UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 Result declared

UPSC has announced the results of civil services preliminary exam – 2019.

The Detailed Application Form-I (DAF-I) for the Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2019, will be available on the website of the Union Public Service Commission (https://upsconline.nic.in) during the period from 01/08/2019 (Thursday) to 16/08/2019 (Friday) till 6:00 P.M.

Test Series: UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020

It said the e-admit card along with the time table of the main examination will be uploaded on the Commission’s Website for the eligible candidates around 3-4 weeks before the commencement of the examination.

“Changes, if any, in the postal address or e-mail address or mobile number after submission of the DAF-I may be communicated to the Commission at once,” it said.

The candidates are also informed that marks, cut off marks and answer keys of screening test held through the civil services preliminary examination will be uploaded on the website only after the entire process examination is over i.e. after the declaration of final result of civil services examination, the statement said.

The civil services exam is conducted annually in three phases – prelims, mains and interview  to select officers for Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Foreign Service (IFS), Indian Police Service (IPS), among others. ABS ABS TIR TIR.

Source: upsc.gov.in

UPSC Prelims 2019 Question Topics – 100 Areas from which UPSC Framed Questions

From which areas did UPSC frame questions for this year IAS exam?

UPSC Prelims 2019 Question Topics – 100 Areas from which UPSC Framed Questions This Year

UPSC Prelims 2019 Question Topics – 100 Areas

  1. Jagirdar and Zamindar – Mughal Rule – Medieval India.
  2. Land reforms in independent India – India since Independence.
  3. Global Competitiveness Report – Current Affairs/General Awareness.
  4. Charter Act of 1813 – Modern India.
  5. Swadeshi Movement – Freedom Struggle – Modern India.
  6. Movement/Organization Leader – Freedom Struggle – Modern India.
  7. Harappan site – Ancient India.
  8. Ashoka Sculpture inscriptions – Ancient India.
  9. Mahayana Buddhism – Ancient India/Culture.
  10. Gupta period forced labour (Vishti) – Ancient India.
  11. Kalyaana Mandapas – Medieval India/Culture.
  12. Delhi Sultanate – Medieval India.
  13. Saints and Contemporaries – Medieval India/Culture.
  14. Mahatma Gandhi and British Colonial Rule – Freedom Struggle – Modern India.
  15. Person: Position – Freedom Struggle – Modern India.
  16. Mian Tansen – Medieval India/Culture.
  17. Mughal Emperors Portrait – Medieval India/Culture.
  18. National Park in the temperate alpine zone – Geography.
  19. Atal Innovation Mission – Current Affairs/Schemes.
  20.  21st June – Summer Solstice – Geography.
  21. ‘New World’ vs ‘Old World’ Plants – History.
  22. Animals Found in India – Biodiversity.
  23. Famous place River – Geography.
  24. Poverty lines – Geography.
  25. Cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into the stratosphere – Global Warming – Climate Change.
  26. Pyrolysis and plasma gasification – Waste to Energy – Science and Technology/General Awareness.
  27. Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve – Geography/Environment.
  28. Species/Herbivores/Viviparous – Biodiversity.
  29. Wildlife naturally found – Biodiversity.
  30. Microbeads – Environment/General Awareness.
  31. Importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) – Biodiversity/General Awareness.
  32. Satellite images/remote sensing data – Science and Technology.
  33. Percentage of forest covers to the total area of State – Geography.
  34. Deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ – Climate change/General Awareness.
  35. Burning of crop/biomass residue – Environment.
  36. Sea Bordering country – Maps – Geography
  37. The largest exporter of rice in the world – Geography
  38. Glacier River – Geography
  39. Methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos – Current Affairs/General Awareness
  40. Ramsar Convention – Wetlands – Environment
  41. Gases released into the environment – Environment
  42. Places known as Aliyar, Isa pur and Kangsabati – Geography
  43. Hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) – Current Affairs/General Awareness
  44. Dewdrops – cloudy night – Geography
  45. Constitutional Amendments/Judgments – Indian Polity
  46. Impeachment of a Judge of the Supreme Court of India – Indian Polity
  47. Ninth Schedule – Indian Polity
  48. CoaI sector – Economy/General Awareness
  49. Office of Profit – Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 – Indian Polity
  50. Tribal land – Schedule of the Constitution of India – Indian Indian Polity.
  51. Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India – Indian Indian Polity/General Awareness.
  52. Constitutional powers under Article 142 – Indian Indian Polity
  53. Legislative Assembly of a State in India – Indian Indian Polity
  54. United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) -Current Affairs/General Awareness
  55. Minor Forest Produce – Indian Forest Act, 1927 and Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest
    Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 – Environment/Current Affairs
  56. Article of the Constitution of India – Right to marry – Indian Indian Polity
  57. Indian Patents Act – Patenting process in India – Science and Technology/Current Affairs
  58. The Environment Protection Act, 1986 – Environment.
  59. Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 – Current Affairs/General Awareness
  60. Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018 – Current Affairs/General Awareness
  61. Services Area Approach – Indian Economy
  62. Minor minerals in India – Indian Economy
  63. India’s external debt – Indian Economy
  64. Assets of a commercial bank in India – Indian Economy
  65. The risk of a currency crisis – Indian Economy/Current Affairs
  66. Governor – Sarkaria Commission – Indian Polity
  67. Foreign portfolio  investors – Participatory Note – Indian Economy/Current Affairs
  68. Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 – Environment/General Awareness
  69. Review of independent regulators – Indian Polity
  70. India’s Five-Year Plans – Indian Economy
  71. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) – Current Affairs
  72. Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks – Indian Economy
  73. Chairmen of public sector banks – Bank Boards Bureau – Indian Economy
  74. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) – Indian Economy
  75. Differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution) – Science and Technology/General Awareness
  76. Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 – Current Affairs
  77. World Bank’s “Ease of Doing Business Index” – Current Affairs/General Awareness
  78. ‘Extended producer responsibility’ – E-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 – Current Affairs
  79. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India – Indian Economy
  80. Social capital – Indian Polity/General Awareness
  81. Constitution of India – Amendment – High court – Indian Polity
  82. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) – Economics.
  83. Cultivation of Kharif crop in India – Geography
  84. The highest imports in terms of value – Economics/Geography
  85. Definition of liberty – Indian Polity/General Awareness
  86. The slide of the Indian rupee – Economics/Current Affairs
  87. Storage of Payment System Data or data diktat – Current Affairs
  88. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) – Current Affairs
  89. Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field – Current Affairs
  90. Money Multiplier Economics
  91. Digital technologies for entertainment – Augmented Reality vs Virtual Reality – Science and Technology
  92. Denisovan – Science and Technology
  93. Recent developments in science – chromosome/DNA – Science and Technology
  94. Digital signature – Science and Technology
  95. Wearable technology – Science and Technology
  96. ‘RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology – Science and Technology
  97. The Merger of giant ‘blackholes’ – gravitational waves – Science and Technology
  98. Multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens – Science and Technology
  99. Cas9 protein – Science and Technology
  100. Hepatitis B vs HIV – Science and Technology

These are just question areas; not actual questions!

The above mentioned are the question topics or areas. If you need to go through the actual questions, refer the link – IAS PRELIMS ANSWER KEY 2019 WITH SOLUTION

UPSC IAS EXAMS BOOK/NOTESRPSC RAS/RTS EXAMS BOOK/NOTES

Physical Geography of India Study Notes for IAS Prelims Exam

RPSC RAS Mains Exam GS Paper-I Study Notes

Modern History of India Study Notes With MCQ

RPSC RAS Mains Exam GS Paper-2 Study Notes

2000 Solved MCQ for IAS Preliminary Exam 2019:GS Paper-I

Polity and Administration of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 10 Practice Solved Paper

Art Culture and Heritage of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Study Notes with MCQ

History of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes

Indian Polity Test Series for IAS Prelims 2019

Geography of Rajasthan Study notes with MCQ

IAS Prelims 2019: Art and Culture Revision Notes

Polity & Administration of Rajasthan Solved Practice Question

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Revision Notes: Environment and Ecology

RAS Mains Exam Economy Solved Questions

Geography of India Question Bank

Geography of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes- Hindi

Indian Polity Question Bank eBook

Geography of Rajasthan Solved Question for RPSC RAS Mains Exam

History Of India Practice Question Bank

RPSC RAS Mains Art and Culture Practice Solved Question

UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 GS Paper Solved Test 1-5

RPSC RAS Mains Exam Practice Solved Test-1

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper Test 6-10

RAS Mains Exam Practice Solved Test-2

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Practice Test-1

RPSC RAS Mains Exam Practice Solved Test-3

UPSC IAS PRELIMS ANSWER KEY 2019 WITH SOLUTION

UPSC IAS EXAMS BOOK/NOTESRPSC RAS/RTS EXAMS BOOK/NOTES

Physical Geography of India Study Notes for IAS Prelims Exam

RPSC RAS Mains Exam GS Paper-I Study Notes

Modern History of India Study Notes With MCQ

RPSC RAS Mains Exam GS Paper-2 Study Notes

2000 Solved MCQ for IAS Preliminary Exam 2019:GS Paper-I

Polity and Administration of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 10 Practice Solved Paper

Art Culture and Heritage of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Study Notes with MCQ

History of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes

Indian Polity Test Series for IAS Prelims 2019

Geography of Rajasthan Study notes with MCQ

IAS Prelims 2019: Art and Culture Revision Notes

Polity & Administration of Rajasthan Solved Practice Question

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Revision Notes: Environment and Ecology

RAS Mains Exam Economy Solved Questions

Geography of India Question Bank

Geography of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes- Hindi

Indian Polity Question Bank eBook

Geography of Rajasthan Solved Question for RPSC RAS Mains Exam

History Of India Practice Question Bank

RPSC RAS Mains Art and Culture Practice Solved Question

UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 GS Paper Solved Test 1-5

RPSC RAS Mains Exam Practice Solved Test-1

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper Test 6-10

RAS Mains Exam Practice Solved Test-2

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Practice Test-1

RPSC RAS Mains Exam Practice Solved Test-3

UPSC IAS PRELIMS 2019 ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATION

UPSC Prelims 2019 Question Paper with Explanation

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2019 General Studies Paper-I on date 02/06/2019

1. Consider the following statements:
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

  • Nitrous oxide is emitted into the atmosphere as a result of biomass burning, and biological processes in soils. Biomass burning is not only an instantaneous source of nitrous oxide, but it results in a longer term enhancement of the biogenic production of this gas.
  • The current belief is that 90% of the emissions come from soils. Nitrous oxide is formed in soils during the microbiological processes nitrification and denitrification. Because nitrous oxide is a gas it can escape from soil during these transformations. Nitrous oxide production is controlled by temperature, pH, water holding capacity of the soil, irrigation practices, fertilizer rate, tillage practice, soil type and oxygen concentration, availability of carbon, vegetation, land use practices and use of chemicals. Nitrous oxide emissions from agricultural soils are increased by the addition of fertilizer.

Statement 2 is correct:

  • Cattle release both ammonia and methane into the atmosphere. Ruminant animals do not efficiently utilize dietary nitrogen. Excess nitrogen fed in the form of feed proteins is excreted in manure (urine + feces). Dairy cows on average secrete in milk 25 to 35 percent of the nitrogen they consume and almost all the remaining nitrogen is excreted in urine and feces with about half of the nitrogen excreted in urine.

Statement 3 is correct:

  • Nitrogen emissions in chicken production occur in several forms but mainly ammonia can contribute directly or indirectly to several environmental and public health hazards. Chicken production also contributes to some extent to climate change through the emissions of nitrous oxide, fine particulate matters, and methane.

2. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?
(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits
(b) Tropical rain forests
(c) Underground cave systems
(d) Water reservoirs
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • These are water reservoirs of national importance.
    • Aliyar Dam: Aliyar Dam is a charming location surrounded by Annamali Hills with wonderful natural views. It is located between Pollachi and Valparai.At a distance of 64 Kms from Coimbatore, 24 Kms from Pollachi & 545 Kms from Chennai.Built across Aliyar River between 1959 and 1969, the primary purpose of the dam is to support irrigation for Pollachi and nearby places for Agriculture purpose. The height of the dam is 81 meters. There is a well-maintained park built at bottom of the Dam. The view of the Anamalai range around the reservoir is a feast for the eyes and the view of the coconut groves from top of the dam is amazing. Boating is available here.
    • Isapur Dam: Isapur Dam is one of the biggest dam in the state of Maharashtra, build over the Painganga River that divides Maharashtra into two regions namely; Marathwada and Vidarbha regions. It is an earth fill dam, with a height of 57 m, and the length is 4,120.1 m. The motive behind the construction of the Dam was mainly irrigation. Lush with water, Isapur Dam is a prominent tourist attraction cradled in the lap of mother nature. Blessed with pristine scenery, it is an incredible place for the keen bird watchers to stay around and get mesmerized by the sweet calls of the colorful birds around, especially during winters. While the immense greenery around the dam makes it a perfect background for the picnic or sightseeing.
    • Kangsabati Reservoir Project: Kangsabati Reservoir Project was started in the year 1956-57. Till date an irrigation potential of 3,48,477 ha. has been created in the districts of Bankura, Midnapore and Hooghly through this Project. With bank assistance and under Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme, the Government has undertaken large extension and improvement programme of the main canals. The project though originally planned for Kharif and limited Rabi, at present the irrigation water is provided for Boro cultivation also to an area of 27,944 ha.

3. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements :
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: H-CNG reduces the emission of Carbon Monoxide up to 70% but does not eliminate it.
  • Statement 2 is correct: H-CNG as a fuel reduces the emission of carbon-di-oxide and hydrocarbon as compared to other fuels. Compared with natural gas, HCNG has many advantages when it comes to performance. Research has shown that the brake effective thermal efficiency increases with an increased percentage of hydrogen. Another effect of the addition of hydrogen is that the brake specific fuel consumption is reduced, the cycle by cycle variations are also reduced, and the thermal efficiency is increased.
  • Emissions can also be improved with the addition of hydrogen. Compared to pure natural gas, HCNG reduces the HC emissions, which is in part due to the increased combustion stability that comes with the addition of hydrogen. However, due to the increased temperature and combustion duration that accompanies the hydrogen addition, an increase in NOx emissions is observed.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is methane (CH4) stored at high pressure. CNG as a fuel can be used in place of gasoline, diesel fuel and propane (C3H8) / LPG and its combustion produces fewer undesirable gases then the other mentioned fuels. Combustion is a high temperature exothermic chemical reaction between a fuel and an oxidant that produces oxidized products. When 18-20% of hydrogen as fuel is mixed into the CNG it becomes pollution free as it reduces the emission of carbon-monoxide up to 20%.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: Current cost of H2 is more than the cost of Natural Gas. Therefore, HCNG’s cost is more than CNG. Current price of HCNG is higher than CNG and will cost 72 paisa per kilometer more if implemented in DTC buses.

4. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?
(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.
(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
(c) The Earth’s surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.
(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • Dew: Dew is the water droplets formed by condensation of water vapor on a relatively cold surface of an object. It forms when the temperature of an object drops below the dew point temperature.
  • When there is cloudy weather condition, terrestrial radiation is radiated back to the earth’s surface after reflection from clouds. This leads to formation of hothouse (Greenhouse) condition due to which temperature on earth’s surface is relatively higher. Hence, condition becomes unfavorable for the formation of dew.

5. Consider the following statements :
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • 44th amendment didn’t provide for this. 99th amendment was declared null and void for violating independence of judiciary by bringing in executive in selection process of judges.

6. Consider the following statements :
1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Only 3 and 4 are correct. Hence Option (C) is the answer.

  • Speaker can refuse to accept the motion (Laxmikanth: Supreme Court). Incapacity and proved misbehavior haven’t been defined.

7. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Ninth Schedule was introduced by 1st constitutional amendment and this was under reign of Nehru.

8. Consider the following statements:
1. CoaI sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self- sufficient in coal production.
Which of the statements given above is/arc correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is Correct, as the Indira Gandhi administration nationalized coal mining in phases – coking coal mines in 1971–72 and non-coking coal mines in 1973. With the enactment of the Coal Mines (Nationalization) Act, 1973, all coal mines in India were nationalized on 1 May 1973.

Statement 2 is Incorrect, as under the new policy, mines will be auctioned to the firm offering the highest per tonne price.

Statement 3 is Incorrect, as due to high demand and poor average quality, India is forced to import high quality coal to meet the requirements of steel plants. India’s coal imports have risen from 49.79 million metric tons (0.05488 billion short tons) in 2007–08 to 190.95 million metric tons (0.21049 billion short tons) in 2016–17.

9. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well- defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Article 102 of the Constitution provides that a person shall be disqualified from being chosen as a Member of Parliament (MP) if he holds an office of profit under the government of India or the government of a state. However, Parliament can declare by law that the holding of certain offices will not incur this disqualification.  The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 lists certain offices of profit under the central and state governments, which do not disqualify the holders from being an MP.  The Chairperson of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is exempted from disqualification as per this list.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 was amended five times.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Office of profit is a position in government which cannot be held by Member of Legislative Assembly (MLA) or Member of Parliament (MP). The post can yield salaries, perquisites and other benefits. It has not been defined in Constitution or Representation of the People Act, 1951.

10. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
(a) Third Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Fifth Schedule

  • The key objective is to provide protection to the tribals living in the Scheduled Areas from alienation of their lands and natural resources to non-tribals.
  • In these areas, the Governor has been given plenary powers as far as their administration is concerned.
  • Option (b) is correct: Under this schedule the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void
  • The executive power of the Union extends to the giving of directions to the State as to the administration of these areas.
  • Governor of these states need make report to the President annually or as needed by President regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State.

11. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of
(a) anti-malarial drug
(b) biodiesel
(c) pulp for paper industry
(d) textile fibre
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Himalayan Nettle

  • Option (d) is correct: Girardinia diversifolia (Himalayan nettle), a fibre-yielding plant, is found to be a sustainable source of Textile fibre.
  • It has become an important livelihood option for people living in the remote mountainous villages of the Hindu Kush Himalaya.
  • There is a community in Khar, a hamlet in Darchula district in far-western Nepal, which produces fabrics from Himalayan nettle.
  • The fabric and the things made from it are sold in local as well as national and international markets as high-end products.

12. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?
1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

For the measurement/estimation of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data is used:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location is estimated by using Multispectral Satellite Imagery.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Land surface temperatures of a specific location. Land surface temperature (LST) is of fundamental importance to many aspects of the geosciences, for example, net radiation budget at the Earth surface, monitoring state of crops and vegetation, as well as an important indicator of both the greenhouse effect and the physics of land-surface processes at local through global scales. Satellite LST measurements provide unique data sources for regional and global coverage in fairly good temporal, spatial resolution, and time span. Therefore, LST is one of the baseline products in both Joint Polar-orbiting Satellite System (JPSS) and Geostationary Operational Environmental Satellite-R Series (GOES-R) satellite missions.

13. Consider the following Suites :
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
(a) 2-3-1-4
(b) 2-3-4-1
(c) 3-2-4-1
(d) 3-2-1-4
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

following are the percentage of forest area of the four states, according to Indian state of forest report, 2017:

State Percentage of forest area
Chhattisgarh 41.09%
Madhya Pradesh 25.11 %
Maharashtra 16.47%
Odisha 32.98%

14. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ arc found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Methane Hydrate

  • Statement 1 is correct: Scientists concerned that global warming may release huge stores of methane from reservoirs beneath Arctic tundra and deposits of marine hydrates — a theory known as the “clathrate gun” hypothesis — have turned to geologic history to search for evidence of significant methane release during past warming events.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Vast amounts of methane hydrate are buried in sediments on the continental shelves and slopes. Four different kinds of geological settings have the temperature and pressure conditions suitable for the formation and stability of methane hydrates:
    • Sediment and sedimentary rock units below Arctic permafrost
    • Sedimentary deposits along continental margins
    • Deep-water sediments of inland lakes and seas, and
    • Under the Antarctic ice.
  • Statement 3 is correct:

15. Consider the following :
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

From- Review Paper Emissions from Crop/Biomass Residue Burning Risk to Atmospheric Quality From above references it may be safely concluded that crop residue/biomass residue burning not only emits poisonous gases such as SO2, CH4, CO2, CO, N2O, NOx, NO, NO2, OC, BC, TC, NMHCs, SVOCs, VOCs, O3 etc; but also influences the quality of environment at large. (Page 27)

http://www.isca.in/EARTH_SCI/Archive/v1/i1/4.ISCA-IRJES-2013-005.pdf

16. Consider the following pairs:
Sea Bordering country
1. Adriatic Sea : Albania
2. Black Sea : Croatia
3. Caspian Sea : Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea : Morocco
5. Red Sea : Syria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • Countries bordering Adriatic sea: The Adriatic Sea is a part of the Mediterranean Sea positioned between the eastern coastline of Italy, and countries of the Balkan Peninsula, from Slovenia, south through Croatia. Montenegro, and to Albania. The southern boundary of the sea ends in the Strait of Otranto between Albania and Italy’s Salento Peninsula. Immediately south of that strait the Ionian Sea begins.
  • Countries bordering Black sea: The Black Sea lies between southeastern Europe and Asia Minor. Excluding its northern arm, the Sea of Azov, the Black Sea occupies about 168,500 square miles (436,400 square kilometers). It is connected to the Aegean Sea through the Bosporus, the Sea of Marmara, and the Dardanelles, and has been of critical importance to regional commerce throughout the ages. This major inland sea is bordered by six countries — Romania and Bulgaria to the west; Ukraine, Russia, and Georgia to the north and east; and Turkey to the south. Additionally, it is impacted by another 10 nations through the five major rivers that empty into the Black Sea, the largest of which is the Danube River.
  • Countries bordering Capspian sea: The five countries Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Russia, Turkmenistan and Iran share their boundary with the Caspian Sea
  • Countries bordering Mediterranean sea: The countries surrounding the Mediterranean in clockwise order are Spain, France, Monaco, Italy, Slovenia, Croatia, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Montenegro, Albania, Greece, Turkey, Syria, Lebanon, Israel, Egypt, Libya, Tunisia, Algeria, and Morocco; Malta and Cyprus are island countries in the sea.
  • Countries bordering Red sea: There are six countries (Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti) bordering the Red Sea.

17. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Myanmar
(d) Vietnam
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

India is the largest exporter of rice in the world since the last decade while China is largest producer of rice. Below are the 15 countries that exported the highest dollar value worth of rice during 2018.

1)India: US$7.4 billion (30.1% of total rice exports)

2)Thailand: $5.6 billion (22.7%)

3)Vietnam: $2.2 billion (9%)

4)Pakistan: $2 billion (8.2%)

5)United States: $1.7 billion (6.9%)

6)China: $887.3 million (3.6%)

18. Consider the following pairs :
Glacier River
1. Bandarpunch : Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri : Chenab
3. Milam : Mandakini
4. Siachen : Nubra
5. Zemu : Manas
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 5
(d) 3 and 5
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Origin Glacier  Rivers
Bandarpunch Yamuna  
Bara Shigri Chenab
Milam Gori Ganga  
Siachen Nubra
Zemu Teesta  

19. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as
(a) pesticides in agriculture
(b) preservatives in processed foods
(c) fruit-ripening agents
(d) moisturising agents in cosmetics
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Option (a) is correct: In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as Pesticides in Agriculture.

20. Consider the following statements :
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

  • When a country joins the Ramsar Convention, it gets itself listed into the international effort for the conservation and wise use of wetlands. Once a country has joined, there are commitments which it has to fulfil as obligations.
  • It has to designate at least one of its wetlands into the List of Wetlands of International Importance called “Ramsar List”. Once that is done, it can later designate more such wetlands.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The above designation has to be based upon criteria that take into account the ecology, botany, zoology, limnology (freshwater science) or Hydrology. Thus, not every wetland becomes a Ramsar site but only those which have significant values related to these fields.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Wetlands (Conservation andManagement) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

21. Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of
(a) Chalukya
(b) Chandela
(c) Rashtrakuta
(d) Vijayanagara
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

During period of Vijaynagara empire certain new features were evident in terms of temple architecture. These were Mandapas and Gopurams.

  • Mandapas: It meant pavilions and long, pillared corridors that often ran around the shrines within the temple complex. A Kalyana Mandapa, meant to celebrate divine weddings
  • Gopurams: or royal gateways that often dwarfed the towers on the central shrines, and signalled the presence of the temple from a great distance. They were also probably meant as reminders of the power of kings, able to command the resources, techniques and skills needed to construct these towering gateways.

22. Consider the following statements:
1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Iqta system: Iqta’ is an Arabic word meaning an administrative regional unit. It is usually considered equivalent to a province. It was initiated by Iltutmish in India.
  • It had started outside India in Persia (Iran) region and in western Asia. Thus not indigenous.
  • Office of Mir Bakshi started under Mughal administration. He looked after all matters pertaining to the military administration. The orders of appointment of mansabdars and their salary papers were endorsed and passed by him.
  • The amalguzar or amil was the revenue collector during Delhi Sultanate. His duty was to assess and supervise the revenue collection. He was expected to increase the land under cultivation and induce the peasants to pay revenue willingly. He used to maintain all accounts and send the daily receipt and expenditure report to the provincial Diwan.

23. Consider the following statements:
1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • Saint nimbarka is believed to have been alive during 11th century. While Akbar 16th century.
  • Saint Kabir was born in 1440 while Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi was an Islamic scholar lived later between (1564-1624)

24. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.
2. In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • Lord Chelmsford, the then Viceroy of India, invited Gandhi to Delhi at a War Conference. In order to gain the trust of the empire, Gandhi agreed to move people to enlist in the army for World War I. However, he wrote to the Viceroy and said that he “personally will not kill or injure anybody, friend or foe”.
  • The first agitation that Mahatma Gandhi launched during his days in South Africa was against the system of indentured labour. In India, Gokhale, Tilak and others agitated against the practice of sending Indians abroad to labour on sugarcane farms.
  • Congress was declared illegal during Salt Satyagraha and Gandhiji signed Gandhi-Irwin pact and agreed to attend second RTC.

25. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:
Person Position held
1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru : President, All India Liberal Federation
2. K.C. Neogy : Member, the Constituent Assembly
3. P.C. Joshi : General Secretary, Communist Party of India
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru: He was an important leader of All India liberal federation and served as its President.
  • KC Neogy: He was a member of constituent Assembly from West Bengal
  • PC Joshi He was the first president of Communist Party of India and remained so for 12 years till 1947.

26. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar
(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.
(c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
(d) Tansen invented many Ragas.
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Statement (a) is not correct as Tansen was the title given to him by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior. Akbar made Tansen as one of the Navaratnas in his court and gave him the title of ‘Mian’.
  • Kalpadruma is a compliation of 300 of his dhrupads that were in Gauhar Bani. Tansen composed in his favourite ragas — Multani, Bhairavi and Todi .
  • He invented the night raga Darbari Kanhra, morning raga Mian Ki Todi, mid-day raga, Mian ki Sarang, seasonal raga Mian ki Malhar. His descendants and disciples are called Seniyas.
  • He composed many dhrupads on Ganesha, Shiva, Parvati and Rama.
  • He also composed songs on his patrons, eulogizing kings and Akbar

27. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?
(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shah Jahan
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

  • Jahangir took keen interest in painting. He was a bird and animal lover and patronized paintings of flowers, animals, birds etc. Apart from painting of hunting scenes, court scenes, under him specialized individual portraits were painted in a realistic manner.

28. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
(a) Manas National Park
(b) Namdapha National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Valley of Flowers National Park
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • Manas National Park: About Grasslands of Terai and Bhabar type cover the half of the Park, the riparian areas have colonizing grasslands and woodlands of several species. The thick woodlands are called Eastern Moist Deciduous Forests of various types. The undergrowths are very thick. There are more than 650 species of Angiosperms alone. The commonly seen trees are the Simul, Oxi, Sissoo, Khaie, Gamari, etc.
  • Manas is the only landscape in the world where pristine Terai Grasslands are seen merging with the Bhabar grasslands interspersed with diverse habitats ascending to Semi-Evergreen forests and then to Bhutan Himalayas. The Biodiversity is very rich here. The last population of the Pygmy Hog survives in the wilds of Manas and nowhere else in the world.
  • Namdapha National Park Namdapha National Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India. It is also the third largest national park in India in terms of area. It is located in the Eastern Himalayan sub-region and is recognized as one of the richest areas in biodiversity in India. The park harbours the northernmost lowland evergreen rainforests in the world at 27°N latitude. The area is also known for extensive Dipterocarp forests.
  • Neora Valley National Park: Neora Valley National Park was established in the year of 1986. This park falls in the catchment area of the Neora River. Neora Valley National Park is distinct for its pristine scenic beauty and rich bio-diversity. Due to wide range of altitude variation, the climate condition of the park varies from tropical to temperate or even Sub-alpine in Rachilla Danda area. Its floral diversity is noteworthy with mixed species of rhododendrons, bamboo, sal etc. along with several species of orchids.
  • Valley of flowers National park: Valley of Flowers is a vibrant and splendid national park reposing in West Himalayas. Nestled in Uttarakhand, this alluring place is famous for its charming meadows of alpine flowers. Endowed with a diverse range of endemic flora, it is picturesque in its beauty. This lush region is also home to some rare and endangered animal species. You may spot animals like Asiatic black deer, snow leopard, musk deer, red fox, brown bear and blue sheep. High in the lofty Himalayas of the Garhwal region sprawls this enchanting valley. Legends believe it to be the place from where Hanuman had collected the Sanjeevani buti for curing Lakshmana. This place has floral pastures, running streams and beautiful backdrop of the mountains.

29. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
(a) Department of Science and Technology
(b) Ministry of Labour and Employment
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

  • The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country.

30. On 21st June, the Sun
(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • The Sun is directly overhead at “high-noon” on the equator twice per year, at the two equinoxes. On the Arctic Circle, the Sun does not set at all on the Summer Solstice which occurs on 21st June. On that one day, the Sun traces a complete circle just above the horizon as the Earth rotates.

31. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?
1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Jagirdar and Zamindar

  • The Jagirdars were the king’s officials who enjoyed the land gifted from the King. They were the rank (mansab) holder given by the king called mansabdar.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: They were allotted non-inheritable land area equivalent to their fee amount called Jagir. These Jagirs are temporary in character and the Jagirdars only have the right to claim and enjoy the revenue collected from the land.
  • The holder of land is termed as the Zamindar. They had the hereditary right over the land to claim share in the peasant’s output other than land revenues.
  • They also have the right to detain the peasants. In most of the Mughal period the Zamindar collected land revenue from the actual tillers of land and for this they were allowed one tenth of the collections either in cash or an equivalent amount of tax free land.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.

32. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
(c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The main objectives of the Land Reforms:

  • To make redistribution of Land to make a socialistic pattern of society. Such an effort will reduce the inequalities in ownership of land.
  • Option (d) is incorrect and Option (b) is correct: To ensure land ceiling and take away the surplus land to be distributed among the small and marginal farmers.
  • To legitimize tenancy with the ceiling limit.
  • To register all the tenancy with the village Panchayats.
  • To establish relation between tenancy and ceiling.
  • To remove rural poverty.
  • Proliferating socialist development to lessen social inequality
  • Empowerment of women in the traditionally male driven society.
  • To increase productivity of agriculture.
  • To see that everyone can have a right on a piece of land.
  • Protection of tribal by not allowing outsiders to take their land.

33. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) World Bank
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

  • The Global Competitiveness Report (GCR) is a yearly report published by the World Economic Forum.

34. Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’:
1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • This Act asserted the Crown’s sovereignty over British possessions in India.
  • Company’s rule and trade monopoly in India was extended to another 20 years. Monopoly was ended except for the trade in tea and with China
  • The Act gave more powers for the courts in India over European British subjects.
  • Another important feature of this act was to grant permission to the missionaries to come to India and engage in religious proselytization
  • The missionaries were successful in getting the appointment of a Bishop for British India with his headquarters at Calcutta in the provisions of the Act.
  • It allotted Rs 100,000 to promote education in Indian masses and allowed them to open anywhere anytime.

35. With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:
1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

  • The National Council of Education (or NCE) was an organization founded by Indian nationalists in Bengal in 1906 to promote science and technology as part of a swadeshi industrialization movement
  • The Swadeshi had a great impact on handloom industry. There was a revival in handloom, silk weaving, and some other tradition artisan crafts. Cotton mills were set up at this time.

36. Consider the following pairs:
Movement/Organization Leader
1. All India Anti-Untouchability League : Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha : Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Self-Respect Movement : E.V. Ramaswami Naicker
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • All India Anti Utouchability League: It was formed by Mahatma Gandhi then later renamed as Harijan Sewak Sangh.
  • All India Kisan Sabha: It was formed by Sahajanand Saraswati in Lucknow Session of 1936.
  • Self Respect Movement: EV Ramaswamy Naicker was an important leader of self respect movement in 1925. It was an anti caste movement against Brahmanism.

37. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
(a) Chanhudaro
(b) Kot Diji
(c) Sohgaura
(d) Desalpur
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

  • Sohgaura is not a Harappan site and is situated in Uttar Pradesh. It is famous for it copper inscription written in prakrit in the Brahmi script.
  • All the other three are Harappan sites. Chanhudaro in Sindh, Pakistan, Kot Diji in Sindh, Pakistan , Desalpur in Gujarat, India

38. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashokan’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
(a) Kanganahalli
(b) Sanchi
(c) Shahbazgarhi
(d) Sohgaura
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • This site is situated on the left bank of the Bhima river ,2km east of chandrala Parameshwari temple at sannati, Karnataka.
  • The discoveries of the site included a broken relief sculpture showing a king and queen flanked by female attendants two of whom held up a parasol and fly whisk – symbols of sovereignty – in their hands.
  • An Inscription in Brahmi read “Ranyo Ashoka” (King Ashoka) leaving no doubt who the central figure was supposed to represent.

39. Consider the following:
1. Deification of the Buddha
2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas
3. Image worship and rituals
Which of the above is/are the feature/features of Mahayana Buddhism?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

40. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
(c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • In central and western India the villagers were also subjected to forced labour called vishti for serving the royal army and officials. Thus it was a source of income for the kingdom.

41. Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’?
(a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
(b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber
(c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
(d) Rubber, coffee and wheat
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Old World refers to Africa, Asia, and Europe while New World refers to the Americas, including North America, Central America, and South America. On the other hand, the New World refers to the Americas and it is inclusive of North America, South America, and Central America. The Old World contrasts with the New World.
  • Tobacco, one of the most important cash crops in American farming, is native to the North and South American continents. It was first introduced in Eurape and later to India.
  • Portuguese merchants first brought tobacco to India 400 years ago. Although there were already some strains of locally-grown tobacco in India these were outclassed by the new imported varieties from Brazil.
  • Theobroma cacao, also called the cacao tree and the cocoa tree, is a small (4–8 m (13–26 ft) tall) evergreen tree in the family Malvaceae, native to the deep tropical regions of the Americas. Its seeds, cocoa beans, are used to make chocolate liquor, cocoa solids, cocoa butter and chocolate.
  • Ficus elastica, the rubber fig, rubber bush, rubber tree, rubber plant, or Indian rubber bush, Indian rubber tree, is a species of plant in the fig genus, native to eastern parts of South Asia and southeast Asia.

42. Consider the following statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • The Great one horned rhino is commonly found in Nepal, Bhutan, Pakistan and in Assam, India. It is confined to the tall grasslands and forests in the foothills of the Himalayas. Double humped camel also known as Bactrian camel is a native to the steppes of Central Asia, though it is also found in Numbra valley in India. However Asiatic Lion is naturally found in India only.

43. Consider the following pairs:
Famous place River
1. Pandharpur : Chandrabhaga
2. Tiruchirappalli : Cauvery
3. Hampi : Malaprabha
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Pandharpur is a well known pilgrimage town on the banks of Chandrabhaga River in Sol?pur district, Maharashtra, India. Tiruchirapalli is located along the Kaveri River in Tamil Nadu, India. Hampi, also referred to as the Group of Monuments at Hampi, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site situated on the banks of the Tungabhadra River in the eastern part of central Karnataka near the state border with Andhra Pradesh. Thus only 1 and 2 are correct.

44. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because
(a) poverty rates vary from State to State
(b) price levels vary from State to State
(c) Gross State Product varies from State to State
(d) quality of public distribution varies from State to State
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Poverty Line

  • There are many challenges in marking a poverty line, such as determining components of poverty line basket.
  • Option (b) is correct: There are price differentials (of constituents of basket) which vary from state to state and period to period. So, in a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because price levels vary from State to State
  • Further, consumption patterns, nutritional needs and prices of components keep on changing as per dynamics of macro economy and demography.

45. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?
(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
(d) Reducing the global warming
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • Cirrus clouds do not reflect a lot of solar radiation back into space, but because they form at high altitudes and cold temperatures, they trap long-wave radiation and have a climate impact similar to greenhouse gases. Thus Thinning cirrus clouds would reduce the absorption of infrared radiation and proposed form of climate engineering to reduce global warming.
  • Another proposed Geo-engineering technique involves injecting reflective sulfate aerosol particles into Earth’s lower stratosphere to cast a small proportion of the inbound sunlight back into space and cool the planet off. Thus both are climate engineering/ Geo-engineering techniques to reduce global warming.

46. In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?
(a) Extraction of rare earth elements
(b) Natural gas extraction technologies
(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
(d) Waste-to-energy technologies
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • Like incineration, pyrolysis, gasification and plasma technologies are thermal processes that use high temperatures to break down waste. The main difference is that they use less oxygen than traditional mass-burn incineration. Thus these belong to waste to energy technologies.

47. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • ABR in situated at the southern-most end of the Western Ghats and spread over two southern states Kerala and Tamil Nadu. It covers Peppara and Shendurney wildlife sanctuaries and parts of the Neyyar sanctuary in Kerala and the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve of Tamil Nadu. Thus option a is correct

48. Consider the following statements:
1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • Marine herbivores are found within four groups of species in the animal kingdom — invertebrates, fish, reptiles and mammals — and include zooplankton, mollusks, the green sea turtle, the marine iguana and some fish species. Manatees and dugongs are the only herbivores among marine mammals.
  • Viviparous: This is when there is no egg at all. Snakes that are viviparous nourish their developing young through a placenta and yolk sac, something that is highly unusual among reptiles. Boa constrictors and green anacondas are two examples of viviparous snakes, meaning they give birth to live young with no eggs involved at any stage of development.
  • Thus option d) is correct.

49. Consider the following pairs:
Wildlife Naturally found in
1. Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River
3. Rusty-spotted Cat : Eastern Ghats
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

  • Irrawaddy Dolphin is found in coastal areas in South and Southeast Asia, and Irrawaddy River, it is also found in India’s Ganges, and Southeast Asia’s Mekong River. They are also found in Chilika lake in Orissa. They are not found in Chambal. Thus option c is correct i.e. 1 and 3 only.

50. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into environment?
(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Microbeads are itty-bitty plastic orbs that can be found in exfoliating facial scrubs, cosmetics, shower gels and toothpaste, among other products. They are part of a larger class of microplastics, or pieces of plastic less than five millimeters, or 0.2 inch, long.
  • Microbeads that wash down drains cannot be filtered out by many wastewater treatment plants, meaning that tiny plastics slip easily into waterways. Fish and other marine animals often eat them, introducing potentially toxic substances into the food chain. Thus they are harmful to marine ecosystem.

51. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:
1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected into real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 4 only
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

52. The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to
(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs
(b) an early human species
(c) a cave system found in North-East India
(d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • Denisovans is early human species. When our ancestors first migrated out of Africa around 60,000 years ago, they were not alone. At least two of our hominid cousins had made the same journey—Neanderthals and Denisovans. Neanderthals, the better known of the two species, left Africa about 300,000 years ago and settled in Europe and parts of western Asia. The Denisovans are a much more recent addition to the human family tree. In 2008, paleoanthropologists digging in a cave in southern Siberia unearthed a 40,000-year-old adult tooth and an exquisitely preserved fossilized pinkie bone that had belonged to a young girl who was between five and seven years old when she died.

53. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
(b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.
(c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
(d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Option (a) is incorrect: Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
  • Option (b) is correct: Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.
  • Option (c) is correct: A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell cannot be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
  • Option (d) is correct: Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.

54. Consider the following statements:
A digital signature is
1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet
3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

55. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?
1. Location identification of a person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
3. Assisting the hearing impaired person
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • Wearables are electronic technology or devices incorporated into items that can be comfortably worn on a body. These wearable devices are used for tracking information on real time basis. They have motion sensors that take the snapshot of your day to day activity and sync them with mobile devices or laptop computers. After the invention of smartphones, wearable electronics are the next big innovation in the world of technology.

56. ‘RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?
1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.
2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4 only
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • RNA interference is a post transcriptional gene silencing mechanism that is triggered by double-stranded RNA (dsRNA). RNAi is a mechanism for controlling normal gene expression which has recently began to be employed as a potential therapeutic agent for a wide range of disorders, including cancer, infectious diseases and metabolic disorders. It is also used as a tool to improve crops by providing resistance against parasites and modified versions of siRNA that are directed against disease causing genes are being developed, some of which are already tested in clinical trials.

57. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
(a) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.
(b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.
(c) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.
(d) It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’.
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • Billions of light years away, two black holes have collided to create a larger one – the biggest black hole merger yet detected. It has a mass more than 80 times that of the sun. The resulting energy injected into the fabric of space-time was also record breaking, with five sun’s worth of mass released in the form gravitational waves as the two holes spiralled in towards each other.  Such titanic amounts of energy meant that the signal was still detectable by the time it reached gravitational wave detectors on Earth. It produced a record-breaking result – the most distant collision detected so far, nine billion light years away.

58. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
1. Genetic predisposition of some people
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

59. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?
(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
(b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients
(c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant
(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • CRISPR-Cas9 is a genome editing tool that is creating a buzz in the science world. It is faster, cheaper and more accurate than previous techniques of editing DNA and has a wide range of potential applications. CRISPR-Cas9 is a unique technology that enables geneticists and medical researchers to edit parts of the genome by removing, adding or altering sections of the DNA sequence.

60. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
(c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • The hepatitis B vaccine is a safe and effective vaccine that is recommended for all infants at birth and for children up to 18 years. The hepatitis B vaccine is also recommended for adults living with diabetes and those at high risk for infection due to their jobs, lifestyle, living situations, or country of birth. Since everyone is at some risk, all adults should seriously consider getting the hepatitis B vaccine for a lifetime protection against a preventable chronic liver disease. The hepatitis B vaccine is also known as the first “anti-cancer” vaccine because it prevents hepatitis B, the leading cause of liver cancer worldwide. Thus option b) is answer.

61. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionallyinvalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Both options are false.

  • “The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 curtailed the judicial review power of high court. It debarred the high courts from considering the constitutional validity of any central law. However, the 43rd Amendment Act of 1977 restored the original position.” (Laxmikanth: High Court)
  • Justice Syed Shah Mohamed Quadri has classified the judicial review into the following three categories “Judicial review of constitutional amendments.” (Laxmikanth: Judicial Review)

62. Consider the following statements:
1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Statement 2 is wrong as India is 3rd largest economy on PPP.

63. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crop in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 , 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

64. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?
(a) Spices
(b) Fresh fruits
(c) Pulses
(d) Vegetable oils
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

65. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • Option (a) and (b) entail negative conception of liberty and have minimalist overtone. Option (c) is related to anarchy and lawlessness. Option (D) provides for positive conception of liberty that our constitution provides for. Provision of reservation, protection of minority rights etc. provide for creating an enabling atmosphere where individual can develop themselves fully.

66. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
(a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports
(b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds
(c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
(d) Following an expansionary monetary policy
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

To stop slide of rupee against dollar, we need to improve inflow of forex and increase its supply and control domestic currency money supply.

  • Is a correct step as it will bring more forex
  • Is a correct step as it will bring more forex through FPI
  • Is a correct step as it will bring more forex through Debt
  • Is not a correct step, as it increases money supply

67. Consider the following statements:
The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that
1. they shall ensure that entire date relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India
2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises
3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

  • There has been considerable growth in the payment ecosystem in the country. Such systems are also highly technology dependent, which necessitate adoption of safety and security measures, which are best in class, on a continuous basis. As per the RBI, not all system providers store the payments data in India.
  • To ensure better monitoring, it is important to have unfettered supervisory access to data stored with these system providers as also with their service providers / intermediaries/ third party vendors and other entities in the payment ecosystem. The RBI has put in place certain guidelines for storage of payment system data which are as follows:
  • All system providers are required to ensure that the entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India. This data should include the full end-to-end transaction details / information.
  • Collected / carried / processed as part of the message / payment instruction. For the foreign leg of the transaction, if any, the data can also be stored in the foreign country, if required.
  • System providers are required to ensure compliance of (1) above within a period of six months and report compliance of the same to the Reserve Bank latest by October 15, 2018.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: All system providers are required to ensure that the entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India. This data should include the full end-to-end transaction details / information. They may be private or public sector enterprises.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: System providers are required to submit the System Audit Report (SAR) on completion of the requirement above not with CAG. CERT-IN empanelled auditors certifying completion of activity at above should conduct the audit. The SAR duly approved by the Board of the system providers should be submitted to the Reserve Bank not later than December 31, 2018.

68. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) The European Union
(d) The United States of America
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), agreed upon by the European Parliament and Council in April 2016, will replace the Data Protection Directive 95/46/ec in Spring 2018 as the primary law regulating how companies protect EU citizens’ personal data. Companies that are already in compliance with the Directive must ensure that they are also compliant with the new requirements of the GDPR before it becomes effective on May 25, 2018. Companies that fail to achieve GDPR compliance before the deadline will be subject to stiff penalties and fines.

GDPR requirements apply to each member state of the European Union, aiming to create more consistent protection of consumer and personal data across EU nations. Some of the key privacy and data protection requirements of the GDPR include:

  • Requiring the consent of subjects for data processing
  • Anonymizing collected data to protect privacy
  • Providing data breach notifications
  • Safely handling the transfer of data across borders
  • Requiring certain companies to appoint a data protection officer to oversee GDPR compliance
  • Simply put, the GDPR mandates a baseline set of standards for companies that handle EU citizens’ data to better safeguard the processing and movement of citizens’ personal data.

who is subject to GDPR compliance?

The purpose of the GDPR is to impose a uniform data security law on all EU members, so that each member state no longer needs to write its own data protection laws and laws are consistent across the entire EU. In addition to EU members, it is important to note that any company that markets goods or services to EU residents, regardless of its location, is subject to the regulation. As a result, GDPR will have an impact on data protection requirements globally.

69. Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?
(a) Japan
(b) Russia
(c) The United Kingdom
(d) The United States of America
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • India signs Action Plan with the Russian Federation. Back. “Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field”.
  • The two countries intent to develop a project of six nuclear power units of Russian design at a new site in India, further enhance cooperation in the third countries and bring in new perspective nuclear technologies together with joint construction of nuclear power plants.
  • According to the document, for the new nuclear project in India Russia will offer the evolutionary VVER generation “3+” technical solutions and will increase the level of Indian industry’s involvement and localization. This is state of art nuclear reactor technology in the world.

70. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
(a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio
(b) Increase in the banking habit of the population
(c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
(d) Increase in the population of the country
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • increase in CRR decrease money multiplier, as it reduces flow of funds back to market
  • it increases money multiplier by increasing the velocity of money
  • increase in SLR decrease money multiplier, as it reduces flow of funds back to market
  • population is not related to money multiplier

71. The Services Area Approach was implemented under the purview of
(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(b) Lead Bank Scheme
(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
(d) National Skill Development Mission
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • Lead bank scheme Service Area Approach under which villages are identified and assigned to bank branches based on their proximity and contiguity. Sub Service Area is a cluster of more than one village wherein up to 1000 to 1500 households are brought under such cluster for providing banking services.

72. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India consider the following statements:
1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Sand is a minor mineral, as defined under section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act).
  • Section 15 of the MMDR Act empowers state governments to make rules for regulating the grant of mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals and for purposes connected therewith. The regulation of grant of mineral concessions for minor minerals is, therefore, within the legislative and administrative domain of the state governments.
  • Further,section 23C of theMMDR Act, 1957 empowers state governments to frame rules to prevent illegal mining, transportation and storage of mineralsand for purposes connected therewith. Control of illegal mining is, therefore, under the legislative and administrative jurisdiction of state governments.

73. Consider the following statements:
1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.
2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • India’s external debt is held in multiple currencies, the largest of which is the United States dollar. As on 31 December 2017, 48.2% of the country’s debt was held in U.S. dollars. The rest of the debt is held in Indian rupees (37.3%), special drawing rights (5.7%), Japanese yen (4.6%), Euros (3.2%) and other currencies (1%).
  • Most of India’s external debt is in form of ECB and NRI deposits.
S. No. Component External debt (US$) Percentage share
1 Multilateral 56,021 million 10.9%
2 Bilateral 23,371 million 4.6%
3 IMF loans 5,666 million 1.1%
4 Export credit 9,390 million 1.8%
5 Commercial borrowings 196,861 million 38.3%
6 NRI deposits 123,315 million 24.0%
7 Rupee debt 1,205 million 0.2%
  Long-term debt 415,829 million 81.0%
  Short-term debt 97,609 million 19.0%
Total 513.4 billion 100%

74. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?
(a) Advances
(b) Deposits
(c) Investments
(d) Money at call and short notice
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • Deposits of banks are liability not assets

75. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?
1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector
2. Increasing the government expenditure
3. Remittances from Indians abroad
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • Currency crisis risk is reduced by increase in foreign exchange inflow in the current account of BoP. In this question 1 and 3 are inflows in the current account and hence reduce the risk, whereas 2 are not related to currency risk directly.

76. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Sarkaria Commission provides for these. (Laxmikanth: Center-State Relations)

While selecting Governors, the Central Government should adopt the following strict guidelines as recommended in the Sarkaria Commission report and follow its mandate in letter and spirit:

  • He should be eminent in some walk of life
  • He should be a person from outside the state
  • He should be a detached figure and not too intimately connected with the local politics of the states
  • He should be a person who has not taken too great a part in politics generally and particularly in the recent past

77. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
(a) Certificate of Deposit
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Promissory Note
(d) Participatory Note
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • P-Notes or Participatory Notes are Overseas Derivative Instruments that have Indian stocks as their underlying assets. They allow foreign investors to buy stocks listed on Indian exchanges through FIIs without being registered.

78. Consider the following statements:
1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

  • The Bill establishes the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of India, and a State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of each state.
  • These Funds will receive payments for: (i) compensatory afforestation, (ii) net present value of forest (NPV), and (iii) other project specific payments. The National Fund will receive 10% of these funds, and the State Funds will receive the remaining 90%.
  • These Funds will be primarily spent on afforestation to compensate for loss of forest cover, regeneration of forest ecosystem, wildlife protection and infrastructure development.
  • The Bill also establishes the National and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authorities to manage the National and State Funds.

Statement 2 is incorrect:

  • People’s participation is not mandatory in compensatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the compensatory fund act,2016.

79. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 5
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

80. With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

(i) A sizeable increase in national income so as to raise the level of living.

(ii) Rapid industrialization of the country with particular emphasis on the development of basic and Capital Goods industries.

(iii) A large expansion of employment opportunities by developing labour-intensive projects and small scale industries.

(iv) Reduction in inequalities of income and distribution.

(v) To attain the annual growth rate of 5%.

Statement 2 is correct:

  • The fourth five year plan for the first time the financial sector was included as an integral part of the plan.
  • Major reform taken during this period was Nationalization of Banks and abolition of privy purses.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Financial sector was included for the first time in fourth five year plan itself.

81. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India :
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi Tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: PVTGs reside in 18 States and UT of A&N Islands.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Some specific signs such as primitive traits, distinctive culture, geographical isolation, shyness to contact with the community at large and backwardness often identify tribal communities. Along with these, some tribal groups have some specific features such as dependency on hunting, gathering for food, having pre-agriculture level of technology, zero or negative growth of population and extremely low level of literacy. These groups are called Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.
  •  
  • Under the scheme, Conservation-cum-Development (CCD)/Annual Plans are to be prepared by each State/UT for their PVTGs based on their need assessment, which are then appraised and approved by the Project Appraisal Committee of the Ministry. Activities for development of PVTGs are undertaken in Sectors of Education, Health, Livelihood and Skill Development , Agricultural Development , Housing & Habitat, Conservation of Culture etc
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: 75 tribal groups have been categorized categorized by Ministry of Home Affairs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG)s. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs implements the Scheme of “Development of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)” exclusively for them .
  • Statement 4 is correct: Konda reddy of Khammam district of Telangana and Irular of Tamil Nadu are under PVTGs.

82. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State legislatures cannot make law on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • “One of the important instances of application by the Supreme Court of Article 142 was in the Union Carbide case — relating to the victims of the Bhopal gas tragedy — where the Court felt a need to deviate from existing law to bring relief to the thousands of persons affected by the gas leak. In this judgment, the Supreme Court, while awarding compensation of $470 million to the victims, went to the extent of saying that to do complete justice, it could even override the laws made by Parliament by holding that, “prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot, ipso facto, act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142.” By this statement the Supreme Court of India placed itself above the laws made by Parliament or the legislatures of the States.”

83. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statments:
1. The governor makes a customary address to members of the house at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

  • Laxmikanth: State Legislature

84. Consider the following statements:
1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air.
2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:

  • Negotiated by member states of the United Nations (UN) it has been adopted by the UN General Assembly in October 2003 and entered into force in December 2005.
  • The UNCAC recognise the importance of both preventive and punitive measures, addresses the cross-border nature of corruption with provisions on international cooperation and on the return of the proceeds of corruption.

Statement 2 is correct:

  • The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) is the only legally binding international anti-corruption multilateral treaty.

Statement 3 is incorrect:

  • UNCAC’s goal is to reduce various types of corruption that can occur across country borders, such as trading in influence and abuse of power, as well as corruption in the private sector, such as embezzlement and money laundering. Another goal of the UNCAC is to strengthen international law enforcement and judicial cooperation between countries by providing effective legal mechanisms for international asset recovery.

Statement 4 is correct:

  • The UN Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) in Vienna serves as Secretariat for the UNCAC. Its members to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC also mandate it.

