Daily News Prescription – 10-12 January 2020

Daily News Prescription – 10-12 January 2020 / Daily current affairs January 2020 for competitive exams. Myupsc.com : is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc. Daily News Prescription 10-12 January 2020

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Daily Current Affairs for Competitive Exams 2020

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General Awareness/Current Affairs Yearbook 2020 – Study Portal

Important Topics: UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam 2020 Study Material:Part-1 – Study Portal

General Awareness/Current Affairs Yearbook 2020 – Study Portal

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

Important Topics for UPSC IAS Prelims and Mains Exam 2020 Part-2

GS2: Governance

How India remains poor: As many as 22 states have become poorer (DTE) Latest NITI Aayog counts no state as ‘achiever

1023 Fast Track Special Courts will be set up for Speedy disposal of Rape and POCSO Act Cases (PIB) 1023 Fast Track Special Courts will be set up for Speedy disposal of Rape and POCSO Act Cases

U.P. tops list in crimes against women (TH)  As per the report, 3,59,849 cases of crime against women were reported in the country. Daily News Prescription

Telling Numbers: In India, police don’t care much for rights bodies (IE) Telling Numbers: In India, police don’t care much for rights bodies .. of human rights abuses and atrocities on women, children, and Dalits.

In crimes against women, rise in cases of rape with murder (IE)   From 223 cases of rape with murder in 2017, the count increased to 291 in 2018. Assam recorded the highest number at 66 followed by Madhya Pradesh (46) 

Telling numbers: In riot cases, signature of economy (IE) Latest NCRB crime report shows shifting trends in causes of riots. The overall number of cases has dropped, driven by a decline in riot cases

GS2: Social issues

Teaching research ethics better (TH) Image preparation should be included as part of the UGC’s course on research ethics. Daily News Prescription

GS2: International Relations

Foreign envoys in J&K on a fact-finding visit (TH) A 15-member foreign envoys’ delegation arrived in Srinagar on a two-day visit to J&K and met over 100 people

GS2: International bodies and conventions

Nepal’s Seke ‘near-extinct’: The 6 degrees of endangerment of a language (IE)  Recently, The New York Times reported that the “near-extinct” Nepalese language Seke has just 700 speakers around the world

GS3: Science and Technology

What is the state of ‘open source’ in India today? (TH) The open source movement, which has focused on democratising technology access, has over a two-decade history in India.

GS3: Environment

Huge increase in open-loop scrubber usage in ships: Report (DTE) Open loop scrubbers release sulphur exhaust that they clean in ships back into the sea and are thus more harmful than closed-loop scrubbers.

Poison, unlimited: India’s chemicals industry remains dangerously (DTE) Poison, unlimited: India’s chemicals industry remains dangerously. India has failed to come up with effective legislations

Panel approves scheme to ‘trade’ in forests (TH) Panel approves scheme to ‘trade’ in forests. It allows Forest Dept. to outsource reforesting to non-government agencies.

GS3: Economy

60 listed firms disclose ₹75,000 cr. default (TH) SEBI had asked companies to disclose loan defaults at the end of every quarter»

Mining deep (TH)  While opening up the coal mining sector, the govt. must protect the interests of Coal India

GS3: Security

CDS and the path to jointmanship (TH)  The announcement on a Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) last year and the appointment of Gen. Bipin Rawat as the first CDS has been one of the

GS2: Governance

SC tells govt. to review orders curbing basic rights in J&K (TH) SC tells govt. to review orders curbing basic rights in J&K. It asks for publication of all orders on restrictions and review of the Net suspension

Eloquently reticent (TH) If enunciating the law and laying down norms for the exercise of executive power were the only functions of a constitutional court

Explained: The laws being used to suspend Internet, and what SC laid down (IE) Explained: The laws being used to suspend Internet, and what SC laid has laid down a framework of how the Internet can be suspended,

GS2: Social Issues

A health emergency (TH) Polio remains a concern despite concerted efforts across the world

Taking a holistic approach to dengue (TH) Apart from vaccination, this has to involve efficient vector control and proper case management

GS3: Internal Security

Steel mesh to replace fences on the borders (TH) The ‘rickety’ barbed wires along the Pakistan and Bangladesh border are being replaced with a meshed fence made of steel and coated

Shri Amit Shah inaugurates Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) in New Delhi; dedicates National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal to the Nation (PIB) Amit Shah inaugurates Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) … Centre (​I4C) and also dedicated the National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal

GS3: Environment

All set for waterbird census in A.P. (TH) The ‘rickety’ barbed wires along the Pakistan and Bangladesh border are being replaced with a meshed fence made of steel and coated with anti-rust paint, a

Fact check: A Giant fish is declared extinct — how do scientists conclude that? (IE) But how did the study determine that it has gone extinct? Chinese researchers made this conclusion based on the Red List criteria

GS3: Economy

RBI chalks out financial inclusion strategy for 2024 (TH) Aims to ensure mobile access to financial services by all

Revamp of SEZ policy to meet challenges faced by exporters (PIB) Revamp of SEZ policy to meet challenges faced by exporters … of the Baba Kalyani report on Special Economic Zone (SEZ) policy of India.

Shri Dharmendra Pradhan to launch ‘Purvodaya’: Accelerated development of Eastern India through an Integrated Steel Hub (PIB) Shri Dharmendra Pradhan to launch ‘Purvodaya’: Accelerated development of Eastern India through an Integrated Steel Hub.

GS3: Infrastructure

Union Power Minister releases State Energy Efficiency Index 2019 (PIB) The index is developed by Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) in association with Alliance for an Energy-Efficient Economy (AEEE). It will help states contribute towards national goals on energy security and climate action by helping drive EE policies and program implementation at the state and local level, tracking progress in managing the states’ and India’s energy footprint and institutionalizing the data capture and monitoring of EE activities by states.

IEA Launches First In-depth Review of India’s Energy Policies (PIB) In partnership with NITI Aayog, International Energy Agency (IEA) today released the first in-depth review of India’s energy policies.

GS3: Science and Technology

This word means Coronavirus (IE) New virus identified as agent in China disease outbreak. Why is it called a coronavirus. Daily News Prescription

Daily News Prescription 10-12 January 2020. UPSC Prelims Exam

UPSC Prelims 2020 Test 1-40 : IAS Test Series

The UPSC IAS Preliminary Test is by far the most challenging stage of the Civil Services Examination with nearly 5 lakh candidates taking the test each year. After GS Paper 2 – CSAT was made qualifying in 2015, the GS Paper- 1 has assumed greater significance in deciding the success of a candidate in the Preliminary Test which seeks to eliminate non-serious candidates from entering the Main Examination. With mere 100 questions deciding your entry into the Main Examination, the room for error in this stage is minuscule. In addition to changes in the pattern of Preliminary Test, GS Paper 1 is subjected to frequent changes in terms of the nature of the questions that appear in it. While the GS 1 paper from 2010-2014 focused on the conceptual understanding in conventional areas, in 2015 and 2016 the emphasis was on factual current events. On the other hand, the 2017, 2018 and 2019 papers tested the creative intelligence and problem solving skills of the candidates. The GS Paper 1 from 2017-19 was an interesting mix of questions ranging from epistemological understanding of important political underpinnings like liberty, equality etc to most contemporary issues like Google tax, AI, Block chain technology, UPI etc. Keeping in view the web of complexities the Exam can throw at you, we are striving to keep abreast with the dynamics of the Preliminary Test. UPSC Prelims 2020 Test 1-40

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Some Important Study Notes for UPSC Exam 2020

Indian Economy Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

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APSC Assam Yearbook 2020 : Latest Current Affairs

It gives us immense pleasure in presenting the Assam Current Affairs Yearbook 2020, Useful for APSC State PSC and all other competitive exams. This book deals with the relevant features and topics of Current affairs of State in a systematic and comprehensive manner by the use of simple and concise language for easy and quick understanding. We hope that the readers will find this book user friendly and helpful in preparation of their examinations. I look forwarded to have the views, comment, suggestions and criticism from readers which would definitely help in further improvement of the Book. I would like to heartfelt thanks to all my team members for their efforts to prepare this book. APSC Assam Yearbook 2020

UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 – 60 Days Programme

Assam Current Affairs/General Knowledge Yearbook 2020 has become an integral part of a lot of entrance exams being conducted at the graduate and under-graduate levels. It is very important for students to remain updated on the current happenings in their surroundings especially those that are important from the perspective of state. Current Affairs Yearbook 2020, a thoroughly revised, reorganised, updated and ENLARGED edition, presents a comprehensive study of all the sections that are covered under the subject of General Knowledge. The Yearbook 2020 provides the latest information & most authentic data reference material on Current Affairs and General Knowledge. It has specially been designed to cater to aspirants of various competitive exams like APSC and Other Assam State PSC Civil services Exams across the State. The material has been written in a lucid language and prepared as per the requirements of the various competitive exams.

Current Affairs consists of latest news/ information about Assam based on The Hindu, Indian Express, PIB, Yojana, People, Events, Ideas and Issues across the Social, Economic & Political climate of the State.

Why should you buy this Book?

Latest and Authentic information must for All Competitive Exams – The Mega Current Affairs Yearbook 2020 provides the latest information & most authentic data reference material on current Affairs and General Knowledge. It has specially been designed to cater to aspirants of various competitive exams like Civil services, APSC and Other PSC exams and across the State. APSC Assam Yearbook 2020

Student-Friendly Presentation – The material has been given in bulleted points wherever necessary to make the content easy to grasp. The book has ample tabular charts, mind Maps, Graphic Illustrations which further makes the learning process flexible and interesting.

Must Have for Multiple Reasons: The Current Affairs Mega Yearbook 2020 is a Must-Have book for all kinds of Objective & Descriptive Tests, Essay Writing and Group Discussions & Personal Interviews, The Assam General Knowledge section provides crisp and to-the-point information in Geography, History, Polity, Economy, General Science, etc. which otherwise could be very exhaustive. APSC Assam Yearbook 2020

Wish you happy reading and best wishes for the examinations.

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Introduction of Assam

Assam is a state in northeastern India, situated south of the eastern Himalayas along the Brahmaputra and Barak River valleys. Assam covers an area of 78,438 km2. The state is bordered by Bhutan and Arunachal Pradesh to the north; Nagaland and Manipur to the east; Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram and Bangladesh to the south; and West Bengal to the west via the Siliguri Corridor, a 22 kilometres strip of land that connects the state to the rest of India. APSC Assam Yearbook 2020

Assam is known for Assam tea and Assam silk. The state was the first site for oil drilling in Asia. Assam has conserved the one-horned Indian rhinoceros from near extinction, along with the wild water buffalo, pygmy hog, tiger and various species of Asiatic birds, and provides one of the last wild habitats for the Asian elephant. The Assamese economy is aided by wildlife tourism to Kaziranga National Park and Manas National Park, which are World Heritage Sites. Sal tree forests are found in the state which, as a result of abundant rainfall, looks green all year round. Assam receives more rainfall than most parts of India; this rain feeds the Brahmaputra River, whose tributaries and oxbow lakes provide the region with a hydro-geomorphic environment.

Assam and adjoining regions have evidences of human settlements from all the periods of the Stone ages. The hills at the height of 1,500–2,000 feet were popular habitats probably due to availability of exposed dolerite basalt, useful for tool-making;

Ambari site in Guwahati has revealed Shunga-Kushana era artefacts including flight of stairs and a water tank which may date from 1st century BC and may be 2,000 years old. Experts speculate that another significant find at Ambari is Roman era Roman roulette pottery from the 2nd century BC. Samudragupta’s 4th century Allahabad pillar inscription mentions Kamarupa (Western Assam) and Davaka (Central Assam) as frontier kingdoms of the Gupta Empire;

The Ahoms, a Tai group, ruled Upper Assam, the Shans built their kingdom and consolidated their power in Eastern Assam with the modern town of Sibsagar as their capital. Until the early 1500s, the Ahoms ruled a small kingdom in Sibsagar district and suddenly expanded during King Suhungmung’s rule taking advantage of weakening rule of Chutia and Dimasa kingdoms. By 1681, the whole track down to the border of the modern district of Goalpara came permanently under their sway. Ahoms ruled for nearly 600 years (1228–1826 AD) with major expansions in the early 16th century at the cost of Chutia and Dimasa Kachari kingdoms. Since c. the 13th century AD, the nerve centre of Ahom polity was upper Assam; the kingdom was gradually extended to the Karatoya River in the 17th or 18th century. It was at its zenith during the reign of Sukhrungphaa or Sworgodeu Rudra Sinha (c. 1696–1714 AD). APSC Assam Yearbook 2020

The Chutiya rulers (1187–1673 AD), a Bodo-Kachari group by origin, held the regions on both the banks of Brahmaputra with its domain in the area eastwards from Vishwanath (north bank) and Buridihing (south bank), in Upper Assam and in the state of Arunachal Pradesh. It was partially annexed in the early 1500s by the Ahoms, finally getting absorbed in 1673 AD. The rivalry between the Chutiyas and Ahoms for the supremacy of eastern Assam led to a series of battles between them from the early 16th century until the start of the 17th century, which saw great loss of men and money.

The Koch, another Bodo-Kachari dynasty, established sovereignty in c. 1510 AD. The Koch kingdom in Western Assam and present-day North Bengal was at its zenith in the early reign of Nara Narayan (c. 1540–1587 AD). It split into two in c. 1581 CE, the western part as a Moghul vassal and the eastern as an Ahom satellite state. Later, in 1682, Koch Hajo was entirely annexed by the Ahoms. APSC Assam Yearbook 2020

A significant geographical aspect of Assam is that it contains three of six physiographic divisions of India – The Northern Himalayas (Eastern Hills), The Northern Plains (Brahmaputra plain) and Deccan Plateau (Karbi Anglong). As the Brahmaputra flows in Assam the climate here is cold and there is rainfall most of the month. Geomorphic studies conclude that the Brahmaputra, the life-line of Assam, is an antecedent river older than the Himalayas. The river with steep gorges and rapids in Arunachal Pradesh entering Assam, becomes a braided river (at times 10 mi/16 km wide) and with tributaries, creates a flood plain. The hills of Karbi Anglong, North Cachar and those in and close to Guwahati (also Khasi-Garo Hills) now eroded and dissected are originally parts of the South Indian Plateau system. In the south, the Barak originating in the Barail Range (Assam-Nagaland border) flows through the Cachar district with a 25–30 miles wide valley and enters Bangladesh with the name Surma River.

Urban centres include Guwahati, one of the 100 fastest growing cities in the world; Guwahati is the gateway to the North-East India. Silchar, (in the Barak valley) the 2nd most populous city in Assam and an important centre of business, Other large cities include Dibrugarh, an oil and natural gas industry centre,

With the tropical monsoon climate, Assam is temperate (summer max. at 95–100 °F or 35–38 °C and winter min. at 43–46 °F or 6–8 °C) and experiences heavy rainfall and high humidity. The climate is characterised by heavy monsoon downpours reducing summer temperatures and affecting foggy nights and mornings in winters, frequent during the afternoons. Spring (March–April) and autumn (September–October) are usually pleasant with moderate rainfall and temperature. Assam’s agriculture usually depends on the south-west monsoon rains.

Every year, flooding from the Brahmaputra and other rivers such as Barak River etc. deluges places in Assam, The water levels of the rivers rise because of rainfall resulting in the rivers overflowing their banks and engulfing nearby areas. Apart from houses and livestock being washed away by flood water, bridges, railway tracks, and roads are also damaged by the calamity, which causes communication breakdown in many places. Fatalities are also caused by the natural disaster in many places of the State;

Assam is one of the richest biodiversity zones in the world and consists of tropical rainforests, deciduous forests, riverine grasslands, bamboo orchards and numerous wetland ecosystems; many are now protected as national parks and reserved forests. Assam has wildlife sanctuaries, the most prominent of which are two UNESCO World Heritage sites the Kaziranga National Park, on the bank of the Brahmaputra River, and the Manas Wildlife Sanctuary, near the border with Bhutan.

Assam’s economy is based on agriculture and oil. Assam produces more than half of India’s tea. The Assam-Arakan basin holds about a quarter of the country’s oil reserves, and produces about 12% of its total petroleum. According to the recent estimates, Assam’s per capita GDP is ₹6,157 at constant prices (1993–94) and ₹10,198 at current prices; almost 40% lower than that in India. According to the recent estimates, per capita income in Assam has reached ₹6756 (1993–94 constant prices) in 2004–05, which is still much lower than India’s.

There are diversified important traditional festivals in Assam. Bihu is the most important and common and celebrated all over Assam. It is the Assamese New Year celebrated in April of the Gregorian calendar. Christmas is observed with great merriment by Christians of various denominations, including Catholics and Protestants, throughout Assam. Durga Puja, a festival introduced and popularised by Bengalis, is widely celebrated across the state. Muslims celebrate two Eids (Eid ul-Fitr and Eid al-Adha) with much eagerness all over Assam.

Bihu is a series of three prominent festivals. Primarily a non-religious festival celebrated to mark the seasons and the significant points of a cultivator’s life over a yearly cycle. Three Bihus, rongali or bohag, celebrated with the coming of spring and the beginning of the sowing season; kongali or kati, the barren bihu when the fields are lush but the barns are empty; and the bhogali or magh, the thanksgiving when the crops have been harvested and the barns are full. Bihu songs and Bihu dance are associated to rongali bihu. The day before the each bihu is known as ‘uruka’. The first day of ‘rongali bihu’ is called ‘Goru bihu’, when the cows are taken to the nearby rivers or ponds to be bathed with special care. In recent times the form and nature of celebration has changed with the growth of urban centres.

Bwisagu is one of the popular seasonal festivals of the Bodos. Bwisagu start of the New Year or age. Baisagu is a Boro word which originated from the word “Baisa” which means year or age, ang “Agu” that means starting or start.

Beshoma is a festival of Deshi people. It is a celebration of sowing crop. The Beshoma starts on the last day of Chaitra and goes on till the sixth of Baisakh. With varying locations it is also called Bishma or Chait-Boishne.

