian Police Service (IPS) officer VK
Johri has been appointed as the next Director General of
1) Border Security Force
2) Indo-Tibetan Border Police
3) Central Industrial Security Force
4) Sashastra Seema Bal
5) National Security Guard
27. Defence Minister Rajnath Singh visited
Mozambique recently. The capital of Mozambique is
1) Harare
2) Gaborone
3) Windhoek
4) Dodoma
5) Maputo
28. Haryana Chief Minister Manohar Lal Khattar
has invited which of the following countries to be the partner country for this
year’s ‘Gita Jayanti Mahotsav’?
1) Indonesia
2) Singapore
3) Nepal
4) Cambodia
5) Sri Lanka
29. Prime Minister Narendra Modi released the
All India Tiger Estimation 2018 recently. According to the survey, the count of
tigers in India has risen to
1)
1,965
2)
2,168
3)
2,462
4)
2,763
5)
2,967
30. Payments banks have asked the RBI to relax
the cap on deposits for these banks. As per present guidelines, payments banks
can accept demand deposits up to a maximum of
1) Rs 25,000 per customer
2) Rs 50,000 per customer
3) Rs 75,000 per customer
4) Rs 1 lakh per customer
5) Rs 2 lakh per customer
31. As informed by the Minister of
Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Narendra Singh Tomar, recently, the average
monthly income per agricultural household from all sources is less than
1)
Rs 6,500
2)
Rs 6,000
3)
Rs 5,500
4)
Rs 5,000
5)
Rs 4,500
32. Sudarsan Pattnaik won People’s Choice
Award in US for his work ‘Stop Plastic Pollution, Save Our Ocean’ recently. He
is an Indian
1) poet
2) Sculptor
3) Painter
4) cartoonist
5) sand artist
33. The fifth international Dharma-Dhamma
conference was organised recently at which of the following places?
1) Kushinagar
2) Patna
3) Rajgir
4) Dharamshala
5) Varanasi
34. Prime Minister of Nepal addressed
India-Nepal Logistics Summit in Kathmandu recently. The present Prime Minister
of Nepal is
1) Madhav Kumar Nepal
2) Bidhya Devi Bhandari
3) Sher Bahadur Deuba
4) KP Sharma Oli
5) Pushp Kamal Dahal
35. A Himalayan Conclave was held recently in
which state to discuss various issues related to the development of Himalayan
States?
1) Nagaland
2) Uttarakhand
3) Meghalaya
4) Himachal Pradesh
5) Jammu & Kashmir
36. The third edition of Khelo India Youth
Games will be held in 2020 in which city?
1) Guwahati
2) Bhopal
3) Chennai
4) Ranchi
5) Chandigarh
37. A high level 10-member committee has been
constituted to coordinate and strategise the preparation for the 2020 and 2024
Olympics. The chairman of the Committee is
1) Pullela Gopichand
2) Kiren Rijiju
3) Abhinav Bindra
4) Sarbananda Sonowal
5) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore
38. Ministry of Mines organised ‘Waste To
Wealth’ workshop in New Delhi on Effective utilization of Red Mud in
association with the Jawaharlal Nehru Aluminium Research Development and Design
Centre which is located in
1) Barauni
2) Keonjhar
3) Nagpur
4) Cuttack
5) Ratnagiri
39. The first batch of Boeing AH-64E Apache
Guardian Attack helicopters arrived at the Indian Air Force’s Hindon airbase
recently. These choppers have been ordered by India from
1) Germany
2) UK
3) Russia
4) France
5) US
40. The International Tiger Day is observed
every year on which date?
1) 02 July
2) 09 July
3) 19 July
4) 29 July
5) 31 July
41. Union power secretary Ajay Kumar Bhalla
has been appointed officer on special duty (OSD) in which of the following
ministries?
1) Ministry of Home Affairs
2) Ministry of External Affairs
3) Ministry of Finance
4) Civil Aviation Ministry
5) Agriculture and Farmer’s Welfare
Ministry
42. RP Upadhyaya took charge as the new
Director-General of Police (DGP) in which of the following states recently?
1) Himachal Pradesh
2) Haryana
3) Arunachal Pradesh
4) Rajasthan
5) Andhra Pradesh
43. Which of the following forces celebrated
its 81st raising day on 27 July?