85. Consider the following statements:
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Parliament passed an amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927 removing ‘bamboo’ plant growing on non-forest lands from the definition of ‘tree’. The government claimed this would benefit tribals and other dwellers living around forests. The amendment converted into law what had been passed as an ordinance before that. As they enjoy right to fell bamboos in forest areas.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Section 2(i) of the the scheduled Tribes and other Traditional forest dweller Act defines a Minor Forest Produce (MFP) as all non-timber forest produce of plant origin and includes bamboo, brushwood, stumps, canes, Tusser, cocoon, honey, waxes, Lac, tendu/kendu leaves, medicinal plants and herbs, roots, tuber and the like.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, popularly known as the Forests Rights Act (FRA), was enacted in 2007. The Act recognizes and vests individual forest-dwellers with forest rights to live in and cultivate forest land that was occupied before 13 December 2005 and grants community forest rights to manage, protect and regenerate the forest under section 3(1)(i), and to own and dispose minor forest products from forests where they had traditional access. Section 3(1)(c) of the Forest Rights Act 2006 defines forest rights as inclusive of ‘Right of ownership, access to collect, use and dispose of minor forest produce which have traditionally been collected within or outside village boundaries’. Individuals, communities and gram sabhas having rights under this particular section of the Act will not only have the rights to use but also rights of ownership over MFPs. This goes beyond the Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension To The Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA Act) which had authorised states to entrust panchayats and gramasabhas as the owners of MFP.

86. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • “The right to marry a person of one’s choice is integral to Article 21 (right to life and liberty) of the Constitution”, the Supreme Court said Monday and set aside a 2017 order of the Kerala High Court which annulled the marriage of Kerala Muslim convert girl Hadiya and Shefin Jahan.

87. Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Indian Patent Act

  • A patent is an exclusive right granted to an inventor to prevent others from making, using, producing, selling and distributing the patented invention.
  • A patent on seeds would prevent farmers from saving and exchanging seed.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 3 is correct: In our Patent Law we introduced a clause Article 3j which clearly states that the following are not inventions, hence not patentable: “plants and animals in whole or in any part thereof other than microorganisms; but including seeds, varieties, and species, and essentially biological processes for production or propagation of plants and animals”.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) was constituted on September 15, 2003 by the Indian Government to hear and resolve the appeals against the decisions of the registrar under the Indian Trademarks Act, 1999 and the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
  • Since April 2, 2007, IPAB has been authorized to hear and adjudicate upon the appeals from most of the decisions, orders or directions made by the Patent Controller under the Patents Act. Therefore all pending appeals of Indian High Courts under the Patents Act were transferred to IPAB.
  • The headquarter of the IPAB is located in Chennai. IPAB also has sittings at Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata and Ahmedabad.

88. Consider the following statements :
The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to
1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the Procedure and manner in which it sought
2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Environment Protection Act, 1986: The Act empowers the Central Government to take all appropriate measures to prevent and control pollution and to establish effective machinery for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of the environment and preventing, abating and controlling environmental pollution.

  1. The Act empowers the center to “take all such measures as it deems necessary”.
  2. By virtue of this Act, Central Government has armed itself with considerable powers which include,
    1. coordination of action by state,
    1. planning and execution of nationwide programmes,
    1. Statement 2 is correct: laying down environmental quality standards, especially those governing emission or discharge of environmental pollutants,
    1. placing restriction on the location of industries and so on.
    1. authority to issue direct orders, included orders to close, prohibit or regulate any industry.
    1. power of entry for examination, testing of equipment and other purposes and power to analyze the sample of air, water, soil or any other substance from any place.
  3. The Act explicitly prohibits discharges of environmental pollutants in excess of prescribed regulatory standards.
  4. There is also a specific prohibition against handling hazardous substances except those in compliance with regulatory procedures and standards.
  5. The Act provides provision for penalties. For each failure or contravention the punishment included a prison term up to five years or fine up to Rs. 1 lakh, or both.
  6. The Act imposed an additional fine of up to Rs. 5,000 for every day of continuing violation.
  7. If a failure or contravention occurs for more than one year, offender may be punished with imprisonment which may be extended to seven years.
  8. Section 19 provides that any person, in addition to authorized government officials, may file a complaint with a court alleging an offence under the Act.
  9. This “Citizens’ Suit” provision requires that the person has to give notice of not less than 60 days of the alleged offence of pollution to the Central Government.

89. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
(d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016

  • The new rules have mandated the source segregation of waste in order to channelize the waste to wealth by recovery, reuse and recycle.
  • Statement (a) is incorrect: Waste generators would now have to now segregate waste into three streams (not five) – Biodegradables, Dry (Plastic, Paper, metal, Wood, etc.) and Domestic Hazardous waste (diapers, napkins, mosquito repellants, cleaning agents etc.) before handing it over to the collector.
  • Statement (b) is incorrect: The Rules are applicable beyond municipal areas and will extend to urban agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships, areas under the control of Indian Railways, airports, airbase, port and harbour, defence establishments, special economic zones, State and Central government organizations, places of pilgrims, religious & historical importance.
  • Statement (c) is correct: Waste processing facilities will have to be set up by all local bodies having a population of 1 million or more within two years. The landfill site shall be 100 meters away from a river, 200 meters from a pond, 500 meters away from highways, habitations, public parks and water supply wells and 20 km away from airports/airbase.
  • The construction of landfills on hills shall be avoided. Land for construction of sanitary landfills in hilly areas will be identified in the plain areas, within 25 kilometers.
  • Statement (d) is incorrect: The bio-degradable waste should be processed, treated and disposed of through composting or bio-methanation within the premises as far as possible. The residual waste shall be given to the waste collectors or agency as directed by the local authority.

90. Consider the following statements :
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018
1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers
2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018

  • Statement 1 is correct: Fixed-term employment for all sectors will make it easier for companies to hire-and-fire workers. If rules for fixed term employment are implemented, it become easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers
  • Statement 2 is correct: No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman.
  • Provided that a temporary workman, who has completed three months continuous service, shall be given two weeks notice of the intention to terminate his employment if such termination is not in accordance with the terms of the contract of his employment:
  • Provided further that when the services of a temporary workman, who has not completed three month’s continuous service, are terminated before the completion of the term of employment given to him, he shall be informed of the reasons for termination in writing and when the services of a badli workman are terminated before the return to work of the permanent incumbent or the expiry of his (badli’s) term of employment, he shall be informed of the reasons for such termination in writing.”

91. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements :
1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  • Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
    • AIIB is multilateral development bank initiated by China.
    • Its purpose is to provide finance to infrastructure development and regional connectivity projects in Asia-Pacific region.
    • It is viewed as Asia’s response to West-dominated Asian Development Bank (ADB) and World Bank (WB).
    • It was officially established in December 2015 with mission to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia and beyond and opened for business in January 2016.
    • It is headquartered in Beijing, China.
  • Statement 1 is correct: So far it has more than 80 member nations.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: It has an authorised capital of US $100 billion. China is largest shareholder of AIIB with 26.06% voting shares. India with 7.5% vote share is second largest shareholder followed by Russia, Germany and South Korea.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The bank has members from around the world with the major exceptions of Japan, United states of America and Mexico.

92. What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?
(a) To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit
(b) To support the infrastructure Projects of Central and State Governments
(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more
(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA)

  • Option (d) is correct: Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) aimed at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending.
  • It has been signed by 22 public sector banks, 19 private sector banks and 32 foreign banks and 12 major financial intermediaries like LIC, HUDCO etc.
  • ICA Framework is part of project ‘Sashak’. Under it, lead lender (having highest exposure) will be authorised to formulate resolution plan for operation turnaround of assets which will be presented to lenders for their approval.
  • It will be applicable to all corporate borrowers who have availed loans and financial assistance for amount of Rs. 50 crore or more under consortium lending or multiple banking arrangements. Each resolution plan will be submitted by lead lender to Overseeing Committee.
  • The decision making under ICA framework will be by way of approval of majority lenders i.e. lenders with 66% share in aggregate exposure. Once resolution plan is approved by majority lenders, it will be binding on all lenders that are party to ICA. The plan formulated under ICA will be in compliance with RBI norms and all other applicable laws and guidelines. Banks opposing resolution plan will have option to sell their stressed loans to company at discount or buy out loans to that entity from all other lenders at premium.

93. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the
(a) Banks Board Bureau
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Management of concerned bank
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Bank Board Bureau (BBB)

  • BBB is autonomous body of Central Government.
  • It was announced by Union Government in August 2015 as part of seven point Indradhanush Mission to revamp PSBs and started functioning in April 2016.
  • It had replaced Appointments Board of Government.
  • It is housed in Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) central office in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
  • It comprises eminent professionals and officials for public sector banks (PSBs).

Functions of BBB

  • Option (a) is correct: Give recommendations for appointment of full-time Directors as well as non-Executive Chairman of PSBs.
  • Give advice to PSBs in developing differentiated strategies for raising funds through innovative financial methods and instruments and to deal with issues of stressed assets.
  • Guide banks on mergers and consolidations and governance issues to address bad loans problem among other issues.

94. Consider the following statements :
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006 notified via Gazette Notification dated 31st March, 2006.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Act provide for the establishment of Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board to protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas and to promote competitive markets and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
  • Further as enshrined in the act, the board has also been mandated to regulate the refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas excluding production of crude oil and natural gas so as and to ensure uninterrupted and adequate supply of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas in all parts of the country.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Appellate Tribunal established under section 110 of the Electricity Act, 2003 (36 of 2003) shall be the Appellate Tribunal for the purposes of this Act and the said Appellate Tribunal shall exercise the jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred on it by or under this Act : Provided that the Technical Member of the Appellate Tribunal for the purposes of this Act shall be called the Technical Member (Petroleum and Natural Gas) and shall have the qualifications specified in subsection (2) of section 31.

95. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?
1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Option: D
Explanation:

LTE and VoLTE

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: VoLTE stands for voice over LTE. It’s voice calls over a 4G LTE network, rather than the 2G or 3G connections which are usually used.
  • VoLTE is a technology update to the LTE protocol used by mobile phone networks. Under LTE, the infrastructure of telecom players only allows transmission of data while voice calls are routed to their older 2G or 3G networks. This is why, under LTE, you cannot access your 4G data services while on a call. This leads to problems such as slow internet speeds and poor voice clarity.
  • VoLTE allows voice calls to be ‘packaged’ and carried through LTE networks. This would mean 4G data accessibility even during calls. VoLTE is an Internet Protocol Multimedia Subsystem (IMS) specification which enables a variety of services to operate seamlessly on the network rather than having to switch to different applications for voice or video
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: In LTE, the network will switch off the data connection while making voice calls, while you don’t need to turn your data connection off while making a voice call in VoLTE. While LTE is targeted for increasing data rates on the 4G bandwidth, VoLTE is targeted towards both voice calling and internet data without affecting each other.

96. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017

  • The Maternity (Amendment) Bill 2017 an amendment to the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, was passed in the Parliament and received assent from President of India on March 27, 2017.
  • The Act protects the employment of women during the time of her maternity and entitles her of a ‘maternity benefit’ – i.e. full paid absence from work – to take care for her child. The act is applicable to all establishments employing 10 or more employees.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Maternity Benefit Amendment Act has increased the duration of paid maternity leave available for women employees from the 12 weeks previously to 26 weeks (6 months). This benefit could be availed by women for a period extending up to a maximum of 8 weeks (and not 3 months) before the expected delivery date and the remaining time can be availed post childbirth.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Act makes crèche facility mandatory for every establishment employing 50 or more employees. Women employees would be permitted to visit the crèche 4 times during the day (including rest intervals)
  • Statement 3 is correct: For women who are expecting after having 2 children, the duration of paid maternity leave shall be only 12 weeks as against 26 weeks for first and second child.

97. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s “Ease of Doing Business Index”?
(a) Maintenance of law and order
(b) Paying taxes
(c) Registering property
(d) Dealing with construction permits
Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Ease of Doing Business Index

  • The Ease of doing business index ranks countries against each other based on how the regulatory environment is conducive to business operation.
  • Of the options given, the option (a), i.e. ‘Maintenance of law and order’ is not a sub-index of the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ and hence, is the correct answer.
  • The sub-indexes of the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ are given in the following diagram:

98. In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
(b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

E-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011

  • The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change had notified the E-Waste Management Rules, 2016 in supersession of the e-waste (Management & Handling) Rules, 2011.
  • Announcing the notification of the rules, Minister of State (Independent Charge) of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Shri Prakash Javadekar, said that norms had been made more stringent and reflected the government’s commitment to environmental governance.
  • He pointed out that the E-waste rules will now include Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFL) and other mercury containing lamps, as well as other such equipment.
  • The Minister said that for the first time, the Rules will bring the producers under Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR), along with targets. He added that producers have been made responsible for collection of E-waste and for its exchange.

99. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
(a) Transportation cost only
(b) Interest cost only
(c) Procurement incidentals and distribution cost
(d) Procurement incidentals and charges for godowns
Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Components of economic cost of food grains incurred by the Food Corporation of India

Source: iasscore.in

OPERATION GREENS

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OPERATION GREENS

Recently, a new Scheme “Operation Greens” was announced on the line of “Operation Flood”, with an outlay of Rs.500 crore to promote Farmer Producers Organizations (FPOs), agri-logistics, processing facilities and professional management. Accordingly, the Ministry has formulated a scheme for integrated development of ‘Tomato, Onion and Potato’ (TOP) value chain. 

Objectives:

  • Enhancing value realisation of TOP farmers by targeted interventions to strengthen TOP production clusters and their FPOs, and linking/connecting them with the market.
  • Price stabilisation for producers and consumers by proper production planning in the TOP clusters and introduction of dual use varieties.
  • Setting up of a market intelligence network to collect and collate real time data on demand and supply and price of TOP crops.

Strategies:

The scheme will have two-pronged strategy of Price stabilisation measures (for short term) and integrated value chain development projects (for long term). 

Citizenship Amendment Bill 2019

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Citizenship Amendment Bill 2019

  1. The Union Home Minister introduced the Citizenship Amendment Bill, 2019 in Lok Sabha.
  2. The Bill seeks to facilitate acquisition of citizenship by six identified minority communities namely: – Hindus, Sikhs, Jains, Buddhists, Christians and Parsis from Afghanistan, Pakistan and Bangladesh who came to India before 31st Dec, 2014.
  3. The Act is not confined to the State of Assam.
  4. The Bill will apply to all States and Union Territories of the country.
  5. The beneficiaries of Citizenship Amendment Bill can reside in any state of the country.
  6. The burden of these persecuted migrants will be shared by the whole country.
  7. The Act will provide relief to persecuted migrants who have come through western borders of the country to States like:- Gujarat, Rajasthan, Delhi, Madhya Pradesh and other States.
  8. The proposed amendment will make these persecuted migrants eligible to apply for citizenship
  9. Citizenship will be given to them only after due scrutiny and recommendation of district authorities and the State Government.
  10. The minimum residency period for citizenship is being reduced from existing 12 years under the present law to 7 years.

HIV/AIDS ACT

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HIV/AIDS ACT

  • The Human Immunodeficiency Virus and Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (Prevention and Control) Act, 2017, came into force on September 10, 2018. It aims to prevent and control the spread of HIV and AIDS in the country and provides for penalties for discrimination against those affected by the virus
  • The Act, safeguards the rights of people living with HIV and affected by HIV.
  • Grounds on which discrimination against HIV positive persons and those living with them is prohibited:-

These include the denial, termination, discontinuation or unfair treatment with regard to:-

 (i) Employment,

 (ii) Educational establishments,

(iii) Health care services,

 (iv) Residing or renting property,

(v) Standing for public or private office, and

(vi) Provision of insurance (unless based on actuarial studies).

The requirement for HIV testing as a pre-requisite for obtaining employment or accessing health care or education is also prohibited

Rights of a infected person as per the Act: –

  1. Every person below the age of 18 years has the right to reside in a shared household and enjoy the facilities of the household.
  2. Prohibits any individual from publishing information or advocating feelings of hatred against HIV positive persons and those living with them.
  3. Family or guardian of a person below the 18 years of age to be applicable in the matters relating to admission to educational establishments, operating bank accounts, managing property, care and treatment, amongst others.
ST Status to the Six Communities of the Assam. Government has given approval to grant ST status to six communities of Assam namely:- Tai Ahom, Koch Rajbongshi, Chutia, Tea Tribes, Moran and Matak. The Government also provides full safeguards to protect the interests, rights & privileges of existing Scheduled Tribes of Assam. A separate Bill will be brought to grant ST status to Bodo Kacharis in Hill districts of Assam and Karbis in the rest of Assam.
  • Every person in the care and custody of the state shall have right to HIV prevention, testing, treatment and counselling services.

Women’s Reservation Bill

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Women’s Reservation Bill

The Constitution (108th Amendment) Bill, commonly known as the Women’s Reservation Bill

  1. Aims for reserving 33% of the seats in the Lok Sabha and all state legislative assemblies for women.
  2. The Rajya Sabha had passed the bill on March 9, 2010, but it is still pending before the Lok Sabha.
  3. The Bill’s journey, however, began on September 12, 1996 – when it was introduced in the Lok Sabha by the United Front government of H.D. Deve Gowda.
  4. As per the draft, the seats were to be reserved for women on a rotation basis and would be determined by draw of lots, in such a way that a seat would be reserved only once in three consecutive general elections.
  5. Reservation of seats for women would cease to exist 15 years after the commencement of the amendment Act.
  6. Thereafter, the Bill lapsed and was reintroduced – in 1999, in 2002 and 2003.

Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan

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Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan

  1. Prime Minister launched a scheme called Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) that seeks to strengthen the country’s Panchayati Raj system and address critical gaps that hinder its success
  2. He launched the scheme at Ramnagar in tribal-dominated district of Madhya Pradesh on the occasion of National Panchayati Raj Day.
  3. The scheme aims at making rural local bodies self-sustainable, financially stable and more efficient. 
  4. It seeks to address critical gaps that hinder the success of Panchayats by enhancing their capacities and effectiveness, and promote devolution of powers and responsibilities. 
  5. This scheme will extend to all States and UTs of the country and will also include institutions of rural local government in non-Part IX areas, where Panchayats do not exist.
  6. The approved scheme of RGSA will help more than 2.55 lakh Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) to develop governance capabilities to deliver on SDGs through inclusive local governance with focus on optimum utilisation of available resources.

The key principles of SDGs are:-

  1. leaving no one behind,
  2. reaching the farthest first and universal coverage,
  3. along with gender equality will be embedded in the design of all capacity building interventions including trainings,
  4. Training modules and materials.
  5. Priority will be given to subjects of national importance that affects the excluded groups the most,
  6. poverty, primary health services, nutrition, immunization, sanitation, education, water conservation, digital transactions etc.
  7. Committee under the Chairmanship of the Vice Chairman-NITI Aayog is constituted to restructure the existing scheme as Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan.

Nari-Portal

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Nari-Portal

  • Union Minister for Women and Child Development launched a web portal, NARI (National Repository of Information for Women), which will provide information on all government schemes for women.
  • Users can log on to http://www.nari.nic.into access information on different programmes offered by various state governments as well as the Centre.
  • The NARI portal carries details on 350 different schemes for women.
  • The schemes are divided into seven different categories — education, health, employment, housing and shelter, addressing violence, decision making and social support.
  • In this Portal Website for NGOs called e-SAMVAD, an interactive portal allowing NGOs to contact the ministry and share their feedback, suggestions grievances and their best practices.
  • The move aims at improving security for women by providing them a tool to alert the local police.
  • NARI will provide information to women on issues affecting their lives. There are tips on good nutrition, suggestions for health check ups, information on major diseases, tips for job search and interview, investment and savings advice, information on crimes and against women and reporting procedures, contacts of legal aid cells, simplified adoption procedures and much more.
  • It will endow women with the power of information to build their life skills and facilitates them in taking full advantage of the services provided by the Government for them.

“Safe City Surveillance” Scheme

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“Safe City Surveillance” Scheme

  1. The Bihar government launched a “Safe City Surveillance” scheme.
  2. It aimed at putting a check on eve-teasing and other crimes against women at public places across the state.
  3. Under the scheme, CCTV cameras will be installed at public places.
  4. Patna will be the first district to be covered under this scheme.
  5. All major public places will be under the watch of CCTV cameras, which will be used for traffic management as well as crime control.
  6. Bihar home department will be the nodal agency for implementation of the surveillance scheme.
  7. The network of CCTV cameras will be connected to the control room where they will be monitored by policemen around the clock.
  8. The policemen in the control room will coordinate with their counterparts in field and police stations to alert them about any incidents in the area.

National Register of Citizens

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National Register of Citizens

  1. NRC was first conducted in 1951 to enumerate Indian citizens.
  2. In Assam specifically, there have been mass movements and violent agitations over the decades against infiltrators from Bangladesh and a demand to update the NRC.
  3. After a militant movement to protect Assam against Bangladesh infiltrators, the Assam Accord was signed in 1985 between the Government of India and All Assam Students Union (AASU), which led to an amendment in the Citizenship Act, 1955, to incorporate Section 6A specifically pertaining to Assam.
  4. Everyone who entered after March 25, 1971, is to be identified as foreigner by the Tribunals and deported.
  5. For inclusion in NRC, a unique legacy code is to be submitted in the form to establish parental linkage before March 25, 1971.
  6. Legacy documents include electoral rolls up to March 25, 1971, and the 1951 NRC which was digitised and each person allotted a unique legacy code.
  7. Apart from legacy documents, any of 12 other documents, including land and tenancy record, citizenship certificate, refugee registration certificate, passport
  8. From September 25, for a period of 60 days, 40.07 lakh people who do not figure in the final draft of NRC can file their claims and objections to be included in the final list of citizens for Assam.

Cauvery Water Dispute Verdict

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Cauvery Water Dispute Verdict

  • Supreme Court, pronounced the verdict on the appeals filed by Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala against the final award of the Cauvery Waters Tribunal in 2007 on the allocation of water to them.
  • The dispute dates back to the Madras-Mysore agreements of 1924. It was in 1990 when the Centre created a tribunal to examine the conflict and address the water shortage.

Key points of verdict:-

  • The Supreme Court increased Karnataka’s share of water.
  • The verdict has reduced Tamil Nadu’s allocation of the Cauvery water from the Billigundulu dam.
  • The Court has allowed Bengaluru to use the Cauvery water for drinking purposes.
  • There is no change in the water share of Kerala and Puducherry.

The Cauvery basin:-

  • The Cauvery River originates in Karnataka’s Kodagu district, flows into Tamil Nadu and reaches the Bay of Bengal at Poompuhar.
  • Parts of three Indian states – Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka – and the Union Territory of Pondicherry lie in the Cauvery basin.

Other Inter-State River Water Sharing Disputes:-

  • Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal -II between the states Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra.
  • Mahanadi Water Disputes Tribunal between the states Odisha and Chhattisgarh.
  • Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal between the states Goa, Karnataka and Maharashtra.
  • Ravi & Beas Water Tribunal between the states Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan.
  • Vansadhara Water Disputes Tribunal between the states Andhra Pradesh &Odisha.

Article 35A

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Article 35A

  1. Article 35A allows the Jammu and Kashmir legislature to define permanent residents of the state.
  2. It was inserted through the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954, which was issued by President under Article 370.
  3. Article 35A confers upon the government of Jammu and Kashmir the power to define permanent residents and give them special rights and privileges regarding
  4. employment,
  5. acquiring immovable property,
  6. Settlement in the state,
  7. Scholarships and other forms of aid in the state.

Petition Against Article35A:-

  1. It said Article 35 A is against the “very spirit of oneness of India” as it creates a “class within a class of Indian citizens”.
  2. It is restricting citizens from other States from getting employment or buying property within Jammu and Kashmir.
  3. Also it is a violation of fundamental rights under Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution.

Action on it:-

The court observes that the President may modify an existing provision in the Constitution under Article 370; the judgment is silent as to whether the President can, without the Parliament’s knowledge, introduce a new Article.

The court has indicated that the validity of Articles 35A and 370 may ultimately be decided by a five-judge Constitution Bench.

Umang-APP

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Umang-APP

  • UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance) is envisaged to make e-governance.
  • It is developed by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and National e-Governance Division (NeGD) to drive Mobile Governance in India.

Features of APP:-

  1. It provides a single platform for all Indian Citizens to access pan India e-Gov services ranging from Central to Local Government bodies and other citizen centric services.
  2. UMANG intends to provide major services offered by Central and State Government departments, Local bodies and other utility services from private organizations.
  3. It provides a unified approach where citizens can install one application to avail multiple government services.
  4. UMANG service has been made available on multiple channels like mobile application, web, IVR and SMS which can be accessed through smartphones, feature phones, tablets and desktops.

Mission Antyodaya

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Mission Antyodaya

  1. Mission Antyodaya is an accountability and convergence framework for transforming lives and livelihoods on measurable outcomes. Real Difference comes about through Convergence as it alone simultaneously addresses multi dimensions of poverty, Professionals, Institutions and Enterprises make it possible.
  2. Mission Antyodaya focuses on most backward districts.
  3. Ministries has been consistently been adopting new methodologies and technologies to enhance its service delivery capacity.
  4. The main advantage of this application is convergence of data from Gram Panchayat Level.
  5. The convergence of multiple schemes under a single scheme could enable the government to migrate all these to the digital Aadhar-enabled platform thereby contributing further to the Digital India mission aims.
  6. Over 25 Ministries/ Departments through specific programs are involved in Mission Antyodaya Project.

Chakma and Hajong Refugees

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Chakma and Hajong Refugees

  1. The Union government is considering granting citizenship to over a lakh Chakma and Hajong refugees, who have been living in India for over 50 years.
  2. The Chakmas and Hajongs lived in the Chittagong Hill Tracts, and had to flee when their land was submerged by the Kaptai dam project in the 1960s.
  3. Chakmas are predominantly Buddhists, while Hajongs are Hindus. They are found in northeast India, West Bengal, Bangladesh, and Myanmar.
  4. Why are they called refugees?
  5. The Chakmas and Hajongs living in India are Indian citizens. Some of them, mostly from Mizoram, live in relief camps in southern Tripura due to tribal conflict with Mizos. These Indian Chakmas living in Tripura take part in Mizoram elections too. The Election Commission sets up polling booths in relief camps.
  1. In the 1960s, the Chakma refugees were accommodated in the relief camps constructed in the “vacant lands” of Tirap, Lohit and Subansiri districts of the erstwhile North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA), a political division governed by the Union government.
  2. In 1972, NEFA was renamed Arunachal Pradesh and made a Union Territory, and subsequently, it attained statehood. The locals and regional political parties opposed re-settling refugees in their land fearing that it may change the demography of the State and that they may have to share the limited resources available for them.

NITI Aayog releases Strategy for New India @ 75

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NITI Aayog releases Strategy for New India @ 75

  1. NITI Aayog has tried to bring innovation, technology, enterprise and efficient management as the core of policy formulation and implementation.
  2. It contains four sections: Drivers, Infrastructure, Inclusion and Governance:
  3. Drivers: Focus here is on the engines of economic performance such as growth and employment, doubling of farmers’ incomes and promotion of sunrise sectors like fintech.
  4. Infrastructure: It deals with the physical foundations of growth which are crucial for Indian economic growth.
  5. Inclusion: It deals with the urgent task of investing in the development of the Human resource of the country. The three themes in this section consider three dimensions such as health, education, and mainstreaming of traditionally marginalized sections of the population.
  6. Governance: It talks about how the governance structures can be streamlined and processes optimized to achieve better developmental outcomes.

Global Skills Park (GSP) in Madhya Pradesh

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Global Skills Park (GSP) in Madhya Pradesh

  1. Government of India along with Asian Development Bank (ADB) signed a loan agreement to establish a Global Skills Park in the Madhya Pradesh.
  2. It will help in enhancing the quality of Technical and Vocational Education and Training (TVET) System and create a more skilled workforce.
  3. It will engage with global TVET partners for advanced training at the GSP which help in foundation of best practices in TVET management, training infrastructure, industry cooperation, and quality assurance.
  4. It will be the first Multi Skills Park in India
  5. It will also include the Center for Occupational Skills Acquisition and the Center for Advanced Agricultural Training.