Bushu Dima or simply Bushu is a major harvest festival of the Dimasa people. This festival is celebrated during the end of January. Officially 27 January has been declared as the day of Bushu Dima festival. The Dimasa people celebrate their festival by playing musical instruments- khram (a type of drum), muri (a kind of huge long flute). The people dances to the different tunes called “murithai” and each dance has got its name, the prominent being the “Baidima” There are three types of Bushu celebrated among the Dimasas Jidap, Surem and Hangsou. APSC Assam Yearbook 2020

Chavang Kut is a post harvesting festival of the Kuki people. The festival is celebrated on the first day of November every year. Hence, this particular day has been officially declared as a Restricted Holiday by the Assam government. In the past, the celebration was primarily important in the religio-cultural sense. The rhythmic movements of the dances in the festival were inspired by animals, agricultural techniques and showed their relationship with ecology. Today, the celebration witnesses the shifting of stages and is revamped to suit new contexts and interpretations. The traditional dances which form the core of the festival is now performed in out-of-village settings and are staged in a secular public sphere. In Assam, the Kukis mainly reside in the two autonomous districts of Dima Hasao and Karbi Anglong. APSC Assam Yearbook 2020

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General Awareness/Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Economy Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

INSIGHTSIAS STATIC QUIZ FOR UPSC EXAMS

  1. 31 December 2019 : Static Quiz – History
  2. 30 December 2019 : Static Quiz – Environment
  3. 28 December 2019 : Static Quiz – Economy
  4. 27 December 2019 : Static Quiz – Geography
  5. 26 December 2019 : Static Quiz – Polity
  6. 25 December 2019 : Static Quiz- Art and Culture
  7. 24 December 2019 : Static Quiz- History
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  11. 19 December 2019 : Static Quiz- Polity
  12. 18 December 2019 : Static Quiz – Art and Culture
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  14. 16 December 2019 : Static  Quiz – Environment
  15. 14 December 2019 : Static Quiz – Economy
  16. 13 December 2019 : Static Quiz – Geography
  17. 12 December 2019 : Static Quiz – Polity
  18. 11 December 2019 : Static Quiz – Art and Culture
  19. 10 December 2019 : Static Quiz – History
  20. 09 December 2019 : Static Quiz – Environment
  21. 07 December 2019 : Static Quiz – Economy
  22. 06 December 2019: Static Quiz – Geography 
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  26. 02 December 2019: Static Quiz – Environment
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  31. 26  November 2019: Static quiz-History
  32. 25  November 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  33. 23  November 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  34. 22  November 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  35. 21  November 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  36. 20  November 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  37. 19  November 2019: Static quiz-History
  38. 18  November 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  39. 16  November 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  40. 15  November 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  41. 14 November 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  42. 13 November 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  43. 12 November 2019: Static quiz-History
  44. 11 November 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  45. 09 November 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  46. 08 November 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  47. 07 November 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  48. October 2019 Static Quiz Compilation
  49. 06 November 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  50. 05 November 2019: Static quiz-History
  51. 04 November 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  52. 02  November 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  53. 01  November 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  54. 31  October 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  55. 30  October 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  56. 29  October 2019: Static quiz-History
  57. 28  October 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  58. 24  October 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  59. 23  October 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  60. 22  October 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  61. 21  October 2019: Static quiz-History
  62. 18  October 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  63. 17  October 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  64. 16  October 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  65. 15  October 2019: Static quiz-History
  66. 13  October 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  67. 12  October 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  68. 11  October 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  69. 10  October 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  70. 09  October 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  71. 07  October 2019: Static quiz-History
  72. 05  October 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  73. 04  October 2019: Static quiz-Art and culture
  74. 03  October 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  75. 02  October 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  76. 01  October 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  77. 30  September 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  78. 28  September 2019: Static quiz-History
  79. 27  September 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  80. 26  September 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  81. 25  September 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  82. 24  September 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  83. 21  September 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  84. 20  September 2019: Static quiz-History
  85. 19  September 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  86. 18  September 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  87. 17  September 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  88. 16  September 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  89. 14  September 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  90. 13  September 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  91. 12  September 2019: Static quiz-History
  92. 11  September 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  93. 10  September 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  94. 09  September 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  95. 07  September 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  96. 06  September 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  97. 05  September 2019: Static quiz-History
  98. 04  September 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  99. 30  August 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  100. 29  August 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  101. 28  August 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  102. 27  August 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  103. 26  August 2019: Static quiz-History
  104. 24  August 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  105. 23  August 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  106. 22  August 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  107. 21  August 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  108. 20  August 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  109. 19  August 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  110. 17  August 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  111. 16  August 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  112. 14  August 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  113. 13  August 2019: Static quiz-History
  114. 12  August 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  115. 10  August 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  116. 08  August 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  117. 07  August 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  118. 06  August 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  119. 05  August 2019: Static quiz-History
  120. 03  August 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  121. 02  August 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  122. 01  August 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  123. 31  July 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  124. 30  July 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  125. 29  July 2019: Static quiz-History
  126. 27  July 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  127. 26  July 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  128. 25  July 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  129. 24  July 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  130. 23  July 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  131. 22  July 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  132. 20  July 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  133. 19  July 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  134. 18  July 2019: Static quiz-History
  135. 17  July 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  136. 16  July 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  137. 15  July 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  138. 13  July 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  139. 12  July 2019: Static quiz-History
  140. 11  July 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  141. 10  July 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  142. 09  July 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  143. 08  July 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  144. 06  July 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  145. 05  July 2019: Static quiz-History
  146. 04  July 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  147. 02  July 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  148. 01  July 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  149. 28  June 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  150. 27  June 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  151. 26  June 2019: Static quiz-History
  152. 25  June 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  153. 22  June 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  154. 21  June 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  155. 20  June 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  156. 19  June 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  157. 18  June 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  158. 17  June 2019: Static quiz-History
  159. 15  June 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  160. 14  June 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  161. 13  June 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  162. 12  June 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  163. 11  June 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  164. 10  June 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  165. 08  June 2019: Static quiz-History
  166. 07  June 2019: Static quiz-History
  167. 06  June 2019: Static quiz-History
  168. 05  June 2019: Static quiz-History
  169. 04 June 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  170. 03 June 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  171. 02 June 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  172. 01 June 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  173. 15 May 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  174. 14 May 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  175. 11 May 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  176. 09 May 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  177. 04 May 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  178. 03 May 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  179. 02 May 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  180. 01 May 2019: Static quiz-History
  181. 30 April 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  182. 29 April 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  183. 26 April 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  184. 25 April 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  185. 24 April 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  186. 23 April 2019: Static quiz-History
  187. 22 April 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  188. 19 April 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  189. 18 April 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  190. 17 April 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  191. 16 April 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  192. 15 April 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  193. 12 April 2019: Static quiz-History
  194. 11 April 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  195. 09 April 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  196. 08 April 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  197. 05 April 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  198. 04 April 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  199. 03 April 2019: Static quiz-History
  200. 02 April 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  201. 01 April 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  202. 29 March 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  203. 28 March 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  204. 27 March 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  205. 26 March 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  206. 25 March 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  207. 23 March 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  208. 22 March 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  209. 21 March 2019: Static quiz-History
  210. 20 March 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  211. 19 March 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  212. 18 March 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  213. 15 March 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  214. 14 March 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  215. 13 March 2019: Static quiz-History
  216. 12 March 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  217. 11 March 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  218. 09 March 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  219. 08 March 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  220. 07 March 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  221. 06 March 2019: Static quiz-History
  222. 05 March 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  223. 04 March 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  224. 02 March 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  225. 01 March 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  226. 28 February 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  227. 27 February 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  228. 26 February 2019: Static quiz-History
  229. 25 February 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  230. 21 February 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  231. 20 February 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  232. 19 February 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  233. 18 February 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  234. 16 February 2019: Static quiz-History
  235. 15 February 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  236. 14 February 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  237. 13 February 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  238. 12 February 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  239. 11 February 2019: Static quiz-History
  240. 09 February 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  241. 08 February 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  242. 07 February 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  243. 06 February 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  244. 05 February 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  245. 04 February 2019: Static quiz-History
  246. 02 February 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  247. 01 February 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  248. 31 January 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  249. 30 January 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  250. 29 January 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  251. 28 January 2019: Static quiz-History
  252. 26 January 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  253. 25 January 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  254. 24 January 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  255. 23 January 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  256. 22 January 2019: Static quiz-History
  257. 21 January 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  258. 19 January 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  259. 18 January 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  260. 17 January 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  261. 16 January 2019: Static quiz-History
  262. 15 January 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  263. 14 January 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  264. 12 January 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  265. 11 January 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  266. 10 January 2019: Static quiz-Polity
  267. 08 January 2019: Static quiz-History
  268. 07 January 2019: Static quiz-Environment
  269. 05 January 2019: Static quiz-Economy
  270. 04 January 2019: Static quiz-Ancient and Medieval history
  271. 03 January 2019: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  272. 02 January 2019: Static quiz-Geography
  273. 01 January 2019: Static quiz-Polity

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Useful Series: INSIGHTSIAS Daily Static Quiz/MCQS 2019-2020 for UPSC IAS Prelims and Other State PSC Exams. insightsias static quiz for civil services preliminary and state PSC Exams 2020. INSIGHTSIAS Daily Static Quiz/MCQS 2019-2020 for UPSC IAS Prelims and Other State PSC Exams. insightsias static quiz for civil services preliminary and state PSC Exams 2020. Subject wise daily quiz, important quizes for competitive exams. insightsias static quiz upsc: it is very popular and known for everyone because of quality of content and very useful for all competitive exams specially UPSC CSE Exam 2020.

STATIC QUIZ-2018

  1. 31 December 2018: Static quiz-History
  2. 29 December 2018: Static quiz-Environment
  3. 28 December 2018: Static quiz-Economy
  4. 27  December 2018: Static quiz-Polity
  5. 26  December 2018: Static quiz-History
  6. 25 December 2018: Static quiz-Geography
  7. 24 December 2018: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  8. 22 December 2018: Static quiz-Geography
  9. 21 December 2018: Static quiz-History
  10. 20 December 2018: Static quiz-Polity
  11. 19 December 2018: Static quiz-Environment
  12. 18 December 2018: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  13. 17 December 2018: Static quiz-Geography
  14. 15 December 2018: Static quiz-Polity
  15. 14 December 2018: Static quiz-History
  16. 13 December 2018: Static quiz-Art and Culture
  17. 12 December 2018: Static quiz-Environment
  18. 11 December 2018: Static quiz- Geography
  19. 10 December 2018: Static quiz- Polity
  20. 08 December 2018: Static quiz- History
  21. 07 December 2018: Static quiz- Art and culture
  22. 06 December 2018: Static quiz- Environment
  23. 05 December 2018: Static quiz- History
  24. 04 December 2018: Static quiz- Polity
  25. 03 December 2018: Static quiz- Geography
  26. 01 December 2018: Static quiz- Art and Culture
  27. 29 November 2018: Static quiz -Environment
  28. 28 November 2018: Static quiz -Polity
  29. 27 November 2018: Static quiz -Modern History
  30. 26 November 2018: Static quiz -Geography
  31. STATIC QUIZ COMPILATION 3
  32. 24 November 2018: Static quiz -Art and Culture
  33. 23 November 2018: Static quiz -History
  34. 22 November 2018: Static quiz -Environment
  35. 21 November 2018: Static quiz -Polity
  36. 20 November 2018: Static quiz -Geography
  37. 19 November 2018: Static quiz -Art and Culture
  38. 17 November 2018: Static quiz -History
  39. 16 November 2018: Static quiz -Geography and Environment
  40. 15 November 2018: Static quiz -Polity
  41. 07 November 2018: Static quiz -Polity
  42. 06 November 2018: Static quiz -Art and culture
  43. 05 November 2018: Static quiz -Polity
  44. 03 November 2018: Static quiz -Polity
  45. 02 November 2018: Static quiz -Polity
  46. 01 November 2018: Static quiz -Art and Culture
  47. 30 October 2018: Static quiz -Art and Culture
  48. 29 October 2018: Static quiz -Historical evolution of the Constitution
  49. 26 October 2018: Static quiz -History
  50. 25 October 2018: Static quiz -Culture
  51. 11 October 2018: Static quiz -Indian Geography
  52. 10 October 2018: Static quiz -Economics
  53. 09 October 2018: Static quiz -History
  54. 08 October 2018: Static quiz -Polity and Rights issues
  55. 05 October 2018: Static quiz -Indian  Geography 
  56. 04 October 2018: Static quiz -Physical Geography and Environment
  57. 03 October 2018: Static quiz -Culture 
  58. 02 October 2018: Static quiz -History 
  59. 01 October 2018: Static quiz -Polity Rights and Issues 
  60. 28 September 2018: Static quiz -Indian Geography 
  61. 27 September 2018: Static quiz -Physical Geography and Environment
  62. 26 September 2018: Static quiz -Culture
  63. 25 September 2018: Static quiz -History
  64. 24 September 2018: Static quiz -Polity and Rights issues
  65. 22 September 2018: Static quiz -Indian Geography 
  66. 21 September 2018: Static quiz -Physical Geography and Environment
  67. 20 September 2018: Static quiz -History
  68. 19 September 2018: Static quiz -Culture
  69. 18 September 2018: Static quiz -Economics
  70. 17 September 2018: Static quiz -Polity and Rights issues
  71. 14 September 2018: Static quiz -Polity and Rights issues
  72. 03 September 2018: Static quiz -History 
  73. 02 September 2018: Static quiz -Indian Geography 
  74. 01 September 2018: Static quiz -Physical Geography and Environment
  75. 31 August 2018: Static quiz -Culture
  76. 30 August 2018: Static quiz -History
  77. 29 August 2018: Static quiz -Polity and Rights issues
  78. 28 August 2018: Static quiz -Indian Geography
  79. 27 August 2018: Static quiz -Culture
  80. 26 August 2018: Static quiz -History
  81. 25 August 2018: Static quiz -Polity and Rights issues
  82. 24 August 2018: Static quiz -Physical Geography and Environment
  83. 23 August 2018: Static quiz -Indian Geography
  84. 22 August 2018: Static quiz -Culture
  85. 21 August 2018: Static quiz -History
  86. 20 August 2018: Static quiz -Polity and Rights Issues
  87. 18 August 2018: Static quiz -Physical Geography and Environment
  88. 17 August 2018: Static quiz -Indian Geography
  89. 16 August 2018: Static quiz -Culture
  90. 15 August 2018: Static quiz -History
  91. 14 August 2018: Static quiz -Polity and Rights Issues
  92. 13 August 2018: Static quiz -Economics
  93. 08 August 2018: Static quiz -Physical Geography and Environment
  94. 07 August 2018: Static quiz -Polity and Rights issues
  95. 06 August 2018: Static quiz -History
  96. 03 August 2018: Static quiz -Culture
  97. 02 August 2018: Static quiz -History
  98. 01 August 2018: Static quiz -Indian Geography
  99. 31 July 2018: Static quiz -Economics
  100. 30 July 2018: Static quiz -Physical Geography and Environment
  101. 27 July 2018: Static quiz -Polity and Rights issues
  102. 26 July 2018: Static quiz -Culture
  103. 25 July 2018: Static quiz -History
  104. 24 July 2018: Static quiz -Polity and Rights issues.
  105. 21 July 2018: Static quiz -Economics
  106. 20 July 2018: Static quiz -History
  107. 19 July 2018: Static quiz -Culture
  108. 18 July 2018: Static quiz -Geography
  109. 16 July 2018: Static quiz -Polity and rights issues
  110. 13 July 2018: Static quiz -Geography
  111. 12 July 2018: Static quiz -Culture
  112. 11 July 2018: Static quiz -History
  113. 10 July 2018: Static quiz -History
  114. 09 July 2018: Static quiz -History
  115. 06 July 2018: Static quiz -Culture
  116. 05 July 2018: Static quiz -History
  117. 04 July 2018: Static quiz -Geography
  118. 02 July 2018: Static quiz -Polity and Rights issues
  119. 01 July 2018: Static quiz -Map- Africa
  120. 30 June 2018: Static quiz -Culture
  121. 28 June 2018: Static quiz -History
  122. 27 June 2018: Static quiz -Environment
  123. 25 June 2018: Static quiz -Polity and Rights issues
  124. 24 June 2018: Static quiz -Map-South east asia
  125. 23 June 2018: Static quiz -Geography
  126. 20 June 2018: Static quiz -Culture
  127. 19 June 2018: Static quiz -History
  128. 18 June 2018: Static quiz -Polity and Rights issues
  129. 16 June 2018: Static quiz -Economics
  130. 15 June 2018: Static quiz -World Geography -South America
  131. 14 June 2018: Static quiz -Geography
  132. 13 June 2018: Static quiz -History
  133. 12 June 2018: Static quiz -History
  134. 11 June 2018: Static quiz -Polity and Rights issues
  135. 10 June 2018: Static quiz -Economics
  136. 09 June 2018: Static quiz -Economics
  137. 07 June 2018: Static quiz -Geography
  138. 06 June 2018: Static quiz -Culture
  139. 05 June 2018: Static quiz -History
  140. 04 June 2018: Static quiz -Polity
  141. 01 June 2018: Static quiz -Science
  142. 31 May 2018: Static quiz -Environment
  143. 29 May 2018: Static quiz -Geography
  144. 28 May 2018: Static quiz -Economics
  145. 26 May 2018: Static quiz -Environment
  146. 25 May 2018: Static quiz -Art and Culture
  147. 23 May 2018: Static quiz -History
  148. 22 May 2018: Static quiz -Polity
  149. 21 May 2018: Static quiz -Polity
  150. 19 May 2018: Static quiz -Economics
  151. 18 May 2018: Static quiz -Environment
  152. 16 May 2018: Static quiz -History
  153. 15 May 2018: Static quiz -Geography
  154. 14 May 2018: Static quiz -Polity
  155. 12 May 2018: Static quiz -Environment
  156. 11 May 2018: Static quiz -Geography
  157. 10 May 2018: Static quiz -Geography
  158. 09 May 2018: Static quiz – Art and Culture
  159. 08 May 2018: Static quiz – Ancient History
  160. 07 May 2018: Static quiz – Ancient History
  161. 20 April 2018: Static quiz – World Geography -Europe
  162. STATIC QUIZ COMPILATION-2
  163. 18 April 2018: Static quiz – World Geography -South East Asia
  164. 17 April 2018: Static quiz – World Geography -South East Asia
  165. 16 April 2018: Static quiz – World Geography – Africa
  166. 13  April 2018: Static quiz – Indian National Movement
  167. 12 April 2018: Static quiz – Indian National Movement
  168. 10 April 2018: Static quiz – Indian National Movement
  169. 09 April 2018: Static quiz – Indian National Movement
  170. 07 April 2018: Static quiz – Art and Culture
  171. 06 April 2018: Static quiz – Art and Culture
  172. 05 April 2018: Static quiz – Art and Culture
  173. STATIC QUIZ COMPILATION-1
  174. 03 April 2018: Static quiz – Art and Culture
  175. 02 April 2018: Static quiz – Art and Culture
  176. 31 March 2018: Static quiz – General Science
  177. 30 March 2018: Static quiz – General Science
  178. 28 March 2018: Static quiz – General Science
  179. 27 March 2018: Static quiz- General Science
  180. 26 March 2018: Static quiz – General Science
  181. 25 March 2018: Static quiz – Ecology & Environment
  182. 24 March 2018: Static quiz – Ecology & Environment
  183. 20 March 2018: Static quiz – Ecology & Environment
  184. 19 March 2018: Static quiz – Ecology & Environment
  185. 17 March 2018: Static quiz – Indian Economy
  186. 16 March 2018: Static quiz – Indian Economy
  187. 15 March 2018: Static quiz – Indian Economy
  188. 14 March 2018: Static quiz – Indian Economy
  189. 13 March 2018: Static quiz – Indian Economy
  190. 12 March 2018: Static quiz – Indian Economy
  191. 10 March 2018: Static quiz – Indian Polity & Governance
  192. 09 March 2018: Static quiz – Indian Polity & Governance
  193. 08 March 2018: Static quiz – Indian Polity & Governance
  194. 07 March 2018: Static quiz – Indian Polity & Governance
  195. 06 March 2018: Static quiz – Indian Polity & Governance
  196. 05 March 2018: Static quiz – Indian Polity & Governance
  197. 03 March 2018: Static quiz – India & World Geography
  198. 02 March 2018: Static quiz – India & World Geography
  199. 01 March 2018: Static quiz – India & World Geography
  200. 28 February 2018: Static quiz – India & World Geography
  201. 27 February 2018: Static quiz – India & World Geography
  202. 26 February 2018: Static quiz – India & World Geography
  203. 24 February 2018: Static quiz – Indian History
  204. 23 February 2018: Static quiz – Indian History
  205. 22 February 2018: Static quiz – Indian History
  206. 21 February 2018: Static quiz – Indian History
  207. 20 February 2018: Static quiz – Indian History.
  208. 19 February 2018: Static quiz – Indian History

INSIGHTSIAS Daily Static Quiz/MCQS 2019-2020 for UPSC IAS Prelims and Other State PSC Exams. insightsias static quiz for civil services preliminary and state PSC Exams 2020. Subject wise daily quiz, important quizes for competitive exams. insightsias static quiz upsc: it is very popular and known for everyone because of quality of content and very useful for all competitive exams specially UPSC CSE Exam 2020.