1) Border Security Force
2) Shashatra Seema Bal
3) Central Industrial Security Force
4) Indo-Tibetan Border Police
5) Central Reserve Police Force
44. India along with other BRICS nations has
called on all states to prevent the financing of terrorist networks. The host
country for 11th BRICS Summit (2019) is
1) Russia
2) China
3) India
4) Brazil
5) South Africa
45. Nikhat Zareen and Deepak Bhoria won
silver medals at Thailand Open International Championship recently. Both of
them are associated with the game of
1) Tennis
2) Boxing
3) Shooting
4) Archery
5) Badminton
46. The Goods and Services Tax Council
recently decided to reduce rates on Electrical Vehicles to 1) 18%
2)
12%
3)
5%
4)
2%
5)
0%
47. Punjab National Bank (PNB) has reported a
net profit of Rs 1,019 crore for June quarter. The headquarters of the bank is
located in which city?
1) Mumbai
2) New Delhi
3) Amritsar
4) Chandigarh
5) Patiala
48. Which of the following has become the
India’s biggest telecom operator with its subscriber base of
331.3
million in the quarter ended June?
1) MTNL
2) BSNL
3) Airtel
4) Vodafone Idea
5) Reliance Jio Infocomm
49. Jordan recently unveiled its first
underwater military museum off the coast of Aqaba. The capital city of Jordan
is
1) Amman
2) Manama
3) Nassau
4) Abuja
5) Kingston
50. The Union Cabinet recently approved the
sale of 481.79 acres of land held by Fertilizers and Chemicals Travancore Ltd
(FACT) to which state government?
Myupsc.com brings you the complete and important daily Current Affairs August 2019 Quiz to achieve more marks in Banking, Insurance, UPSC, SSC, CLAT, Railways and all other competitive Exams. We have prepared the current affairs quiz questions from our daily current affairs 2019 latest updates.
The following current affairs quiz will help in facing General Studies Paper for all competitive exams. Questions will be both conceptual and factual. Current affairs form the bulk of all exams preparation. Solving daily questions based on current affairs will help you both understand issues and remember facts better.
Myupsc.com brings you the complete and important daily Current Affairs August 2019 Quiz to achieve more marks in Banking, Insurance, UPSC, SSC, CLAT, Railways and all other competitive Exams. We have prepared the current affairs quiz questions from our daily current affairs 2019 latest updates.
Myupsc.com brings you the complete and important daily Current Affairs August 2019 Quiz to achieve more marks in Banking, Insurance, UPSC, SSC, CLAT, Railways and all other competitive Exams. We have prepared the current affairs quiz questions from our daily current affairs 2019 latest updates.
Myupsc.com brings you the complete and important daily Current Affairs August 2019 Quiz to achieve more marks in Banking, Insurance, UPSC, SSC, CLAT, Railways and all other competitive Exams. We have prepared the current affairs quiz questions from our daily current affairs 2019 latest updates.
Myupsc.com brings you the complete and important daily Current Affairs August 2019 Quiz to achieve more marks in Banking, Insurance, UPSC, SSC, CLAT, Railways and all other competitive Exams. We have prepared the current affairs quiz questions from our daily current affairs 2019 latest updates.
Myupsc.com brings you the complete and important daily Current Affairs August 2019 Quiz to achieve more marks in Banking, Insurance, UPSC, SSC, CLAT, Railways and all other competitive Exams. We have prepared the current affairs quiz questions from our daily current affairs 2019 latest updates.
Myupsc.com is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. The Study Portal has also published its Test Series, Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc.
Indian Polity & Constitution
1. By “Rule of Law”, we mean who
among the following are subject to the law of the land?
1. Every subject of the law of the land only
2. Every subject of the law of the land
including the lawmakers
3. Every subject of the law of the land,
lawmakers, law enforcement officials and judges Choose the correct statements
(a) 1 only
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) Both 1 and 2
2. Which of the
following could not be construed as apart of concept of “Rule of Law”?
(a) Law must be
publicly declared and is established or adopted through popular consent
(b) Prospective
application (punishments)
(c) Characteristics of
generality equality and protection of individual rights
(d) Requirements with regard to the content of the law
3. Consider the
following statements.
1. In the Indira Nehru
Gandhi v. Raj Narayan case, the Apex Court held that Rule of Law embodied in
Article 14 of the Constitution is the “basic feature” of the Indian
Constitution.
2. In the Maneka Gandhi
v. Union of India case, the Supreme Court held that Indian Constitution is
based on the American system of ‘Due Process of Law
Correct statement/s
is/are
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Consider the
following statements.