World Custom Organization

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World Customs Organization (WCO)

The 80th session of Policy Commission of the World Customs Organization (WCO) meeting was hosted by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), India in Mumbai.

World Customs Organization (WCO)

  1. It was established in 1952 as the Customs Co-operation Council. In 1994, the Council agreed to adopt the working name ‘World Customs Organization’ to better reflect the growth in its worldwide membership.
  2. It is an independent intergovernmental body to enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of Customs administrations.
  3. It is the only global organization which defines global standards and procedures for customs clearances at the border and their implementation.

India and WCO

  1. India is a member of the WCO since 1971.
  2. It is a part of the Asia Pacific region.
  3. India is currently vice-chair (regional head) of the Asia Pacific region of the World Customs Organisation (WCO) for a period of two years till June 2020.

North East Industrial Development Scheme (NEIDS)

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NEIDS: North East Industrial Development Scheme (NEIDS), 2017

  1. It covers eligible industrial units in the manufacturing and service sectors in Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura and Sikkim.
  2. It will help in promotion of Industrialization in North-East Region that will give boost to the employment and income generation.
  3. Total Outlay for the scheme is Rs 3000 cr with the time period extending from April 2017-March 2022.
  4. It comes under Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion, Ministry of Commerce & Industry
  5. The scheme provides for various soaps such as:
  6. Up-to Rs 5 Crore for 30% of the investment in plant & machinery as Central Capital Investment Incentive. Similarly, an interest incentive of 3% would be provided on working capital for 5 years as Central Interest Incentive.
  7. Reimbursement of 100% insurance premium for 5 years known as Central Comprehensive Insurance Incentive
  8. Employment Incentive under which additional 3.67% of the employer’s contribution to EPF in addition to Govt. bearing 8.33% Employee Pension Scheme (EPS) contribution of the employer in PMRPY.
  9. Income tax (Centre’s Share) and GST (of CGST & IGCST only) reimbursement for 5 years.
  10. Transport incentive on finished goods movement by Railways, Inland Waterways Authority & by air from the station/port/airport nearest to unit to the station/port/ airport nearest to the destination point.
  11. Also, under this scheme, a single unit can avail overall benefits up to Rs. 200 Crores.

India to Chair Kimberley Process

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  1. The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS) Plenary 2018 was held in Brussels, Belgium.
  2. European Union has passed on the Chairmanship of KPCS to India from 1st January 2019.
  3. India was the Vice-Chair during the period of 2017-2018.

Kimberley Process (KP):

  • It is a binding agreement that imposes extensive requirements on every participant to remove conflict diamonds from the global supply chain.
  • It has the underlying support of the United Nations mandate.

Conflict diamonds: Conflict diamonds are the ‘rough diamonds used to finance wars against governments’ around the world.

India’s Role:

India is the founding member of KPCS and is actively involved in KP activities to ensure that almost 99% of the diamond trade in the world is conflict free.

India is at the forefront in addressing the issue of differentiation between Natural Diamonds and Lab Grown Diamonds and ensures responsible business in this area.

India chaired the Ad hoc Committee on Review and Reform (AHCRR).

250-Important topics for UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2019

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IAS Prelims Exam 2019: Current Affairs Study Notes with MCQ

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Important Study Notes GS Paper-I

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Prelims Test Series-2019 Updated

Important Study Notes IAS Prelims 2019

Modern History of India Study Notes With MCQ

Geography of India Study Notes for Competitive Exams

IAS Prelims Exam 2019: Current Affairs Study Notes with MCQ

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) will be conducting the Civil Services Preliminary Exam commonly called the IAS Prelims Exam on 2 June 2019.  The candidates need to work on the most important topic for the IAS Preliminary Exam. There are certain topics which found their place each year in the IAS Preliminary Exam.  The candidates need to focus their preparation on these important topics so that you can improve your score in the IAS Preliminary Exam.

UPSC IAS Preliminary Exam 2019

Important Topics for IAS Prelims Exam – 2019

  1. Cyclone Fani (Basics of cyclone, types of cyclones, how they are named)
  2. Intellectual Property Rights
  3. Black Hole
  4. Amethi and Raebareli (Important institutions/industries in these regions)
  5. El-Nino Effect on Monsoon
  6. Space Debris
  7. Jammu & Kashmir (Places in news)
  8. Intelligence Satellite
  9. Kailash Mansarovar
  10. SHREYAS
  11. National War Memorial
  12. FATF: Noose Tightens for Pakistan: FATF
  13. Passport Ranking
  14. Dial 112
  15. Women pioneers in Science
  16. Digital Security
  17. RBI – Monetary Policy
  18. Shifting Magnetic North Pole
  19. Motion of Thanks
  20. Supreme Court
  21. BrahMos
  22. India’s Nuclear Policy
  23. Finance Commission
  24. India Strategic Overseas Fund
  25. Elections and Model Code of Conduct in India
  26. New India @75
  27. SDG India Index Baseline Report
  28. Move Summit Reports
  29. Hydrocarbon Vision 2030 for North-East
  30. The Fugitive Economic Offenders Bill 2018
  31. Geospatial Information Regulation Bill
  32. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojna (PM-KISAN)
  33. PMJAY
  34. Responsible use of plastic
  35. Netaji’s legacy
  36. Budget: Health & Sanitation
  37. Sardar Patel
  38. Budget: Agri Infrastructure
  39. Budget -Social Scheme
  40. Budget – Social Security
  41. North Sentinel Island
  42. 20 Years of International Space Station
  43. Ayushman India
  44. Oral Cancer
  45. Indo-Pacific: New Possibilities
  46. California Wildfires
  47. Mahaparv Chhath
  48. Indian Army in First World War
  49. Air Pollution
  50. Maneaters of India
  51. RBI Act Section – 7
  52. Restoring Balance of Bio Diversity
  53. Statue of Unity
  54. Ayodhya
  55. India’s Engineless ‘Train18’
  56. Moon: Made in China
  57. CBI
  58. Indian Police System
  59. Chandrayaan
  60. Sabarimala
  61. Strategic Petroleum Reserve I strategic oil reserves
  62. Sikkim: India’s First Organic State
  63. Industrial Revolution 4.0
  64. Lokanayak JP
  65. Cyclone Titli
  66. Zika Virus
  67. The Nobel Prize
  68. Gir Lions under Threat
  69. Gandhi and Swachh Bharat
  70. Elimination of Nuclear Weapons Day
  71. Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyay
  72. Interceptor Missile
  73. Improving Infant Mortality Rate
  74. NOTA
  75. HCNG: Fuel of the Future
  76. India Post Payments Bank
  77. BIMSTEC 2018
  78. Biofuel: Increasing Radius
  79. Sports Policy | National Sports Day
  80. Drone Policy
  81. Article 35-A
  82. Facial Recognition
  83. Gaganyaan
  84. Nanda Devi Mission
  85. Quit India Movement
  86. Meghalayan Age
  87. Discover Shale Oil
  88. Earth Overshoot day
  89. Assam Accord
  90. Missile Shield
  91. Asia Africa Growth Corridor
  92. India Post Payments Bank
  93. CRR, SLR, Repo Rate, Reverse Repo Rate, Bank Rate
  94. 4th Industrial Revolution
  95. New Silk Route
  96. Stand Up India Scheme
  97. BRI – Belt and Road Initiative and India
  98. Veto Powers of the UNSC Permanent Members
  99. Missile Technology Control Regime and India
  100. Brexit Issue
  101. India and NSG Membership dynamics
  102. Nuclear Security Summit
  103. International Solar Alliance
  104. Blood Moon
  105. Kargil War
  106. Privilege Motion
  107. Motor Vehicles Act 2017
  108. No confidence motion (Intent and Objective)
  109. BRICS Summit
  110. Golan Heights
  111. Mission Shakti
  112. Story of Bangladesh
  113. End of ISIS
  114. Lokpal
  115. The Electoral Reforms
  116. Virtual ID
  117. Mining Of Helium-3 on moon
  118. Sant Kabir
  119. Malaria Vaccine
  120. BRI Summit 2019
  121. Kimberley process
  122. World Heritage Day
  123. Western Disturbance
  124. Notre Dame
  125. Aviation Sector in Crisis
  126. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
  127. Budget – Health
  128. Budget: Agriculture
  129. Operation Clean Air
  130. EWS Reservation
  131. JPC – Joint Parliamentary Committee
  132. Other side of Moon
  133. Brexit
  134. Pioneers of Aviation
  135. Rafale
  136. Air Pollution: ICMR Report
  137. Baba Saheb Ambedkar
  138. Augusta Westland Helicopter Case
  139. International Disability Day
  140. G-20 and India
  141. Kartarpur
  142. InSight on Mars
  143. Powers of Governor & Lt Governor
  144. Bank Merger policy
  145. SCO Summit 2018
  146. Oceans of Plastic
  147. S-400 Air Defence System
  148. Science of Monsoon
  149. Heat wave
  150. INSV Tarini
  151. Ayushman Bharat – National Health Protection Mission
  152. Indradhanush Scheme for Banks
  153. Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Shramev Jayate Karyakram
  154. SETU BHARATAM PROJECT
  155. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
  156. Gram Uday se Bharat Uday Abhiyaan
  157. Smart Cities Mission
  158. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
  159. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Scheme
  160. Project Sunrise   
  161. Ganga Gram Yojana
  162. Universal Basic Income
  163. Mission SHAKTI
  164. Zinc Deficiency and its effects
  165. Cauvery Water Dispute and Analysis
  166. Himalayas in India
  167. Different Indices related to Human Development
  168. Water Resources of India—River systems, Waterfalls
  169. Renewable Energy
  170. Food Web and Food Chain
  171. CoP24 Summit 2018
  172. 1857 Revolt and Associated Leaders
  173. Social Reforms in the Indian Society and related Acts
  174. Indian National Congress and its meetings
  175. India After the arrival of Mahatma Gandhi
  176. Life of Mahatma Gandhi and the Movements
  177. HSRA and associated leaders
  178. Bengal Partition and Delhi Darbar
  179. List of Governor General and Associated Works
  180. Puna Pact
  181. Simon Commission
  182. Education under British
  183. Agriculture Taxing Structure under Britishers
  184. Agrarian Revolts
  185. Gautama Buddha, Buddhist Councils and principles of Buddhism
  186. Jainism, its principles and 24 Jain Tirthankars
  187. Temple Architectures
  188. Mauryan Rule overview
  189. Ashokan Inscriptions
  190. West Nile Virus
  191. Potassium Bromate
  192. Zika Virus       
  193. IRNSS
  194. E-Way Bill
  195. Mehta panel submits 5-point plan to fight NPAs
  196. Chakma and Hajong Refugees
  197. The Manned Mission
  198. Yamuna Cleanup
  199. Coal Mining and Accidents
  200. Tsunami
  201. 3D Printing Technology
  202. DPSP—Uniform Civil Code, Animal Husbandry, Child Labour
  203. Union Executive—Prime Minister and Union Council of Ministers
  204. Types of Bills- Money Bill, Finance Bill, Private Member Bill
  205. Veto Powers of President
  206. State Judiciary
  207. Green Climate Fund
  208. GM Mustard Crop Approval and Other Issues
  209. Role of Governments in flood mitigation
  210. Gupta Rulers and its overview
  211. Accession of Qutub-ud-Din Aibak
  212. Vijay Nagar Empire-Harihara and Bukka
  213. Arts, Architecture and major achievement of Mughal Rulers
  214. Akhbar and his religious philosophy- in Details
  215. Aurangzeb and his Policies
  216. Hyder Ali, Tipu Sultan and wars they fought
  217. Solid Waste Management in India  
  218. National Company Law Tribunal and Appellate Tribunal
  219. Animal Husbandry in India
  220. National Agriculture Market
  221. India to Chair Kimberley Process
  222. NABH (Nextgen Airports for Bharat) Nirman Initiative
  223. North East Industrial Development Scheme (NEIDS)
  224. World Custom Organization
  225. Global Skills Park (GSP) in Madhya Pradesh
  226. International Gita Mahotsav
  227. Boeing 737 Max
  228. Model Code of Conduct
  229. The History of Elections
  230. Spice 2000 – Smart Bomb | Spice 2000
  231. Permanent Commission for women in Armed Forces
  232. PM Shram Yogi Maan dhan Scheme
  233. Implications of Farm Loan Waiver
  234. Mission Antyodaya
  235. Umang-APP
  236. Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS)
  237. Article 35A
  238. State Flag Issue
  239. Mahashivratri
  240. Geneva Convention
  241. Nelson Mandela
  242. Monsoon Session of Parliament
  243. Mob Lynching
  244. 74th Constitutional Amendment
  245. Indian Medicines and global market
  246. Future of WTO
  247. Kailash Mansarovar Yatra
  248. Swami Vivekananda
  249. Startup Ranking
  250. Nari-Portal

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Indian Geography Question Bank 1000+

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10 Practice Set-IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper-I

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IAS Prelims 2019 Test Series: 10 Practice Set with 500+ Current Affairs MCQ

IAS Prelims Exam 2019: Current Affairs Study Notes with MCQ

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Important Study Notes GS Paper-I

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Prelims Test Series-2019 Updated

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Modern History of India Study Notes With MCQ

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IAS Prelims Exam 2019: Current Affairs Study Notes with MCQ

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Important Study Notes GS Paper-I

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Prelims Test Series-2019 Updated

Important Study Notes IAS Prelims 2019

Modern History of India Study Notes With MCQ

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IAS Prelims Exam 2019: Current Affairs Study Notes with MCQ

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IAS Prelims 2019: 2000 Solved MCQ for GS Paper

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IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Practice Test-1

Indian Geography Question Bank 1000+

History of India Question Bank

Indian Polity Question Bank

10 Practice Set-IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper-I

Indian Polity Test Series for IAS Prelims 2019

IAS Prelims 2019 Test Series: 10 Practice Set with 500+ Current Affairs MCQ

IAS Prelims Exam 2019: Current Affairs Study Notes with MCQ

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Important Study Notes GS Paper-I

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Prelims Test Series-2019 Updated

Important Study Notes IAS Prelims 2019

Modern History of India Study Notes With MCQ

Geography of India Study Notes for Competitive Exams

IAS Prelims Exam 2019: Current Affairs Study Notes with MCQ

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IAS Prelims 2019: 2000 Solved MCQ for GS Paper

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Indian Geography Question Bank 1000+

History of India Question Bank

Indian Polity Question Bank

10 Practice Set-IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper-I

Indian Polity Test Series for IAS Prelims 2019

IAS Prelims 2019 Test Series: 10 Practice Set with 500+ Current Affairs MCQ

IAS Prelims Exam 2019: Current Affairs Study Notes with MCQ

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Important Study Notes GS Paper-I

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Prelims Test Series-2019 Updated

Important Study Notes IAS Prelims 2019

Modern History of India Study Notes With MCQ

Geography of India Study Notes for Competitive Exams

IAS Prelims Exam 2019: Current Affairs Study Notes with MCQ

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IAS Prelims 2019: 2000 Solved MCQ for GS Paper

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Indian Geography Question Bank 1000+

History of India Question Bank

Indian Polity Question Bank

10 Practice Set-IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper-I

Indian Polity Test Series for IAS Prelims 2019

IAS Prelims 2019 Test Series: 10 Practice Set with 500+ Current Affairs MCQ

IAS Prelims Exam 2019: Current Affairs Study Notes with MCQ

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Important Study Notes GS Paper-I

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Prelims Test Series-2019 Updated

Important Study Notes IAS Prelims 2019

Modern History of India Study Notes With MCQ

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10 Practice Set-IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper-I

Indian Polity Test Series for IAS Prelims 2019

IAS Prelims 2019 Test Series: 10 Practice Set with 500+ Current Affairs MCQ

IAS Prelims Exam 2019: Current Affairs Study Notes with MCQ

IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Important Study Notes GS Paper-I

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UPSC IAS Prelims Test Series-2019 Updated

Important Study Notes IAS Prelims 2019

Modern History of India Study Notes With MCQ

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IAS Prelims Exam 2019 Important Study Notes GS Paper-I

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UPSC IAS Prelims Test Series-2019 Updated

Important Study Notes IAS Prelims 2019

Modern History of India Study Notes With MCQ

Geography of India Study Notes for Competitive Exams

IAS Prelims Exam 2019: Current Affairs Study Notes with MCQ

UPSC and State PSC Prelims Exam Current Affairs Question Bank

Q.1) “Forty plus Nine (40+9)” Recommendations is concerned with which of the following institutions/organisations?

a) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)

b) Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

c) Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)

d) Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)

Solution (b)

Q.2) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit

Matritva Abhiyan’

1. It provides subsidised and quality antenatal care to women belonging to Below Poverty Line (BPL) families

2. It is under the aegis of the Ministry of Women and Child Development

3. It aims to reach out to pregnant women who are in the 2nd & 3rd Trimesters of pregnancy

Select the correct statements

a) 1 and 3

b) 1 and 2

c) 3 Only

d) 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.3) considers the following statements with respect to ‘Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR)’ and identifies the correct ones:

1. It is a measure of a bank’s financial strength expressed as a ratio of capital to risk weighted assets.

2. Under Basel III norms, the minimum capital adequacy ratio that banks must maintain is 8%.

Select the correct code:

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.4) which of the following statements is the most appropriate with respect to ‘Feed-in tariff’?

a) It allows consumers who generate some or all of their own electricity to use that electricity anytime, instead of when it is generated.

b) It is a trade barrier erected for the purpose of reducing pollution and improving the environment

c) It is a tax levied on activities which are considered to be harmful to the environment and is intended to promote environmentally friendly activities via economic incentives

d) It is an economic policy created to promote active investment in and production of renewable energy sources

Solution (d)

Q.5) ‘Operation NISTAR’ was a Humanitarian and Disaster Relief Operation (HADR) conducted by India in which of the following countries?

a) Yemen

b) Djibouti

c) Maldives

d) Indonesia

Solution (a)

It was conducted to rescue Indian Nationals off Socotra Islands (Yemen) after the island was struck with a severe Cyclonic Storm – Mekunu.

Q.6) which of the following are correctly matched?

1. National Disaster Risk Index – UNISDR

2. Transformation Index – World Bank

3. Project Half-Earth – UNEP

4. REPLACE Programme – WHO

Select the correct code:

a) 1 and 4

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 2

d) 4 only

Solution (d)

Q.7) Following islands were recently in news.

1. Socotra Island – Arabian Sea

2. Solomon Island – South Pacific Ocean

3. Guam Island – Western Pacific Ocean

4. Sabang Island – Andaman Sea

5. Easter Island – Atlantic Ocean

Which of them is/are correctly matched?

a) 1, 3, 4 and 5

b) 1, 2, 4 and 5

c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 Solution (c)

Q.8) Which of the following experiments/detectors are related to study of ‘Neutrino’?

1. XENON

2. IceCube

3. MINOS

4. KATRIN

Select the correct code:

a) 1 and 3

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1, 2 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (b)

Q.9) ‘Joint Appeal to Youth’ recently in news is related to:

a) BRICS

b) SCO

c) UN

d) ASEAN

Solution (b)

Q.10) The Energy Progress Report provides a global dashboard on progress towards Sustainable Development Goal (SDG). The report targets which SDG and is a joint effort of:

a) SDG7 and International Energy Agency (IEA), the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD), the World Bank, and the World Health Organization (WHO)

b) SDG4 and International Energy Agency (IEA), the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), Environment Programme (UNEP), the World Bank, and the World Health Organization (WHO)

c) SDG6 and International Energy Agency (IEA), the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD), the World Bank, and the World Health Organization (WHO)

d) SDG7 and International Energy Agency (IEA), the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), the World Bank and the World Health Organization (WHO)

Solution (a)

Q.11) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)’

1. The equity of a regional rural bank is held by the concerned State Government and the Sponsor Bank in the proportion of 50:50.

2. They were set up under the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976.

3. They have to maintain the minimum prescribed Capital to Risk weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) of 15%.

Select the correct statements

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 Only

c) 1 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.12) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Central Adoption Resource

Authority (CARA)’

1. It is a statutory body of Ministry of Women & Child Development

2. It was set up under the POCSO Act

3. It has barred partners in live-in relationships from adopting a child

Select the correct statements

a) 1 Only

b) 1 and 2

c) 1 and 3

d) None of the above

Solution (a)

Q.13) which of the following is/are correctly matched?

1. Kanjirankulam Bird Sanctuary – Tamil Nadu

2. Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary – Kerala

3. Chitrangudi Bird Sanctuary – Karnataka

Select the correct code:

a) 1 Only

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.14) ‘Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS)’ is often seen in news. It is associated with which of the following organisations?

a) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)

b) Middle East Security Alliance (MESA)

c) North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)

d) BRICS

Solution (a)

Q.15) ‘Helsinki Accords’ is associated with

a) Generalised System of Preferences (GSP)

b) Antarctic Treaty System

c) Non-Proliferation Treaty

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.16) If you have to reach Russia from India through land, the minimum countries land boundaries that must be crossed is?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

Solution (a)

Q.17) ‘Billion Tree Tsunami’, (BTT) a provincial government programme that has seen a total of 300 million trees of 42 different species planted across the province. BTT is associated with which province?

a) Bali Province, Indonesia

b) Chongqing Province, China

c) Philippines Province

d) Khyber Pakhtunkhwa Province, Pakistan

Solution (d)

Q.18) Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) brands the monsoon as ‘normal’ or ‘deficient’ based on how it fares against its benchmark Long Period Average (LPA). Select the statement that closely defines LPA:

a) LPA is the average rainfall received by the country as a whole during the south-west monsoon, for a 50-year period.

b) LPA is the average rainfall received by the country as a whole during the north-west monsoon, for a 60-year period.

c) LPA is the average rainfall received by the country as a whole during the south-west monsoon, for a 100-year period.

d) LPA is the average rainfall received by the country as a whole during the south-west monsoon, for a 10-year period.

Solution (a)

Q.19) Select the correct statement with reference to ‘GROWTH-India’ recently in new:

a) The telescope located at the Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO) at Hanle in Ladakh, designed to observe dynamic or transient events in the universe.

b) A joint initiative of World Bank and Union Finance Ministry on measures to accelerate GDP.

c) A medical device designed by IIT Madras students for disabled children.

d) It is a flagship initiative of NITI AAYOG for bridging the gaps between Center and State government fiscal health.

Solution (a)

Q.20) Recently India lauded the ‘Third Neighbor Policy’ of one of its partner countries in

Asia. Which of the following pursue the ‘Third Neighbor Policy’?

a) Myanmar

b) Mongolia

c) Vietnam

d) Philippines

Solution (b)

Q.21) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’

1. They are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

2. All kinds of human activities are prohibited in the Eco-Sensitive Zones

3. Eco-Sensitive Zones can be notified only near National Parks

Select the correct statements

a) 1 Only

b) 1 and 2

c) 1 and 3

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.22) considers the following statements with respect to ‘Atal Bhujal Yojana (ABHY)’ and identifies the correct ones.

1. It deals with the matters related to Urban Water Supply and Sanitation including Solid Waste Management

2. It aims to improve ground water management in priority areas in the country through community participation

3. It is being implemented by the Central Public Health and Environmental Engineering

Organisation (CPHEEO)

Select the correct statements

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 Only

c) 2 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.23) ‘Lithium-ion batteries’ can be used in which of the following?

1. Mobile Phones

2. Electric and Hybrid Vehicles

3. Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)

IASbaba 60 Days CA Compilation – Week 1 &2 2019

24

Select the correct code:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.24) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Islands Development Agency

(IDA)’

1. It is chaired by the Prime Minster of India

2. It aims to develop a military and naval base at the Andaman and Lakshadweep

Islands

3. It was set up in 2017

Select the correct statements

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 3 Only

d) 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.25) which of the following statements with respect to ‘Gram Swaraj Abhiyan’ is/are correct?

1. It releases the bonded labourers from their bondage and rehabilitates them

2. It rehabilitates the homeless and destitute persons and provides them with suitable sources of livelihood

Select the correct statements

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (d)

Q.26) ‘Cyclone Sagar and Mekunu’ recently in news are associated with:

a) Southern Pacific Ocean

b) Atlantic Ocean

c) Indian Ocean

d) Western Pacific Ocean

Solution (c)

Q.27) The term ‘HiLumi’ recently in news is associated with:

a) High intensity laser beam technology

b) Helium exploration on the Moon

c) An upgrade of Large Hadron Collider at CERN

d) An artificial intelligence based telescope

Solution (c)

Q.28) ‘International Conference on Water for Sustainable Development’ was held in Tajikistan. Consider the following statements in this regard:

1. The United Nations General Assembly has proclaimed the decade 2020-2030 as the

International Decade for Action ‘Water for Sustainable Development’

2. Sustainable development and integrated water resources management has been kept under Sustainable Development Goal, SDG-6.

3. World Water Day is observed on 22 March every year.

Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.29) Consider the following statements regarding the recently launched National Digital

Library (NDL) of India:

1. NDL is the Single Window Secret Platform that collects and collates metadata from premier learning institutions in India

2. It is not open to foreign institutions

3. It is a project of the Ministry of Human Resource Development under the aegis of

National Mission on Education through Information and Communication Technology

(NMEICT)

Identify the correct statement/s and mark the appropriate code

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) 3 only

Solution (d)

Q.30) Consider the following statements about ‘Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) and ‘Nuclear DNA’:

1. While nuclear DNA is circular in shape, mtDNA is linear.

2. MtDNA is inherited from both father and mother while nuclear NDA is solely from mother.

3. Nuclear DNA consists of 46 chromosomes while mitochondrial DNA consists of only one chromosome.

Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Solution (b)

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Q.1) NASA’s spacecraft OSIRIS – Rex has recently arrived at its destination. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding it?

1. The mission will land at near earth orbit asteroid, Bennu and will bring a rock sample on earth.

2. The aim of the mission is to discover formation of water and organic molecules on mars.

3. This will be the world’s first space asteroid sampling.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.2) ISRO’s launch vehicle PSLV – C43 has successfully launched satellite HysIS. Which of the following statements are correct regarding HysIS?

a) It is an observation satellite to study the earth’s surface in the visible, near infrared and short-wave infrared regions.

b) It is a communication satellite that will be helpful in providing DTH connection across

India.

c) It is a surveillance satellite launched for Indian army to keep a check at Indo – Pak and Indo – China border.

d) It is a meteorological satellite launched for IMD for exact weather predictions in India.

Solution (a)

Q.3) Recently NASA retired its Kepler space telescope as it ran out of fuel. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the mission?

1. It was NASA’s first planet-hunting mission.

2. It used transit photometry detection method for searching for exoplanet.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding the Gaganyaan Mission:

1. ISRO is setting up a third launch pad at Kalam Island for this mission.

2. It will be India’s first manned space mission.

3. India is planning to send three humans in space in low earth orbit through this mission.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

Q.5) ISRO has launched two observation satellites NovaSAR and S1 – 4 from Satish Dhawan center. Which of the following statements are correct regarding NovaSAR?