Daily Current Affairs Quiz/MCQ 4 January 2020

MYUPSC.COM Daily Current Affairs MCQS: 04 January 2020 covered from The Hindu, Indian Express and PIB for UPSC IAS Prelims, Mains and Other State PSC Exams. Current Affairs Daily Quiz 04 January 2020: MYUPSC.COM is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc. Daily Current Affairs MCQ 4 January 2020

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Current Affairs Question Bank – 4 Jan 2020

MYUPSC.COM Daily Current Affairs MCQS 04 January 2020: Latest Current GK Question Bank/ MCQS covered from The Hindu, Indian Express and PIB for UPSC IAS Prelims, Mains and Other State PSC Exams. Current Affairs Daily Quiz 04 January 2020: Daily Current Affairs Quiz for Civil Services Examination.

Q1. Which of the following statements regarding anti defection law in India stands true?

1) The anti-defection law allows the formation of a new party or “merger” with other political party if not less than two-thirds of the party’s members commit to it.

2) The 91st Constitutional Amendment introduced in 2003 deleted the provision allowing split, which occurs within a party if at least one third of the members of the legislative party defect.

3) The 91st Amendment also barred the appointment of defected legislators from contesting elections for a period of 6 years.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Answer: (a)

Q2. Arrange the following Indian states in the decreasing area of their forest cover as per the latest State of Forest Report 2019:

A) Maharashtra

B) Arunachal Pradesh

C) Odisha

D) Madhya Pradesh

a) BCDA

b) DBCA

c) BDCA

d) DACB

Answer: (b)

Q3. A basket of bonds issued by public-sector companies or any government organisation, Bharat Bond ETF will be tradable on the stock exchange soon. Which of the following statements regarding the same stands true?

1) The move will help public-sector companies raise funds through debt instruments and further develop domestic capital markets, boosting alternative sources of funding for firms.

2) Only investors holding demat account can invest in Bharat Bond ETF. Investors who do not hold a demat account have an alternative option to invest via Bharat Bond Fund of Funds having similar maturity in line with the underlying ETF.

3) This will be India’s first corporate bond issued by state-run companies to be traded on bourses.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Answer: (d)

Q4. The Wildlife Institute of India (WII) is to conduct Asiatic Lion Census in May 2020.Which of the following statements regarding the species stands true?

1) The lion is one among the 5 Pantherine Cats inhabiting in India. The other 4 pantherine cats in India are Bengal Tiger, Snow Leopard, Indian Leopard and clouded leopard.

2) Initially the lions were spread from the east of Indus River to West Bengal and also to Narmada River in Central India. However, today they are restricted to Gujarat alone.

3) They are listed as critically endangered under the IUCN red list data.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Answer: (a)

Q5. “Askot wildlife sanctuary” recently in news, belongs to which of the following Indian states?

a) Himachal Pradesh

b) Sikkim

c) Uttarakhand

d) Tamilnadu

Answer: (c)

Q6. The Uttar Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation (UPSRTC) has launched a dedicated women helpline ______.

A. Damini

B. Tees

C. Kranti

D. Kosh

E. None of these

Answer: (A)

Q7. Prime Minister Narendra Modi dedicated to the nation how many Young Scientists Laboratories of Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), in Bengaluru recently.

A. 5

B. 10

C. 15

D. 20

E. None of these

Answer: (A)

Explanation: DRDO Young Scientist Laboratories (DYSLs) are located in five cities:

1. Bengaluru

2. Mumbai

3. Chennai

4. Kolkata

5. Hyderabad

Q8. Which of the following personalities/offices is authorised to supervise the election work in the State/Union Territory subject to the overall superintendence, direction and control of the Election Commission?

a) Chief secretary

b) Speaker of assembly

c) Chief electoral officer

d) Returning officer

Answer: (c)

Q9. The country Guinea-Bissau recently in news, shares boundary with which of the following countries of Africa?

1) Sierra Leone

2) Senegal

3) Guinea

4) Mali

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) 2 & 4 only

Answer: (b)

Q10. Which state has recently declared 2020 as the year of Artificial Intelligence (AI) and has signed MoUs with tech firms for AI research?

[A] Andhra Pradesh

[B] Telengana

[C] Odisha

[D] Assam

Answer: (B)

MYUPSC.COM Daily Current Affairs MCQS 04 January 2020: Latest Current GK Question Bank/ MCQS covered from The Hindu, Indian Express and PIB for UPSC IAS Prelims, Mains and Other State PSC Exams. Daily Current Affairs Quiz 04 January 2020:

Some Other Useful Links:

General Awareness/Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Economy Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Important Topics: UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam 2020 Study Material: Part-1

Important Topics for UPSC IAS Prelims and Mains Exam 2020 Part-2

(Batch-2)MOCK TEST SERIES FOR UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2020

Current Affairs Half Yearly July-December for Civil Services Examination 2020

STUDY PORTAL MOCK TEST SERIES FOR UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2020

RPSC RAS/RTS Prelims Exam Rajasthan GK Complete Study Material in English

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

Indian Art, Culture, Heritage and Architecture for Civil Services Examination

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Practice Solved Test – 16

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Solved Test 1-15 for GS Paper-I

Indian Economy Question Bank: UPSC CSE Prelims 2020

India Yearbook Question Bank: UPSC CSE Prelims Exam 2020

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Practice Test 1-12

Indian History Question Bank

Indian Geography Question Bank

Indian Polity Topic Wise Question Bank

Daily Current Affairs Quiz / Current Affairs Year Book 2020

INSIGHTS IAS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ UPSC PRELIMS 2020

The following INSIGHTS IAS daily current affairs quiz for UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 will help in facing General Studies Paper – 1 of UPSC civil services preliminary exam. Questions will be both conceptual and factual. Current affairs form the bulk of UPSC IAS exam preparation. Solving daily questions based on current affairs will help you both understand issues and remember facts better. Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC IAS Exam. INSIGHTS IAS PRELIMS 2020 Daily Quiz.

UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Online 60 Days Programme

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General Awareness/Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

UPSC IAS PRELIMS EXAM 2020

MYUPSC.COM – UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test for Civil Services Examination, IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test Series for UPSC Prelims Aspirants. UPSC IAS Prelims Test 10 Solution free download. myupsc.com is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. INSIGHTS IAS PRELIMS 2020 Daily Quiz. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc. INSIGHTS IAS PRELIMS 2020

INSIGHTS IAS daily current affairs quiz for UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 will help in facing General Studies Paper – 1 of UPSC civil services preliminary exam. Questions will be both conceptual and factual. Current affairs form the bulk of UPSC IAS exam preparation. INSIGHTS IAS PRELIMS 2020 Daily Quiz.

DECEMBER CURRENT AFFAIRS QUESTIONS 2019

Some Important Study Notes for UPSC Exam 2020

Indian Economy Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

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Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

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Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Solved Test Series

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The following INSIGHTS IAS daily current affairs quiz for UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 will help in facing General Studies Paper – 1 of UPSC civil services preliminary exam. Questions will be both conceptual and factual. Current affairs form the bulk of UPSC IAS exam preparation. Solving daily questions based on current affairs will help you both understand issues and remember facts better. Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC IAS Exam. INSIGHTS IAS PRELIMS 2020 Daily Quiz.

MYUPSC.COM – UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test for Civil Services Examination, IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test Series for UPSC Prelims Aspirants. UPSC IAS Prelims Test 10 Solution free download. myupsc.com is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc.

UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Online 60 Days Programme

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General Awareness/Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

UPSC IAS PRELIMS EXAM 2020

The following INSIGHTS IAS daily current affairs quiz for UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 will help in facing General Studies Paper – 1 of UPSC civil services preliminary exam. Questions will be both conceptual and factual. Current affairs form the bulk of UPSC IAS exam preparation. Solving daily questions based on current affairs will help you both understand issues and remember facts better. Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC IAS Exam. INSIGHTS IAS PRELIMS 2020 Daily Quiz.

DECEMBER CURRENT AFFAIRS QUESTIONS 2019

Some Important Study Notes for UPSC Exam 2020

Indian Economy Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

The following INSIGHTS IAS daily current affairs quiz for UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 will help in facing General Studies Paper – 1 of UPSC civil services preliminary exam. Questions will be both conceptual and factual. Current affairs form the bulk of UPSC IAS exam preparation. Solving daily questions based on current affairs will help you both understand issues and remember facts better. Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC IAS Exam. INSIGHTS IAS PRELIMS 2020 Daily Quiz.

NOVEMBER CURRENT AFFAIRS QUESTIONS 2019

Some Important Study Notes for UPSC Exam 2020

Indian Economy Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

The following INSIGHTS IAS daily current affairs quiz for UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 will help in facing General Studies Paper – 1 of UPSC civil services preliminary exam. Questions will be both conceptual and factual. Current affairs form the bulk of UPSC IAS exam preparation. Solving daily questions based on current affairs will help you both understand issues and remember facts better. Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC IAS Exam. INSIGHTS IAS PRELIMS 2020 Daily Quiz.

OCTOBER CURRENT AFFAIRS QUESTIONS 2019

Some Important Study Notes for UPSC Exam 2020

Indian Economy Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

INSIGHTS UPSC PRELIMS 2020 CURRENT AFFAIRS DAILY REVISION MCQS

The following INSIGHTS IAS daily current affairs Revision MCQS for UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 will help in facing General Studies Paper – 1 of UPSC civil services preliminary exam. Questions will be both conceptual and factual. Current affairs form the bulk of UPSC IAS exam preparation. Solving daily questions based on current affairs will help you both understand issues and remember facts better. Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC IAS Exam. INSIGHTS IAS PRELIMS 2020 Daily Revision MCQS.

UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Online 60 Days Programme

JOIN OUR TELEGRAM CHANNEL FOR REGULAR UPDATES

General Awareness/Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

UPSC IAS PRELIMS EXAM 2020

The following INSIGHTS IAS daily current affairs Revision MCQS for UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 will help in facing General Studies Paper – 1 of UPSC civil services preliminary exam. Questions will be both conceptual and factual. Current affairs form the bulk of UPSC IAS exam preparation. Solving daily questions based on current affairs will help you both understand issues and remember facts better. Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC IAS Exam. INSIGHTS IAS PRELIMS 2020 Daily Revision MCQS.

INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS REVISION THROUGH DAILY MCQS

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Insights Current Affairs (05 December 2019) Revision Through MCQs

Insights Current Affairs (04 December 2019) Revision Through MCQs

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Insights Revision Through MCQs – 02 December 2019

[COMPILATION] InsightsIAS Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – November 2019

Insights Revision Through MCQs – 30 November 2019

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Some Important Study Notes for UPSC Exam 2020

Indian Economy Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

MYUPSC ! IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test 9

myupsc.com – UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test for Civil Services Examination, IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test Series for UPSC Prelims Aspirants. UPSC IAS Prelims Test 9 Solution free download. Myupsc.com is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc.

2018 Prelims- 33+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme 

2019 Prelims- 40+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme

UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Online 60 Days Programme

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myupsc.com – UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test for Civil Services Examination, IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test Series for UPSC Prelims Aspirants. UPSC IAS Prelims Test 9 Solution free download

There are Full Length 60 Very High Quality Tests that match very UPSC standard (acknowledged by hundreds of toppers every year).

  1. These 60 Tests are structured in such a way as to help you start from scratch and gradually gain advanced knowledge through self study using standard textbooks and multiple revisions.
  2. First 10 Tests are based on all Important NCERT Textbooks (New NCERTs).
  3. There will be full length REVISION TEST after every 5 Tests. This helps in timetaly revision of every important topic you have read, including current affairs, before you move on to new topics.
  4. Every Test will cover Current Affairs comprehensively from May 1, 2019. This helps you read and revise current affairs from the beginning.
  5. All tests will cover previous year question papers of UPSC civil services. NDA, CDS, IES, CAPF exams. This feature helps you understand the expectations of UPSC and prepare accordingly.
  6. Every test will cover 10 percent of previous test’s syllabus. This is to let you not forget what you have read for first test and thereafter. Helps you revise previous tests before the next test.
  7. There will be section-wise analysis of your performance in each test. This helps you know where you need to put extra efforts to prepare well for your weakest areas.
  8. Unlimited access to previous tests in the form of PDFs.

This test series will seriously prepare you to tackle actual exam with full confidence.

MYUPSC – UPSC CSP (2020) Test series will strategically provide its students with an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically designed revision plans covering the entire static and current portions (multiple times). With the help of guidance, we aim to make sure that our students are exam ready, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

  1. Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs
  2. Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
  3. Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
  4. Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
  5. All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

Performance Analysis of aspirants, Section wise analysis, Difficulty Analysis, All India Rank, comparison with toppers, Integrated Score Card, Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction.

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Some Important Study Notes for UPSC Exam 2020

Indian Economy Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

MYUPSC ! IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test 9

Daily Current Affairs News Analysis 31 December 2019

MYUPSC.COM Daily Current Affairs 31 December 2019 covered from The Hindu, Indian Express and PIB Daily News Analysis for UPSC IAS Prelims, Mains and Other State PSC Exams. MYUPSC.COM is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc.

UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Online 60 Days Programme

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GS2: Governance

Supreme Court judgments recognise dissent as a ‘symbol of a vibrant democracy’ (TH) Justice Rao’s dissent was resurrected by a nine-judge Bench in the 2017 privacy judgment, which said “neither life nor liberty are bounties conferred by the State”.

“Kerala tops SDG index; Bihar at last rank (TH) Bihar, Jharkhand and Arunchal Pradesh are the worst performing states in this year’s Index for Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

NITI Aayog Releases SDG India Index and Dashboard 2019 (PIB)” NITI Aayog today released the second edition of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) India Index, which comprehensively documents the progress made by India’s States and Union Territories towards achieving the 2030 SDG targets.

Guarantee Internet rights (TH) Access to Internet must be recognised as a fundamental right to free speech, basic freedoms and the right to life

GS3: Environment

“Overall green cover rises, but north-east records dip (TH) Sharpest decline in Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Mizoram, says ISFR report.

Total Forest and Tree Cover rises to 24.56 percent of the total geographical area of the Country (PIB) Sharpest decline in Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Mizoram, says ISFR report.

India’s forest cover goes up by nearly 3% this decade; but all is not well (DTE)” ‘Very dense forests’, which absorb maximum carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, increased by a mere 1.14 ?tween 2017 and 2019, according to the State of India’s forest Report 2019

GS3: Infrastructure

“Reforming the Indian railways – On the right track (ORF) For the past 3-4 years, Indian Railways’ finances have been under severe stress. This year witnessed an even steeper downward trend.

Railways look to AI for security solutions (TH)” National transporter plans to use facial-recognition software on CCTV cameras

GS3: Security

General Bipin Rawat named India’s first Chief of Defence Staff (IE) General Bipin Rawat, as the Chief of Defence Staff, will be the principal military adviser to the government.

Biometric enabled Centralised Access Control System (CACS) &Training Module of e-BCAS Covering 43 Airports of AAI and 5 Joint Venture airports at present, the CACS project is aimed to digitize the employee movement process at the airports.

GS3: Indian Economy
RBI buys ₹10,000 crore worth government securities via OMO (TH) Stricter norms for urban co-operative banks also proposed.

Some Other Important Notes

General Awareness/Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Economy Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian And World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Daily News Analysis, daily current affairs.

General Awareness/Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

MYUPSC.COM – Current Affairs Yearbook 2020 covered from The Hindu, Indian Express, PIB, Yojana and some useful government resources for UPSC IAS Prelims, Mains and Other State PSC Exams 2020. General Awareness/ Current Affairs Yearbook 2020 is very useful book for both objective and subjective papers. This Current Affairs/General Awareness Yearbook 2020 is Prepared by experts team of MYUPSC.COM is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc.

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General Awareness/Current Affairs Year Book 2020

Current Affairs Yearbook – 2020

Current Affairs / General Awareness 2020

Useful For UPSC, PSC & All Other Competitive Exams

“Education is the most powerful weapon which you can use to change the world.” – Nelson Mandela

Preface

It gives us immense pleasure in presenting the Current Affairs Yearbook 2020, Useful for UPSC, State PSC and all other competitive exams.

This book deals with the relevant features and topics of Current affairs of India & World in a systematic and comprehensive manner by the use of simple and concise language for easy and quick understanding. Varied subjects covered are Geography, History, Art-Culture & Heritage, Polity & Administration,  Economy, Science & Technology and other trending topic related to current affairs of India & world in detailed for exams point of view. We hope that the readers will find this book user friendly and helpful in preparation of their examinations. I look forwarded to have the views, comment, suggestions and criticism from readers which would definitely help in further improvement of the Book. I would like to heartfelt thanks to all my team members for their efforts to prepare this book.

Wish you happy reading and best wishes for the examinations.

(Team MYUPSC.COM)

Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Current Affairs/General Knowledge has become an integral part of a lot of entrance exams being conducted at the graduate and under-graduate levels. It is very important for students to remain updated on the current happenings in their surroundings especially those that are important from the perspective of India. Current Affairs Yearbook 2020, a thoroughly revised, reorganised, updated and ENLARGED edition, presents a comprehensive study of all the sections that are covered under the subject of General Knowledge. The Yearbook 2020 provides the latest information & most authentic data reference material on Current Affairs and General Knowledge. It has specially been designed to cater to aspirants of various competitive exams like UPSC and State PSC Civil services Exams across the country. The material has been written in a lucid language and prepared as per the requirements of the various competitive exams.