1. Constitutionalism
can be established in a country even without a written Constitution.
2. Written Constitution
in a country would not qualify a country automatically to be a
Constitutionalised one
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Consider the
following statements.
1. While in case of
Written Constitutions there is clear distinction between constitutional laws
and other laws (like statutory laws and bylaws), in case of unwritten
Constitutions there is no such marked difference as every law
Passed by the
parliament becomes constitutional.
2. While in case of
Written Constitutions, the structure of government can be federal or unitary,
in case of unwritten Constitutions, the structure of government is necessarily
unitary because the parliament is considered supreme
The correct statement/s
is/are
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Consider the
following statements regarding the Parliamentary form of the government and
choose the INCORRECT feature.
(a) Existence of a Titular or Constitutional
Ruler
(b) Absence of clear principle of separation of
powers
(c) Ministry formed from the popular chamber
of the legislature
(d) None of the above
7. Which of the
following is NOT considered as an essential nature of Democratic government?
(a) A belief in the fundamental importance of
the individual.
(b) Equality of All Persons
(c) Majority Rule but recognition of Minority
Rights
(d) Freedom of the individuals rather than the rights of society
8. Consider the
following statements.
1. Fundamental rights
acts as a limitation on the authority of the state
2. Directive Principles
authorises the state to carry out certain functions The correct statement/s
is/are
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. Consider the
following statements with regard to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
1. Preamble contains
the philosophical part of the Constitution, the principles which are
essentially uncodified.
2. The principles
contained in the Preamble can be altered through an amendment, but without
altering the basic features contained in it.
The correct statement/s
is/are
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. Objective
Resolution was silent as to the concept of …..? Which was inserted into the
Preamble by the Constituent Assembly?
Current Affairs is the most important, as well as the trickiest part of Civil Services Exam. Making your own notes from any standard national newspaper consumes much of your time, especially if you are a beginner.
Myupsc.com is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc.
Current Affairs is the most important, as well as
the trickiest part of Civil Services Exam. Making your own notes from any
standard national newspaper consumes much of your time, especially if you are a
beginner.
This is because the news articles that appear in the newspaper generally miss certain essential facts, lack the logical flow of content and are complexly worded.
Myupsc.com is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc.
1) Indrasaurus wangi sometimes seen in the news
recently is a/an
a. Paravian
Dinosaur
b. Ancient
Lizard species
c. Dolphin
native to River Indus
d. None of
the above
Answer : b
A team of researchers has recently discovered a new specimen of a microraptor — volant dromaeosaurid Microraptor zhaoianus — with the remains of a nearly complete lizard preserved in its stomach. The researchers have named the lizard after Lord Indra. The lizard is unlike any previously known from the Cretaceous and represents a new species- Indrasaurus wangi. The name Indrasaurus was inspired by a Vedic legend in which the god Indra was swallowed by a dragon during a great battle (the dragon here referring to Microraptor).
2) Consider the following statements with respect to Blue Flag Programme
1. It is an eco-label awarded to beaches, marinas,
and sustainable boating tourism operators.
2. It is jointly operated under the auspices of the
International Maritime Organisation and UN-Oceans.
3. Shivrajpur and Bhogave beaches are the only
beaches in India that have attained the Blue Flag.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
only
c. 1 and 3
only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer : a
The iconic Blue Flag is one of the world’s most
recognised voluntary eco-labels awarded to beaches, marinas, and sustainable
boating tourism operators.
The Blue Flag Programme for beaches and marinas is
run by the international, non-governmental, non-profit organisation FEE (the
Foundation for Environmental Education).
In order to qualify for the Blue Flag, a series of
stringent environmental, educational, safety, and accessibility criteria must
be met and maintained.
Japan and South Korea are the only countries in
South and South-Eastern Asia to have Blue Flag beaches.
The Union Environment Ministry has recently selected 12 beaches in India to vie for a ‘Blue Flag’ certification.
3) Which of the following tribe(s) is/are not
belonging to the state of Sikkim?
1. Bhutia
2. Lepcha
3. Limboo
4. Tamang
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
A proposal for reservation of seats for Limboo and Tamang communities in Sikkim Legislative Assembly is under consideration of the Government of India.
4) Consider the following statements with respect to
Van Mitra Portal
1. It is
an online portal launched by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
2. It
acts as a platform for citizens to report poaching and illegal trade of forest
resources.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and
2
d. Neither 1
nor 2
Answer : d
The Madhya Pradesh government has recently began
organising gram sabhas in villages to consider afresh rejected claims of
Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers to forest land rights
under the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006.