1. It has been launched in Sun synchronous Pole to pole project.

2. It is French satellite commercially launched by ISRO.

3. NovaSAR is a S-Band Synthetic Aperture Radar satellite intended for forest mapping, land use and ice cover monitoring, flood and disaster monitoring.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (c)

Q.6) Japanese researchers are going to conduct world’s first experiment to test small prototype of space elevator. Which of the following statements regarding space elevator are correct?

1. It is a proposed planet to space transportation system.

2. An Earth-based space elevator would consist of a cable with one end attached to the surface near the equator and the other end in space beyond geostationary orbit.

3. Gravity and centrifugal force keeps the cable under tension, and stationary over a single position on Earth.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.7) Consider the following statements regarding Gaofen 11:

1. It is part of China High-resolution Earth Observation System (CHEOS).

2. It is a sub-meter resolution optical satellite, used for surveying.

3. It will be used for land surveys, urban planning, and road network design and agriculture and disaster relief.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.8) ISRO has successfully conducted ground test of its high thrust version of Vikas Engine.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Vikas Engine?

1. It is a solid propulsion engine carrying solid fuel and oxidizer.

2. It is a workhorse engine of PSLV but hasn’t been used in any stage of GSLV.

3. High thrust version of Vikas engine will increase the payload capability of PSLV, GSLV and GSLV Mk III.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

Q.9) Remove DEBRIS is a satellite research project intending to demonstrate various space debris removal technologies. Rather than engaging in active debris removal (ADR) of real space debris, the Remove DEBRIS mission plan is to test the efficacy of several ADR technologies on mock targets in low Earth orbit through some experiments. Which of the following experiment is not a part of mission?

a) Net Experiment

b) Vision based Navigation

c) Harpoon and Deployable target

d) Laser HIT and disintegration Experiment

Solution (d)

Q.10) NASA has launched InSight Mission as robotic lander on Mars. The aim of the mission is to

a) Study the atmosphere of Mars

b) Study the topography of Mars

c) Study the interior of Mars

d) Study the evidence of life and water on mars

Solution (c)

Q.11) Chandrayaan 2 is totally indigenous project of ISRO. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Chandrayaan 2?

1. It is a lunar mission consisting of an Orbiter, Lander and Rover.

2. The mission will carry a six-wheeled Rover which will move around the landing site in semi-autonomous mode as decided by the ground commands.

3. If successful, it will be ISRO’s first mission to land rover on any celestial body.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.12) Spacecraft cemetery/graveyard is the location used for crash landing of defunct spacecrafts. It is considered to be the most remote part of the earth and lies in Southern Pacific ocean. The name given to this point is

a) Point Dolphin

b) Point Angel

c) Point Nemo

d) Point Poseidon

Solution (c)

Q.13) Aditya L1 is India’s first dedicated scientific mission to study sun. It will be placed at

Lagrange point 1. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Lagrange points?

1. A Lagrange point is a location in space where the combined gravitational forces of two large bodies, such as Earth and the sun or Earth and the moon, equal the centrifugal force felt by a much smaller third body.

2. L1 lies a million miles from Earth in the opposite direction of the sun with the Earth, moon and sun behind it.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (a)

Q.14) Stratolaunch is the world’s largest composite airplane. Which of the following statements is correct regarding it?

a) It is designed to take astronauts to International Space Station.

b) It is designed to take commercial passengers to exosphere for zero gravity experience.

c) It is designed for sending satellite-carrying rockets into low-Earth orbit

d) It is designed to carry heavy payloads from construction site to the launch site.

Solution (c)

Q.15) NASA successfully tested a supersonic parachute designed to land the agency’s next rover on Mars. The supersonic parachute experiment is known as

a) INSPIRE

b) ASPIRE

c) EXPIRE

d) RESPIRE

Solution (b)

Q.16) NASA has named a new bacteria discovered on International Space Station after

a) Dr A P J Abdul Kalam

b) Dr Vikram Sarabhai

c) Dr Saha

d) Eugene Parker

Solution (a)

Q.17) GUSTO is a balloon based observatory to study the cosmic material entering the earth.

The program was launched by

a) NASA

b) ISRO

c) ROSCOSMOS

d) ESA

Solution (a)

Q.18) which of the following energies are believed to be responsible for expansion and acceleration of Universe?

a) Gravitational energy

b) Weak forces

c) Electromagnetic energy

d) Dark Energy

Solution (d)

Q.19) Cornell University has successfully tested ‘Sprites’. Which of the following statements are correct regarding them?

1. They are world’s smallest fully functional space probes, built on a single circuit board achieving low Earth orbit

2. They are equipped with tiny solar panels and two antennas, plus a tiny radio, computer, magnetometer (to orient to Earth’s magnetic field) and gyroscope.

3. They were launched by NASA under starshot project.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.20) ISRO has commissioned the world’s third largest hypersonic wind tunnel at Vikram Sara bhai Space Center. Which of the following statements regarding this wind tunnel are correct?

1. It is being made with the help of Israel.

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2. It will be used to study the effects of air flowing past solid objects like space vehicles.

3. It will help aerodynamic characterization of advanced space transportation systems in a hypersonic environment.

Select the code from following:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

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Q.1) which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the GLOBE (Global Learning and Observation to Benefit the Environment)?

1. Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) is the implementing agency in India.

2. NASA has the primary responsibility for administering the government-to-government agreements, and for the management of the GLOBE Implementation Office (GIO).

Select from the given codes:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Solution (b)

Q.2) Consider the following statements

1. Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis.

2. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses, is the net primary productivity.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both

d) None

Solution (c)

Q.3) Consider the following statements

1. Primary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.

2. Secondary productivity is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis.

3. Primary productivity is same in different types of ecosystems.

4. Primary productivity of Oceans is less compared to that of the Land.

Which of the above statements are INCORRECT?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 4

c) 1 and 2

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.4) Consider the following statements

1. Detritivores (e.g., earthworm) break down detritus into smaller particles. This process is called fragmentation.

2. Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances. This process is called as catabolism.

3. The processes Fragmentation, Leaching and Catabolism (in the same order) operates one after the other on detritus.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 3

c) 1 and 2

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.5) which of the following statements is/are correct regarding humus

1. It is a dark coloured amorphous substance.

2. It is highly resistant to microbial action.

3. It is colloidal in nature.

4. The humus is further degraded by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrients occurs by the process known as Humification.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 2 and 4

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 3 and 4

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

Q.6) Consider the following statements regarding Food Chain

1. In an aquatic ecosystem, Grazing Food Chain is the major conduit for energy flow.

2. In a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through the Detritus Food Chain than through the Grazing Food Chain.

Which of the statements above is/are INCORRECT?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Solution (d)

Q.7) Consider the following statements regarding the Ecological Pyramids

1. Pyramid of energy is always upright

2. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.

3. Ecological pyramids do not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.

4. Saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1, 3 and 4

b) 2,3 and 4

c) 1 and 3

d) 1 and 4

Solution (a)

Q.8) which of the following statements are correct regarding Ecological Succession?

1. Succession is a process that starts where no living organisms are there.

2. Primary Succession is faster than Secondary Succession.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (a)

Q.9) Consider the following statements regarding Carbon

1. Carbon constitutes 49 per cent of dry weight of organisms and is next only to water.

2. The amount of Carbon dissolved in Oceans is more than that is stored in the land biosphere.

Which of the above statement is/are true?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.10) Consider the following statements regarding the processes that occur in Nitrogen cycle

1. Decomposers chemically modify the nitrogen found in organic matter to ammonium ion

(NH4+). This process is known as micelle fixation.

2. The process of Nitrification involves the metabolic reduction of nitrate (NO3-) into

nitrogen (N2) or nitrous oxide (N2O) gas

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both

d) None

Solution (c)

Q.11) which of the following statements in general correctly explains ‘edge effect’

a) The number of species and the population density of some of the species is very low in the zone of transition.

b) The number of species and the population density of some of the species is greater in the zone of transition.

c) The species in the zone of transition are completely different from that of the surrounding habitats.

d) The species in the zone of transition are exactly the same from that exist in the surrounding habitats.

Solution (b)

Q.12) Consider the following statements regarding Ecological Niche

1. Organisms that occupy same or similar ecological niches in different geographical regions are called Ecophene.

2. Species with broad ecological niches tend to be specialists.

Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both

d) None

Solution (d)

Q.13) Consider the following:

Seral Community Explanation

1. Lithosere Community on rock

2. Xerosere Community in dry area

3. Psammosere Community in saline body

4. Hydrosere Community in water

Which of the following are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 4

c) 2 and 4

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

Depending on the substratum and climate, a seral community can be one of the following

Seral Community Explanation

1. Lithosere Community on rock

2. Xerosere Community in dry area

3. Psammosere Community on sand

4. Hydrosere Community in water

5. Halo sere Community in saline body

Q.14) Consider the following statements regarding the processes of ecological succession

1. Ecesis is the increase in population of the species which has become established in the area.

2. Nudation is the initial establishment of plant community.

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both

d) None of the above

Solution (c)

Q.15) Consider the following statements regarding Sikkim

1. It is the first organic state in India.

2. Sikkim was awarded Future Policy Gold Award 2018 for its achievement in becoming the world’s first totally organic agriculture state.

3. The award is given by UN Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) Only 1

c) Only 2

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.16) Consider the following statements

1. Bio-accumulation occurs across different trophic levels in a food chain.

2. Bio-magnification occurs when an organism absorbs a toxic substance from all sources at a rate greater than that at which the substance is lost.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.17) Consider the following statements about Organic World Congress (OWC)

1. The International Federation of Organic Agriculture Movements (IFOAM – Organics International) organizes it.

2. It is an annually organized congress.

3. OWC-2020 is to be conducted in India.

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

a) 1 and 2

b) Only 1

c) Only 2

d) 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.18) Consider the below statements and select the correct statement from the codes given below:

1. The succession brought about by external conditions and not by the existing organisms

is known as allogenic succession.

2. The succession that begins in a predominantly inorganic environment where there is dominance of autotrophic organisms is called Autogenic Succession.

Choose the correct answer:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (a)

Q.19) Consider the following pair of biotic interactions.

Type of interaction Result

1. Neutralism No net benefit or harm to either species

2. Amensalism One species benefits, one is not affected

3. Parasitism One species benefits, one is harmed

Which of the above pairs is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3

b) 2 and 3

c) Only 1

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.20) which of the following statements best describes ‘Ecotype’?

a) It is a type of marine ecosystem that provides an alternative to a species of terrestrial for growth and survival.

b) It is a transition area between two biomes where communities interact.

c) It is a genetically distinct variety within a species, which is adapted to specific environmental conditions.

d) It is a type of ecosystem in which inherent balance is maintained between autotrophs and Heterotrophs.

Solution (c)

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Q.1) With reference to the calculation of Gross Domestic Product (GDP), consider the following:

1. Commission of a real estate agent in the sale of a property

2. Sale of a used car

3. Components such as tyres sold for car manufacture

Which of the following are not included in its calculation?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.2) With reference to National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC), consider the following statements:

1. It is the statutory organisation under Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.

2. It strengthens and promotes programmes across sectors relating to agriculture and allied fields

3. Recently it launched Yuva Sahakar – Cooperative Enterprise Support and Innovation

Scheme

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.3) With reference to the Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) rankings, consider the following statements:

1. It is published by the World Bank

2. The Doing Business report ranks countries on the basis of distance to frontier (DTF), a score that shows the gap of an economy to the global average.

3. India’s rank has been constantly improving since 2014.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 3 only

Solution (b)

Q.4) With reference to the first Human Capital Index released recently, consider the following Statements:

1. It has been released by World Economic Forum

2. It conveys the productivity of the next generation of workers compared to a benchmark of complete education and full health.

3. Singapore topped the list.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 2 only

Solution (c)

Q.5) With reference to the Credit Rating agencies in India, consider the following statements:

1. They are registered and regulated by SEBI

2. They function on “Issuer pays” model rather than “Subscriber pays’ model

3. According to the new norms, ratings agencies are required to disclose liquidity position, source and rationale of additional funds of a company.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.6) With reference to the External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs), consider the following statements:

1. The cost of ECBs is higher than the domestic borrowings.

2. It widens the investor base of a company

3. The government can direct inflows into specific sectors by allowing higher ECBs in them, thus promoting development

Which of the given statements is/are advantages of ECBs?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.7 which of the following schemes is not related to MSMEs?

a) SHAKTI

b) Samadhaan

c) Sambandh

d) SFURTI

Solution (a)

MSME Delayed Payment Portal – MSME Samadhaan

Public Procurement Portal for MSEs – MSME Sambandh

Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries (SFURTI) – related to Infrastructure of MSMEs

SHAKTI (Scheme for harnessing & allocating Koyla transparently in India) – step to tackle stress in the power sector and not related to MSME.

Q.8) Baba Kalyani committee recently submitted its report on?

a) Review of powers of CBI

b) Impact of Climate change on Indian rivers

c) SEZ policy

d) Review of Bilateral Trade Agreements

Solution (c)

Q.9 Inclusive Wealth Report 2018 is published by?

a) World Bank

b) World Economic Forum

c) UN Environment Programme

d) UN Development Programme

Solution (c)

10. With reference to the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP), consider the following statements:

1. It comes under the National Health Mission.

2. The scheme seeks to set up a Central Disease Surveillance Unit and a State Surveillance

Unit in each State where data is collected and analyzed.

3. It is assisted by World Bank.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP)

• IDSP is a disease surveillance scheme under National Health Mission, under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in India, assisted by the World Bank.

11. With reference to the Intensified Mission Indradhanush, consider the following Statements:

1. It has been launched by the Government of India to reach each and every child under two years of age.

2. It is a special drive that will focus on all the districts of the country

3. It targets to immunize all children against seven vaccine preventable diseases

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.12) Recently, PAiSA portal was launched by which of the following Union Ministries?

a) Ministry of Railways

b) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

c) Ministry of Housing

d) Ministry of Rural Development

Solution (c)

Q.13) With reference to the Demographic Dividend, consider the following statements:

1. A country with a high population between 15-64 years is considered to have a high demographic dividend.

2. Focus on providing skill development and education will help in effective utilisation of demographic dividend.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.14) Universal Basic Income has been in news for a while. Consider the following statements with reference to it:

1. It is unconditional and universal to all the citizens of the country

2. UBI would require subsumption of other subsidies and allowances in order to free up resources so that a particular amount can be directed to people on a periodic basis.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Universal basic income (UBI) is a model for providing all citizens of a country or other geographic area with a given sum of money, regardless of their income, resources or employment status. The purpose of the UBI is to prevent or reduce poverty and increase equality among citizens.

Q.15) With reference to the definition of poverty in India, which of the following statements is correct?

a) According to C Rangarajan committee, poverty line should be Rs 32 in rural areas and Rs 47 in urban areas.

b) The poverty estimates of Rangarajan committee were lower than that of Tendulkar committee.

c) The poverty line suggested by World Bank is lower than that of Tendulkar committee.

d) None of the above

Solution (a)

Q.16) which of the following statements is not correct?

a) Poverty Gap is the difference between the mean income among the poor and the poverty line

b) Headcount ration shows the percentage of population whose per capita incomes are below the poverty line

c) Multidimensional poverty Index consists of 10 indicators

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.17) which of the following committees is not related to poverty estimation in India?

a) YK Alagh

b) NC Saxena committee

c) Pronab Sen committee

d) None of the above

Solution (c)

Pranab Sen Committee for Slums was constituted by Ministry of Housing and Poverty Alleviation in 2010.

18. Which of the following is/are a correct difference between SECC 2011 and Census 2011?

1) Census is conducted by Census Commissioner in Home Ministry while SECC 2011 was by Ministry of Rural Development.

2) Census has a statutory backing while SECC 2011 doesn’t.

Select the correct option from below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.19) which of the following are steps taken by the Government for the eradication of poverty?

1. Progressive taxation

2. Decentralisation through Panchayati Raj and Nagarpalikas

3. Saubhagya scheme

Which of the following is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.20) With reference to The National Food Security Act 2013, consider the following statements:

1. The Act provides for coverage of up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population

2. Under the Act, the eligible persons will be entitled to receive 5 kgs of food grains per person per month at subsidized prices of Rs. 3/2/1 per Kg for rice/wheat/coarse grains.

3. To ensure the food security of poorest of poor, the existing Antyodaya Anna Yojana

(AAY) households will continue to receive 35 Kgs of foodgrain per household per month

4. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are also covered under the scheme.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (d)

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Q.1) in the context of the Indian history, ‘cartaz’ system refers to?

a) Portuguese introduced this system for the purpose of political activity in India

b) System refers to the permission for other European companies can do the trade with India

c) Anyone who passes the Portuguese territories must buy permits otherwise they supposed to be captured

d) This system responsible for spread the Christianity in India and Asia

Solution (c)

Q.2) Consider the following statements

1. Serampore Mission was founded by William Carey, and it is the India’s first Christian missionary organization.

2. Serampore Trio worked many years for the upliftment of Bengal society in educational, social and religious movement.

3. The first Catholic Church was built in Serampore 1800.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.3) Consider the Following statement about the Mahalwari System?

1. It was introduced in Central provinces, NWFP, Agra, and Punjab

2. It was introduced by William Bentick.

3. It declares 10/11 for the British and 1/11 as the revenue for farmers

4. It made village committee as the responsible for collection of taxes

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 and 4 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 and 3 Only

d) 1, 2 and 4

Solution (d)

Q.4) which of the following were the causes of ‘The Battle of Buxar’?

1. Abolition of all duties on internal trade of British

2. Bringing the people of India together to fight against the supremacy of the British

3. Dastak misused by the British which challenged the Nawab authority.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 and 3Only

c) 1 and 3 Only

d) All of the above

Solution (c)

Q.5) Consider the Following statements regarding ‘Doctrine of Lapse ‘?

 1. It is a policy to expand British territory in India on the basis of pre- imperialistic approach.

 2. According to this policy state must be hand over to British, if they have no heir or ruler.

 3. Adoptions of child were not accepted for heir.

 4. Continuation of the titles and pension for the kings.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 and 4 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 and 4 Only

d) 1, 2 and 3

 Solution (d)

Q.6)  which among the following changes were brought in the army after the revolt of 1857?

1. The proportion of Europeans to Indians in the army was decreased.

2. Communal, tribal and regional loyalties were encouraged amongst the soldiers.

3. Indians were excluded from the officer corps.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.7) consider the following statements regarding the Charter Act of 1833

1. It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India.

2. It provided the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras presidencies.

3. It Introduced an Open Competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 1 and 2 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.8) The Carnatic wars (1740-1763) were fought between which of the following European powers?

a) Dutch and Portuguese

b) English and French

c) French and Dutch

d) English and Dutch

Solution (b)

Q.9) With reference to Indian press, consider the following statements:

1. Charles Metcalfe was the first governor general to place restrictions on the press in India.

2. Vernacular Press Act in 1878 put restrictions on the freedom on both English and Indian language newspapers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (d)

Q.10) Consider the following statements regarding The Indian Council Act of 1909:

1. Another name of the Indian Council Act of 1909 is Minto-Morley reforms.

2. It introduces the parliamentary form of government in India.

3. It enlarged the deliberative functions for the association of Indian Councils; members were not allowed to ask supplementary questions.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 1 and 2 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.11) which of the following was/were reasons for the failure of the Revolt of 1857?

1. Limited territorial base

2. Lack of resources

3. Lack of a central and coordinated leadership

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 3 Only

c) 1 and 2 Only

d) 2 and 3 Only

Solution (a)

Q.12) In the context of Lord Macaulay’s Education Policy, 1835, which of the below statement is/are not correct?

a) It is the attempt by the British to create a system of education for the upper class.

b) Abolished the Persian language in the court and introduced English as the court language.

c) Engineering institute was established at Pusa (Bihar).

d) Printing of English book was free and available for the low cost.

Solution (c)

Q.13) which among the following were the economic impacts of British rule in India?

1. Deindustrialization

2. Deterioration of agriculture

3. Rise of bourgeoisie class in India

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.14) Which of the following was / were recommendations of the Saddler Commission?

1. Creation of Boards of Secondary Education in the Provinces

2. Making Education a Provincial subject

3. Separation of secondary education from University education

4. Establishment of university Grants Commission

Select the correct statements from the codes given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 Only

b) 2, 3 and 4 Only

c) 1 and 2 Only

d) 1 and 3 Only

Solution (a)

Q.15) Consider the following pairs:

Europeans Centre of Influence

1. 1. French Chandernagore

2. 2. Portuguese Goa

3. 3. Dutch Pulicat

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

a) 1and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 and 3 Only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Q.16) With reference to Permanent Settlement System, consider the following statements:

1. It recognized zamindars as the owner of the land.

2. The revenue settled was revised every 20-30 years.

3. It was introduced in Orissa, Bengal and Bihar.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 and 3 Only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Q.17) which of the following act of British also known as Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919?

a) The Press Act of 1910 AD

b) Multi- fanged Defense of Indian Rules 1915 AD

c) Indian Criminal Law Amendment Act 1908 AD

d) Rowlatt Act 1919 AD

Solution (d)

Q.18) Assertion (A): Pitt’s India Act of 1784 distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the British East India Company.

Reason (R): Pitt’s India Act of 1784 allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs but created a new body called Board of Control to manage the political affairs. Thus, it established a system of double government.

Select the code from following:

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

c) A is true but R is false

d) Both A & R is not true

Solution (a)

Q.19) under which reform/act, non-official majority was introduced in the provincial legislative councils?

a) Montague-Chelmsford reforms

b) Indian Councils Act, 1861

c) Government of India Act of 1935.

d) Morley-Minto reforms

Solution (d)

Q.20) which of the following initiatives taken by British contributed to the spread of communalism in India?

1. Partition of Bengal, 1905

2. McDonald Award, 1932

3. Indian Councils Act, 1909

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

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Q.1) With respect to the chemical composition of earth’s layers consider the following statements:

1. The continental crust is thicker in the areas of major mountain systems.

2. Oceanic crust is thinner as compared to the continental crust.

3. The lower mantle extends beyond the asthenosphere. It is in solid state.

4. Core has the heaviest mineral materials of highest density.

5. Gutenberg Discontinuity – lies between the mantle and the outer core.

Which of the following statements are correct?

a) Only 1,2,3,4

b) Only 1,3,4,5

c) Only 2,3,4,5

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding The Paleomagnetism:

1. Some of the strongest evidence in support of the theory of seafloor spreading and plate tectonics comes from studying the magnetic fields surrounding oceanic ridges.

2. Rocks formed from underwater volcanic activity were mainly basalt, which is rich in silica and low in iron.

3. Basalt contains magnetic minerals and as the rock is solidifying, these minerals align themselves in the direction of the magnetic field.

4. When Earth’s magnetic field undergoes a reversal, the polarity recorded in the magma remains same.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) Only 1, 3, 4

b) Only 2, 3, 4

c) Only 2, 4

d) Only 1, 3

Solution (d)

Q.3) In February 2017 the Barren Island saw another huge volcanic eruption and filled the sea with red lava fountains jutting out of the crater. Consider the following statements regarding it:

1. It is home to Asia’s and India’s only active volcano.

2. The volcano here was dormant for a long time, but in the year 1991 it experienced an explosion which was quite major.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (b)

Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding volcanic eruption:

1. After the eruption of magma has ceased, the crater frequently turns into a lake called a ‘caldera’.

2. Oregan Lake in USA is the largest volcanic Crater Lake in the world.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (a)

Q.5) Consider following regarding diastrophism:

1. Diastrophism includes orogeny, epeirogeny, earthquake, plate tectonics and seafloor spreading.

2. Orogenic processes involves mountain building through severe folding and affecting long and narrow belts of the earth’s crust.

3. Epeirogenic processes involving uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust.

4. Epeirogeny is a mountain building process whereas Orogeny is continental building process.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) Only 1, 2

b) Only 1, 4

c) Only 1, 3

d) Only 2, 3

Solution (d)

Q.6) CCEA approves survey project of Un-appraised Areas of Sedimentary Basins. Consider the following statements regarding it:

1. Sedimentary basin is a low area in the Earth’s crust, of tectonic origin, in which sediments accumulate and are confined to small area of ocean basin.

2. The project will be implemented by Oil India Limited (OIL) and Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC).

3. India has total 26 sedimentary basins spread over on-land, shallow water and deep water.

4. More than 50 percent of total sedimentary basin area does not have adequate geoscientific data.

Which of the following options are true?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (c)

Q.7) Consider the following statements regarding Sinkhole/Swallow Hole:

1. Sinkholes are triangular shaped depressions having an average depth of three to nine metres.

2. These holes are developed by enlargement of the cracks found in such rocks, as a result of continuous solvent action of the river water.

3. The surface streams which sink disappear underground through swallow holes.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) Only 1, 2

b) Only 2, 3

c) Only 1, 3

d) Only 1

Solution (a)

Q.8) which lake has now made it to the Limca Book of Records for having India’s largest floating island?

a) Kolleru lake

b) Vembanad lake

c) Pangong lake

d) Hebbagodi Lake

Solution (d)

Q.9) Consider the following statements regarding island arc formation:

1. In Ocean – Ocean Convergence, a denser oceanic plate sub ducts below a less dense oceanic plate forming a trench along the boundary.

2. As the ocean floor crust (oceanic plate) loaded with sediments sub ducts into the softer asthenosphere, the rocks on the continental side in the subduction zone become metamorphosed under high pressure and temperature.

3. A continuous upward movement of magma creates constant volcanic eruptions at the ocean floor.

4. Such volcanic landforms all along the boundary form a chain of volcanic islands which are collectively called as Island Arcs

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) Only 1, 2, 3

b) Only 2, 3, 4

c) Only 1, 3, 4

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.10) what is the name of the India had launched to provide assistance to earthquake and tsunami victims in Indonesia recently?

a) Operation Samudra Shakti

b) Operation Samudra Maitri

c) Operation Samudra Ekta

d) None of the above

Q.10) Solution (b)

Explanation:

India had launched massive humanitarian operation Samudra Maitri to provide assistance to earthquake and tsunami victims in Indonesia.

Q.11) With respect to seismic waves consider the following statements:

1. P-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface.

2. A secondary wave cannot pass through liquids or gases.

3. They are low frequency, long wavelength, and transverse vibration.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Only 3

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.12) Consider following statements regarding continental drift theory:

1. Continental drift refers to the movement of the continents relative to the ocean floor.

2. Gravity of the earth, buoyancy of the seas and the tidal currents were given as the main factors causing the drift, by Wegener.

3. One criticism of this theory is Continental Drift Theory shifts India’s position too much to the south, distorting its relation with the Mediterranean Sea and the Alps.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1, 2

b) Only 2, 3

c) Only 1, 3

d) All of the above

Solution (b)

Q.13) Consider the following statements regarding fold mountains:

1. Fold mountains are formed when sedimentary rock strata in geosynclines are subjected to tangential forces.

2. They are the loftiest mountains and they are generally concentrated along continental margins

3. The Aravali Range in India is the oldest fold mountain systems in the India.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) Only 2

b) Only 2,3

c) Only 1

d) All of the above

Solution (c)

Q.14) Consider following statements regarding marine erosional landforms:

1. Sea Cliff is shoreline marked by a steep bank.

2. When waves from opposite directions strike a narrow wall of rock, differential erosion of the rock leaves a bridge like structure called Stack.

3. When a portion of the sea arch collapses, the remaining column-like structure is called a sea arch.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.15) Consider the following statements regarding arid landform:

1. In hill slope geomorphology, a gully is a narrow and shallow channel cut into soil by the erosive action of flowing water.