Current Affairs Yearbook 2020 consists of latest news/ information about India/ World based on The Hindu, Indian Express, PIB, Yojana, People, Events, Ideas and Issues across the Social, Economic & Political climate of the country. General Knowledge covers India/ World Panorama, Geography, History, Polity, Economy, General Science, Technology, Ecology and Environment, Art & Culture, Sports, Healthcare, Communication, News & Media, Education & Career, IT & Computers.

Why should you buy this Book?

Latest and Authentic information must for All Competitive Exams – The Mega Current Affairs Yearbook 2020 provides the latest information & most authentic data reference material on current Affairs and General Knowledge. It has specially been designed to cater to aspirants of various competitive exams like Civil services, UPSC and PSC exams and across the country.

Student-Friendly Presentation – The material has been given in bulleted points wherever necessary to make the content easy to grasp. The book has ample tabular charts, mind Maps, Graphic Illustrations which further makes the learning process flexible and interesting.

Must Have for Multiple Reasons: The Current Affairs Mega Yearbook 2020 is a Must-Have book for all kinds of Objective & Descriptive Tests, Essay Writing and Group Discussions & Personal Interviews; The General Knowledge section provides crisp and to-the-point information in Geography, History, Polity, Economy, General Science, etc. which otherwise could be very exhaustive.

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Daily Current Affairs 30 December 2019

MYUPSC.COM Daily Current Affairs 30 December 2019 covered from The Hindu, Indian Express and PIB for UPSC IAS Prelims, Mains and Other State PSC Exams. MYUPSC.COM is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc.

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GS2: Governance

Governance Index: On study of States on governance (TH) Marking States on different parameters can incentivise performance

3 years on, a mere 30% of Poshan Abhiyaan funds used (TH) The State governments and the Union Territories utilised a mere 30% of the funds released under the Poshan Abhiyaan, or the National Nutrition Mission, since it was launched in 2017.

What is the directive on detention centres? (TH) Those likely to be excluded from the NPR-NRC have a number of apprehensions. How have States responded?

Supreme Court rules flouted in demand for damages (TH) Guidelines mandate court-monitored process of assessment based on evidence
 

GS2: International Relations

Taliban council agrees to cease-fire in Afghanistan (TH) A cease-fire had been demanded by Washington before any peace agreement, which would allow the U.S. to bring home its troops, could be signed

GS3: Indian Economy

No extra charge on payments via RuPay, UPI from January 1 (TH) Nirmala Sitharaman announced that the MDR charges for businesses with over ₹50 crore annual revenues will be waived off from January 1, 2020.

FPI flows cross ₹1-lakh crore in 2019 (TH) Cumulative flows since September pegged at about ₹51,500 crore

Bank deposit cover set for increase (TH) DICGC proposes raising cover from the current ₹1 lakh to ₹3 lakh-₹5 lakh

Reforms restored PSBs’ health (TH) The Ministry of Finance on Saturday said that the health of public sector banks which have been reeling under non-performing assets for the last few years has been restored and a total of 13 banks reported profits in the first half of the current financial year.

GS3: Science and Technology

Shape of Sun’s corona accurately predicted (TH) The advance prediction gives a large window of preparedness for space weather variations

Biomarkers for glioma brain tumour found in peripheral blood (TH) These can be used for prognosis and early diagnosis of the most aggressive glioblastoma.

GS3: Environment

Madhya Pradesh gets its first elephant colony (TH) 38 elephants who strayed into Bandhavgarh last year have stayed bac

Daily Current Affairs 27 December 2019

MYUPSC.COM Daily Current Affairs 27 December 2019 covered from The Hindu, Indian Express and PIB for UPSC IAS Prelims, Mains and Other State PSC Exams. MYUPSC.COM is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc.

UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Online 60 Days Programme

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Jal Jeevan Mission

The Mission was announced in August 2019

The chief objective of the Mission is to provide piped water supply (Har Ghar Jal) to all rural and urban households by 2024.

It also aims to create local infrastructure for rainwater harvesting, groundwater recharge and management of household waste water for reuse in agriculture.

The Mission will converge with other Central and State Government Schemes to achieve its objectives of sustainable water supply management across the country.

Benefits of the mission:

Household pipeline water supply.

Clean and drinkable water.

Recharge of groundwater level.

Less water-borne diseases.

Less water wastage.

Need for and significance of the mission:

India has 16% of the world population, but only 4% of freshwater resources. Depleting groundwater level, over exploitation and deteriorating water quality, climate change, etc. are major challenges to provide potable drinking water.

Good Governance Index

Context: Latest edition of the ‘Good Governance Index’ has been launched on the occasion of ‘Good Governance Day’.

Background:

Good Governance Day is observed on the birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee (25th December). It was observed for the first time in 2014.

What is the Good Governance Index (GGI)?

It is a tool to assess the status of governance and the impact of various interventions taken up by the State Government and UTs.

The objectives of GGI are:

To provide quantifiable data to compare the state of governance in all states and UTs. To enable states and UTs to formulate and implement suitable strategies for improving governance.

Expert Panel for Oil & Gas Sector

Govt. constitutes expert panel for Oil & Gas sector disputes

With overhang of disputes choking investments in the oil and gas sector, the government has constituted an expert committee for time-bound resolution of exploration and production disputes.

India’s oil and gas sector has been plagued by disputes from cost recovery to production targets, and companies as well as the government have resorted to lengthy and costly arbitration followed by judicial review — a process that takes years to resolve differences.

The notification said the committee will arbitrate on a dispute between partners in a contract or with the government over commercial or production issues for oil and gas.

Last Solar eclipse of the decade witnessed

This was the last solar eclipse of the decade.

A partial solar eclipse was visible in India along with several other countries.

This was an annular solar eclipse that happens when the Moon covers the sun’s centre, leaving the sun’s visible outer edges to form a ‘ring of fire’ or annulus – around the moon.

Prime Minister NarendraModi watched the solar eclipse on the live stream.

Devotees took a holy dip in rivers and water pools across the country on the occasion of the solar eclipse.

Atal Bhujal Yojana

This is a groundwater management scheme

Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the pan-India scheme Atal Bhujal Yojana, to commemorate Atal Bihari Vajpayee on his 95th birth anniversary. The scheme will deal with the groundwater problem and will be implemented in 5 years. For the implementation of this scheme, the Government allocated Rs. 6000 crores. Of this total amount, Rs. 3000 crore will be provided by the World Bank and Rs 3000 crores will be given by the Central Government.

Eat Right Mela

Dr. Harsh Vardhan inaugurated the second edition of Eat Right Mela. Dr. Harsh Vardhan, Union Minister of Health & Family Welfare inaugurated the second edition of the Eat Right Mela at Jawahar Lal Nehru Stadium. The Eat Right Mela of FSSAI is a commendable effort and outreach activity for citizens towards eating right.

The rise of diet-related diseases suggests that people are eating less healthy food than they were eating a decade ago. In this context, the movement of ‘Eat Right India’ started by FSSAI is a timely initiative”.

FSSAI: Food Safety and Standards Authority of India

The PURPLE Book’

Union Minister launched ‘The PURPLE Book’ a handbook on diets for diseases. The book provides general guidelines for hospitals on suitable diets for common medical conditions such as diabetes, hypertension, cancer, gut disorders and so on in a simple format and has been developed and vetted by experts in the field of food and nutrition.

This book is available for free download on www.fssai.gov.in

Abhinav Lohan wins Bengaluru Open Golf Championship

Abhinav Lohan lifted PGTI title securing a narrow one-shot triumph at the Bengaluru Open golf championship. Lohan shot four-under 68 his four-day total to 13-under-275  with seven birdies. It was Lohan’s first title on the TATA Steel PGTI and his second win of the year emerged victorious at the PGTI Feeder Tour event in Lucknow.

Virat Kohli named in Wisden cricketers of the decade list

Indian captain Virat Kohli named in the Cricketers of the decade list along side four others by the Wisden Cricketers Almanac. South African duo of Dale Steyn and AB de Villiers, Australia’s Steve Smith and women’s all-rounder Ellyse Perry added in the list. Kohli scored 5,775 more international runs than anyone else in the last 10 years, has arguably been the best batsman over the last decade.

Some Important Study Notes for UPSC Exam 2020

Indian Economy Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Current Affairs MCQ 26 December 2019

MYUPSC.COM Daily Current Affairs Question Bank: The Hindu, Indian Express and PIB 26 December 2019: Current Affairs quiz Questions & Answers to enhance your General Awareness. Practice with our esteemed Current Affairs quiz December 26, 2019 questions which covers all important events across India as well as World. Make use of all important Current Affairs quiz December 26, 2019 questions with answers updated here, these questions are very important and succeed in UPSC IAS Prelims, State PSC and all other competitive Exams and Interviews.

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Current Affairs Question Bank – 26 December 2019

1. Special Report on Oceans and Cryosphere in a Changing Climate (SROCC) is prepared by

 a) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

 b) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)

 c) Germanwatch

 d) UN Environment

Solution: a)

The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change’s (IPCC) Special Report on the Ocean and Cryosphere in a Changing Climate (SROCC) was approved at the IPCC’s 51st Session (IPCC-51) in September 2019 in Monaco.

The report is the third in the series of three Special Reports in the current Sixth Assessment Report (AR6) cycle, which began in 2015 and will be completed in 2022. The first was the Special Report on Global Warming of 1.5 °C, while the second was the Special Report on Climate Change and Land (SRCCL).

2. Consider the following statements regarding Formation of a New Country.

1. There is no law barring regions from declaring independence.

2. A region’s quest for nationhood mainly depends on how many countries and international organisations it manages to convince to recognise it as a country.

3. The right of “self-determination” is not included in the UN charter.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1, 3

 b) 2, 3

 c) 1, 2

 d) 1 only

Solution: c)

How does a territory become a new country?

There is no straightforward rule. Beyond a few set requirements, a region’s quest for nationhood mainly depends on how many countries and international organisations it manages to convince to recognise it as a country. The biggest sanction of nationhood is the United Nations recognising a territory as a country.

3. Bougainville island, recently in news is part of

 a) Sunda Islands

 b) Islands on the Great Barrier Reef

 c) Solomon Islands

 d) Marshall Islands

Bougainville island-solomon group island

Solution: c)

Bougainville island is the largest of the Solomon Islands archipelago.

4. Consider the following statements regarding hydrogen fuel cell:

1. Fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEV) use hydrogen, and an oxidant to create electricity by an electrochemical process.

2. Like a battery-electricity vehicle, fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEV) can also store energy.

3. Hydrogen fuel cells produce much smaller quantities of greenhouse gases.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1, 2

 b) 2, 3

 c) 1, 3

 d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: c)

Supreme Court has asked government to look into the feasibility of hydrogen-based tech to deal with vehicular air pollution in capital.

At the heart of the fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEV) is a device that uses a source of fuel, such as hydrogen, and an oxidant to create electricity by an electrochemical process. Put simply, the fuel cell combines hydrogen and oxygen to generate an electric current, water being the only byproduct. Like conventional batteries under the bonnets of automobiles, hydrogen fuel cells too convert chemical energy into electrical energy.

5. Which of the following constitutes highest human source of Methane?

 a) Livestock Farming

 b) Fossil fuel production and use

 c) Biomass burning

 d) Rice agriculture

Solution: b)

There are both natural and human sources of methane emissions. The main natural sources include wetlands, termites and the oceans. Natural sources create 36% of methane emissions. Human sources include landfills and livestock farming. But the most important source being the production, transportation and use of fossil fuels, Human-related sources create the majority of methane emissions, accounting for 64% of the total. Methane levels have more than doubled over the last 150 years. This is because of human activities like fossil fuel use and intensive farming.

6) “Zero Day Vulnerability” sometimes seen in the news recently is associated with which of the following?

a.  Cyber Attacks

b.  Drinking Water Crisis

c.  Aids Control Programme

d.  Production and Distribution mismatches

Answer : a

Cyber security experts have recently found a zero-day vulnerability in Windows, allowing attackers to gain higher privileges on the target machine and dodging protection mechanisms in the Google Chrome browser.

The newly discovered exploit was used in the malicious Wizard Opium operation.

A zero day exploit is a cyber attack that occurs on the same day a weakness is discovered in software.

At that point, it is exploited before a fix becomes available from its creator.

Zero-day vulnerabilities are basically bugs in software, which leaves the doors open for cyber criminals to break into the system.

7) AIS-155 sometimes seen in the news recently is associated with which of the following?

a.  Aviation Safety Systems

b.  Motor Vehicle Standards

c.  Agriculture Information System

d.  None of the above

Answer : b

To enhance vehicle safety, the Ministry of Road Transport & Highways has recently amended the Central Motor Vehicle Rules, 1989, thereby allowing motor vehicles and their parts, components, assemblies and sub-assemblies to be affixed with permanent and nearly invisible microdots.

As per the new notification, manufacturers who are affixing microdot identifiers in the motor vehicles and their parts, components, assemblies, sub-assemblies shall conform to Automotive Industry Standards (AIS)-155 as amended from time to time.

8) Consider the following statements with respect to Microdot Technology:

1. It involves spraying the body and parts of a vehicle with microscopic dots.

2. These dots are permanent and easily visible to the naked eye.

3. It helps to check vehicle theft and use of fake spare parts.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

a.  2 only

b.  1 and 2 only

c.  1 and 3 only

d.  1, 2 and 3

Answer : a

Microdot technology involves spraying the body and parts of a vehicle – or any other machine – with microscopic dots.

The permanent and nearly invisible microdots can be read physically with a microscope and identified with an ultra violet light source.

Use of this technology helps to check vehicle theft and use of fake spare parts.

To enhance vehicle safety, the Ministry of Road Transport & Highways has recently amended the Central Motor Vehicle Rules, 1989, thereby allowing motor vehicles and their parts, components, assemblies and sub-assemblies to be affixed with permanent and nearly invisible microdots.

9) Consider the following statements with respect to a currency ‘Eco’ which was in news recently

1. It is a newly announced common currency of the Gulf countries.

2. The currency will be pegged to the US dollor.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a.  1 only

b.  2 only

c.  Both 1 and 2

d.  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : d

Eight West African countries have announced a new common currency “Eco” to end French dominance from the region.

These 8 countries are, Mali, Niger, Senegal, Benin, Togo, Burkina Faso, Guinea-Bissau, and Ivory Coast.

The French-backed currency ‘CFA Franc’ was established in 1945 and initially pegged to the French franc but has been linked to the euro for about two decades.

Former French colonies Benin, Burkina Faso, Ivory Coast, Mali, Niger, Senegal and Togo still use the currency.

10) Consider the following statements with respect to, Galapagos Islands:

1. The Galapagos Islands are part of the country of Ecuador.

2. It is a United Nations World Heritage Site and it is one of the most active hot spots of the world.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a.  1 only

b.  2 only

c.  Both 1 and 2

d.  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : c

Ecuador declared a state of emergency after a barge carrying nearly 2,300 liters of diesel fuel sank at the Galapagos Islands, The Galapagos, which are part of Ecuador, is a United Nations World Heritage Site. It is one of the globe’s most fragile ecosystems and active hot spots of the world.

Some Important Study Notes for UPSC Exam 2020

Indian Economy Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Daily Current Affairs 26 December 2019

MYUPSC.COM Daily Current Affairs 26 December 2019 covered from The Hindu, Indian Express and PIB for UPSC IAS Prelims, Mains and Other State PSC Exams. MYUPSC.COM is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc.

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Swadesh Darshan Scheme

It is launched by Tourism Ministry

Objective: to develop theme-based tourist circuits in the country. These tourist circuits will be developed on the principles of high tourist value, competitiveness and sustainability in an integrated manner.

Under the Scheme 15 circuits have been identified for development namely Himalayan Circuit, North East Circuit, Krishna Circuit, Buddhist Circuit and Coastal Circuit, Desert Circuit, Tribal Circuit, Eco Circuit, Wildlife Circuit, Rural Circuit, Spiritual Circuit, Ramayana Circuit, Heritage Circuit, Tirthankar Circuit and Sufi Circuit.

Features of Swadesh Darshan Scheme:

100% centrally funded 

Funding of individual project will vary from state to state 

A National Steering Committee (NSC)

A Mission Directorate 

Chief of Defence Staff

The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) has approved the creation of a chief of defence staff (CDS).

He will be the single-point military adviser to the government as suggested by the Kargil Review Committee in 1999.
CDS oversees and coordinates the working of the three Services.

Conditions:

He will be a Four-star General.

Not eligible to hold any Government office after demitting the office of CDS.

No private employment without prior approval for a period of five years after demitting the office of CDS.

Roles and functions:

CDS will provide “single-point military advice” to the government, inject synergy in planning, procurements and logistics in the armed forces.

It will ensure integration of land-air-sea operations through the eventual setting up of theatre commands.
The CDS will also function as the military advisor to the PM-led Nuclear Command Authority, as also have direct command of tri-Service organizations to handle the new warfare domains of space and cyberspace.

Mission Shat Pratishat

The Punjab Education Department recently launched Mission Shat Pratishat to achieve 100 per cent result in classes 5, 8, 10, and 12 of government schools.

The Mission was launched in September 2019 by the Punjab education department.

It aimed to improve the results of the government schools in terms of pass percentage in the 10th and 12th board examinations.

WhatsApp groups of teachers, students, and parents by different subject teachers have been formed to ensure proper coordination as well as sharing of good practices.

Model question papers have been prepared for every subject and students are being made to solve them.

Oxygen Parlour” At Nashik Railway Station

To battle rising air pollution in cities, an ”Oxygen Parlour” has been opened at Nashik railway station.

It aims to provide an experience of breathing clean air to the commuters.

The initiative comes with the efforts of the Airo Guard in collaboration with the Indian Railways.

The parlour contains some unique plants that better absorb the five most harmful pollutants from the air.

Atal Bihari Vajpayee Tunnel

The government will name the strategic tunnel under Rohtang Pass after former prime minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee on his birth anniversary on December 25th.

Key facts:

The 8.8-km-long tunnel is the world’s longest above an altitude of 3,000 metres.

The tunnel will cut through Pir Panjal range.

The tunnel provides a temporary winter link to the outside world not only to residents of Lahaul and Spiti but also to those living in Zanskar Valley of Ladakh.

The Seri nullah default zone lies inside the tunnel.

Bar-Headed Goose

Also known as Anser indicus, it is known to be one of the highest flying birds in the world. It can fly at altitudes of 25,000 feet, while migrating over the Himalayas, where oxygen and temperature levels are extremely low.

The species has been reported as migrating south from Tibet, Kazakhstan, Mongolia and Russia before crossing the Himalaya.

It is classified as “Least Concerned” as per the IUCN Red List.