To streamline the application process and deal with the bulk of claims, the State has also launched an online application system, Van Mitra, in the Hoshangabad district on a pilot basis.
5) FinSpy sometimes seen in the news recently is a
a. Bio
capsule
b. Spyware
virus
c. Vaccine
for TB
d.
Disinfectant resistant Pathogen
Answer : b
FinSpy is the latest version of spyware virus
designed to track nearly every interaction on a mobile device.
FinSpy collects data from instant messengers—even if
they are using encryption programs—such as Russian developed messaging app
Telegram, Facebook’s WhatsApp, Skype, Signal, China’s WeChat and BlackBerry
Messenger.
1. With
reference to the Rim of the Pacific Exercise (RIMPAC), consider the following
statements.
1. It
is the world’s largest international maritime exercise.
2. Only
Pacific Ocean littoral countries participate in this exercise.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 4
(b) 2
only
(c) Both
1 and 2
(d) Neither
1 nor 2
2. Which
of the following laws are the legacies of British rule in India?
1. Section
377 of the Indian Penal Code
2. Section
124-A of the Indian Penal Code
3. Armed
Forces Special Power Act
4. Section
499 and 500 of the Indian Penal
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 1
and 3 only
(b) 2
and 4 only
(c) 1,
2 and 4 only
(d) 2
and 3 only
3. Which
of the following were the reasons for French decline in India?
1. French
army was no match for British army
2. French
monarchy had no stakes in the French company
3. French
were engaged in continental expansion in Europe
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below:
(a) 1
and 2 only
(b) 2
and 3 only
(c) 1
only
(d) All
of these
4. Consider
the following with reference to “Coral reefs”.
1. Coral
reefs are symbiotic association of coral polyps and algae.
2. Muddy
waters are more suitable for the growth of coral reefs.
3. Coral
reefs are equivalent to marine of tropical rain forest.
4. Lakshadweep
islands are of coral origin.
Which of the statements given above
is / are correct?
(a) 1
and 4 only
(b) 1,3
and 4 only
(c) 2
and 3 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
5. With
reference to the Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI), which of
the following statements is/are not correct?
1. BCSBI
defines the benchmarks for banking services in India.
2. It
oversees the Scheme of Banking Ombudsman.
3. It
is a statutory body under the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of
Finance.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
(a) 1
only
(b) 1
and 2 only
(c) 2
and 3 only
(d) 1,
2 and 3
6. Which
one of the following statements about the provisions of the Constitution of
India is correct?
(a) Minorities
can establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
(b) Only
linguistic, ethnic and religious minorities find mention under Article 30
(c) Every
religious denomination has unfettered right to establish and maintain
institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
(d) An
educational institution established by a religious minority loses its minority
status on receiving financial aid from the Government.
7. The
Peshwa accepted the Subsidiary Alliance with the British via which among the
following treaties?
(a) Treaty
of Purandhar
(b) Treaty
of Bassein
(c) Treaty
of Salbai
(d) Treaty
of Surji Arjunagaon
8. Consider
the following statements in the context of Peruvian current.
1. It
is cold current
2. It
is responsible for fishing productivity in Peruvian coast.
3. It
cases dryness in Atacama Desert. Which of the statements given above is / are
correct
(a) 1
and 2 only
(b) 2
and 3 only
(c) 1
and 3 Only
(d) 1,
2 and 3
9. Match the Following
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a)
2 3 4 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 4 1 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 4 1 3
10. With
reference to the fish production in India, consider the following statements.
1. In
terms of fish production, the inland fisheries sector contributes more than
that of the marine sector.
2. India’s
marine fisheries production is more in Gujarat as compared to other States.
3. In
India is the second largest fish producing country in the World. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1
and 2 only
(b) 2
and 3 only
(c) 1,
2 and 3 only
(d) None
of the above statements are correct
11. With
reference to the Asia Pacific Trade Agreement (APTA), consider the following
statements.
1. It
is an initiative under the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for
Asia and the Pacific (UN ESCAP) for trade expansion among developing country
members of the Asia Pacific Region.
2. India
and Pakistan are among the founding members of this Preferential Trade
Agreement.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1
only
(b) 2
only
(c) Both
1 and 2
(d) Neither
1 nor 2
12. Which
among the following is correct with regards to the Constituent assembly of
India?
(a) Constituent
assembly was democratically elected by the people of India.