2. A rill is a landform created by running water. Rills resemble large ditches or small valleys, which are few metres to tens of metres in depth and width.

3. A ravine is a landform narrower than a canyon and is often the product of stream cutting erosion. Ravines are typically classified as larger in scale than gullies, although smaller than valleys.

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

a) Only 1, 2

b) Only 2, 3

c) Only 1, 3

d) None of the above

Solution (a)

Q.16) Consider the following statements:

1. Granite is a typical example of intrusive rock system.

2. Plutonic rocks are rocks formed by rapid cooling of the lava thrown out during volcanic eruptions.

3. The Deccan traps in the peninsular region are of basaltic origin.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1, 2

b) Only 2, 3

c) Only 1, 3

d) None of the above

Solution (c)

Q.17) Consider the following statement:

1. Peneplain refers to an undulating featureless plain punctuated with low-lying residual hills of resistant rocks. It is considered to be an end product of an erosional cycle.

2. The outer bend of the loop in a meander is characterized by intensive erosion and vertical cliffs and is called the slip off side. This side has a concave slope.

3. The inner side of the loop is characterized by deposition, a gentle convex slope, and is called the cliff slope side.

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

a) Only 1, 2

b) Only 2, 3

c) Only 1, 3

d) None

Solution (b)

Q.18) Consider the following statements regarding Doklam plateau:

1. Doklam is an area with a plateau and a valley, lying between Tibet’s Chumbi Valley to the north, Bhutan’s Ha Valley to the east and India’s Sikkim state to the west.

2. It has been depicted as part of Bhutan in the Bhutanese maps since 1961, but it is also claimed by China.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Q.19) Consider following regarding glacial depositional landforms:

1. The eskers resemble the features of an embankment and are often used for making roads

2. Kame Terraces Are broken ridges or un-assorted depositions looking like hump in a till plain

3. Drumlin are inverted boat-shaped deposition in a till plain caused by deposition.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) Only 1

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) None of the above

Solution (d)

Q.20) Consider following statements regarding batholiths:

1. Batholiths are large rock masses formed due to cooling down and solidification of hot magma inside the earth.

2. They appear on the surface only after the denudation processes remove the overlying materials.

3. Batholiths form the core of huge mountains and may be exposed on surface after erosion.

4. These are Basaltic in nature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 , 2, 3

b) 2, 3, 4

c) 1, 3, 4

d) All of the above

Solution (a)

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Q.1) Consider the following statements with regard to Regulating Act of 1773:

1. The first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British

Government was enacted through this Act.

2. This Act is of great constitutional importance as it was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (b)

Q.2) considers the features given below and chooses the correct answer:

1. This Act provided for the first time for the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the Viceroy and Governors.

2. This Act introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’.

3. This Act retained official majority in the Central Legislative Council but allowed the provincial legislative councils to have non-official majority.

The above important features are part of –

a) Indian Councils Act of 1861

b) Indian Councils Act of 1892

c) Indian Councils Act of 1909

d) Government of India Act of 1919

Solution (c)

Features of the Act of 1909 also known as Morley-Minto Reforms:

1. It considerably increased the size of the legislative councils, both Central and provincial.

2. It retained official majority in the Central Legislative Council but allowed the provincial legislative councils to have non-official majority.

3. It enlarged the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at both the levels. For example, members were allowed to ask supplementary questions, move resolutions on the budget, and so on.

4. It provided (for the first time) for the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the Viceroy and Governors.

5. It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’.

6. It also provided for the separate representation of presidency corporations, chambers of commerce, universities and zamindars.

Q.3) which among the following is/are the feature common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation?

1. Three lists in the Constitution

2. A federal supreme court to interpret the Constitution

3. Single citizenship

4. Appointment of state governors by the Centre

Choose correct option:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) 2 only

d) 2 and 3 only

Solution (c)

Q.4) Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble were the features borrowed from –

a) Weimar Constitution of Germany

b) French Constitution

c) Irish Constitution

d) US Constitution

Solution (b)

Q.5) the Preamble reveals which among the following ingredients or components –

1. Source of authority of the Constitution

2. Nature of Indian State

3. Objectives of the Constitution

4. Date of adoption of the Constitution

Choose correct option:

a) 2 and 3 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (d)

Q.6) Consider the below statements:

1. The Indian Constitution provides for direct democracy where the people exercise their supreme power.

2. The term ‘democratic’ is used in the Preamble in the broader sense embracing not only political democracy but also social and economic democracy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (b)

Q.7) in which of the following case, the Supreme Court laid down that the Constitution is federal and characterised federalism as its ‘basic feature’?

a) Bommai case (1994)

b) Minerva Mills case (1980)

c) Cooper case (1970)

d) Shankari Prasad (1951)

Solution (a)

Q.8) In addition to the making of the Constitution and enacting of ordinary laws, the

Constituent Assembly also performed which of the following functions?

1. Elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India

2. Adopted India’s National Anthem and National Song

3. Adopted the National Flag of India

4. Ratified India’s membership of the Commonwealth

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.9) Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the Division of powers?

a) Schedule Two

b) Schedule Four

c) Schedule Three

d) None

Solution (d)

Q.10) Consider the following statements:

1. Process for changing the name of a state or its district/villages can be initiated by state only.

2. Formation of new states, altering boundary and name is not considered as Constitutional Amendment under Art 368.

3. Parliament has power to change the name of a state or its districts and villages.

Which of the statements provided above is/are correct?

a) 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (a)

Q.11) the Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has

1. Republican system

2. Doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament

3. System of legal responsibility of the minister

4. System of judicial review

5. Both a real and a nominal executive

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 3 and 4

b) 4 and 5 only

c) 2, 4 and 5

d) 1 and 4 only

Solution (d)

Q.12) The Constitution of India confers which among the following rights and privileges on the citizens of India (and denies the same to aliens)?

1. Equality before law and equal protection of laws

2. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion

3. Freedom to manage religious affairs

4. Six basic freedoms subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19

5. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2 and 4

b) 4 and 5 only

c) 2, 4 and 5

d) 3 and 5 only

Solution (b)

Q.13) Consider the statements given below:

1. In India only a citizen by birth and not a naturalised citizen are eligible for the office of President.

2. The Constitution does not contain provisions dealing with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (b)

Q.14) Consider the following:

1. States not indestructible

2. Single Constitution

3. Flexibility of the Constitution

4. Three tier government

5. Integrated Election Machinery

Which of the terms given above are unitary features of the Indian Constitution?

a) 1, 2 and 4

b) 2, 3 and 5

c) 1, 2, 3 and 5

d) 1, 2 and 5

Solution (c)

Q.15) Arrange the below given States in correct chronological sequence based on their creation after the reorganisation of the states in 1956:

1. Haryana

2. Nagaland

3. Gujarat

4. Sikkim

Choose the correct code:

a) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3

b) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4

c) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3

d) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4

Solution (b)

Q.16) if any foreign territory becomes a part of India –

a) Government of India specifies the persons who among the people of the territory shall be the citizens of India.

b) Automatically all the people belonging to the territory become the citizens of India.

c) Parliament has to amend the Citizenship Act and make provision for providing citizenship to people of the territory.

d) People of the territory can acquire citizenship of India by Registration.

Solution (a)

Q.17) which among the following powers are granted to the Parliament by Article 2 of the Indian Constitution?

1. Power to admit into the Union of India new states

2. Power to increase the area of any state

3. Power to alter the boundaries of any state

4. Power to establish new states which were previously not part of India

Select the correct code:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (c)

Q.18) Consider the following statements:

1. Republic Day is celebrated to commemorate the adoption of constitution.

2. The Beating Retreat ceremony is held after officially denoting the end of Republic Day festivities i.e. evening of 26th January.

3. Beating Retreat ceremony is performed by the bands of the three wings of the military, the Indian Army, Indian Navy and Indian Air Force.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 2

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.19) Consider the following statements regarding the states of India:

1. States in India have no right to territorial integrity.

2. Indian Federation is “an indestructible Union of indestructible states”.

3. In order to change the name or boundary of a country ratification of the State Legislature is required.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) None

Solution (a)

Unlike in other federations, the states in India have no right to territorial integrity. The Parliament can by unilateral action change the area, boundaries or name of any state. Moreover, it requires only a simple majority and not a special majority. Hence, the Indian Federation is “an indestructible Union of destructible states”. The American Federation, on the other hand, is described as “an indestructible Union of indestructible states”.

Q.20) The Swaran Singh Committee considered the question of –

a) Integration of British provinces and the princely states

b) Reorganisation of states on the basis of linguistic factor

c) The suitability of the Presidential form of government for India

d) Reorganisation of states on the basis of administrative convenience

Solution (c)

The Swaran Singh Committee was appointed by the Congress government in 1975 which considered the question of the suitability of the Presidential form of government for India. The committee gave report in favor of presidential form of government owing to various advantages over presidential form of government. However, the committee also opined that there is no need to replace parliamentary system.

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Q.1     Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya sabha?   

(A)      The chairman, Rajya sabha                   (B)      The President

(C)       The joint – session of parliament        (D)      None

Answer (D)

Q.2     Rajya sabha enjoys more power than the Lok sabha in the casa of?           

(A)      Money Bills                                                            

(B)      Non Money Bills

(C)       Setting up of new all India service     

(D)      Amendment of the constitution

Answer (C)

 Q.3     The tenure of the Rajya sabha is?     

(A)      2 Years       (B)      5 Years

(C)       6 Years       (D)      Permanent

Answer (D)

Q.4     What is the term of a member of the Rajya sabha?        

(A)      3 years          (B)      4 years          (C)       5 years          (D)      6 years

Answer (D)

 Q.5     The vice-president is the ex-officio chairman of the?   

(A)      Rajya Sabha                       

 (B)      Lok Sabha

(C)       Planning Commission    

 (D)      National Development Council

Answer (A)

 Q.6     The Rajya sabha is dissolved after?   

(A)      Every Five years                                       

(B)      Every Six Years

(C)       On the advice of the Prime Minister

 (D)      None of these

Answer (D)

 Q.7     The upper house of Indian parliament is known as?       

(A)      The Rajya Sabha               

(B)      The Lok Sabha

(C)       The National Assembly  

(D)      The Indian parliament

Answer (A)

Q.8Who is the chairman of Rajya Sabha?           

(A)      The president                    

(B)      The Vice-President

(C)       The Prime minister         

(D)      The Speaker

Answer (B)

 Q.9 which is the house where the chair person is not the member of that house?

(A)      Rajya Sabha                       

 (B)      Lok Sabha

(C)       Legislative council           

(D)      Legislative assembly

Answer (A)

Q.10   How many members are nominated by the president in the Rajya Sabha?

(A)      2          (B)      10                  

(C)       12        (D)      15

Answer (C)

Q.11   Which one of the following is president over by one who is not its member?

(A)      Vidhan Sabha                     

(B)      Council of ministers

(C)       Lok Sabha                            

(D)      Rajya Sabha

Answer (D)

 Q.12   What could be the maximum time limit of ‘Zero Hour’?

(A)      30 Minutes            

(B)      1 Hour

(C)       2 Hours                    

(D)      Indefinite period

Answer (B)

Q.13   What is the fixed strength of Rajya Sabha?

(A)      210                 (B)      220                 (C)       230                 (D)      250

Answer (D)

Q.14   The First mid-term election for lok sabha was held in?

(A)      1962              (B)      1971              (C)       1977              (D)      1980

Answer (B)

 Q.15   The Speaker’s vote in the lok sabha is called?     

(A)      Casting vote                       

(B)      Sound vote

(C)       Direct vote             

(D)      Indirect vote

Answer (A)

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Q.1     What can be the maximum interval between two sessions of parliament?        

(A)      3 Months         (B)      4 Months

(C)       6 Months         (D)   9 Months

Answer (C)

Q.2 which of the following non-member of parliament has the right to address it?

(A)      Attorney General            

(B)      Solicitor General of India

(C)       Chief justice of India      

 (D)      Chief election Commissioner

Answer (A)

Q.3     Age of a candidate t contest parliamentary election should not be lesser than?

(A)      18 Years          (B)      21 Years

(C)       25 Years          (D)      26 Years

Answer (C)

Q.4     The most important feature of the Indian parliament is that?

(A)      It is the union legislature in India      

(B)      It also comprises of the president

(C)       It is bicameral in nature   

(D)   The upper house of the parliament is never dissolved

Answer (B)

 Q.5 Japan’s Parliament Known as?

(A)      Diet                (B)      Dial

(C)       Yuan              (D)      Shora

Answer (A)

 Q.6   Who sail, ‘Parliamentary system provides a daily as well as a periodic assessment of the government?

(A)      B.R. Ambedkar                  

(B)      B.N. Nehru

(C)       Jawahar Lal Nehru                       

(D)      Rajendra Prasad

Answer (A)

Q.7     How many members of the Anglo-indian community can be nominated by the president of India to the parliament?    

(A)      1                       (B)      2         

(C)       5                      (D)      8

Answer (B)

Q.8     Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the president of India?

(A)      Only Lok Sabha                                         

(B)      Only Rajya Sabha

(C)       Either house of the parliament                       

(D)      Any Legislative assembly

Answer (C)

Q.9     Which of the following has the powers to create a new all India service? 

(A)      Parliament             

(B)      Union public service commission

(C)       Union Cabinet       

(D)      Ministry of personnel, Public grievances and Pensions

Answer (A)

 Q.10   Sovereignty of Indian parliament is restricted by? 

(A)      Powers of the president of India        

(B)      Judicial review

(C)       Leader of the opposition                       

(D)      Powers of the prime minister of India

Answer (B)

Q.11   The committee of parliament on official language comprises the members?

(A)  20 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(B)  10 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

(C)   10 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(D)  20 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

Answer (A)

Q.12 which of the following is NOT a parliamentary committee?   

(A)      Committee on public accounts           

(B)      Committee on public undertakings

(C)      Committee on Estimates                      

(D)      Demands for grants committee

Answer (D)

Q.13     Which one of the following is the largest committee of the parliament?   

(A)      The Public accounts committee                      

(B)      The Estimates committee

(C)       The committee on public undertakings       

(D)      The committee on petitions

Answer (B)

 Q.14   In which of the following committees there is no representation of Rajya Sabha?

(A)    Public accounts committee                              

(B)    Committee on public undertakings

(C)   Committee on government assurance        

 (D)  Estimates Committee

Answer (D)

Q.15   Which of the following is NOT a tool of parliamentary control over public expenditures?           

(A) Public accounts committee                  

(B) Comptroller and Auditor general of India

(C) Estimates Committee                            

(D) Committee on public undertakings

Answer (B)

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Q.1     The comptroller and auditor general of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the? 

(A)      Union Government                     

(B)      State Government

(C)       Union and State Government

(D)      Neither Union nor State Government

Answer (C)

 Q.2     What is the period of appointment of the comptroller and auditor general of India?

(A)      6 Years                                                                                 

(B)      Upto 65 Years of age

(C)     6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier     

(D)    Upto 64 years of age

Answer (C)

 Q.3     Who is the highest civil servant of the union government?    

(A)      Attorney General            

(B)      Cabinet Secretary

(C)       Home Secretary               

(D)      Principle secretary to the P.M

Answer (B)

 Q.4     The Attorney general of India is appointed by?   

(A)      The president of India                 (B)      The Prime Minister

(C)       The Chief justice of India           (D)      The UPSC

Answer (A)

Q.5     In india’ The Comptroller –general of accounts presents a detailed analytical review of union government accents to the finance ministry every?     

(A)      Years                                    

(B)      Six Months

(C)       Three Months       

(D)      Month

Answer (A)

 Q.6     Who advises the government of India on legal matters?           

(A)      Attorney General                         (B)      Chief justice of Supreme Court

(C)       Chairman, law commission        (D)      none of these

Answer (A)

 Q.7     Comptroller and auditor – general of India is appointed by:     

(A)      President                                                                 

(B)      Speaker of the lok sabha

(C)       Chairman of the planning commission         

(D)      Finance minister

Answer (A)

 Q.8     The attorney General of India is a legal advisor to?    

(A)      The president of India                 (B)      The Prime Minister

(C)       Lok Sabha                                  (D)      Government of India

Answer (D)

 Q.9     Who is called the guardian of public purse?           (UP PCS Main 2008)

(A)      President                

(B)   Comptroller   and auditor- general

(C)       Parliament             

(D)      Council of Ministers

Answer (B)

 Q.10   Which non-member cab participates in the business of either house of parliament?

(A)      The Vice-President                       (B)      The Solicitor General

(C)       The Attorney General                 (D)      The Chief justice of India

Answer (C)

Q.11     Which of the following standing committees of parliament has no MP from Rajya Sabha?

 (A)     Public accounts committees                

(B)      Committee on public undertakings

(C)       Committee on government assurance         

(D)      Estimates committee

Answer (D)

 Q.12     The parliament committee which scrutinizes the report of the comptroller and auditor general of Indian is?       

(A)      Estimates committee                  (B)      Select Committee

(C)       Public Account Committee        (D)      None of these

Answer (C)

 Q.13     Who among the following forms the advisory committee of the parliament?

(A)      Speaker of Lok Sabha                   (B)      Vice-President of India

(C)       President of India                         (D)      None of these

Answer (A)

Q.14     The committee of parliament on official language comprises the members?

(A) 20 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(B)  10 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

(C) 10 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(D) 20 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

Answer (A)

 Q.15     Which of the following is NOT a parliamentary committee?   

(A)      Committee on public accounts           

(B)      Committee on public undertakings

(C)       Committee on Estimates                       

(D)      Demands for grants committee

Answer (D)

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Q.1     The president of India enjoys emergency powers of? (SSC Grad 2007)

(A)      Two Types      (B)      Three Types

(C)       Four Types     (D)      Five Types

Answer (B)

 Q.2     How many times the president of India can seek reelection to his post?

(A)      Once                

(B)      Two times

(C)       Three Times  

(D)      Any number of times

Answer (D)

 Q.3     Which of the following appointments not made by the president of India?

(A)      Speaker of the Lok Sabha         

(B)      Chief justice of India

(C)       Chief of air staff                            

(D)      Chief of Army

Answer (A)

Q.4     What is the maximum age limit prescribed for the post of the president of India?                   

(A)      58 Years                  

(B)      60 Years

(C)       62 Years                  

(D)      There is no maximum age limit

Answer (D)

Q.5     Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by?

(A)      Edward stone        

(B)      Le Corbusier

(C)       Edwin Lutyens        

(D)      Tarun Dutt

Answer (C)

 Q.6     A presidential ordinance can remain force?         

(A)      For Three Months            

(B)      For Six Months

(C)       For Nine Months              

(D)      Indefinitely

Answer (B)

 Q.7   To be eligible for election as president of Indian, a person must have completed the age of?    

(A)      25 years                   (B)      30 Years

(C)       35 Years                (D)      40 Years

Answer (C)

 Q.8     Who was the president of India at the time of proclamation of emergency in the year 1975?                  

(A)       V.V Giri                                

(B)      Giani Zail singh

(C)     Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad    

(D)    Shankar Dayal Sharma

Answer (C)

Q.9     Under Which Article of the constitution of India can the president of India be impeached?         

(A)      Article 61            (B)      Article 75

(C)       Article 76          (D)      Article 356

Answer (A)

 Q.10   Who holds the power to appoint the nominees from Anglo-Indian community in the lok sabha?        

(A)      Minorities commission              

(B)      President of India

(C)       Prime Minister                             

(D)      Vice-President

Answer (B)

Q.10   Who holds the power to appoint the nominees from Anglo-Indian community in the lok sabha?

(A)      Minorities commission              

(B)      President of India

(C)       Prime Minister                             

(D)      Vice-President

Answer (B)

Q.11   The first president of independent India hails from?                 

(A)      U.P                

(B)      Andhra Pradesh

(C)       Bihar             

(D)      Tamil Nadu

Answer (C)

Q.12   Acting chief justice of the supreme court in India is appointed by the? 

(A)      Chief justice of Supreme Court                       

(B)      Prime Minister

(C)       President                                                    

(D)      Law Minister

Answer (C)

Q.13   Comptroller and auditor general of India are appointed by?      

(A)      President                                                       

(B)      Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(C)       Chairman of the planning Commission    

(D)      Finance Minister

Answer (A)

 Q.14   The vacancy of the Office of the president of India must be filled up within?

(A)      90 Days        

(B)      6th Months

(C)       1 Years         

(D)   Within the period decided by the parliament

Answer (B)

Q.15   Who among the following is constitutionally empowered to declare a geographical area as a Scheduled area?      

(A)      Governor                

(B)      Chief Minister

(C)     Prime Minister      

(D)      President

Answer (D)

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Q.1     Separation of the judiciary from the executive has been provided in one of the following parts of the Indian constitution?

(A)      The preamble                                             

(B)       The fundamental right

(C)       The directive principle of state policy  

(D)      The Seventh Schedule     

Answer (C)

 Q.2     Under the directive principle of state policy, up to what age of children they are expected to be provided free and compulsory education?

(A)      14 Years        (B)       15 Years

(C)       16 Years        (D)      16 Years                                           

Answer (A)

Q.3     Which part of the Indian constitution deals with the directive principle of the state policy?

(A)      Part I              (B)       Part III

(C)       Part IV           (D)      Part V                                            

Answer (C)

Q.4     The articles of the constitution of India which deal with directive principle of state policy are:

(A)      26 to 41        (B)       30 to 45

(C)       36 to 51        (D)      40 to 55                               

Answer (C)

Q.5     ‘Equal pay for equal work’ has been ensured in the Indian constitution as one of the?

(A)      Fundamental right            

(B)       Directive principle of state policy

(C)       Fundamental duties         

(D)      Economic right                              

Answer (B)

 Q.6     The concept of ‘Welfare State’ is included in which part of the Indian constitution?

(A)      Preamble of the constitution                 

(B)       The fundamental right

(C)       The directive principle of state policy 

 (D)  The fundamental right     

Answer (C)

 Q.7     ‘The directive principle of state policy is a cheque which is paid on Bank’s convenience’ who told it?

(A)      B.R. Ambedkar                  

 (B)       K.M. Munshi

(C)       Rajendra Prasad               

 (D)      K. T. Seth                             

Answer (A)

 Q.8    The directive principle of state policy is:

(A)      Justiciable     

(B)       Non Justiciable

(C)       Only some of the provisions are justiciable

(D)      None of these                                                                                 

Answer (B)

Q.9     The purpose of the inclusion of directive principle of state policy in the Indian constitution is to establish?

(A)      Political democracy                       (B)       Social democracy

(C)       Gandhian democracy                   (D)      Social and economic democracy          

Answer (D)

 Q.10   Which one of the following article of the directive principles of state policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security?

(A)      41             (B)       43 A

(C)       48 A         (D)      51                                                                               

Answer (D)

Q.11   How many fundamental duties are in the Indian constitution?

(A)      9          (B)       11

(C)       12       (D)      20                                                                  

Answer (B)

 Q.12   By which amendment act the fundamental duties of citizen are included in Indian constitution?

(A)      42nd amendment               

(B)       44th amendment

(C)       56th amendment               

(D)      73rd amendment                        

Answer (A)

Q.13   In which of the following years the fundamental duties have been added to the existent fundamental right the constitution of India?

(A)      1965              (B)       1976

(C)       1979              (D)      1982                                                             

Answer (B)

 Q.14   The 42nd amendment act has incorporated into the constitution of India a new chapter on?                       

(A)      Administration of union territories

(B)       Formation of interstate councils

(C)       Fundamental duties

(D)      None of these

Answer (C)

 Q.15   By what term, the ten commandments of 42nd constitutional amendment act are called?           

(A)      Fundamental rights          

(B)      Fundamental duties

(C)      Panchayati Raj Principle

(D)     Directive principle of state policy

Answer (B)

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Q.1     How does the constitution of India describe India as?

(A)      A federation of states and Union Territories

(B) A Union of State

(C)       Bharatvarsh                       

 (D)     A federated Union                        

Answer (B)

Q.2     Which commission made the recommendations which formed the basis for the Punjab reorganization act which created the states Punjab and Haryana?

(A)      Dhar Commission  

(B)       Dass Commission

(C)       Shah Commission  

(D)      Mahajan Commission                                         

Answer (C)

 Q.3     Article 1 of the constitution of India declares India as—

(A)      Federal state           

(B)       Quasi-Federal state

(C)       Unitary state           

(D)      Union of state                                            

Answer (D)

 Q.4     The no. of union territories on India is?

(A)      5          (B)       6

(C)       7          (D)      9                                                                                  

Answer (C)

Q.5   Of the following the town does not come within the national capital region (NCR) is?

(A)      Panipat          (B)       Rohtak

(C)       Khurja           (D)      Mathura                                                       

Answer (D)

Q.6Which of the following state is a member of the ‘seven Sisters?

(A)      West Bengal (B)       Tripura

(C)       Orissa            (D)      Bihar                                                             

Answer (B)

Q.7     Sikkim was made an integral part of India under the?

(A)      36th Amendment   

(B)       39th Amendment

(C)       40th Amendment    

(D)      42nd Amendment             

Answer (A)

 Q.8     Among the following states, which one was formed last?

(A)      Andhra Pradesh     (B)       Gujarat

(C)       Karnnataka              (D)      Punjab                                               

Answer (C)

 Q.9Which one of the following is the first state to have been formed on linguistic basis?

(A)      Andhra Pradesh     (B)       Gujarat

(C)       Karnnataka              (D)      Punjab                                              

Answer (A)

 Q.10   What is the correct chronological order in which the following states of the indianunion were created or granted full statehood?

1. Andhra Pradesh      2.Maharashtra

3. Nagaland                 4. Haryana

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4                         (B) 2,1,3,4

(C) 4,3,2,1                            (D) 2,1,4,3

Answer (A)

Q.11   The power to curve out a new state is vested in?

(A)      The Parliament      

(B)       The President

(C)       The Council of Ministers  

(D)      State’s Reorganizations commission

Answer (A)

 Q.12   Andhra Pradesh was created as a linguistic state in?

(A)      1950              (B)       1953

(C)       1956              (D)      1961                                                             

Answer (B)

 Q.13   ‘Uttarakhand’ state came into existence on?

(A)      1, November 2000             

(B)      9, November 2000

(C)      10, November 2001         

(D)      1, January 2008                            

Answer (B)

 Q.14   Which of the following is not a union territory?

(A)      Goa                                       

(B)       Lakshadweep

(C)       Dadar and Nagar Haveli  

(D)      Chandigarh                                     

Answer (A)

 Q.15   In which year was the state of Jharkhand formed?

(A)      1998              (B)       1999

(C)       2000             (D)      2001                                                            

Answer (C)

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Q.1     From the following languages listed in the eighth schedule of the constitution pick out of the one which is official language of a state?

(A)      Kashmiri        (B)       Urdu

(C)       Sindhi           (D)      Nepali

Answer (B)

Q.2     The item ‘Education’ belongs to the—-?

(A)      Union List

(B)       State List

(C) Concurrent List

(D)      Residuary List

Answer (C)

Q.3     How many schedules the constitution of India contains?

(A)      9          (B)       10

(C)       11       (D)      12

Answer (D)

Q.4 which article of the Indian constitution provides for the institution of panchayati-Raj?

(A)      Article 36                  (B)   Article 39

(C)       Article 40                  (D)-Article 48

Answer (C)

Q.5     Article 1 of the constitution declares India as –?

(A)      Federal State

(B)       Quasi-Federal State

(C)       Unitary State

(D)      Union of State

Answer (D)

Q.6     How many Articles are there in the Indian constitution?