Some Important Study Notes for UPSC Exam 2020

Indian Economy Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

RBI’S INFLATION TARGETING PROMOTES INDIA’S GROWTH?

RBI-Inflation-growth-India-economy-reasons.

RBI India inflation growth: Indian Economy is being through a slowdown, and in this scenario, the efficacy of RBI’s Inflation targeting process has come under criticism, stating it as a reason behind this slowdown.#RBI #Inflation #India

So, the process of inflation targeting and the benefits accrued due to it and the possible reasons (apprehensions) behind various criticisms and the way forward has been discussed in this article in brief.

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What is Inflation Targeting?

  • Inflation Targeting is a part of monetary policy framework wherein the Central Bank of a country focuses on maintaining the rate of Inflation within a targeted range.
  • It is believed that increasing prices in an economy create uncertainties in decision making, adversely affecting savings and encouraging speculative investments (such as buying Gold).  Inflation targeting brings in more predictability and transparency in deciding monetary policy.
  • Inflation targeting was first adopted by New Zealand and subsequently, a large number of countries including India have been following Inflation Targeting as their core element of monetary policy.
  • In case of India, the Inflation targeting was introduced through the Monetary Policy Framework Agreement signed between the RBI and Government in 2015. As per terms of the agreement, RBI’s primary objective would be to maintain price stability, while keeping in mind the objective of growth. The RBI is required to maintain rate of inflation of 4% with a deviation of 2% i.e. inflation has to be maintained between 2% to 6%.

Benefits of Inflation Targeting

1. Enhanced Transparency: The Inflation targeting explicitly states as to what would be the targeted rate of Inflation in an economy. Such explicitly mandated target brings in more clarity and predictability with respect to the rate of Inflation and monetary policy formulation.
2. Promote Growth: A high rate of inflation leads to decrease in the purchasing power of currency, reduces the savings and investment rate, increases the unemployment and leads to overall decrease in the GDP growth rate.  Further, high rate of inflation is accompanied by higher levels of Fiscal Deficit and Current Account Deficit leading to an adverse impact on the macro-economic stability of the country. Hence, low and moderate level of inflation would incentivise the investors to undertake the investment in the economy leading to the promotion of higher growth and development.
3. Autonomy and Accountability of RBI: As per the monetary policy framework agreement, the RBI has been given complete autonomy in maintaining the rate of inflation within the mandated targets. If the RBI fails to maintain the Inflation within the target, then it would be required to submit in writing, the reasons for its failure.

Such a provision enables the RBI to enjoy autonomy and at the same time, it enables the Government to have enhanced accountability over the actions of the RBI.

4. Empirical Evidence:  The Inflation targeting has been quite successful in some of the advanced economies such as UK, New Zealand etc. These advanced economies have been able to maintain moderate rate of inflation for a much longer time leading to increased macro-economic stability.

Problems and Challenges with Inflation Targeting

1. Disregards the Multi-faceted role of RBI: In a developing country like India, it is not practical for the central bank to focus exclusively on inflation without taking into account the larger development context. The RBI needs to balance between growth, price stability and financial stability.
2. No Clear link between Price Stability and Financial Stability: Prior to 2008, advanced economies were able to maintain moderate rate of inflation for a long term mainly due to adoption of Inflation Targeting. It was believed that Inflation targeting was responsible for overall macroeconomic stability of the country.
However, the 2008 Global Financial Crisis has clearly proved that price stability alone cannot lead to financial stability and the excessive focus of the Central banks on the price stability may lead to neglect of other crucial functions such as regulation leading to the economic crisis.

3. Empirical Evidence failing in India: The RBI has been able to maintain stable rate of Inflation within the mandated range since last 2-3 years. However, inspite of stable rate of Inflation, Indian economy is facing challenges on multiple fronts. The GDP growth rate has been reduced to 25 quarter low of 5% for the first quarter of financial year 2019-20.

The unemployment has increased to 45- year high of 6.1%. There has been contraction in the manufacturing activity as evident in declining IIP. The agriculture sector is staring at agrarian distress. All these clearly highlight that the Inflation targeting has failed to promote growth and development.

4. Poor Monetary Policy Transmission: The Inflation targeting is more suited to the developed economies since the monetary policy transmission in such economies is quite efficient. However, in case of India, the monetary policy transmission is quite inefficient and this can in turn reduce the effectiveness of Inflation Targeting.
5. Hinder GDP Growth: In order to contain Inflation, the RBI would be required to increase the rate of Interest by following the contractionary monetary policy. However, such a policy would lead to increase in the rate of interest on the loans leading to decrease in investment and consumption expenditure leading to decline in the GDP growth rates. For example, during 2013-2015, the higher interest rates in the country on account of higher rate of inflation had led to decrease in the GDP growth rates.
6. Does not address the Supply Side Inflation: The inflation in India may take place due to supply side bottlenecks such as increase in global crude oil prices, poor monsoon, floods etc. For instance, the recent increase in the prices of Tomato and Onions is mainly on account of supply side disruptions.
Under such circumstances, RBI would have limited role to play in easing the rate of inflation. Rather, the Government of India would be required to address these supply side disruptions in order to moderate the prices of such commodities.

Way Forward

  • Post-Global Financial crisis, the dominant view around the world is that flexible inflation targeting, rather than pure inflation targeting is more efficient for monetary policy formulation.
  • According to the Flexible inflation targeting, the major role of the Central Bank would depend on the prevailing rate of inflation in the country. If the rate of inflation is way off the target, the primary emphasis of the central Bank would be to bring the rate of inflation within an acceptable range.
  • On the other hand, if the rate of inflation is within the range, the central Bank should focus on its other core objectives. Thus, it is being said that the Central banks should focus on flexible inflation targeting rather than pure inflation targeting. Here pure inflation targeting means RBI solely concentrating on the inflation targeting at the cost of other major functions of it.
  • In this aspect, there is a need for greater debate around kind of Inflation targeting in India.

Some Important Study Notes for UPSC Exam 2020

  1. Indian Economy Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

2. Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

3. Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

4. Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

GOVERNMENT PROCURED ONLY 3% OF OILSEEDS AND PULSES UNDER PM-AASHA

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GOVERNMENT PROCURED ONLY 3% OF OILSEEDS AND PULSES UNDER PM-AASHA

Why in News?

  • Data from Agriculture Ministry has indicated that only less than 3% of this season’s sanctioned amount of pulses and oilseeds have actually been procured so far under the once-hyped PM-AASHA scheme.

About PM-AASHA:

  • The PM-AASHA or Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan was announced with great fanfare in September 2018, as an effort to ensure that farmers growing pulses, oilseeds and copra actually get the minimum support prices they are promised for their crops each year.
  • Apart from initiatives to allow cash payment to farmers or procurement by private traders, PM-AASHA’s main feature was a price support scheme whereby Central agencies would procure pulses and oilseeds directly from farmers.
  • The three schemes that are part of AASHA are:
    • The Price Support Scheme (PSS)
    • The Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)
    • The Pilot of Private Procurement and Stockist Scheme (PPPS)
  • PSS – Under the PSS, physical procurement of pulses, oilseeds and copra will be done by Central Nodal Agencies.
  • Besides, NAFED and Food Cooperation of India will also take up procurement of crops under PSS.
  • The expenditure and losses due to procurement will be borne by the Centre.
  • PDPS – Under the PDPS, the Centre proposes to cover all oilseeds.
  • The difference between the MSP and actual selling/modal price will be directly paid into the farmer’s bank account.
  • Farmers who sell their crops in recognised mandis within the notified period can benefit from it.
  • PPSS – In the case of oilseeds, States will have the option to roll out PPSSs in select districts.
  • Under this, a private player can procure crops at MSP when market prices drop below MSP.
  • The private player will then be compensated through a service charge up to a maximum of 15% of the MSP.
  • The Centre had budgeted ₹15,053 crore over two years to implement the scheme apart from an additional government credit guarantee of ₹16,550 crore for agencies undertaking procurement.
  • It was launched as increasing MSP was not adequate and it is more important that farmers should get full benefit of the announced MSP.
  • Crops covered under the Scheme for this Season:
  • The main crops covered under the scheme this season are moong, urad, arhar, and groundnut and soya bean.
  • The late arrival of the monsoon means that harvests and crop arrivals also began slightly later than expected, especially for arhar or tur dal, so procurement is likely to continue, though tapering, until February.

Issues Associated with the MSP Scheme:

  • The scheme provides little to strengthen the procurement mechanism infrastructure in the country which largely only works for two crops – wheat and rice.
  • According to a survey conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) in the 70th round in 2013, only 6% of farmers are able to sell their produce at MSP.
  • A 2017 study found that only 24% households were aware about the MSP of crops grown by them.
  • Further, the study found, although MSP is announced for the whole of India, the operation is limited only to few states where the designated government agencies procure the produce from farmers and except for crops like rice and wheat, quantity procured is very limited leading to low level of awareness.
  • According to a 2016 NITI Aayog evaluation report 79% farmers were dissatisfied with the MSP regime.
  • Some of the reasons for their dissatisfaction were delay in payments, lack of infrastructure at procurement centres, distance to procurement centres and delayed announcement of MSP rates.
  • NITI Aayog’s evaluation also found that there were several states where the procurement infrastructure facilities were ‘inadequate’.

What is the Current Issue regarding the PM-AASHA?

  • Procurement is still lagging badly in most States.
  • The highest sanctioned procurement is in Maharashtra, where 10 lakh tonnes of soya bean procurement were sanctioned, apart from 58,000 tonnes of moong and urad dal. However, barely 1,709 tonnes have been procured in the State so far, including just 14 tonnes of soya bean.
  • The highest procurement so far has taken place in Rajasthan, where more than 51,000 tonnes of moong and groundnut have been procured, against a total sanctioned amount of 9.6 lakh tonnes.
  • While almost 5 lakh tonnes had been sanctioned in Madhya Pradesh, and 1.18 lakh tonnes in Uttar Pradesh, procurement has not yet begun in either State.

MISSION FOR INTEGRATED DEVELOPMENT OF HORTICULTURE (MIDH)

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MISSION FOR INTEGRATED DEVELOPMENT OF HORTICULTURE (MIDH)

Why in News?

  • Information about the MIDH was provided by the Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare in the Lok Sabha.

MIDH:

  • The MIDH is a centrally sponsored scheme for the holistic growth of the horticulture sector covering fruits, vegetables, root & tuber crops, mushrooms, spices, flowers, aromatic plants, coconut, cashew, cocoa and bamboo.
  • Under MIDH, the Government of India contributes 60% of the total outlay for developmental programmes in all the states except states in the North East and the Himalayas. 40% share is contributed by State Governments. In the case of North Eastern and Himalayan States, GOI contributes 90%.
  • MIDH also provides technical advice and administrative support to State Governments/State Horticulture Missions (SHMs) for the Saffron Mission and other horticulture-related activities like the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY).
  • The Mission was started in 2014.

Objectives of the MIDH:

  • To promote the holistic growth of horticulture sector, including coconut through area-based regionally differentiated strategies which include research, technology promotion, extension, post-harvest management, processing and marketing in consonance with comparative advantage of each State/region and its diverse agri-climatic features.
  • To encourage aggregation of farmers into farmer groups like FIGs/FPOs and FPCs to bring economy of scale and scope.
  • To enhance horticulture production.
  • To augment farmers’ income.
  • To strengthen nutritional security.
  • To improve productivity by way of quality germ-plasm, planting material and water use efficiency through micro-irrigation.
  • To support skill development and create employment generation opportunities for the rural youth in horticulture and post-harvest management, especially in the cold chain sector.

MIDH Sub-Schemes:

  • National Horticulture Mission (NHM)
  • Horticulture Mission for North East & Himalayan States (HMNEH)
  • National Horticulture Board (NHB)
  • Coconut Development Board (CDB)
  • Central Institute for Horticulture (CIH), Nagaland

Major interventions of MIDH:

  • Setting up of nurseries, tissue culture units for production of quality seed and planting material.
  • Area expansion i.e., the establishment of new orchards and gardens for fruits, vegetables, and flowers.
  • Rejuvenation of unproductive, old, and senile orchards.
  • Protected cultivation, i.e. poly-house, green-house, etc., to improve productivity & grow off-season high value vegetables and flowers.
  • Organic farming and certification.
  • Creation of water resources structures and watershed management.
  • Bee-keeping for pollination.
  • Horticulture mechanization.
  • Creation of post-harvest management and marketing infrastructure.

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Some Important Study Notes for UPSC Exam 2020

Indian Economy Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

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Current Affairs is an important section of UPSC Civil Services Examination, State PSC, Banking, SSC and Railways exams and aspirants who are preparing for the upcoming exams in 2020 must be well prepare with this section. The current affairs are made by our experts for all competitive exams UPSC Prelims Exam 2020, State PSC, SSC, IAS, Railway-RRB, RPSC, UPPSC, UKPSC, TNPSC, MPPSC & Other State Government Exams and latest Current Affairs 2019-20 for banking exams SBI PO Clerk, IBPS PO Clerk, RBI, RRB and more. Keep reading current affairs and GK facts updated on a daily & monthly basis. Stay aware about the recent happenings in the country and across the globe and equip your preparation for upcoming govt. exams 2020.

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MYUPSC! Daily Current Affairs 18 December 2019

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New definition of kilogram

What is Trakea?

Wi-Fi Calling

ISRO’s PSLV helps increase forex by 90 crores this fiscal

India’s UNMISS wins prestigious medal

India donates solar powered lamps to Palestine

Centre approve changes in MSME interest subvention guidelines

VP asks mining industries not to compromise of worker’s safety

Project Dolphin

Finance ministry assures payment of GST compensation to states

PM assures citizenship act not to affect Indian citizens

What is Strand Hogg?

MYUPSC Daily Current Affairs 15 December 2019

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Current Affairs 15 December 2019

IMD issues red alert as heavy rain lashes across north India

Lok Sabha adjourned sine die

Centre releases economic census foe New Delhi

Finance ministry assures addressing of problems of industries

India reiterates commitment for strong and peaceful Maldives

U.S and China agree upon tariff concession and structural reforms

FSSAI to develop app to prevent food wastage

Disha Bill

New definition of kilogram

What is Trakea?

Wi-Fi Calling

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Effective Use of Technology for Welfare Schemes

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Effective Use of Technology for Welfare Schemes

Today’s workforce programs, especially MGNREGS (NeFMS-Use of Technology for MGNREGS), which are used to alleviate distress and poverty, owe their intellectual origins to “food for work” programs during the rule of Chandragupta Maurya (320 BC to 298 BC), “Food for work” is first referred in Kautilya’s Arthashastra;

 Much later in 1784, but more than a century before Keynes (1909), Nawab Asaf-ud-Daula started a “food for work” programme to help the famine-stricken people of Lucknow. Some workers were employed during daytime to construct the Imambara. Others were hired at night to demolish part of what was constructed during the day time.

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), which was enacted through an Act of Parliament in 2005, represents the modern version of such “food for work” programmes in India.

The programme was operationalised through the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) with effect from February 2, 2006.

The programme was initiated to ameliorate rural distress by providing at least 100 daysof manual labour at minimum wages to anyone who seeks employment under the program.

Creation of productive assets for prescribed quality and durability, social inclusion, gender parity, social security and equitable growth form the founding pillars of the programme.

The Act states that “the objective of the legislation is to enhance the livelihood security of poor households in rural areas”.

The programme was reviewed in 2015 and the government initiated major reforms using technology and emphasized on bringing in more transparency and accountability, robust planning and creation of durable productive assets.

The scheme was also integrated with the Aadhaar Linked Payments (ALP) system. The ALP leveraged the Jan Dhan, Aadhaar and Mobile (JAM) trinity to provide Direct Benefit Transfers (DBT) to the beneficiary accounts.

As a result, the wage payment system underlying MGNREGS was streamlined, thereby reducing the scope for delays in payment.

USE OF TECHNOLOGY IN IMPLEMENTATION OF MGNREGS

Before the implementation of DBT, MGNREGS wages were transferred to the panchayat bank accounts and a significant number of workers had to collect wages in cash from the gram panchayat office. Though attempts were made to implement a system of DBT, two structural constraints limited these attempts.

As per a World Bank report, until 2015, close to 50 per cent of the country’s population did not have bank accounts.

The proportion of unbanked population was significantly higher for rural people who are the target group for MGNREGS.

According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)2 ,total banking outlets in villages as of March, 2014 was 1,15,350.This has increased by around five times since then with total banking outlets in villages at 5,69,547 as of March, 2018.

By December, 2015, the total number of Aadhaar enrolments in the country exceeded 100 crore, thereby covering a major portion of the adult population.

In 2015, the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) was launched to ensure universal access to banking facilities with at least one basic banking account for every household.

National electronic Fund Management System (NeFMS)

In order to streamline the system of fund flow and to ensure timely payment of wages, NeFMS was implemented in the year 2016.

Under the system, the Central Government directly credits the wages of the MGNREGS workers, on a real time basis, to a specific bank account opened by the State Governments.

All the Programme Officers debit this state-level single account for authorization of wage payment.

Currently, NeFMS is implemented in 24 States and 1 Union Territory wherein payment of wages is being credited directly to the bank/post office accounts of MGNREGS workers by the Central Government.

As a result of this initiative, the e-payment under MGNREGS has increased from 77.34 per cent in FY 2014-15 to 99 per cent in FY 2018-19

Perceived Benefits of DBT

 Providing timely release of payments;

 Ensuring correct funds are transferred to correct beneficiaries, reducing corruption & leakages in system.

 Reduction in delays in system for funds transfer (improving programme performance and instilling trust and confidence in system by beneficiaries).

 Strong focus on security, tracking and monitoring of funds (through use of digital sign/signatures and convergence/interoperability), Reconciliation process during payments between intermediate agencies involved in funds transfer (near real time tracking, accountability and transparency).

IMPACT OF DBT ON EFFECTIVENESS OF MGNREGS

Timely Payment of Wages: DBT focused on directly transferring funds into the beneficiary bank account. The NREGA Soft monitors generation of payment of wages within 15 days. Sustained efforts and intensive engagement with all stakeholders has enabled vast improvements in the timely payment of wages. In 2014-15, 26.9 per cent of the payments were generated within 15 days, which has now risen to 90.4 per cent in 2018-19.

Demand for MGNREGS Work: However, in blocks that are affected by drought, the persons demanding work increased by 20.7%.

Supply of MGNREGS work: We observe a 20% increase in the supply of work in blocks that are affected by drought. This suggests that the supply of work under MGNREGS also responds to the increase in demand in the blocks affected by drought. It can be inferred that the increased state capacity to implement anti-poverty programmes brought about by ALP can potentially bridge the demand supply gap in MGNREGS. State governments will be able to effectively monitor the implementation of MGNREGS and nudge the officials to provide jobs wherever and whenever they are needed the most.