(b) The
representatives of each community were elected by the members of that community
itself.
(c) Each
province/princely states were allocated seats based on their geographical area.
(d) Mahatma
Gandhi was a member of the constituent assembly until he was assassinated in
1948.
13. Who
among the following signed the Treaty of Bassein in 1802 with the British East
India Company?
(a) Baji
Rao II
(b) Baji
Rao I
(c) Sultan
Bahadur
(d) None
of the above
14. Which
of the following is not correct in the context of “Wildfires”?
(a) These
are controlled blazes fuelled by weather, wind, and dry underbrush etc.
(b) They
return nutrients to the soil
(c) They
act as a disinfectant.
(d) They
allow sunlight to reach the forest floor, enabling a new generation of
seedlings to grow.
15. In
which of the following states, the indigenous beliefs “Donyi-Polo”
and “Rangfra” are practiced?
(a) Arunachal
Pradesh
(b) Mizoram
(c) Manipur
(d) Assam
16. Which
of the following functions were performed by the Constituent Assembly of India?
1. Enactment
of the ordinary laws
2. Adoption
of National Flag and National Anthem.
3. Election
of the First President of India.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 1
and 2 only
(b) 1
and 3 only
(c) 2
and 3 only
(d) 1,
2 and 3
17. In
the tenure of which Governor-General an attempt was made for the first time to
codify Hindu and Muslim customary laws?
(a) Lord
Cornwallis
(b) Warren
Hastings
(c) William
Bentinck
(d) Charles
Metcalfe
18. Which
of the following factors is / are responsible for tides formation?
1. Earth’s
gravitational pull
2. Moon’s
gravitational pull
3. Sun’s
gravitational pull
4. Centrifugal
force due to earth’s rotation
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) 2
and 3 only
(b) 1,2
and 3 only
(c) 2,3
and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
19. Consider
the following statements regarding the Aral Sea
1. The
Aral Sea was an endorheic lake
2. It
lies between Kazakhstan (Aktobe and Kyzylorda Regions) in the north and
Uzbekistan (Karakalpakstan autonomous region) in the south.
Which of the above given statements
are incorrect?
(a) 1
only
(b) 2
only
(c) Both
1 and 2
(d) Neither
1 nor 2
20. Consider
the following statements about the Lokpal in India.
1. The
institution of Lokpal was first recommended by the first Administrative Reforms
Commission.
2. Under
the Lokpal Act (2013), Jurisdiction of Lokpal includes Prime Minister,
Ministers, and Members of Parliament.
3. As per the Lokpal Act of 2013,
Lokpal can take Suo Motu actions against any public servant.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1
only
(b) 2
and 3 only
(c) 1
and 2 only
(d) 1
and 3 only
21. With
reference to the recently launched “cVIGIL” mobile App, consider the
following statements.
1. The
App enables the employees of public sector undertakings to report any instances
of corruption in their organization.
2. The
application was launched by the department of personnel and training. Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1
only
(b) 2
only
(c) Both
1 and 2
(d) Neither
1 nor 2
22. Consider
the following statements about the “Preamble” of the Indian
Constitution
1. It
has been amended only once since its inception.
2. It
is not a part of the constitution.
3. It is justifiable in nature
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1
only
(b) 1
and 2 only
(c) 2
and 3 only
(d) 1,
2 and 3
23. Which
among the following was the first municipal corporation set up in India in the
year 1687?
(a) Madras
Municipal Corporation
(b) Bombay
Municipal Corporation
(c) Delhi
Municipal Corporation
(d) None
of the above
24. Which
of the following statements is / are correct?
1. Britain
has no climate, only weather.
2. Egypt
has no weather, only climate. Select the correct answer using the codes given
below.
(a) 1
only
(b) 2
Only
(c) Both
1 and 2
(d) Neither
1 nor 2
25. With
reference to the SAARC development fund (SDF), which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. SDF
was setup by the World Bank to accelerate economic growth, social progress and
poverty alleviation in the SAARC region.
2. The
headquarters of the SDF is located at the Thimpu, Bhutan. Select the correct
answer using the code given below.
Daily Practice Multiple Choice Question Answer for RPSC, RAS, RSMSSB, Lecturer, SI and all other competitive exams of Rajasthan.
1. Which article of constitution mentioned “Appointment of Chief Minister”?
1. Article 154
2. Article 161
3. Article 164
4. Article 158
2. Which of the following
statement is false about the Chief Minister?