(A)      395                 (B)       396

(C)       398                 (D)      399

Answer (A)

Q.7     Which part of the Indian constitution deals with Fundamental Right?

(A)      Part I                 (B)       Part II

(C)       Part III              (D)      Part IV

Answer (C)

Q.8     How many languages have recognized by the Constitution?

(A)      15                   (B)       18

(C)       22                   (D)      24

Answer (C)

Q.9     Which one of the following Article of the Constitution of India has provision for the president to proclaim emergency?

(A)      Article 352    (B)       Article 355

(C)       Article 356    (D) Articles 360

Answer (A)

Q.10   The Method of constitutional amendment is provided in?

(A)      Article 348       (B)       Article 358

(C)       Article 368        (D) Articles 378

Answer (C)

Q.11 With what subject to the article 5 to 11 of the constitution of India deal ?

(A)      Indian Union and its territory                 (B)       Citizenship

(C)       Fundamental Duties                                  (D)      Union Executive

Answer (B)

Q.12   The tenth schedule of Indian constitution deals with?

(A)      Anti-Defection Legislation

(B)       Panchayati Raj

(C)       Land Reforms

(D)      Distribution of powers between Union and State

Answer (A)

Q.13   Procedure for creation of legislative council in state has been described in which article of the constitution?

(A)      Article 69

(B)       Article 169

(C)       Article 269

(D)      Article369

Answer (B)

Q.14   Which of the constitutional provision lays down that taxes can neither be levied nor collected without the authority of law?

(A)      Article 265

(B)       Article 266

(C)       Article 300

(D)       Article 368

Answer (A)

Q.15   Which provision relating to the fundamental rights is directly related to the exploitation of children?

(A)      Article 17

(B)       Article 19

(C)       Article 23

(D)       Article 24

Answer (D)

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Q.1- the Concept of judicial review in our constitution has been taken from the constitution of?

(A)        England            

(B)          USA

(C)       Canada

(D)        Australia                                                                             

Answer (B)

Q.2   The constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian federation from the constitution of:

(A)          USA             

(B)          Canada

(C)          U.K             

(D)          Ireland                                                                                                  

Answer (B)

Q.3   The federal system with strong center has been borrowed by the Indian constitution from?

(A)          USA              (B)          Canada

(C)          U.K              (D)          France                                                                                                  

Answer (B)

Q.4   The idea of including the Emergency provisions in the constitution of India has been borrowed from?

(A)   Constitution of Canada          

(B)    Weimar constitution of Germany

(C)  Constitution of Ireland 

(D) Constitution of USA                                                       

Answer (B)

Q.5 The Office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India is based on which one of the following—-?

(A)   Parliamentary commissioner of UK

(B)  Ombudsman in Scandinavia

(C)  Procurator general of Russia

(D)   Council of state in France                                                                                            

Answer (B)

Q.6   Which of the following was the biggest source for the constitution of India?

(A)    The Government of India act, 1919

(B)     The Government of India act, 1935

(C)    The Indian Independence act, 1947

(D)    None of Above                                                                                                

Answer (B)

Q7   Of the following words in the preamble of the constitution of India which was not inserted through the constitution (Forty Second)

(A)   Socialist               

(B)  Secular

(C) Dignity                 

(D) Integrity                                                                              

Answer (C)

Q.8   At the time of enactment of the constitution, which one of the following ideals was not included in the preamble?

(A) Liberty                  (B)          Equality

(C) Socialist                (D)          Justice                                                                                  

Answer (C)

Q.9     Which Amendment act introduced changes in the preamble to the Indian constitution?

(A)          The 38th Amendment act 1975

(B)          The 40th Amendment act 1976

(C)          The 42nd Amendment act 1976

(D) The 44th Amendment act 1979                                                                                   

Answer (C)

Q.10 The preamble of our constitution reads India as?

(A)  Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic

(B)  Sovereign, Democratic, socialist, secular republic

(C)  Socialist sovereign, democratic, secular, republic

(D)  Democratic, sovereign, secular, socialist republic                                                            

Answer (A)

Q. 10 the preamble of our constitution reads India as?

(A)  Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic

(B)   Sovereign, Democratic, socialist, secular republic

(C)  Socialist sovereign, democratic, secular, republic

(D)  Democratic, sovereign, secular, socialist republic                                                           

Answer (A)

Q.11   Which Amendment of the Indian constitution inserted the two words—Socialist and Secular in the preamble?

(A)          28th       

(B)          40th

(C)          42nd       

(D)          52nd                                                                                                       

Answer (C)

Q.12 in Which amendment the words socialist secular and unity and integrity of the nation were added to the preamble of constitution of India?

(A)          42nd      (B)   44th

(C)          52nd      (D)   none of them                                                                  

Answer (A)

Q.13   Consider the following Words?

1. Socialist                   2. Democratic

3. Sovereign                4. Secular

Choose the response that gives the correct in the preamble?

(A)          3, 1, 4, and 2                         

(B)          3, 4, 1, and 2

(C)          3, 4, 1, and 2                         

(D)          4, 1, 3, and 2                                                        

Answer (A)

Q.14       Which one of the following describes India a secular state?

(A)          Fundamental Rights        

(B)          Preamble to the Constitution

(C)          9th Schedule                      

(D)          Directive principles                                         

Answer (B)

Q.15   Which one of the following liberty is not embodied in the preamble to the constitution of India?

(A)          Liberty of Thought         

 (B)          Liberty of Expression

(C)          Liberty of belief               

(D)          Economic Liberty                                                             

Answer (D)

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Q.1     The presidential government operates on the principle of?

(A)      Division of powers between centre and state

(B)       Centralization of powers

(C)       Balance of powers

 (D)      Separation of powers

Answer (D)                                                            

Q.2     Which of the following countries have an unwritten constitution?

(A)      USA                (B)       UK

(C)       India               (D)      Pakistan

Answer (B)

Q.3     The unitary system of government possesses which of the following advantages?

(A)      Grater adaptability                                  (B)       Strong state

(C)       Greater participation by the people     (D)      Lesser chances of authoritarianism

Answer (D)

Q.4     Which of the following countries enjoys a federal form of government?

(A)      China              (B)       USA

(C)       Cuba              (D)      Belgium

Answer (B)

Q.5     The English crown is an example of?

(A)      Real executive                    

(B)       Quasi-real executive

(C)       Nominal executive            

(D)      Nominated executive

Answer (C)

Q.6      The declaration that democracy is a government ‘of the people, by the people, for the people ‘was made by?

(A)      Abraham Lincoln    

(B)       George Washington

(C)       Theodore Roosevelt

(D)     Winston Churchill

Answer (A)

Q.7     At which of its session, did the congress officially accept the ‘socialistic pattern of Society?

(A)      Bombay session of 1953               (B)       Avadi session of 1955

(C)       Calcutta session of 1957              (D)      Nagpur session of 1959

Answer (B)

Q.8     In Indian polity which one is Supreme?

(A)      The Supreme Courts        

(B)       The Constitution

(C)       The Parliament                  

(D)      Religion

Answer (B)

Q.9     In Indian polity, The Executive is subordinate to the –?

(A)      Judiciary                               

(B)       Legislature

(C)       Election commission         

(D)      U P S C

Answer (B)

Q.10   Which of the following official documents is related with India?

(A)      White Paper           

(B)       Green Paper

(C)       Yellow Book            

(D)      Blue Book

Answer (A)

Q.11   Which one of the following is a basic feature of the Presidential Government?

(A)      Rigid constitution                           (B)       Single Executive

(C)       Supremacy of the Legislature        (D)      Residual powers of the state

Answer (B)

Q.12   Where was the concept of written constitution, first born?

 (A)      France          (B)       USA

(C)       Britain         (D)      Switzerland

Answer (B)

Q.13   Where was the first parliamentary form of government formed?

(A)      Britain                       

(B)       Belgium

(C)       France                      

(D)      Switzerland

Answer (A)

Q.14   Who called Indian federalism as the co-operative federalism? (C PCS Pre 2008)

(A)    G. Austin           

(B)    K. C. Where

(C)   Sir Ivory Jennings   

 (D)  D.D. Basu

Answer (A)

Q.15   The constitution of India is?

(A)      Rigid              

(B)       Flexible

(C)       Very Rigid    

(D)      Partly Rigid, Partly Flexible

Answer (D)

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Q.1     who was the chairman of the Union Power committee of constituent assembly of India?

(A)      Sardar Vallabhai patel

(B)       Dr. B.R Ambedkar

(C)       Sir Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar

(D)      Pt. Jawahar lal Nehru

Answer (D)

Q.2     The constitution of India was adopted on?

(A)      26 January 1950

(B)       26 January 1949

(C)       26 November 1949

(D)      15 August 1947

Answer (C)

Q.3     who presided over the first meeting of the Indian constitution Assembly?

(A)      Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B)       Sachchidanand sinha

(C)       B.R. Ambedkar

(D)      H.V. Kamath

Answer (B)

Q.4 who among the following was the advisor to the drafting committee of constituent assembly?  (NDA 2009, UP PCS2014)

(A)      B. Shiva Rao

(B)       B.R. Ambedkar

(C)       Sachidananda sinha

(D)      B.N. Rau

Answer (D)

Q.5 The Constituent assembly of India started functioning from?

(A) 9th December 1946

(B) 1st January 1947

(C   26th January 1947

(D) 15th August 1947

Answer (A)

Q.6     Who among the following was not a member of the constituent assembly?

(A)      Sardar Vallabhbhai patel

(B)       Acharya J.B. Kriplani

(C)       Jai Prakash Narayan

(D)      K.M. Munshi

Answer (C)

Q.7     The constitution of India was completed on?

(A)      February 11, 1948

(B)       November 26, 1949

(C)       January 26, 1950

(D)      None of these

Answer (B)

Q.8 How many sessions of the Indian constituent assembly were conducted for the formulation of Indian constitution?

(A)      7                      (B)       11

(C)       12                   (D)      15

Answer (B)

Q.9     The first day session of Indian constitution assembly was chaired by:

(A)  Dr Rajendra Prasad

(B)   B.R. Ambedkar

(C)   Pt. Jawahar lal Nehru

(D)  Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha

Answer (D)

Q.10   How much time the constitution assembly took to frame the constitution of India?

(A)  2 years 7 Months 23 days               (B)   2 years 11 Months 18days

(C)  3 years 4 Months 14 days               (D) 3 years 11 Months 5 days

Answer (B)

Q.11   The Constitution assembly set up a drafting committee under the chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on?

(A)      13th December 1946

(B)       22nd January 1947

(C)       3rd June, 1947

(D)      29th August 1947

Answer (D)

Q.12   The number of members included in the constitution drafting committee was?

(A)      Seven             (B)       Nine

(C)       Eleven            (D)      Thirteen

Answer (A)

Q.13   The first session of the constitutional assembly was held on:

(A)      26 November 1946

(B)       9 December 1946

(C)       16 August 1947

(D)      26 January 1948

Answer (B)

Q.14   Who proposed the preamble before the drafting committee of the constitution?

(A)      Jawahar lal Nehru                  (B)       B.R. Ambedkar

(C)       B. N. Rau                               (D)      Mahatma Gandhi

Answer (A)

Q.15   Who was the president of the constituent assembly of independent India?

(A)      Dr. B.R. Ambedkar                         (B)       Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(C)       C. Rajagopalachari                         (D)      K.M. Munshi

Answer (B)

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Q 1.Which of the following exercised the most profound influence in farming the Indian constitution?                                                                                           

(A)British constitution

(B)US constitution

(C)Irish constitution

(D)The Government of India Act, 1935                                             

Answer (A)

Q 2.The First attempt to introduce a representative and popular element in the governance of India was made through:

(A) Indian Council Act, 1861

(B) Indian council Act 1892

(C)Indian council Act, 1909

(D) Government of India Act, 1919                                                    

Answer (D)

Q 3 Which of the following acts introduced communal electorate in India?

(A) Indian Council Act, 1861

(B) Indian Council Act, 1892

(C) Indian Council Act, 1909

(D) Government of India Act, 1919                                                                

Answer (C)

Q 4.By virtue of which Act, dyarchy was introduced in India?

(A)      Indian council Act 1909

(B)      Government of India Act 1919

(C)       Government of India Act 1935

(D)      Indian independence Act 1947                                                                      

Answer (B)

Q.5The instrument of instructions contained in the Government of India in the Act 1935 has been incorporated in the constitution of India in the year 1950 as?

(A)      Fundamental right

(B)    Directive principles of the state policy

(C)   Fundamental Duties

(D)   Emergency Provisions                                                                

Answer (D)

 Q.6     The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on?       

(A)      The principle of federation and parliamentary system

(B)      The principle of succession of the British Indian provinces

(C)       Acceptance of the idea of a constituent Assembly to draft a constitution

Answer (A)

Q.7 the monopoly of Indian trade of the east India company was abolished by the?                                                                                                                                      

(A)      Regulating Act, 1773

(B)      Charter Act, 1813

(C)       Charter Act, 1833

(D)      Government of India Act, 1858

Answer (B)

Q.8Which reference to the colonial period on India, The trade monopoly of the East India Company was ended by?                                                           

(A)      The Regulating Act, of 1773

(B)      Pitt’s India Act, of 1784

(C)       The Charter Act, 1813

(D)      The Charter Act, 1833

Answer (C)

Q.9 Two independent states of India and Pakistan were created by:

(A)      The Simla Conference

(B)      The Cripps Proposal

(C)       The Cabinet Mission plan

(D)      The Indian Independence Act.                                               

Answer (D)

Q.10 The first definite step to provided parliamentary control over East India Company was taken by:                                                                  

(A)      The Regulating Act, 1773

(B)      The Pitt’s India Act, 1784

(C)       The Charter Act, 1793

(D)      The charter Act, 1813

Answer (A)

Q.11 The Montague- Chelmsford Report formed the basis of:        

(A)      The Indian council act, 1909

(B)      The government of India Act 1919

(C)       The government of India act, 1935

(D)      The Indian independence act, 1947

Answer (B)

Q.12 through which one of the following was commercial activities of the East India Company finally put to an end?                                                      

(A)      The charter act, 1793

(B)      The charter act, 1813

(C)       The charter act, 1833

(D)      The charter act, 1853

Answer (C)

Q.13 which of the following vasted the secretary of state for India with supreme control over the government of India?                                             

(A)      Pitt’s India act, 1784

(B)      Government of India act, 1858

(C)       Indian council act, 1861

(D)      Morley- Minto Reforms 1909

Answer (B)

Q.14   Diarchy was first introduced under?                                    

(A)      Morley-Minto Reforms

(B)      Mont-Ford Reforms

(C)       Simon Commission Plan

(D)      Government of India Act, 1935

Answer (B)

Q.15   which of the following was/were the main feature’s of the government of India act, 1919?                                                                                                            

1.         Introduction of separate electorates for Muslims

2.         Devolution of legislative authority by the centre

3.         Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A)      2 only

(B)      1 and 3 only

(C)       3 only

(D)      2 and 3 any

Answer (D)

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1.     With regard to the Western Himalayas and the Eastern Himalayas, consider the following

  1. The ranges of the Eastern Himalayas are more continuous compared to Western Himalayas
    1. The Western Himalayas receive most of the precipitation in the winter months and the Eastern Himalayas in the summer months
    1. Eastern Himalayas are much greener and dense compared to Western Himalayas

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Solution: 2

2. Consider the following statements

  1. The peninsular plateau is composed mainly of igneous and metamorphic rocks
  • The Garo, Khasi and Jaintia Hills form a part of peninsular block.
  • The peninsular plateau is the oldest and most stable landmass in India, devoid of earthquakes or volcanic activity.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. All of the above Solution: 1

New Moore Island was recently in news because

  1. of the maritime dispute between India and Sri Lanka on Katchatheevu islands
  • of the maritime dispute between India and Bangladesh
  • of the alarming decline in the population of dolphins and whales there
  • of the alarming decline in the area of mangroves and coral reefs there Solution: 2

4. Peninsular rivers in India are not flooded as much as the Himalayan Rivers. The reasons can be?

  1. India’s peninsular rivers have relatively steep gradients.
  • There is little variation in flow from the dry to wet seasons.
  • Most rivers do not form deltas.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1 only Solution: 4

5.   The Himalayan Mountains are tectonic in origin, dissected by fast-flowing rivers which are in their youthful stage. Which of the following features made by rivers can be seen there?

  1. Gorges
  2. V-shaped valleys
  3. Rapids
  4. Waterfalls

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1, 2 and 4 only
  • 1, 2 and 3 only
  • 3 and 4 only
  • All of the above Solution: 4

6. The Kashmir Himalayas are famous for Karewa formations, which are useful for the cultivation of

  1. Zafran, a local variety of saffron
  2. buckwheat, a local nutritional coarse grain
  3. turnips, a local health supplement
  4. All of the above Solution: 1

7. The British introduced tea plantations in the Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas looking at some of the favourable conditions which were

  1. Steep slopes
  2. thick soil cover with low organic content
  3. well distributed rainfall
  4. mild winters

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1, 2 and 4 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 and 4 only
  4. All of the above Solution: 3

8. The Tarai region of the Northern plains supports luxurious growth of natural vegetation and varied wild life population. This is because

  1. Re-emerging rivers from Bhabhar flow in undemarcated channels here creating marshy and swampy conditions
  2. all fertile coarse load is deposited at Tarai region after rivers re-emerge from Bhabar region
  3. the Tarai region is crossed by large Himalayan rivers which regularly deposit silt and clay here
  4. Both 1 and 3 Solution: 4

9. Consider the following statements about the Western and Eastern Ghats.

  1. Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation than Eastern Ghats.
  • Western Ghats are more continuous than the Eastern Ghats as the latter is eroded by several east flowing rivers.
  • The Eastern and the Western Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 1 and 3 only
  • All of the above Solution: 4

10. Consider the following statements with regard to Western coastal plain

  1. The western coastal plains provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours
  2. The rivers flowing through western coastal plains do not form any deltas

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. None of the above Solution: 3

11.  Consider the following rivers

  1. Krishna
  2. Kaveri
  3. Godavari
  4. Penganga

The correct sequence of these rivers when arranged from south to north is

1. 2, 1,3 and 4

2. 1,2,3 and 4

3.   1, 3, 4 and 2

4.   3, 2, 1 and 4

Solution: 1

12.  Assertion (A): The frequency of floods in North Indian plains has increased in recent times.

Reason (R): There has been reduction in the depth of river valleys due to deposition of silt.

  1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true
Solution: 1

13.  Given are the Indian Rivers and corresponding National Parks

  1. Lohit                                                                Orang National Park
  2. Chambal                                                          Rajaji National Park
  3. Narmada                                                         Kanha National Park

Select the correct match

  1. Only 2
  2. 1 and 3
  3. Only 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: 3

Explanation: Rajaji National Park spread across Dehradun, Haridwar and Pauri districts of Uttarakhand.

Kanha National Park located in the upper reaches of Narmada and The Orang National Park, located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River in the Darrang and Sonitpur districts of Assam.

14.  Which of the following Rivers does not pass through Tropic of Cancer?

  1. Sabarmati
  2. Mahi
  3. Damodar
  4. Luni

Solution: 4

The River Luni: In Rajasthan

  1. Amongst the following the river that passes through most number of countries?
  1. Zambezi
  2. River Severn
  3. Danube
  4. Mississippi

Solution- 3

  1. Imagine you are travelling from New Delhi towards North. If you go vertically upwards towards Jammu and Kashmir, select the correct sequence in which you will cross these rivers
    1. Ravi-Beas-Ravi-Satluj-Jhelum
    1. Satluj-Beas-Ravi-Chenab-Indus
    1. Satluj-Beas-Ravi-Chenab-Jhelum
    1. Ravi-Beas-Ravi-Satluj-Indus

Solution- 2

Explanation: If one travels vertically upward, he/she will not cross Jhelum as it flows North- West of J&K. Other rivers will come in the sequence as mentioned in option 2.

18.    Suppose you are travelling along the Eastern Ghat on Eastern Coast of India from Northern to Southern region, the sequence in which you will cross these rivers

  1. Krishna-Godavari-Mahanadi-Kaveri
    1. Mahanadi-Krishna -Godavari-Kaveri
    1. Krishna-Godavari-Mahanadi-Kaveri
    1. Mahanadi-Godavari-Krishna-Kaveri

Solution: 4

Explanation: Check the Map of India

  1. Consider the statements w.r.t Ganges Drainage System and Peninsular Drainage System
    1. Peninsular rivers bear the exception of flowing through Rift valleys, like Narmada, while Ganges Rivers have no such feature.
    1. All Peninsular rivers are characterized by fixed course, absence of meanders and non-perennial flow of water while Ganges rivers are perennial, having meanders and have non-fixed courses.

Select the correct statement/s

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both
  4. None

Solution: 4

Explanation: Damodar River, a river Ganges River System occupies the eastern margins of the Chotanagpur Plateau where it flows through a rift valley. So, first statement is wrong.

Peninsular rivers are characterized by fixed course, absence of meanders and non-perennial flow of water. The Narmada and Tapi which flow through the rift valley are, however, exceptions. Hence none of the statements are correct.

20.  Consider the following Dams

  1. Barna Dam                                          Chambal River
  2. Pawna Dam                                         Maval River
  3. Maithoon Dam                                    Barakar River
  4. Gandhi Sagar Dam                              Chambal River

Select the correct options

1. 1, 2 and 3

2. 3 and 4

3. 1, 2, 3 and 4

4. 1, 3 and 4

Solution: 2

Explanation:

Barna Dam: Barna River in MP

Pawna Dam: Maval River in Maharashtra Maithoon Dam: Barakar River in Jharkhand

Gandhi Sagar Dam: Chambal River in MP

21.    Snow line is a line above which no vegetation grows on high altitude mountains because of permanent snow cover. This snow line is higher for Eastern Himalayas compared to that of Western Himalayas. What are the reasons?

Consider the following statements

  1. Eastern Himalayas are near to the Equator.
    1. Western Himalayas are more continental in their location thus has lesser maritime influence.
    1. Southwest monsoon winds have the moderating effect on the Western Himalayas.

Choose the correct code

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Solution- 1

Snowline is a function of altitude and latitude. Higher is the latitude and altitude lower is the snowline. Eastern Himalaya’s altitude as well as latitudinal location is lower compared to Western Himalayas. Due to higher altitude as well as latitude the temperature is much less in the Western Himalaya and as a consequence the snowline in the Western Himalaya is at a lower altitude than in the Eastern Himalaya. Southwest monsoon winds bring more rainfall to Eastern Himalayas than compared to Western Himalayas. Thus monsoon winds can have moderating effect on Eastern Himalayas and in turn increasing the altitude of snowline.  Thus 3rd statement is wrong.

  • Heat waves were in news recently which killed more than 2,500 people in the year 2015 till June.

Consider the following statements regarding heat waves

  1. Heat wave’s adverse impact occurred mainly in Northern and Eastern region of India.
  2. Severe heat waves come under National Calamity just like cold waves.
  3. IMD recommended to declare a region as severe heat waves affected region if temperature reached beyond 45 degree Celsius.
  4. It is a natural calamity found in tropical regions and not in temperate regions.

Choose the correct statement/s from the code

1.   1,  3  only 2. 2, 3, 4 only 3. 1, 2, 3 only

4. All the above

Answer: 1

  • During monsoon season the ITCZ (inter tropical convergence zone) shifts almost upto 25 degree North latitude over the Indian subcontinent while it rarely crosses 15 degree North latitude in other regions. This is because
  1. Vast landmass of Eurasia located to the North of the Equator.
    1. Intense low pressure over the Northwestern region of Indian subcontinent and over the vast, high altitude Tibetan plateau pulls ITCZ Northwards.
    1. Shifting of Westerly jet streams to the North of Tibetan plateau at the end of the month of May.

Choose the correct code from the following

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All of the above.

Answer: 4

  • The frequency of the cyclones is lower in Arabian sea when compared to Bay of Bengal. This is because
    • Arabian Sea surface temperature is higher compared to that of Bay of Bengal.
    • Bay of Bengal receives the remnants of the typhoons originated in Northwestern Pacific ocean.
    • Arabian Sea receives the remnants of cyclones from Bay of Bengal.

Choose the correct code from the following

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 3

  • Consider the following statements regarding tropical cyclone which is one of the important determining factors for the success of Indian monsoons.
    • These are termed as the heat engines, which derive their energy from the condensation of water vapor into water droplets/drops.
    • More than 50% of the energy derived is utilized to sustain the wind movement around the central eye.
    • A mature cyclone releases energy equivalent to that of 100 hydrogen bombs.

Which of the following statements are NOT TRUE?

  1. 1, 2only.
  2. 1, 3only.
  3. 2 only.
  4. None of the above. Answer: 3

The energy is derived from the condensation of water vapor into water droplets and of this only meager 3% is utilized for sustaining the wind movements.

  • Coal bed methane is released during coal mining and is generally recommended to extract it rather than letting it evaporate into the atmosphere when untapped because
    • CBM if is not extracted can cause fire hazards while mining deep areas.
    • CBM if allowed to escape into atmosphere will get converted into carbon monoxide which is a potent green house gas.

Which of the statements is/are the correct reason/s?

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Neither 1 nor 2.
  4. Both 1 and 2. Answer: 2
  • Consider the following statements regarding the production and reserves of copper in India.
  1. Rajasthan has the largest reserves of copper and is also the highest producer of copper in India.
    1. India is self sufficient in copper production and also at times it has also exportedcopper to countries like Japan, South Korea etc.
    1. Production of copper is a tedious job especially in India as the copper ore found in India as it is of the lower grade compared to International grade of the ore.

Which are the correct statements?

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. 3 only. Answer: 4 Explanation:
  • Consider the following statements regarding biogas which is a very important source of energy in rural areas.
    • Biogas has a higher thermal efficiency compared to charcoal, cow dung, kerosene.
    • Not only biogas serves as a source of energy in the form of fuel but also can be used as source of manure for farm crops.
    • It is slightly less environment friendly as it releases green house gases when burnt as a fuel.

Choose the incorrect code from the following

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 3 only.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1

  1. It as a valuable metal of which the major ore is Wolfram.
  2. It is self hardening which it imparts to the steel when alloyed with the steel.
  3. Steel when alloyed with this metal, is used in manufacturing of ammunitions, armour plates, heavy guns etc.
  4. Its alloys are heat resistant, corrosion resistant and hard facing.

Choose the correct metal from the options

  1. Tungsten
  2. Chromium
  3. Copper
  4. Titanium Answer: 1
  5. Consider the following statements regarding the atomic minerals.
  1. Uranium occurs both in the earth’s crust as well as sea water.
    1. India has one of the richest reserves of thorium in the world.
    1. US have the highest reserves of uranium in the world.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 2 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. All the above. Answer: 2

Australia has the highest reserves of uranium and not the US.

31.  Khadar soils are preferred over Bhangar soils for crop cultivation because

  1. Khadar soils are composed of fine particles than that of Bhangar soil.
    1. Bhangar soils lack in Kankar nodules.

Choose the correct reason from the codes below.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None of theabove.
  5. Answer: 1

32.    Why black soils are treated with cement or hydrated lime during Roadways and railways construction? Consider the reasons

  1. To overcome problems of volume changes due to alternate expansion and shrinkage of soils.
  2. To prevent soil erosion during wet season.
  3. To improve bearing capacity of the soil.