Work Done under MGNREGS: Muster rolls are a form of attendance register signed by workers. It acts as a preliminary check in the sense that, if demand and supply of work increases, but there is no change in muster rolls filled, then it means that there may be a false reporting of numbers.

USE OF DATA ON CONSUMPTION TO PROXY DISTRESS

While drought is the primary source of rural distress, there is a possibility of some extremely local unobserved distress which is not related to drought such as pest attacks, disease outbreak, sale of land for infrastructure development etc.. Such distress should reduce consumption expenditure of the local areas affected by it. Therefore, monthly consumption expenditure from NSS round 72 survey data can be used as a proxy for distress. The hypothesis is that there should be an increase in demand for MGNREGS work in areas with decline in consumption expenditure.

WAY FORWARD

Highlighting the benefits of using technology in welfare schemes to improve end to end governance, create a robust evidence based implementation framework in partnership with the States, streamline the processes, timely transfer of funds to implementing agencies and beneficiaries, plugging of leakages, optimum utilization of public funds and improving overall performance (outputs/outcomes) of the programmes.

There are some policy implications:

Probable Indicator of distress: Demand for work under MGNREGS may be used to develop a real-time indicator of distress at the granular district/ panchayat level. Distress at the level of a district or panchayat is difficult to identify in real-time using the current datasets. While employment related NSS surveys are carried out once in 5-6 years, district-level GDP is released irregularly. Both these datasets are released with lags. As demand for MGNREGS work is also affected by the governance capacity in the state, this indicator of real-time distress can be constructed after accounting for the effect of the same.

Expansion of ‘works’ under MGNREGS: To further increase the effectiveness of the Scheme, the definition of ‘works’ under the Scheme should be regularly reviewed and amended in light of the requirements

Up-skilling the MGNREGS Workers: The objective of the scheme to enhance livelihoods for households can be reinforced by enabling them to acquire suitable skills, which in turn will help them increase incomes and provide horizontal and vertical mobility to them. The convergence of MGNREGS with Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) and involvement with women Self-Help Groups needs to be strengthened so that supply for skilled wage labour increases.

Expanding use of JAM to other Welfare Schemes: The adoption of DBT in programmes which involve transfer of cash benefits (scholarships or pensions) and price subsidies (such as those given for kerosene, liquefied petroleum gas (LPG), public distribution system (PDS), fertilizers and other input subsidies needs to be strengthened to minimize exclusion and inclusion errors.

Use of Digital Infrastructure for micro-benefits: A huge digital infrastructure, linking Aadhaar, bank accounts and mobiles has been created and effectively used for MGNREGS – the largest welfare programme. This can be used to expand the reach of the programmes through provision of micro-insurance, micro-pensions and micro-credit to people in every corner of the country

The Caribbean Community (CARICOM)

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‘CARICOM’

The Caribbean Community (CARICOM or CC) is an organisation of fifteen Caribbean nations and dependencies having primary objectives to promote economic integration and cooperation among its members, to ensure that the benefits of integration are equitably shared, and to coordinate foreign policy.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced a $14-million grant for community development projects in a grouping of Caribbean nations and another $150 million Line of Credit for solar, renewable energy and climate-change related works as he hosted the first ever India-Caricom leaders’ summit in the United ates.

He invited CARICOM countries to join the International Solar Alliance (ISA) and the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), which was announced by the prime minister in his address to the UN Climate Action Summit. 

The meeting was the first-ever meeting of Modi with CARICOM leaders in a regional format 

Modi also expressed his condolences on the destruction caused by Hurricane Dorian in the region and the worst hit island of Bahamas to which India has provided an immediate financial assistance of $1 million.

He also announced the setting up of the Regional Centre for Excellence in Information Technology in Guyana’s Georgetown and the Regional Vocational Training Centre in Belize by upgrading the existing India-funded centres in these two countries.

Member Countries: Members include Antigua and Barbuda, The Bahamas, Barbados, Belize, Dominica, Grenada, Guyana, Haiti, Jamaica, Montserrat, Saint Kitts and Nevis, Saint Lucia, Saint Vincent and the Grenadines, Suriname, and Trinidad and Tobago.

Coalition of Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)

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Coalition of Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)

During his speech at the UN Climate Action Summit 2019 in New York on Monday, Modi announced that India was presenting a practical approach and roadmap to make infrastructure resilient to disasters by launching a Coalition of Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) and invited all member states of the UN to join the grouping.

Modi first mooted CDRI as an idea in November 2016, while inaugurating an Asian ministerial conference on disaster risk reduction.

CDRI, in its formative years, plans to focus on developing resilience in ecological infrastructure, social infrastructure with a concerted emphasis on health and education, and economic infrastructure with special attention to transportation, telecommunications, energy and water.

Within two to three years, the coalition aims to have a three-fold impact, achieving considerable changes in member countries’ policy framework, future infrastructure investment and high reduction in economic losses from climate-related events and natural disasters across sectors.

The CDRI can emerge as a platform for generating and exchanging knowledge and providing member countries technical support, training and advocacy in building resilient infrastructure systems

The idea is to look at how the present infrastructure in countries where natural or man-made disasters have an impact, is equipped to face current as well as future risks.

Similarly, to develop standards that can meet these challenges and train people to design and build infrastructure such as rail, roads, airports or bridges that would have a reduced impact in the wake of a calamity.

World Digital Competitive Ranking 2019-India Improves Ranking

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World Digital Competitive Ranking 2019-India Improves Ranking

India has advanced four places to 44th position in terms of digital competitiveness in the world as the country has made improvement in terms of knowledge and future readiness to adopt and explore digital technologies, according to world digital competitiveness ranking 2019.

The Ranking, produced by the IMD World Competitiveness Center, measures the capacity and readiness of 63 nations to adopt and explore digital technologies as a key driver for economic transformation in business, government and wider society.

To evaluate an economy, WDCR examines three factors: Knowledge, the capacity to understand and learn the new technologies; technology, the competence to develop new digital innovations; and future readiness, the preparedness for the coming development.

India rose from 48th place in 2018 to 44th rank this year as the country has improved overall in all factors — knowledge, technology and future readiness — as compared to the previous year’s ranking.

The US was ranked as the world’s most digitally competitive economy, followed by Singapore in the second place. Sweden was ranked third on the list, followed by Denmark and Switzerland in the 4th and 5th place, respectively.

The largest jump in the overall ranking was registered by China, moving from 30th to 22nd, and Indonesia, from 62nd to 56th.

‘Quantum Supremacy’

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‘Quantum Supremacy’

Tech websites and theoretical computer-science outlets were aflame earlier this week after a story said that Google had claimed to have achieved ‘quantum supremacy’. In a line, it means that researchers at Google had solved a really difficult problem in seconds with the help of quantum computers which a supercomputer could not. The ideas governing quantum computers have been around since the 1990s but actual machines have been around since 2011, most notably built by Canadian company D-Wave Systems

What has Google achieved?

Quantum supremacy refers to quantum computers being able to solve a problem that a classical computer cannot. In the research paper, Google used a 53-qubit processor to generate a sequence of millions of numbers. Though these numbers appeared randomly generated, they conform to an algorithm generated by Google. A classical supercomputer checked some of these values and they were correct. Google’s quantum computer, named Sycamore, claimed ‘supremacy’ because it reportedly did the task in 200 seconds that would have apparently taken a supercomputer 10,000 years to complete.

What are quantum computers?

Quantum computers work differently from the classical computers we work on today.

Exploiting the principles of quantum mechanics, they can easily tackle computational problems that may be tough for the classical computer as the size of the numbers and number of inputs involved grows bigger.

Conventional computers process information in ‘bits’ or 1s and 0s, following classical physics under which our computers can process a ‘1’ or a ‘0’ at a time. Quantum computers compute in ‘qubits’ (or quantum bits). They exploit the properties of quantum mechanics, the science that governs how matter behaves on the atomic scale. In this scheme of things, processors can be a 1 and a 0 simultaneously, a state called quantum superposition.

While this accelerates the speed of computation, a machine with less than a 100 qubits can solve problems with a lot of data that are even theoretically beyond the capabilities of the most powerful supercomputers. Because of quantum superposition, a quantum computer — if it works to plan — can mimic several classical computers working in parallel.

In theory, a quantum computer can solve complex problems rapidly because it can attack complex problems that are beyond the scope of a classical computer. The basic advantage is speed as it is able to simulate several classical computers working in parallel

What will it mean for online banking?

Breaking banking grade encryption is far away. Scott Aaronson, a theoretical computer scientist who has written on Google’s feat, opines that current encryption standards would require a quantum computer to have “several thousand logical qubits” working in tandem perfectly.

Is India working on quantum computing?

There are no quantum computers in India yet. In 2018, the Department of Science & Technology unveiled a programme called Quantum-Enabled Science & Technology (QuEST) and committed to investing ₹80 crore over the next three years to accelerate research. The ostensible plan is to have a quantum computer built in India within the next decade. Phase-1 of the problem involves hiring research experts and establishing teams with the know-how to physically build such systems.

Bio-Restoration of Sunderbans

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Bio-Restoration of Sunder bans

A new technology called ‘Bio-restoration’ developed by Indian scientists for ecological restoration is helping in revival of mangroves degraded due to rising sea levels, climate change and human intrusion in the Sunderbans in West Bengal. The Bio-restoration of Sunderbans involves plantation of native salt-tolerant grasses and a diverse set of carefully identified mangrove species in different zones of degraded mangrove patches. It also involves the use of growth-promoting bacteria.

Ecological restoration means reviving native ecosystem in degraded areas. This has to be done while maintaining diversity of original flora and fauna through regeneration but bringing down the regeneration period to four-five. Natural regeneration takes longer time.

The Sunderbans is a protected wetland under the Ramsar Convention and is also a UNESCO World Heritage site. Small coastal patches of mangroves are highly vulnerable and fragmentation of the ecosystem is creating barriers to species movement and dispersal. Bio-restoration of Sunderbans, therefore, is an effective method of ecological restoration and the need of the hour.

The restoration process begins with stabilizing entire site of restoration by planting native salt tolerant grasses. An onsite mangrove nursery was developed to propagate mangroves for transplantation. Besides local mangroves and associate species, the nursery also grew threatened, endangered and vulnerable species. In all, 22 species of mangroves and associate plants were grown so as to maintain native diversity.

Particles Accelerator to reveal 2000 year old secrets

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Particles Accelerator to reveal 2000 year old secrets

A bid to decipher Roman-era scrolls carbonized in the deadly eruption of Mount Vesuvius has led to the discovery of a Particle Accelerator to reveal 2000 year old secrets.

Researchers have turned to Diamond, Britain’s national synchrotron in did cot, Oxford shire, to examine the papyri, which are described as “fragile like butterfly wings“.

They hope the synchrotron—which harnesses the power of electrons to produce powerful scans—could now end a decades-long effort to read the historic artifacts owned by the Institute de France.

A normal idea of a scroll is that you can just unroll it and read it,

These scrolls can’t be unrolled because the carbonization makes them completely brittle and that brittle nature would damage it completely if you tried to bend it at all.

Instead, the Diamond facility acts like a giant microscope, producing light 10 billion times brighter than the sun that allows scientists to study anything from fossils and jet engines to viruses and vaccines.

Rising Oceans, Sinking Cities

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Rising Oceans, Sinking Cities

1. This RSTV Summary is about an IPCC Report that says that The Earth could witness a dramatic decline in fish stocks, a 100-fold increase in the damage caused by super storms and millions of people displaced by rising seas, if humanity does not reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

2. The objective of the UNFCCC is to “stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous human-induced interference with the climate system”. According to the report Small Island and many low lying Mega cities will face Extreme Sea level events every year and the four countries for example USA, China, India and Europe will face the most devastating fallout of Oceans and ice related impacts of Climate change. The IPCC’s Fifth Assessment Report was a critical scientific input into the UNFCCC’s Paris Agreement in 2015.

3.Oceans serve as a marine sponge for the planet, soaking up a quarter of the CO2 emitted by humans and absorbing more than 90 per cent of the additional heat generated by greenhouse gas emissions since 1970. As a result, the oceans have become warmer, more acidic and less salty.

  • The global warming is the main cause of melting oceans. Because our land, water and air are closely related to this.
  • Oceans are covered three-fourth part of the globe and large number of fishermen and the economy is depend upon oceans because of the global warming our oceans are suffering very badly.

4. Some Main Concerns Raised by This Problem

Freshwater supplies for billions of people, including the world’s mountain dwellers, will be hit by melting glaciers that will first release far too much water, and then not enough.

Without cuts to man-made emissions, at least 30 per cent of the northern hemisphere’s surface permafrost could melt by the end of the 21st century, unleashing billions of tones of carbon and accelerating global warming even more.

By the year 2100, ‘annual flood damages are expected to increase by two to three orders of magnitude’, or 100- to 1,000-fold.

Glaciers are melting rapidly and consequently the volume of water in the oceans is increasing. It is estimated that around 400 million ton ice is being melted away every year in the last ten years.

5. Consequences

Higher temperatures caused by global warming have led to greater-than-average summer melting as well as diminished snowfall due to later winters and earlier springs. That creates an imbalance between runoff and ocean evaporation, causing sea levels to rise.

Mountain glaciers, increased heat is causing the massive ice sheets that cover Greenland and Antarctica to melt more quickly.

These rising sea levels pose a major threat to island nations and coastal areas meaning that these areas could be swamped and submerged by water anytime in the future. Since low lying areas are mostly occupied by poor people, they will be forced to migrate to hinterlands as the sea level rises

Contamination of freshwater sources would also affect irrigation and farming, eventually leading us to a food crisis.

Animals are facing the threat of extinction, and then humans living in coastal areas and island nations also face the threat of getting submerged in case a deluge happens.

If the climatic conditions are going to continue, it will be difficult to achieve the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) before the set timeline of 2030.

6. Action taken by the Indian government

India is doing well to achieve Paris agreement and promoting non-fossil fuels. And already achieved target of installed solar power capacity and also plan to raise its target.

To utilize and upgrade the excellent network of railways which is a far less polluting, cheaper and having less requirement of space than highways, as a mode of transport. In that direction, we need to calibrate our developmental roadmap so as to not blindly follow the developed countries.

India should take up the leadership role by demonstrating examples for other countries such as China and the USA which are sceptical about climate change.

Blue Revolution

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Blue Revolution

Vice President recently inaugurated the Aqua Aquaria India 2019.The theme for the 2019 edition was “To take Blue Revolution to India’s hinterland”. It is the largest aquaculture exhibition in India. It is a biennial exhibition organised by the Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA).India is today the 2nd largest producer of fisheries in the world. The sector forms 20% of the agricultural exports.

2. Blue Revolution, focuses on promoting fisheries and allied activities among farmers i.e. furthering the Blue economy-Blue economy is a term used for describing an aquatic or water based economy. It  has the vision to achieve economic prosperity of the country and the fishers and fish farmers as well as contribute towards food and nutritional security through full potential utilization of water resources for fisheries development in a sustainable manner.

2. Aim of the Revolution

To fully tap the total fish potential of the country both in the inland and the marine sector and triple the production by 2020 all this while keeping the emphasis on sustainable aquaculture.

To transform the fisheries sector as a modern industry with special focus on new technologies and processes

Better marketing post harvest infrastructure including e-commerce and other technologies and global best innovations.

To triple the export earnings by 2020 with focus on benefits flow to the fishers and fish farmers including through institutional mechanisms in the cooperative, producer companies and other structures

To enhance food and nutritional security of the country

3. What is Blue Revolution 2.0?

Government of India has announced Neel Kranthi Mission or Blue Revolution 2.0 for the development and management of fisheries across inland aquaculture, deep sea fishing and Mari culture sectors.

It will also expand the activities of the National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB).

It attempts to develop fisheries in a sustainable manner keeping in view the concerns of biosecurity and environment conservation.

The focus areas of Blue Revolution 2.0 include strengthening fisheries sector, increasing seafood output and export.

4. The peninsular region of India is covered on all 3 sides by ocean. There are tremendous fresh water resources as well. Fishing is a primary source of livelihood for several communities in India. In the recent years, Mari cultures also growing with the production of mussels, oysters, etc. Mari culture is the cultivation of marine organisms in the open-ocean or enclosed spaces filled with sea water.

5. Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana:

Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana‘s aim to increasing production in the sectors of fisheries and robust fisheries management framework.

 The government intends to bring all fishermen under the ambit of farmer welfare programs and social security schemes.

The new scheme has been introduced under the newly established department of fisheries announced by the government in its interim budget this year.

Its aim is to augment fish production to achieve its target of 15 million tons by 2020 under the blue revolution and raise it thereafter to about 20 million tons by 2020 to 2023.

6. Challenges in Indian Fisheries Sector

Concern over stagnation of production of marine fisheries

Resource quality issues-It pertains to the length of time for which adequate water would be standing in a water body.

Alternate demands on the same water body

Water quality problems resulting from these alternate demands

Limited rights over the water bodies

Security and length of tenancy when these are leased

Poaching of fish

Availability of spawn, seedlings and fingerlings on time

Availability of necessary feed and medicine

Access to markets and working capital, There is a major issue with ponds and tanks in most parts of the mainland in India —these are typically multiple-use water bodies. These multiple-use water bodies, therefore, are unreliable for fish production unless managed well.

Global warming and climate change adversely impacts the marine habitats and life forms, Challenges such as environmental threats, disease risks and trade barriers.

 7. Caution also needs to be exercised against reckless exploitation of limited resources, stopping exploitation of endangered marine species, Discharge of harming substances such as plastics and other wastes into water bodies, etc.

Nobel Prize for Medicine

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Nobel Prize for Medicine

US researchers William Kaelin and Gregg Semenza and Britain’s Peter Ratcliffe were awarded Nobel Prize for Medicine for study on hypoxia.

The Nobel Prize for Medicine was awarded as they established the basis for our understanding of how oxygen levels affect cellular metabolism and physiological function.

Beyond describing a fundamental physiological process that helps animals to thrive in some of the highest regions on Earth, the mechanism has given researchers new insights into treatments for anaemia, cancer and other diseases.

In work that spanned more than two decades, the researchers teased apart different aspects of how cells in the body sense and then respond to low oxygen, a gas that is crucial for converting food into useful energy.

When the amount of oxygen available to cells drops, levels of a protein complex named HIF rise, this then ramps up the activity of a gene used in the production of erythropoietin (EPO), a hormone that in turn boosts the production of oxygen-carrying red blood cells.

Randall Johnson, professor of molecular physiology and pathology at Cambridge University, said this year’s Nobel laureates “have greatly expanded our knowledge of how physiological response makes life possible.”

A drug that boosts the body’s production of red blood cells by tapping into the molecular machinery identified by the winners has already been approved in China and is under consideration by regulators in Europe

MYUPSC Current Affairs MCQ 05 December 2019

Topics : UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam 2020

UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

UPSC Prelims 2020 Daily Quiz

This quiz is intended to introduce you to concepts and certain important facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services preliminary exam 2018. It is not a test of your knowledge. If you score less, please do not mind. Read again sources provided and try to remember better.