1. There is no special provision for appointment
and election of Chief Minister in the constitution
2. Article 154 states that the Governor will
appoint the Chief Minister
3. The Governor is free to appoint any person as
Chief Minister
4. There is no such system in the Constitution
that the Chief Minister should prove a majority before his appointment
3. What is the minimum age
to be appointed as the Chief Minister of a state?
1. 25 years
2. 30 years
3. 35 years
4. 18 years
4. Which of the following
post is hold by the Chief Minister?
1. Chairman of the State Planning Board
2. Member of National Development Council
3. Chief Spokesperson of the State Government
4. All of the above
5. Which of the following
is not matched correctly?
1. Article 167: Duties of the Chief Minister
2. Article 163: sworn in of the Chief Minister
3. Article 164: Provisions related to State
Ministers
4. Article 166:
Operations by the State Government
6. Who determines the
salary and allowances of the Chief Minister?
1. Governor
2. State Legislature
3. President
4. Parliament
7. Which of the following
statements is false?
1. Chief Minister’s tenure is not fixed (with
some conditions)
2. If the Chief Minister resigns from his post
then the entire Council of Ministers has to resign
3. The Governor is the President of the
Inter-state Council
4. The collective responsibility of the Council
of Ministers is to the State Legislature
8. Which of the following
power is not enjoyed by the Chief Minister?
1. The Governor appoints ministers only to those
people who are recommended by the Chief Minister
2. Chief Minister shifts all the ministers’
departments
3. Chief Minister can ask the governor to
disassociate the Legislative assembly
4. Chief Minister appoints judges of the state’s
high court
9. The State Council is
responsible to whom?
1. to the
Governor
2. to the
Legislative Assembly
3. to the
Legislative Council
4. to the State Legislature
10. Who provide oath to
other ministers of the state other than the Chief Minister?
1. Chief
Minister
2. Speaker of the assembly
3. Chief
Justice of the High Court
4. Governor
11. The Advocate General
of the State is responsible to whom?
1. Governor
2. Chief
Minister
3. Speaker of the Assembly
4. None of these
12. Udaipur, South-eastern
margin of Pali & Dungarpur districts are part of which Aravali Region?
1. North-Eastern Aravalli
Range 2. Central Aravalli
Range
3. Southern Aravalli
Range 4. None of the
above
13. According to GSHAP
data, the state of Rajasthan falls in a region of which seismic hazard?
1. High seismic zone 2.Moderate seismic zone
3. High to Moderate 4. Moderate to High
14. Rajasthan has divided
into different climatic regions, the climatic regions of Rajasthan are based on
which of the following parameter?
1. Climatic Regions of
Rajasthan based on Rainfall Intensity.
2.
Koeppen’s Classification
3. Thornthwaite’s
classification
4. All of the above
15. Consider the following
statements and choose the right answer:
1. Rainfall less than 10 cm in extreme west parts of regions
and rest areas record less than 20 cm rainfall.
2. The average temperature during summer is recorded more than
34degree C and during winters it ranges in between 12 DegC to 16DegC.
3. The region includes Jaisalmer district, Barmer, Jodhpur,
western parts of Bikaner and southern parts of Ganganagar district.
1. Semi-Arid Region 2. Arid Region
3. Sub-Humid 4. Humid Region
16. Alwar, Jaipur, Dausa,
Ajmer, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Pali, Jalore and Sirohi districts are included in
which of the following category?
1. Semi-Arid Region
2. Arid Region
3. Sub-Humid 4. Humid Region
17. Consider the following
features and identify the wildlife sanctuary:
1. This Sanctuary is
situated in the Banaskantha district in Gujarat at the Gujarat-Rajasthan
border.
2. The complete area
between Mount Abu and Jessore wildlife sanctuary is home to them.
3. Apart from sloth bear,
other fauna reported in the sanctuary are leopard, sambar, blue bull, wild
boar, porcupine, and a variety of birds.
1. Mount Abu Wildlife
Sanctuary
2. Jessore Wildlife
Sanctuary
3. Daroji bear sanctuary
4. Rajasthan Wildlife
Sanctuary
18. Sloth Bear is found in
which of the following place?
1. Sawai Madhopur 2
-Alwar
3. Mount Abu 4- Udaipur
19. Great Indian Bustard
is not found in which of the following states of India?
1. Gujarat 2. Tamil Nadu
3. Karnataka 4. Andhra Pradesh
5. Rajasthan 6. Maharashtra
20. Mahaseer fish is found
only in which lake of Rajasthan?