Choose the correct reason from the codes below.

  1. 1, 2 only.
    1. 2, 3 only.
    1. 1, 3 only.
    1. All the above.

Answer: 4

33.  Although laterite soils are formed in regions with high rainfall and high temperature, it requires good dosage of manures. What are the reasons?

  1. Intense leaching because of high rainfall.
  2. Lack or less availability of humus.

Choose the correct code from the following

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3

Intense leaching is caused by heavy rainfall which leaches silica and makes soil a bit acidic. High rainfall also inhibits humus formation with decreased bacterial activity.

34.   Left hand side is the region and right hand side is the major reason in that region for soil degradation.

  1. Odisha, Jharkhand — deforestation and mining.
  2. Rajasthan, Maharashtra — over irrigation.
  3. Punjab, Haryana — over-grazing.

Which are correctly matched?

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 2 only.
  3. All the above.
  4. None of the above.
  5. Answer: 1

Overgrazing is mainly the reason in the western India ie Rajasthan, Maharastra while over irrigation is the major reason in the North Western India ie Punjab, Haryana.

35.   Black soils are known for its fertility with little or no evidence of exhaustion. This is because

  1. Black soils with equal proportion of clay, gravel and coarse sand has high moisture retention capacity.
  2. Cracks developed during dry season allow oxygenation of the soils.
  3. Black soil has low level of Kankar thus supports wide variety of crops.

Choose the incorrect reason from the codes below

  1. 2 Only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 1

36.  Consider the statements regarding red and yellow soils.

  1. Soil looks yellowish when iron diffused in the soil gets hydrated.
  2. Red and yellow soils are mainly found in the deltaic regions especially in the Eastern Indian coast.
  3. Less fertile coarser soils are found in the uplands while fertile fine soils occur in the low lying regions.

Which are the correct statements?

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 2 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. 2, 3 only. Answer: 3

37.  Consider the following statements regarding a particular soil

  1. Found in the summits of Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats, Vindhyas, Satpuras and Malwa plateau.
    1. Subjected to intense leaching and thus not fit for agriculture unless manures and fertilizers are used.
    1. It is the end product of weathering process and thus it is indefinitely durable.

Which is the soil that is spoken about in the above statements?

  1. Forest soil.
  2. Mountain Soil.
  3. Laterite soil.
  4. Red soil.

Answer: 3

Although first two statements ie 1 and 2 do comply with mountain soil and forest soil, the third statement is unique for laterite soil.

38.   Consider the statements regarding salinization which is a one of the major problem, reducing Indian agricultural productivity.

  1. In drier regions, capillary action can lead to salt accumulation on the surface of the land which is brought from the deep saline ground water tables.
    1. Irrigation can result in salinization of soils.
    1. It can occur both naturally as well as artificially.

Choose the correct statements from the codes given below.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2, 3only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4

  1. In humid regions, there is enough precipitation to leach (wash) the salts below the plant root zone.
  2. In drier regions, higher temperature leads to higher evaporation of water resulting into leaving behind of salt on the surface of the soil.
  3. Soil salinization occurring due to irrigation can equally impact both humid areas as well as drier areas.

Choose the correct statement from the code given below

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 1 only.
  3. 2 only.
  4. 3 only. Answer: 1

40.    Laterite soils and Forest soils are acidic in nature. What is the reason for this?

  1. High rainfalls leach away the cations into sub soil region.
  2. Trees and plants absorb the cations necessary for their development.
  3. Cations are washed away along with running water and drained into sea/ocean.
  4. None of the above reasons are correct.

Answer: 1

41.  The best way to improve crop production in India is to increase the crop intensity ie by increasing gross sown area.

Which is not the hindering factor involved in improving the crop intensity?

  1. Infertile soil.
  2. Deficiency in moisture, especially in rain fed region.
  3. Insufficient usage of manures and fertilizers.
  4. Large tracts of black soil.

Answer: 4

42.     In India El Nino can have comparatively lesser impact on Sugarcane and Urad Production

What are the reasons?

  1. Sugarcane is largely grown under irrigated areas.
  2. Urad is mainly grown in regions where rainfall variability is very low.
  3. Urad is drought resistant crop.
  4. Sugarcane although a kharif crop requires very less water.

Choose the right pair of reasons from the codes below

1)   1, 2

2)   1, 3

3)   2, 4

4)   3, 4

Answer: 2

43.   Ragi, millet is currently encouraged to include in the diet to supplement nutrients to counter the malnutrition that is haunting the country.

Consider the following statements Ragi.                

  1. Ragi is rich in iron, calcium, rough phage and is mainly grown in dry regions.
  2. Among minor producers Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand are included.
  3. It is grown as a major crop in Bengaluru-Mysuru table land from where the country’s Majority of Ragi production comes from.

Choose the correct statements from the code below.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above. Answer: 4

44.    Tea best grows in Assam, Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts of West Bengal. What is/are the uniqueness of this region which suits this crop?

  1. It has warm and humid climate.
  2. Showers are mainly concentrated in 4-5 months ie June to October in any year.
  3. Deep, fertile and well drained soil.
  4. Rugged topography of the relief near the Himalayan foot hills.

Choose the correct code.

1)   1, 2, 3 only

2)  1, 3 only

3)   1, 3, 4 only.

4) All the above. Answer: 2

45.  Indian agriculture is termed to be an Intensive Subsistence Farming type. What are the characteristic that has made Indian agriculture to be categorized into that type?

  1. Very high population density.
  2. Labour intensive farming.
  3. Lower yield of production in terms of per capita labour force.
  4. Very small and fragmented land holdings.
  5. Usage of farm machinery.

Choose the correct code from the following.

1) 1,   2, 3 only

2) 1,   2, 3, 4 only

3) 2, 3, 4 only

4) All the above

Answer: 2

46.   Kerala has outpaced every other state in the country in terms of Rubber production. The reasons being

  1. It has hot and humid climate with precipitation more than 200cms annually.
  2. Very small dry spell during summers for 2-3 months.
  3. Well drained red soil with gentle slope and no stagnation of water.

Choose the correct reason/s from the code below.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 2 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 2

Kerala largely has laterite soil and not red soil.

47.   Sugarcane grown in subtropical region has lower productivity than that is grown in tropical regions.

Consider the following statements about subtropical region ie Northern India which has low productivity in sugarcane production.

  1. Frost formations.
  2. Floods and water logging.
  3. High diurnal temperature.
  4. Low humidity.

Choose the correct reason/s from the codes below.

  1. 1, 2 only
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 3, 4 only. 4) 1, 2, 3 only.

Answer: 1

First two statements are self explanatory.

A higher diurnal temperature and low humidity are required for a better productivity. Thus these two factors are not reducing the productivity.

48.    The productivity in the Indian agriculture has stagnated since 1990’s although the usage of fertilizers has considerably increased since then. What is/are the possible reason/s?

  1. Unscientific usage of fertilizers.
  2. Agriculture productivity in India has reached a zenith position and any further increase in the productivity cannot come through increase in the usage of fertilizers.
  3. Increasing monsoon vagaries because of Climate Change.
  4. Both 1 and 3.

Answer: 4

49.  What are the factors that have favoured the Wheat production in North West India?

  1. Western disturbances.
  2. Fertile alluvial soil brought down mainly by Indus and Ganga river system.
  3. Semi arid region.

Choose the correct code from the following.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 1

North West India does have semi arid region but that itself is not a favourable characteristic,

it’s the Western disturbance that favours Wheat production.

50.   Although green revolution brought a great success for our country during later 1960’s it also brought in few negatives. What are those negatives?

  1. Inter crop disparity.
  2. Inter personal inequalities.
  3. Environmental pollution.
  4. Regional economic disparity.
  5. Unemployment.
  6. Self sufficiency in all types of agricultural crop production.

Choose the correct code from the following.

1) 1, 2, 3 only

2) 1, 3, 4, 5 only

3)   1, 2, 3, 4, 5 only

4)   1, 2, 3, 4, 6 only

Answer: 3

51.  Consider the statements regarding a particular valley which was in the news recently.

  1. It is a part of Gangotri National Park.
  2. It is a cold desert and looks like a replica of Tibetan plateau.
  3. It is home for Snow Leopard.

Which is that valley?

  1. Nellong valley.
  2. Kashmir valley.
  3. Alaknanda valley.
  4. Bhagirathi valley.

Answer: 1

52.  Central Zoo Authority, a body set up in 1992 for the oversight of zoos. Consider the following statements regarding CZA.

  1. It is set up under the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972.
  2. It is an affiliated member of World Association of Zoos and Aquarium.
  3. It doesn’t have the power to regulate the trade of endangered species.

Choose the correct statements from the following code.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 1

It does have the power to regulate the trade of endangered species. Apart from that it also has the power to regulate and approve the exchange of animals between Indian and foreign zoos.

53.    The trees found in Western side of Western Ghats and in the Northeast region

Generally don’t shed their leaves i.e they are evergreen. What are the possible reasons?

  1. These regions do not have prolonged dry season.
  2. These regions don’t have severe winters.
  3. These regions have the humidity level beyond 75% almost throughout the year.

Choose the correct reason/s from the codes below.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. 1, 2 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4

Prolonged dry season and severe winters do result in shedding of leaves by trees.

Tropical deciduous trees shed their leaves during dry season because of excess evaporation and temperate deciduous trees shed their leaves during severe winters.

54.   In Tamil Nadu region, evergreen forests are found despite hot and dry summers with temperature of about 28 degree Celsius.

What is/are the reason/s?

  1. Annual rainfall of about 100cms mostly from the North East monsoon winds during October to December.
  2. A humidity of more than 75% throughout the year.
  3. Red and yellow soil found in Tamil Nadu region can retain moisture well.
  4. Both 1 and 2. Answer: 4

Humidity is the main reason for trees not shedding their leaves during prolonged dry seasons. Red and Yellow soils are not good at retaining moisture unlike Black soil which is very good at retaining moisture.

55.   Himalayan yew is a plant found in Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh was in news recently.

Consider the following statements regarding the plant.

  1. It is a medicinal plant.
  2. A chemical compound called ‘Taxol ‘obtained from the plant is used as an effective

Anti-TB drug

Choose the incorrect statements from code below.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both are true.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2

56.    Enrich plantation is something in which a single commercially valuable species is extensively planted in a region and other local species are eliminated.

Consider the statements regarding Enrich plantation.

  1. Teak monoculture has damaged the natural forest majorly in Northeast India which was earlier introduced by British.
  2. Chir, Pine plantations in the Himalayas have replaced the Himalayan Oak and Rhododendron forests.

Choose the correct statements from the code below.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2

57.  Few forests in India are protected under the name of Sacred Grooves. Consider the following statements regarding Sacred Grooves.

  1. It is a nature worship which is an age old belief based on the premise that all the creations of the mother Nature have to be protected.
  2. It is recognized under Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following code.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None of the above. Answer: 3

58.  Migration is an unavoidable worldwide phenomenon.

Which among the following is/are the not the push factors for rural to urban migration especially in India.

  1. Unemployment.
  2. Health and education facilities.
  3. Monsoon vagaries.
  4. Caste disabilities.

Answer: 2

59.   Developing countries like India has an adverse sex ratio of less than 1000 while in developed countries it is more than 1000. [Sex ratio: It is the number of females in a country for every 1000 males]

What is/are the possible reason/s with reference to India?

  1. Social disadvantages that female face like female foeticide, female infanticide, domestic violence etc.
  • Stopping at one child ie couples restrain themselves from going for second child provided the first child born is male.

Choose the correct code from the following.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3

60.   Which is/are the country/s in the world to use Gross National Happiness to measure the progress of the country?

Consider the countries.

  1. India.
  2. Bangladesh.
  3. Sweden.
  4. Bhutan.

Choose the country/s from the code below.

  1. 1, 4 only.
  2. 2, 4 only.
  3. 3 only.
  4. 4 only. Answer: 4

61.  Consider the statements regarding our Solar System.

  1. Pluto is the largest dwarf planet revolving around the Sun.
  2. Every planet except Venus rotates from West to East just like Earth on its own axis.
  3. It is nuclear fusion which takes place within the Sun which releases huge heat energy.

Choose the correct statements from the following code.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. 3 only.

Answer: 4

62.   Earth although has an average density of 5.5 g/cm^3, its core has a density of more than 11 g/cm^3.

What are the possible reasons?

  1. Core is formed of materials like iron, nickel etc which has higher density.
  2. Incumbent pressure from the overlaying rocks.
  3. High temperature prevalent in the core region [more than 5000 degree Celsius].

Choose the correct code from the following.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 1

High temperature need not result into higher density.

63.  There are different discontinuities within the Earth’s internal structure. Which are the

Discontinuities that have been incorrectly matched with its/their respective locations ?

  1. Mohorvic discontinuity — boundary between Core and Mantle.
  2. Wiechert-Gutenberg discontinuity — boundary between Crust and Mantle.
  3. Conrad discontinuity – located at a depth of 15-20kms from the Earth’s surface.

Choose the correct code from the following.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 3 only.
  4. 2 only.

Answer: 1

64.  Consider the statements regarding Earth’s interior and seismic waves.

  1. Primary waves totally disappear in the core region revealing that outer core is made up of liquid.
  2. Secondary waves show changes in its speed as it travels from magma chamber to lithosphere region indicating difference in density.
  3. The speed of secondary waves is highest inside the Earth’s Core region indicating

Highest density in the Core region

Choose the correct statement/s from the code below.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. 1, 3only.
  4. 2, 3 only. Answer: 2

65.  Earth experiences seasons in a rhythmic fashion. What are the causative factors?

  1. Rotation of the Earth on its own axis.
  2. Revolution of the Earth in its orbit around the Sun.
  3. Spherical shape of the Earth.
  4. Earth’s tilted axis.
  • Axial parallelism.

Choose the correct code from the following.

1)  1,  2 only. 2) 1, 2, 3 only

3)   1, 2, 4, 5 only

4)   All the above.

Answer: 4

66.   Winter solstice for Northern Hemisphere generally is on 22nd or 21st December every year.

Consider the statements regarding winter solstice in Northern Hemisphere.

  1. The circle of illumination excludes the North Pole region from Sunlight.
  2. From 66.5 degree south to 90 degree south, the Sun remains below the horizon the entire day.
  3. Arctic Circle is the Southernmost parallel in the Northern Hemisphere that experiences a 24 hour period of darkness on this day.

Choose the correct statements from the codes below.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2 only.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2

67.  Paleomagnetism is the past magnetism of Earth stored in a rock.

Which among the following type of rocks provides most reliable readings of magnetism at a particular time?

  1. Igneous rocks.
  2. Sedimentary rocks.
  3. Metamorphic rocks.
  4. All the above rock types are equally reliable. Answer: 1

Increasing reliability of the rocks: igneous > sedimentary > metamorphic.

68.    Earth’s magnetosphere is the area around the Earth where the geomagnetic field

Stretches out into space

Consider the following statements regarding magnetosphere.

  1. It is uneven in shape as it stretches largely towards the Sun because of Sun’s magnetic field.
  2. Solar winds can have influence on the Earth’s magnetosphere.
  3. This sphere deflects the charged particles that approach the Earth’s surface.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following codes.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 2

69.  Plasma is one of the four fundamental states of matter. Consider the following statements.

  1. It doesn’t have volume but has shape.
  2. It is the most abundant form of matter.
  3. Gas or air can be turned into plasma when artificially ionized.

Choose the correct statements from the codes below.

  1. 3 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. 1 only.

Answer: 3

70.  Sun spots are the one found on the outer surface of the Sun. Consider the statements regarding Sun spots.

  1. Sun spots region generally have lower temperature than the surrounding region on the Sun’s outer surface.
  2. Sun spots do not have any effect on Earth’s climate.
  3. Each period of weak Sun spot activity co-relates with the period of overall high solar

Radiation output from the Sun’s surface.

  • Sun spots generally have 11 year cycle.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following codes.

1)  1, 2 only.

2) 1, 3, 4 only. 3) 1, 2, 4 only

4) 2, 4 only.

Answer: 2

71.  Continental Drift theory by Wegener changed the perceptions about the Earth’s crust.

Consider the statements regarding this theory.

  1. Sialic masses used to float over the Sima without any resistance being offered by Sima.
  2. Earlier all land masses were united to form a massive landmass known as

‘Panthalasa’.

  • Ocean floors were considered to be stable and never moved.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2

72.  Consider the statements regarding different types of plates in ‘Plate Tectonic Theory’.

  1. Destructive plate boundary is one in which continuous upwelling of molten material ie lava takes place.
  2. Divergent plate boundary is one which two plates slide past one another thus neither creating nor destroying continental landmass.
  3. Convergent plate boundary is one in which one plate overrides the other plate.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following code.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 3

73.  Consider the statements regarding geysers which are special type of hot springs.

  1. Hot water and vapour spouts from geyser tube intermittently.
  2. It represents the minor form of broader processes of vulcancity.
  3. It is found only in tropical regions.

Choose the incorrect statement/s from the following code.

  1. 2, 3 only.
  2. 1, 2 only.
  3. 2 only.
  4. 3 only.

Answer: 4

74.  Consider the statements regarding earthquake (seismology).

  1. Primary waves are analogous to sound waves and it can travel through liquid medium.
  2. Secondary waves are analogous to water ripples and it cannot pass through liquid medium.
  3. Surface waves are most destructive and slowest among the three waves (primary, secondary, surface waves).

Choose the incorrect statement/s from the following codes.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 4

64.  Consider the statements regarding volcanoes.

  1. More than 95% of the global volcanoes are along the plate boundaries.
  2. High intensity volcano types like Vesuvius type, Peelean type etc are concentrated in the convergent plate boundaries.
  3. Low intensity volcano like Mid Atlantic Ridge are concentrated in the divergent plate boundary regions.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following codes.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4

65.  Every relief can be classified into different types of reliefs.

Match the following.

  1. 1st Order relief — continental plates.
  2. 2nd Order relief — plains and deltas.
  3. 3rd Order relief — Fold Mountains.

Choose the correctly matched pair from the following codes.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 2 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1

66.  Weathering is the basic and first step in soil formation. Consider the statements regarding weathering.

  1. The rate of weathering increases with increasing steepness of the slope.
  2. Mechanical weathering is higher in humid regions than in drier regions.
  3. Chemical weathering is higher in drier regions than in humid regions.

Choose the correct statement/s from the codes below.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 1

67.  Mass wasting or mass movement is a common phenomenon at the foothills of big, steep mountains like Himalayas, Atlas etc.

Consider the following statements regarding mass wasting.

  1. Rock debris that moves down the hill is mainly derived from weathering.
  • The rock debris moves down mainly because of earthquake, volcano, moving water etc.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following codes.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None of the above. Answer: 1

Rock debris move under the influence of Gravitational force and this movement is aided or triggered by volcano, earthquake, moving water etc.

68.  Natural levees are depositional landforms on either side of the banks of a river. What are the disadvantages of natural levees?

  1. Levees if breached can cause catastrophic floods.
  2. Levee forming regions cannot be used for agricultural purposes.
  3. Levee formation leads to sedimentation of river basins.

Choose the correct disadvantage/s from the following codes.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 3

80.  Arcuate deltas are the most common type of deltas, example being Ganga delta, Rhine delta, Nile delta etc.

Consider the following statements regarding this type of delta.

  1. It is formed when river water is denser than sea water.
  2. It is formed when river water is as dense as sea water.
  3. It is known as growing delta.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following codes.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. 2, 3 only. Answer: 4

81.  The atmosphere is a gaseous envelope which surrounds Earth’s surface. Consider the following statements regarding the Earth’s atmosphere.

  1. Rotation of Earth helps in binding of atmosphere to Earth’s surface.
  2. It sustains life on the Earth by not allowing Earth to become too hot or too cold.
  3. Content of water vapour increases from the equator towards the poles.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following code.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 2

82.  Troposphere being the weather layer is the most important layer. Consider the statements regarding this weather layer.

  1. The height of the troposphere increases from Equator to the Poles.
  2. The height of the troposphere is comparatively more during the summer season than in the winter season.
  3. The height of the troposphere doesn’t get affected by the change in seasons.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following code.

  1. 2 only.
  2. 1, 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 only.
  4. 3 only.

Answer: 1

83.  Consider the following

  1. These clouds are one of the highest clouds in the atmosphere
  • They are also called thunderheads and produce rains, thunder and lightning

Select the correct answer based on above statements

  1. Stratocumulus
  2. Cumulonimbus
  3. Nimbostratus
  4. Cirrocumulus Answer- 2

73.   Consider the statements regarding insolation which is nothing but the radiant energy received from the Sun in the form of heat and light.

  1. Insolation received on the surface of the Earth decreases from Equator to the Poles.
  2. During Summer Solstice, maximum insolation received at the ground surface is between the 30 to 40 degree South latitudes.
  3. Insolation received is comparatively higher in the outer limit of the atmosphere than that is on the surface of the Earth.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following codes.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 3

85.   Generally the incoming solar radiations are absorbed, scattered and reflected in the atmosphere. Based on the above statement which of the following is/are correctly matched?

  1. Clouds — reflection.
  2. Atmospheric gases — scattering.
  3. Dust particles, haze — absorption.

Choose the correct code from the codes below.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 2 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above. Answer: 1

Atmospheric gases especially green house gases absorb radiations and heat up the atmosphere. Dust particles and haze are largely involved in the scattering of the light.

86.  Consider the statements regarding the cyclones.

  1. In a cyclone, the air circulation is anti-clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
  2. Tropical cyclones being embedded in the Trade winds, in general move from East to West.
  3. Temperate cyclones being embedded in the Westerlies, in general move from West to East.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following codes.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4

87.     The atmospheric temperature significantly varies in its distribution pattern. The factors that are the reason for this variability include

  1. Sign of latitude.
  2. Land and water distribution.
  3. Oceanic currents.

Choose the correct reason from the following codes.

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above. Answer: 4

88.   Temperature anomaly is the deviation of temperature either more or less than the average of the surrounding region.

Consider the statements regarding the same.

  1. Positive anomaly is the record of higher temperature than the normal which is identified over the land in lower latitudes during day time.
  2. Negative normally is the record of lower temperature than the normal which is identified over the sea in higher latitudes during night time.

Choose the correct statement/s from the following.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both the above.
  4. None of the above. Answer: 1

89.   The extreme cold winters in the Central low lands of U.S.A is due to a particular polar wind.

Which is that wind?

  1. Loo.
  2. Blizzard.
  3. Harmattan.
  4. Chinook. Answer: 2.

90.  Temperature in the Stratosphere increases because of the presence of Ozone. This Ozone       the sunlight

  1. Absorbs.
  2. Scatters.
  3. Reflects.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1

91.  Coral reefs destruction is a major concern in the backdrop of Climate Change. Consider the statements regarding the coral reefs.

  1. Coral reefs are example of a symbiotic relation between coral polyps and photosynthetic algae.
  2. Coral reefs are confined to deep waters.
  3. Coral reefs are marine equivalent of tropical rain forest.

Which of the statement/s is/are true?

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 3

92.   Continental rise is a feature found on the boundary of the continental slope. Consider the statements regarding the continental rise.

  1. Continental rise are comprised of the finer textured smaller materials.
  2. Continental rise are found only in the active boundary continental slope.

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both the above.
  4. None of the above. Answer: 1

93.  Consider the following statements.

  1. Pelagic waters are the surface waters between two shorelines extensive upto the depth of 500 meters.
  2. Benthic waters extend from the depth of 500 meters to the base of the ocean.

Which of the following statement/s is/are true?

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both the above.
  4. None of the above. Answer: 3

94.   A particular ocean has a broad shape of ‘S’ in the North South orientation. Which is that ocean?

  1. Atlantic Ocean.
  2. Pacific Ocean.
  3. Indian Ocean.
  4. Southern Ocean. Answer: 1.

95.   In which part of the ocean does the typical example of reversal of ocean current can be observed which is guided by the planetary wind system?

  1. Northern part of Indian Ocean.
  2. Southern part of Indian Ocean.
  3. North Atlantic Ocean.
  4. South Pacific Ocean.

Answer: 1

96.  Which of the statements are true regarding Equatorial climatic conditions?

  1. It is known as latitudinal climate.
  2. Low range of temperature is mainly due to the equatorial air mass.
  3. There is no seasonality in this region or there are no distinguished seasons unlike other climatic regions.

Which among the following statement/s is/are true?

  1. 3 only.
  2. 2, 3 only.
  3. 1, 2 only.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4

97.  Consider the statements regarding the Mediterranean climate.

  1. During summers this climatic region comes under the influence of On-shore Westerly wind.
  2. During winters this climatic region comes under the influence of Off-shore Trade wind.
  3. Atmospheric stability exists over the region during summers because of anti-cyclonic conditions.

Which of the statement/s is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 only.
  2. 3 only.
  3. All the above.
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2

During summers this climatic region comes under the influence of Off-shore Trade winds. During winters this climatic region comes under the influence of On-shore Westerly wind.

98.   Desert is mainly located in the tropical West margins of the continents. What is/are the possible reason/s?

  1. Existence of the perennial high pressure over this region.
  2. Prevailing On-shore winds throughout the year.
  3. Cold currents on the continental west margins add to the atmospheric stability of the region.

Choose the correct code from the following.

  1. 1 only.
  2. 1, 2 only.
  3. 1, 3 only.
  4. 2, 3 only.

Answer: 3

Second statement: it is Off-shore winds and not On-shore winds the blows over this region. This winds carry no moisture thus causes no precipitation.

Ex of cold currents: canaries current in the Atlantic East coast, West Australian current in the West continental margins of Australia etc.

99.   Atacama Desert is one of the driest deserts of the world. Apart from other reasons there is a particular current which has made it a driest desert. Which is that current?

  1. Benguela current.
  2. Okhotsk current.
  3. Peruvian current.
  4. None of the above. Answer: 3.

100.       Frank Joseph land of Russia makes the northern most limit of summer vegetation in Tundra climate. Which is the type of precipitation that occurs in this region that supports this vegetation?

  1. A very low cyclonic depression that causes light rainfall in the form of snow fall.
  2. Frontal precipitation that causes precipitation in the form of snow fall.
  3. Convectional type of precipitation.
  4. Both 1 and 2.

Answer: 2

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Energy Transition Index

World Economic Forum has released its global Energy Transition index. The annual list ranks 115 economies on their ability to balance energy security and access with environmental sustainability and affordability.

The index considers both the current state of the countries’ energy system and their structural readiness to adapt to future energy needs.

Performance of various countries:

Sweden retained its top spot on the list, followed by Switzerland and Norway in the second and third positions respectively.

The United States, which is placed at the 27th position, was found to have made progress in reducing the use of coal in power generation. It slipped in the rankings by two places due to concerns surrounding affordability of energy to households and regulatory uncertainty on environmental sustainability

The developing countries in Asia, on the other hand, showed significant improvements towards universal access to electricity led by India (76), Indonesia (63) and Bangladesh (90).

Key observations on India’s performance:

  1. India was found to be amongst the countries with high pollution levels and relatively high CO2 intensity in its energy system. Despite this, the report found that India has made significant strides to improve energy access in recent years and currently scores well in the area of regulation and political commitment towards energy transition.
  2. While India scored low in terms of system performance, it ranks considerably higher when it comes to readiness to adapt to future energy needs. Overall, India has moved up two places from its 78th position in 2018.
  3. India is among the five economies that have managed to improve their rank since last year.
  4. In the BRICS bloc of emerging economies, India was ranked second best, only after Brazil.