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MYUPSC! Daily Current Affairs MCQ 04 December 2019

UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

UPSC Civil Services Examination – 2020

The following quiz will have 5-10 MCQs. The questions are mainly framed from The Hindu and PIB news articles.

This quiz is intended to introduce you to concepts and certain important facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services preliminary exam 2020. It is not a test of your knowledge. If you score less, please do not mind. Read again sources provided and try to remember better.

Please try to enjoy questions, discuss the concepts and facts they try to test from you and suggest improvements.

Hope you enjoy this quiz. If you like it, then please share it. Thank you.

To view Solutions, follow these instructions:

  1. Click on – ‘Start Quiz’ button
  2. Solve Questions
  3. Click on ‘Quiz Summary’ button
  4. Click on ‘Finish Quiz’ button
  5. Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links.

Start Quiz

Must Read Books for UPSC Exam

MYUPSC! Daily Current Affairs MCQ 03 December 2019

UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

Must Read Books for UPSC Exam

UPSC Civil Services Examination – 2020

The following quiz will have 5-10 MCQs. The questions are mainly framed from The Hindu and PIB news articles.

This quiz is intended to introduce you to concepts and certain important facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services preliminary exam 2020. It is not a test of your knowledge. If you score less, please do not mind. Read again sources provided and try to remember better.

Please try to enjoy questions, discuss the concepts and facts they try to test from you and suggest improvements.

Hope you enjoy this quiz. If you like it, then please share it. Thank you.

To view Solutions, follow these instructions:

  1. Click on – ‘Start Quiz’ button
  2. Solve Questions
  3. Click on ‘Quiz Summary’ button
  4. Click on ‘Finish Quiz’ button
  5. Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links.

Start Quiz

MYUPSC Daily Current Affairs 03 December 2019

UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

Must Read Books for UPSC Exam

Parliament to discuss on crimes against women

Defence Minister Rajnath Singh on Monday said the government is ready for a discussion in LokSabha on the issue of crime against women and willing to explore stringent provisions in laws to check incidents like the Hyderabad rape and murder case.

Responding to a discussion during Zero Hour in the wake of the rape and murder of a veterinarian in Hyderabad, Singh said he was falling short of words to condemn the heinous crime.

As soon as the House met for the day, Speaker Om Birla said he would allow members to raise the “serious issue” in Zero Hour.

Uttam Kumar Reddy (Cong) raised the issue of the rape and murder of the 26-year-old veterinarian and slammed the Telangana Home Minister for his purported “insensitive” remarks.

He also slammed the state police for initially delaying to lodge a case.T R Baalu (DMK) raised the issue of sexual assault of a school girl in Coimbatore.Saugat Roy (TMC) said rape convicts should be hanged.

PinakiMisra (BJD) questioned the delay in executing the death sentence awarded to convicts in the “Nirbhaya” gang-rape case.He said laws and establishment on fast track courts will not make a differences till the time the death sentences are not executed.

On November 29, four men, aged between 20 and 24, were arrested on charges of raping and killing the young woman veterinarian in Hyderabad.

Inner Line Permit (ILP)

Simply put, an Inner Line Permit is a document that allows an Indian citizen to visit or stay in a state that is protected under the ILP system.

Context: Union Home Minister Amit Shah has assured the civil society groups that the Citizenship Bill would provide protection to such regions and states where the Inner Line Permit (ILP) is applicable, and autonomous administration has been granted under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution.

The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill aims to make it easier for non-Muslim refugees from Bangladesh, Pakistan, and Afghanistan to obtain Indian citizenship.

  • If it is implemented with provisions for excluding from its ambit the states under the ILP regime, it means that beneficiaries under CAB will become Indian citizens but will not be able to settle in these three states.
  • As a matter of fact, the same restriction applies to existing Indian citizens.

Now, on these lines, even Assam, Tripura and Meghalaya are demanding the implementation of ILP system.

The ILP is obligatory for all those who reside outside the protected states;

  • Currently, the Inner Line Permit is operational in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and Nagaland.
  • It can be issued for travel purposes solely.
  • An ILP is issued by the state government concerned.

Origin of ILP:

ILP’s origin dates back to the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulations, 1873- It prohibited “British subjects” or Indians from entering into these protected areas.

After Independence, in 1950, the word “British subjects” was replaced by Citizens of India and the focus of the ban on free movement was explained as a bid to protect tribal cultures in northeastern India.

Nationwide vaccination to be conducted under Mission Indradhanush 2.0

Centre is launching nationwide vaccination drive to prevent eight diseases under Intensified Mission Indradhanush 2.0 across the country today.

The government’s flagship scheme is aimed at immunizing children under the age of 2 years and pregnant women against eight vaccine preventable diseases.

The IMI covers vaccines for diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus, poliomyelitis, tuberculosis, measles, meningitis and Hepatitis B. Vaccines for Japanese encephalitis and hemophilus influenza are also being provided in selected areas.

The IMI 2.0 aims to achieve targets of full immunization coverage in 272 districts spread over 27 States. The IMI 2.0 will be carried out between December 2019 and March 2020.

The campaign will be carried out in 260 development blocks of 43 districts of the state including the capital Bhopal and Indore. In addition , the mission will be running in four-phases in state. Children will be vaccinated under the National Mission Indradhanush in the months in January , February and March next year.

Public Health and Family Welfare Minister Tulsiram inaugurated this campaign in Indore district. The Project Officers of the District Urban Development Agency has been made the nodal officer for the successful operation of the mission.

Australia’s points-based visa policy

Context: In what is seen as an effort to block entry to unskilled people, UK Prime Minister Boris Johnson has promised to introduce an Australian style points-based visa policy from January 1, 2021.

Generally, for visas that are points-tested, points may be given for different categories ranging from age to proficiency in English and amount of work experience. To be granted such visas, the individual’s score must reach a cutoff fixed by the authorities.

For workers with an “eligible skilled occupation” there are 10 categories of visas available. Applications are tested with points awarded in various categories. One of these is “Skilled Independent Visa”.

  • A migrant with this visa can live and work permanently anywhere in Australia, study in Australia, sponsor eligible relatives for permanent residence and if eligible, enroll in Australia’s health-care system and subject to eligibility, also become an Australian citizen.

Some of the skilled jobs that come under the ambit of the skilled migration program include: accountant, actor, aeronautical engineer, advertising manager, air conditioning and mechanical services plumber, author, baker, swimming coach, urologist and vegetable grower.

What are the advantages of points systems? 

The ability to qualify without an employer sponsor- workers entering under the Australian points system are less dependent on their employers and do not need permission to switch between jobs as they do in the UK; as a result, they are expected to have more bargaining power and to operate in a more competitive labour market.

Steel imports have increased over a period of 5 years ,claims govt.

Government today said import of steel has increased during the last few years.

Replying to questions in the LokSabha, Steel Minister DharmendraPradhan, however, said domestic production has consistently increased regardless of such imports. Mr Pradhan said, in the current year, country is a net exporter.

He said, to counter import of cheap steel, anti-dumping duties have been imposed on various grades of steel which were dumped into the country.

Mr Pradhan further said, import of steel grades which are not manufactured in adequate quantity in the country is essential for supporting manufacturing sector.

The Minister informed the House that the total number of steel plants in the country is 977. He said, work is currently going on in NMDC steel plant in Nagarnar, Chattisgarh, which is a Greenfield project.

In reply to another question, the Minister said, the production of iron ore in the country is sufficient to meet the current demand by domestic steel industry. Mr Pradhan said, the supply of iron ore during last year 2018-19 was 207 metric tonne against its demand of 189 metric tonne.

Centre plans listing of single-use plastics

The Centre is likely to identify as many as eight articles as ‘single-use plastic’ items that will be discontinued on a priority basis, including plastic cutlery, plastic bags and certain Styrofoam items.

Defining single-use plastic is the first step in the direction of doing away with such products in India by 2022, as called for by Prime Minister NarendraModi during his Independence Day address.

While many states have banned plastic, there are wide variations in implementation and the range of products covered.After consulting stakeholders, the environment ministry is close to announcing a clear and uniform definition of single-use plastic.

The idea is to completely phase out single-use plastic where it is replaceable with environment friendly alternatives and to bring in a robust segregation, collection and disposal mechanism for single-use plastic.

The ministry wrote to the states in September asking them to curb production of plastic bags, irrespective of thickness and size, and Styrofoam (thermocol) cutlery and to encourage manufacturers and consumers to shift to other environmentally friendly material.

Every village will be asked to start waste segregation. They will send plastic waste to block-level units that will convert the aggregated waste into bales, shred them and transport them to aggregators for recycling to build in a sustainable mechanism.

India –Sweden to expand cooperation at delegation level talks

Prime Minister NarendraModi held delegation level talks with King Carl XVI Gustaf of Sweden at Hyderabad House in New Delhi today.

The meeting is aimed at giving a boost to bilateral co-operation in various sectors. Several agreements are expected to be signed between the two countries.

King Carl XVI Gustaf and Queen Silvia arrived on a state visit to India this morning at the invitation of President Ram NathKovind. They were given a ceremonial welcome at RashtrapatiBhawan. This is His Majesty’s third visit to India. The King will meet President Ram NathKovind this evening.

Earlier, External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar called on the King and Queen after their arrival and held discussions on ways to deepen bilateral ties.

Apart from the official programme in Delhi, the royal couple is scheduled to visit Mumbai and Uttarakhand. Several documents on furthering bilateral engagement are likely to be signed during the five day visit.

UN chief urges to improve efforts to counter climate change

United Nations Secretary General Antonio Guterres has said that the world’s efforts to stop climate change have been utterly inadequate so far.

There is a danger global warming could pass the point of no return. He was speaking before the start of a International Climate Conference in Madrid scheduled for today.

The U.N. Chief noted that the world has the scientific knowledge and the technical means to limit global warming, but the political will is lacking.

Mr Guterres said, he hoped the meeting in Madrid would see governments make more ambitious pledges ahead of a deadline to do so next year.

Delegates from almost 200 countries will try to put the finishing touches on the rules governing the 2015 Paris climate accord at the two-week meeting.

Govt. considering satellite mechanisms to monitor forestation

A satellite-based mechanism to monitor areas under green cover and the growth of saplings planted there is being developed by the government, Union Environment Minister PrakashJavadekar said on Saturday. The Environment minister said some states have made significant achievements in nurturing planted saplings to their full growth.

The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) funds to the tune of Rs 47,000 crore will be utilised for greening India, he said after a meeting with the forest ministers and officials of various states.

The minister said “very positive discussions” on issues like the use of CAMPA fund for forestation, water conservation, fodder augmentation and moisture management in the forests, besides the eradication of Lantana weed were held in the meeting.

In August this year, the Environment minister handed over Rs 47,436 crore of CAMPA funds to various states for the promotion of afforestation and achieving green objective of the country.

In the wake of under-utilisation of money for compensatory afforestation, the Supreme Court in 2001 had ordered for coming up with CAMPA fund.

In 2009, the Supreme Court permitted release of Rs 1,000 crore every year to the states and Union territories for compensatory afforestation and other activities.

Jnanpith Award

Context: Eminent Malayalam poet Akkitham has been chosen for 55th Jnanpith Award for the year 2019, Instituted in 1961.

Eligibility: Any Indian citizen who writes in any of the official languages of India is eligible for the honour.

Operation ‘Clean Art’

It is first pan India operation to crackdown on the smuggling of mongoose hair. Conceived by WCCB

Aim: To ensure that the mongoose hair brush trade should be closed down across the country.

Protection: Mongoose is listed in Schedule II Part 2 of the Wildlife Protection Act. Any smuggling or possession of its body part is a non-bailable offence.

Gurpreetsingh and Sunil Kumar wins national wrestling championships

In wrestling, Asian Championships silver medallists Gurpreet Singh and Sunil Kumar clinched gold medals on the final day of the senior national championships in Jalandhar yesterday.

Gurpreet defeated two-time world junior championships medallist SajanBhanwal, who was representing the Railways, by a 3-1 margin, in the 77 kilogram category. This was Punjab grappler’s fourth senior national title.

Sunil also managed an easy win over Punjab’s Prabhal. The Railway’s grappler used all his experience to crush the Punjab wrestler 5-1 in the 87 kg final. In the 55 kg category, Arjun, representing Services, won against Ajay by technical superiority.

Source: The Hindu/Indian Express/Times of India/PIB

MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test – 1

Geography and Economy

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Mock Test – 1

Section – 1 (Geography MCQ)

1. Consider the following statements;

1. Continent-making movements are called Epeirogenic movements.

2. Mountain-making movements are called orogenic movements.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of these

2. Which of the following conditions does not favour the formation of a tropical cyclone?

(a) Temperature above 27°C

(b) Significant vertical wind difference

(c) High humidity levels

(d) Divergence in the upper atmosphere

3. Consider the following statements;

1. Prairies are called Parklands.

2. Tropical rainforests are known as Selva.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of these

4. Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?

(a) Syria

(b) Jordan

(c) Lebanon

(d) Israel

5. Which one of the following is also known as Top Slip?

(a) Simlipal National Park

(B) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary

(C) Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary

(d) Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park

6. Consider the following statements;

1. Visakhapatnam is the deepest port of India.

2. Kochi is a natural harbour.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of these

7. Consider the following statements;

1. Assam shares a border with Bhutan and Bangladesh.

2. West Bengal shares a border with Bhutan and Nepal.

3. Mizoram shares a border with Bangladesh and Myanmar.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

8. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

(a) Kosi: Consequent River

(b) Narmada: Rift Valley River

(c) Sutlej: Antecedent River

(d) Ghaggar: River with interior drainage

9. Consider the following statements;

1. Groundnut is not grown in kharif season.

2. Sesame is a kharif crop in North India and Rabi crop in South India.

3. Cotton is not grown in Rabi season.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None of these

10. In which one of the following environment does one expect the presence of dispersed rural settlements?

(a) Alluvial plains of the Ganga

(b) Arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan

(c) Lower valleys of the Himalayas

(d) Forests and hills in the North-East

11. In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine productivity by bringing the?

1. Decomposer micro-organisms to the surface.

2. Nutrients to the surface.

3. bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(b) Only 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) Only 3

12. Which of the following is called as the ‘lighthouse of the Mediterranean’?

(a) Mount Vesuvius

(b) Mount Fujiyama

(c) Mount Chimborazo

(d) Mount Stromboli

13. Consider the following statements;

1. The winds which blow between 30°N and 60°S latitudes throughout the year are known as Westerlies.

2. the most air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of Westerlies.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Consider the following statements;

1. Namdapha National Park is in Assam.

2. Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary is in Bihar.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of these

15. The type of fault in which the rock blocks are displaced in opposite directions and one of the blocks moves downwards is called?

(a) Normal fault

(b) Reverse fault

(c) Thrust fault

(d) Step fault

16. Consider the following statements;

1. River Ken is a left bank tributary of Ganga.

2. River Chenab is the largest tributary of Indus.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of these

17. Consider the following statements;

1. between the valley of Narmada and Tapti lies Satpura.

2. Banas and its tributaries lies to the East of Aravallis.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of these

18. Shallow ploughing only to the depth need to ensure quick seed germination and leaving crop residues and ground litter to protect the soil is?

(a) no-tillage farming

(b) Minimum tillage farming

(c) Contour cropping

(d) Gully reclamation

19. According to the Demographic Transition Model;

1. Late expanding stage has declining fertility and mortality rates.

2. Early expanding stage has high fertility and declining mortality rates.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of these

20. Which one of the following countries is the first country in the world to propose a carbon tax for its people to address the global warming?

(a) Australia

(b) Germany

(c) Japan

(d) New Zealand

21. Consider the following statements;

1. Cement industry is not a weight losing industry.

2. Hindustan Aluminium Corporation is located at Jaykaynagar.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of these

22. Which of the following add/adds nitrogen to soil?

1. Excretion of urea by animals.

2. Burning of coal by man.

3. Death of vegetation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) All of these

23. Consider the following statements;

1. The desert proper is known as Marusthali.

2. The shifting sand-dunes are locally known as Durian.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of the above

24. Which of the following have short life cycle and may form a fairly dense stand after rainfall?

(a) Perennials

(b) Ephemerals

(c) Succulents

(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

25. In which of the following types of age-sex pyramids, both birth and death rates are low and declining?

(A) Progressive

(b) Regressive

(C) Stationary

(d) Intermediate

26. Brunt land Commission is also known as

(a) The World Commission on Environmental and Development

(b) The World Commission on Reduction of Greenhouse Gases

(c) The World Commission on Ozone Depletion

(d) The World Commission on Protection of Spice

27. Volcanic activity occurs in which of the following tectonic settings?

1. Sea floor spreading 2. Subduction

3. Hotspot

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

28. Which one of the following rivers has the highest replenishable groundwater resource in the country?

(a) The Indus

(b) The Ganga

(c) The Brahmaputra

(d) The Godavari

29. Consider the following statements;

1. Cork, Oak, Jarrah, Karri, Cedar, Sequoia trees are found in tropical rainforest.

2. Quinine is extracted from the bark of Cinchona trees.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of these

30. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Vikramshila Monastery: Uttar Pradesh

(b) Hemkund Gurudwara: Himachal Pradesh

(c) Udayagiri Caves: Maharashtra

(D) Amaravati Buddhist Stupa: Andhra Pradesh

31. Which of the following findings are evident for the climate change?

1. Carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere now reached about 398 PPM that is highest in last 65000 years.

2. Global surface temperature increased about 0.6°C from the average temperature.

3. Arctic ice sheet is declining at a rate of 11.5% per decade.

4. The global average sea level has risen 4-8 inches over the past century.

5. 2000 to 2009 was the warmest decade on record.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below;

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2, 4 and 5

(d) All of these

32. Economic density is?

(a) Total number of people per unit of land

(b) Agricultural population per unit area of land

(c) Agricultural population per unit area of cultivated land

(d) Ratio between the requirements of population and the resources made available to it

33. Consider the following statements;

1. Length of a terrestrial mile is lesser than that of a nautical mile.

2. Harmattan is a dusty land-wind of the East African coast.

3. Greece and Albania form a part of the lberian Peninsula.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(c) Only 3

(d) All of these

34. Which one of the following phenomenons happens when the sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn in the Southern hemisphere?

(a) High pressure develops over the North-Western India due to low temperatures

(b) Low pressure develops over the North-Western India due to high temperatures

(c) No changes in temperature and pressure occur in the North-Western India

(d) ‘Loo’ blows in the North-Western India

35. Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?

(a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium

(b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen

(c) Oxygen, Hydrogen, Phosphorus

(d) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium

36. Which of the following signifies an elimination of thin fertile film of soil from large area?

(a) Rill erosion

(b) Sheet erosion

(c) Gully erosion

(d) Slip erosion

37. Which one of the following is not one of the missions in India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change?