1. Anasagar Lake Ajmer 2- Fateh Sagar Udaipur
3. Lake Badi Udaipur 4- Sambhar Lake
21. Find the incorrect
matched:
1. Bisalpur Conservation Reserve Tonk
2. Jodbeed Gadhwala
Reserve Sirohi
3. Sundhamata Conservation Reserve Jodhpur
4. Gudha Vishnoiyan Reserve Jalore
22. Parbati River flows in
which of the following districts?
1. Sawai Madhopur 2 Tonk
3. Dholpur 4.Karauli
1. 1,2,3,4
2. 1, 2, 3
3. 1, 3
4. 1, 3, 4
23. Berach River is not flow through which of the
following District?
1. Udaipur 2. Chittorgarh
3. Rajsamand 4- Bhilwara
24. Gogelav and Rotu
Conservation Reserve are located in which district of Rajasthan?
1. Udaipur 2. Jaipur
3. Nagaur 4. Sariska
25. Find out the incorrect
match:
Wildlife Sanctuary District
1. Kesarbagh WLS Dholpur
2. Phulwari ki Nal WLS Udaipur, Pali
3. Ramgarh Vishdhari WLS Barmer
4. Sitamata WLS Pratapgarh
26. Which among the
following is largest wildlife sanctuary as per their area?
1. Kailadevi WLS 2- Kumbhalgarh WLS
3. Phulwari ki Nal WLS 4. Todgarh Raoli WLS
27. Match the following:
National Park District
1. Ranthambore NP A. Bharatpur
2. Keoladeo Ghana NP B. Alwar
3. Sariska NP C.
Jaisalmer, Barmer
4. DesertNP D. Sawai Madhopur
1.1-A 2-B 3- C 4-D
2. 1-B 2-C 3-D 4-A
3. 1-C 2-D 3-A 4-B
4. 1-D 2-A 3- B 4-C
28. White Rumped Vulture
Found in which places of Rajasthan?
1. Udaipur 2. Kota
3. All Rajasthan 4. Mount Abu
29. Which of the following
is matching incorrect?
District
Mascot
1. Bikaner Sand grouse
2. Nagaur Rajhans
3. Pratapgarh
wolf
4. Bhilwara Peacock
5. Bundi Golden Pheasant
30. Consider the following
statement and choose the right answer:
1. These forests which are
most abundant in central India, as in Madhya Pradesh, parts of Gujarat and
Maharashtra, are found in Sirohi district of Rajasthan.
2. These forests have
semi-evergreen and some evergreen species of trees.
3. The vegetation consists
of many plants which are similar to Himalayas.
4. They are well
represented between 700 to 800 m altitudes.
1. Tropical Dry Deciduous
(Dhol) Forests
2. Bamboo Forests
3. Sub-Tropical Forests
4. Tropical Rain Forests
31. Method of Abolition or Creation of a State
Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) mentioned in which article of Indian
constitution?
UPSC CSE IAS prelims and State PSC Exams Daily Practice Questions
1. Which of the following
organization has recently, tested its Crew Escape System?
(a) NASA
(b) ISRO
(c) DRDO
(d) Air India
2. Consider the following
statements regarding Untouchability
1. The constitution
doesn’t define untouchability and it also doesn’t prescribe any punitive
punishment
2. Manual scavenging is
considered as a form of untouchability and is banned by Manual Scavenging Act,
2013 which provides a blanket ban on the employment of manual scavengers.
Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Consider the following
statements:
1. The French were the
last to come to India in search of trade opportunities.
2. The Portuguese were the
first European community to discover a direct sea route to India.
3. Queen Elizabeth I was a
share holder of the British East India Company.
Which of the statements
given above is/are are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
4. Consider the Following statements:
1. Rotation of the earth
is responsible for holding its atmosphere.
2. Atmosphere rotates
along with earth’s rotation
3. Humidity in atmosphere
increases from equator towards poles.
Which of the statements
given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 Only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
5. Which of the Mobile App
launched by Ministry of Coal to prevent illegal coal mining?
(a) Khan Prahari
(b) Coal Bachao
(c) Khan Helpline
(d) Koyla Bachao
6. If a new state is to be
created which of the following schedules should definitely be altered?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Eighth
7. Who was the Governor
General of India at the time of formation of the Indian National Congress?
(a) Lord Lytton
(b) Lord Dufferin
(c) Lord Elgin
(d) Lord Minto
8. Which of the following
can be tapped for electricity generation?
1. Tidal waves
2. Volcanoes
3. Hot springs
4. Earth Quakes
Select the correct answer
using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 Only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. Consider the following statements
1. Africa is the second largest continent after Asia and is ten
times the size of India
2. Also called as The Dark Continent
3. It is the only continent that crosses the Tropic of Cancer,
Equator and Tropic of Capricorn.
Which of the above given
statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
10. Which committee was
constituted by the Union Government to upgrade norms for state & district
level economic data collection?
(a) Susheel Kumar Committee
(b) Ravindra H Dholakia Committee
(c) Bimal Jalan Committee
(d) S Kashyap Committee
11. Which among the following
sites of Mumbai has recently been inducted into the UNESCO World Heritage Site
list?
(a) Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai
12. Which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. Article 15 of the
Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the
foreigners.
2. Article 16 of the
Constitution of India is available to the citizens of India only.
3. Article 21 of the
Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners
alike within the territory of India.
Select the correct answer
using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Which of the following
statements is incorrect about “Drain of Wealth” theory in context of Indian
freedom struggle?
(a) The Drain of Wealth theory was systemically initiated by
Dadabhai Naoroji.
(b) Through this theory Naoroji sought to prove that Britain was
draining money out of India.
(c) Drain of Wealth included “Home Charges”.
(d) All the statements are correct.
14. Which one of the
following statements is / are not correct with respect to core of the earth?
1. it’s made up of high-density materials mostly like nickel
and iron
2. Solid state of the inner core is because of the incumbent
pressure.
3. High temperature of inner core is responsible for the
magnetic sphere of the earth.
Select the correct answer
using the codes given below.
(a) 3 Only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
15. Which state government
has launched a “happiness curriculum” for school students?
(a) Delhi
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Haryana
(d) Uttar Pradesh
16. Consider the following
statements regarding Article 368 of Indian Constitution
1. If an Indian territory
is to be ceded to a foreign nation then it requires a formal amendment process
under Article 368
2. The settlement of
boundary disputes also requires a formal amendment process under Article 368.
Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
17. Who among the following is known as “The Father of the Indian
Renaissance”?
(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(b) Swami Vivekananda
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
18. Which of the following is not a “Second order
relief” feature?
(a) Himalayas
(b) Mid Atlantic Ridge
(c) Grand Canyon
(d) Great African Rift valley
19. Consider the following statements
1. Africa is separated
from Eurasia at three different points, Strait of Gibraltar, Suez Canal and
strait of Bab-el- Mandel.
2. It joins Asia by the
narrow Isthmus of Suez
Which of the above given
statements is/are incorrect?
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) none
20. Which ministry has
launched India Smart Cities Fellowship (ISCF) and Internship (ISCI)?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
(b) Ministry for Development of North Eastern Region
(c) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
(d) Ministry of environment
21. Which of the following
countries have been put in to the grey list of Financial action task force
(FATF) ?
(a) Iran
(b) Syria
(c) Pakistan
(d) Afghanistan
22. Consider the following
statements with regards to “Right to Education Act”
1. “The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education
Act” is an Act enacted by the Parliament of India and ratified by the
states of India
2. It describes the modalities of the importance of free and
compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 under Article 21A of the
Indian Constitution.
3. It mandates unaided schools with the exception of Minority
educational schools to reserve 25% of their seats for children from weaker
sections and disadvantaged groups.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
23. Consider the following
statements about Permanent Settlement System.
Permanent Settlement System was introduced by Lord Wellesley in 1793.
It was introduced on the recommendations of Sir John Shore. Which of the statements given above is/are are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
24. Consider the following
layers with reference to atmosphere of the sun
1. Photosphere
2. Chromo sphere
3. Corona
Arrange the layers of
atmosphere given below in order from surface towards core of the sun.
(a) 3 – 2 – 1
(b) 1 – 2 – 3
(c) 2 – 1 – 3
(d) 1 – 3 – 2
25. In the first ever
India’s inter-state relocation, a tiger was shifted between which two states?
(a) Uttarakhand & Madhya Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh & Uttar Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh & Odisha
(d) Gujarat & Maharashtra
26. Which of the following
agencies come under the definition of “State” mentioned in the Article 12 of
the Indian constitution?
1. Local bodies
2. Public sector banks
3. National Council of Educational Research and Training
(NCERT)
4. Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI)
Select the correct answer
using the codes given below.