(a) National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture

(b) National Water Mission

(c) National Mission on Sustainable Habitat

(d) National Pollution Mission

38. Which of the following is true about Coriolis force?

1. Occurs as a result of Earth’s rotation from West to East.

2. Deflection of wind/current occurs to the right in North hemisphere and left in South hemisphere.

3. Coriolis effect is maximum at the equator and minimum at poles.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below;

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(C) All of these

(d) None of these

39. Through which one of the following groups of countries does the equator pass?

(a) Brazil, Zambia and Malaysia

(b) Columbia, Kenya and Indonesia

(c) Brazil, Sudan and Malaysia

(d) Venezuela, Ethiopia and Indonesia

40. Consider the following statements;

1. Air borne plants that form symbiotic relationships with host plants is called epiphytes.

2. Low lying broad leaved plants is called as Forbes.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of the above

41. In the context of CO2 emission and global warming, what is the name of a market driven device under the UNFCC that allows developing countries to get funds/ incentives from the developed countries to adopt better technologies to reduce greenhouse gas emissions?

(a) Carbon Footprint

(b) Carbon Credit Rating

(c) Clean Development Mechanism

(d) Emission Reduction Norm

42. Consider the following statements;

1. Thein Dam Project provides drinking water to Delhi.

2 The purpose of Damodar Project is both flood control and irrigation.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of the above

43. Which one of the following facts was not considered by those while discussing the concept of sea floor spreading?

(a) Volcanic activity along the mid-oceanic ridges

(b) Stripes of normal and reverse magnetic field observed in the rocks of ocean floor

(c) Distribution of fossils in different continents

(d) Age of rocks from the ocean floor

44. If there were no Himalayan ranges, what would have been the most likely geographical impact on India?

1. Much of the country would experience the cold waves from Siberia.

2. Indo-Gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvial soils.

3. The pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at present.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below?

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

45. In India, which type of forest among the following occupies the largest area?

(A) Montane wet temperate forest

(b) Sub-tropical dry evergreen forest

(c) Tropical moist deciduous forest

(d) Tropical wet evergreen forest

46. Ecotone is?

(a) Mixed ecosystem

(b) Borders of ecosystem

(c) Transitional region between ecosystems

(d) Core of ecosystem

47. Which of the following substances are found in the beach sands of many parts of Kerala?

1. Ilmenite

2. Zircon

3. Sillimanite

4. Tungsten

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) All of the above

48. Most of the winter precipitation of lowlands in the middle latitudes is of?

(a) Cyclonic origin

(b) Convectional origin

(c) Orographic origin

(d) Monsoonal origin

49. The ‘Red Data Books’ published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of?

1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.

2. threatened plant and animal species.

3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 3

(b) Only 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) Only 3

50. If a tropical rainforest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because

(a) The soil of rainforest is deficient in nutrients

(b) Propagules of the trees in a rainforest have poor viability

(c) The rainforest species are slow growing

(d) Exotic species invade the fertile soil of rainforest

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Section – 2: Practice Test – 1 (Economy MCQ)

1. Which of the following statement(s) is true about HDI?

1. Since 2010, UNDP began using the new method of calculating HDI.

2. It is based on life expectancy, per capita income mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling.

3. HDI is the arithmetic mean of the Life Expectancy Index, Education Index and Income Index.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

(d) All of these

2. Deficit financing leads to inflation in general, but it can be checked if?

(a) Government expenditure leads to increase in aggregate supply in ratio of aggregate demand

(b) Only aggregate demand is increased

(c) All the expenditure is devoted to the payment of national debt

(d) All of the above

3. Name the bank announced to be set-up in the budget for regulating and refinancing all Micro-Finance Institutions (MFI) which are in the business of lending to micro/small business entities engaged in manufacturing, trading and services activities?

(a) Micro Bank

(b) MUDRA Bank

(c) SIDBI Bank

(d) Micro-Finance Bank

4. Which of the following are the main causes of slow rate of growth of per capita income in India?

1. High level of fiscal deficits.

2. High capital output ratio.

3. High rate of household savings.

4. High rate of growth of population.

5. High rate of capital formation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 5

5. Which of the following statements are true regarding the TRIPS agreement of the WTO?

1. TRIPS are related to protecting the intellectual property rights.

2. Developing countries were supposed to pass TRIPS Complaint National Legislation by 2005. While for developed countries the time limit was till 1995.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. Consider the following statements regarding the OPEC

1. At present, OPEC has total 14 members’ countries.

2. The objective of OPEC was to control production and price of petroleum so as to safeguard the interests of oil exporting countries.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. Consider the following regarding the functions of WTO

1. To provide facilities for implementation, administration and operation of multilateral agreements of the World Trade.

2. To provide a platform to member countries to decide future strategies related to trade and tariff.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Consider the following statements;

1. Geographical indication is granted to a community or group or an institution that represents the interests of the world.

2. It is given to a product for a specific period of time (10 years in India).

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. The GST Bill comprises –

1. The CGST Bill – The Central Goods and Services Tax Bill, 2017

2. The IGST Bill – The Integrated Goods and Services Tax Bill, 2017

3. The UTGST Bill- The Union Territory Goods and Services Tax Bill, 2017

4. The Compensation Bill – The Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to the States) Bill, 2017

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a)Only 1

(b) 1 and 2

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

10. After a gap of over 20 years, ` 1 note has been released in the country on 6th March, 2015 by Finance Secretary Rajiv Mehrishi. The new ` 1 note bears the signature of

(A) Finance Minister

(B) RBI Governor

(C) Finance Secretary

 (d) Home Secretary

11. The capital account convertibility of the Indian Rupee implies

(a) That the Indian Rupee can be exchanged by the authorised dealers for travel

(b) That the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trade in goods and services

(c) That the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trading financial assets

(d) None of the above

12. World Bank provides long-run capital to member countries for economic reconstruction and development.

World Bank provides capital mainly for the following purposes

1. To rehabilitate war ruined economics.

2. To finance productive efforts according to peacetime requirements.

3. To develop resources and production facilities in underdeveloped countries.

Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

13. Consider the following statements

1. Ministerial conference is the highest decision-making body of the WTO, which usually meets once every 2 years.

2. Its headquarters is in Geneva.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Consider the following statement(s) regarding the International Monetary fund

1. IMF is controlled and managed by a Board of Governors.

2. Each Governor has the right of 250 votes on the basis of membership and one additional vote for each SDR 1 lakh quota.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15. Consider the following statements

1. General agreement on trade in services is a treaty of the

World Trade Organisation (WTO) that entered into force in

January, 1995.

2. All members of the WTO are signatories to the general agreement on trade in services.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. IMF was established to meet which of the following objectives?

1. Promoting International Monetary Co-operation.

2. Expanding International Trade.

3. Lessening the disequilibrium in balance of trade.

4. Avoiding competitive exchange depreciations.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

17. Consider the following statements about ‘Mega Food Park’

1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for food processing industries.

2. To increase processing perishable items and reduce wastage.

3. To provide emerging and eco friendly food processing technology to entrepreneurs.

Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3

(d) All of these

18. Which one of the following is related with the Baltic Dry index?

(a) An assessment of the price of moving the major raw materials by sea

(b) An index showing the rising and falling prices of shares and equities in the Baltic region

(c) An assessment showing the prices of the crude oil produced in the Baltic region

(d) None of the above

19. Which one of the following items has the highest share of India in the world exports?

(a) Coffee, Tea, Mate, Spices etc

(b) Pearls, Precious stones, Metals, Coins etc

(c) Lac, Gums, Resins, Vegetable Saps and extracts etc

(d) Vegetable Plaiting Materials, Vegetable Products etc

20. The fair and remuneration price of sugarcane is approved by the

(a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs

(b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices

(c) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture

(d) Agricultural Produce Market Committee

21. Which one of the following factors is taken account to calculate the Balance of Payment (BOP), of a country?

(A) Current account

(b) Changes in the foreign exchange reserves

(c) Errors and omissions (d) All of these

22. Which one of the following international organisations offers political risk insurance guarantees to help investors to protect foreign direct investments made in developing countries against political risk?

(a) IDA

(b) IFC

(c) IMF

(d) MIGA

23. Examine the following statements in the context of the Base Rate system of interest rates

1. Corporate entities were able to get loans at interest rates lower than PLR while it is not possible with Base Rate.

2. Monetary policy is transmitted better through Base Rate system.

3. Base Rate is applicable only to loans given after 1st July, 2010.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(c) Only 2

(d) All of these

24. Consider the following statements

1. Regional Rural banks were set-up in 1975, under an Act of Parliament to exclusively cater to the credit needs of rural population.

2. The sponsor banks have the largest share in the equality of Regional Rural banks.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

25. Which of these statements is true regarding the Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) of IMF?

1. The SDRs are equivalent to a currency and represent a claim on the IMF.

2. The value of SDRs in terms of its component currencies is fixed annually.

3. The basket of currencies of SDRs which presently consist of US Dollar, Euro, the Chinese renminbi, Pound and Yen is revised every 5 years.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 3

(b) Only 1

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) All of these

26. Which of the following statements are true regarding Hedge Funds?

1. Hedge funds are open to only select group of investors.

2. Hedge funds have been allowed to function in India recently after registering with SEBI.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

27. Consider the following statements;

1. NABARD is the nodal agency for implementing the schemes in respect of co-operative credit and RRBs.

2. NABARD was the nodal agency for implementing the agricultural debt waiver and Debt Relief Scheme, 2008.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2

28. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Agreement on Agriculture of the WTO?

1. Green box, blue box and amber box refer to domestic subsidies in agriculture.

2. There is no limit on green box subsidies for both developing and developed economies.

3. In the long-run, the agreement on agriculture is expected to benefit the developing countries.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) All of these

29. Which State Government launched ‘Bhagya shree’ scheme in place of the Sukanya scheme which caters to girls from Below Poverty Line (BPL) families?

(a) Gujarat

(b) Kerala

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Haryana

30. Which of the following are the objectives of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)?

1. To stabilise agricultural prices.

2. To ensure meaningful real income levels to the farmers.

3. To protect the interest of the consumers by providing essential agricultural commodities at reasonable rate through PDS.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) All of the above

31. Which of these statements is true regarding the lending provisions of the IMF?

1. IMF lends to only member countries.

2. IMF lends only to help with Balance of Payments (BoP) problems.

3. IMF lending is also possible for specific projects relating to economic restructuring of an economy.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 1 and 3

(b) Only 1

(c) 1 and 2

(d) Only 3

32. Which of the following statements is true regarding a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC)?

1. NBFC cannot accept demand deposits.

2. For a NBFC financial assets must be 50% more than its total assets.

3. Normal banks do all of the activities normally done by an NBFC.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a)Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

(d) All of these

33. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) wants the rules tightened to bring a larger number of Mergers and Acquisitions (M and As) under its scrutiny. In this context, consider the following statements about CCI

1. Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established with effect from14th October, 2003.

2. The goal is to curtail the monopoly tendencies and foster the competition among public sector enterprises.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

34. Which of the following statements is true regarding the innovation index measure?

1. It is developed by INSEAD, France.

2. Japan is the top country in this index.

3. The National Innovation Council (NIC) was formed to foster innovation in India especially in the area of growth.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below;

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3

(d) All of the above

35. Examine these statements in the context of the financial instruments known as futures.

1. Futures are agreements between two parties to buy or sell shares at a future date.

2. Options are a class of futures where there is a right, but not the obligation to buy or sell at a future date.

3. Forwards are a particular class of futures.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 3

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) All of these

36. Which one of the following is likely to the most inflationary, in its effect?

(a) Repayment of public debt

(b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit

(c) Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deficit

(d) Creating new money to finance a budget deficit

37. Consider the following statements regarding Reserve Bank of India;

1. It is a banker to the Central Government.

2. It formulates and administers monetary policy.

3. It acts as an agent of the government in respect of India.

4. It handles the borrowing programme of Government of India.

Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) All of the above

38. Consider the following regarding World Trade organisation

1. The Uruguay round of GATT (1986-93) gave birth to WTO.

2. WTO was officially constituted as a permanent body on 1st January, 1995 as an effective formal organisation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

39. Under the WTO agreement, Agreement on Agriculture (AoA), developing countries won over with some concessional features and flexibilities. Its three pillars are?

1. Domestic support

2. Export subsidies

3. Market access

4. Non-tariff barriers

Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) All of the above

40. Consider the following regarding WTO

1. WTO negotiations proceed not by consensus of all members, but by a process of informal negotiations between small groups.

2. Such negotiations are often called green room.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

41. Personal Income Tax limit was not changed in Union Budget 2016-17. What is the present Personal I-T exemption limit?

(a) 2.5 lakh

(b) 2.75 lakh

(c)  3 lakh

(d)  5 lakh

42. Which one of the following items has gained the highest growth rate in the import composition of the Indian economy in the last decade?

(a) Pearls, precious and semiprecious stones

(b) Gold and silver

(c) Oil-cake and other solid residues

(d) None of the above

43. Consider the following regarding the objectives of WTO

1. To improve the standard of living of people in member countries.

2. To ensure full employment and increase in effective demand.

3. To enlarge production and trade of goods and services.

Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) All of these

44. The Indian banking system consists of?

1. 26 public sector banks

2. 20 private sector banks

3. 43 foreign banks

4. 56 regional rural banks

5. 1589 urban cooperative banks

6. 93550 rural cooperative banks

Select the correct option from the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 3, 4 and 5

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

(d) All of these

45. Hawala transactions relate to payments

(a) Received in rupees against overseas currencies and vice versa without going through the official channels

(b) Received for sale or transfer of shares without going through the established stock exchanges

(c) Received as commission for services rendered to overseas investors, buyers or sellers in assisting them to get over the red tape and in getting preferential treatment

(d) Made to political parties or to individuals for meeting election expenses

46. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) cancelled the certificate of registration of the 26 Non- Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) including?

(a) Mathura Financial Services Limited

(b) SJ Finance & Consultants Private Limited

(c) Modern Vintrade Private Limited

(d) All of the above

47. The main cause of cyclical unemployment is that?

(a) Firms engage in race, gender and sex discrimination in their hiring practices

(b) Some individuals do not have marketable job skills

(c) The level of overall economic activity fluctuates

(d) Workers often voluntarily quit a job look for a better job

48. If the Cash Reserve ratio is lowered by the RBI, its impact upon credit creation will be to?

(a) Decrease it

(b) Increase it

(c) No impact

(d) None of these

49. Which of the following is true about money market in India?

1. the most active segment of money market is overight call market.

2. The money market instruments have maturity of less than 1 year.

3. The money market instruments in India are regulated by RBI and SBI.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 1 and 2

(b) Only 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) All of the above

50. With regard to proposed GST, which of the following is correct?

1. Taxes on items containing alcohol and petroleum product are kept out of GST.

2. Entertainment tax, luxury tax and taxes on gambling are part of GST.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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MYUPSC UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

If you have joined MYUPSC Study Portal, just follow the curriculum of the batch, you will reach the destination. If you are starting on your own, to begin with follow the initial steps.

  • Analysis of previous question papers
  • Understanding of Syllabus
  • Read a good newspaper daily preferably The Hindu or Indian Express
  • Read all basic NCERTs before reading reference books
  • Reading of basic study material/reference books
  • Read YOJANA and KURUKSHETRA magazine monthly
  • Start writing-This will be the deciding factor in the Mains

 

Let us analyze the critical areas according to their weightage in IAS-UPSC Exam.

  • GS Based Marks= GS Prelims, 200 marks + GS Mains, 1000 marks + Essay, 250 marks (Essay means Mains GS and writing style) + Interview, 275 marks (It means Mains GS and communication style) = 1725 marks
  • Optional Based Marks = 500 marks
  • Aptitude based Marks = Prelims Aptitude = 200 marks

 

When to start preparation

  • One should start preparation around eight or nine months prior to the exam.
  • If you are going to prepare immediately after graduation, then don’t waste time, start immediately after your final exam.
  • If you are going to study while working, it is possible but starts earliest. Don’t delay to start otherwise you will experience time crunch later.
  • If you are preparing during graduation, generalized plan cannot be suggested, so discuss personally with us to evolve an individual plan.

 

What is required to get success in IAS-UPSC exam

  • Critical self-assessment
  • Patience and Self confidence
  • Good writing practice
  • Basic command over English and Aptitude
  • Good grasp over current affairs
  • Healthy competitions and feedback
  • Quality material and guidance
  • Devoted study

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UPSC IAS Main exam GS Paper-1 Complete study notes

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RPSC RAS/RTS Prelims Exam Rajasthan GK Complete Study Material in English

Geography of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

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SERVICES/DEPARTMENTS IN CIVIL SERVICES

The Indian Civil Services are organized into two main sections. These are the All India Services and the Central Services. Officers of the All India Services, on appointment by the Government of India, are placed at the disposal of the different State Governments. These services include:

  • The Indian Administrative Service (IAS)
  • The Indian Police Service (IPS)
  • The Indian Forest Service (IFS)

Officers of the Central Services, on the other hand, wherever they might be posted, serve the Government of India only. Central Services are of two types-Groups A&B.

GROUP ‘A’ SERVICES

Central Services comprise various different services/ posts. These include:

  • The Indian Foreign Service (IFS)
  • The Indian Railway Service
  • Indian Postal Service
  • Accounts and Auditing Services (including The Indian Audit and Accounts Service, The Indian Civil Accounts Service, The Indian Defence Accounts Service, The Indian Revenue Service.)
  • Indian Customs and Central Excise
  • The Indian Ordnance Factories Service
  • The Indian Defence Estates Service
  • The Indian Information Service
  • The Central Trade Services

GROUP ‘B’ SERVICES

  • The Group ‘B’ Services include the Central Secretariat Service (Section Officers Grade-CSS), the Railway Board Secretariat Service (Section Officers’ Grade- RBSS), the Indian Foreign Service (Section Officers’ Grade- IFS ‘B’), the Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Service (Assistant Civilian Staff Officers Grade), the Customs’ Appraisers Service, the Delhi and Andaman & Nicobar Islands Civil Service (DANICS), the Goa, Daman and Diu Police Service, Posts of Assistant Commandant, Post of Deputy Superintendents of Police in the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). Though officers of the Group ‘B’ Services start off almost at par with their Group ‘A’ counterparts, yet after the fourth year they lag behind by five to seven years. This gap widens further by the 18th year when Group’A’ Officers enter the Super Time Scale. The most coveted service among the “Group B” services is the Central Secretariat Service (CSS).

THE INDIAN ADMINISTRATIVE SERVICE (IAS)

The IAS (Indian Administrative Service) was formally constituted in 1947. The IAS handles affairs of the government. At the central level, this involves the framing and implementation of policy. At the district level, it is concerned with district affairs, including developmental functions. At the divisional level, the IAS officers look after law and order, general administration and development work. In the Government of India (i.e. in the ministries), IAS officers deal with the formulation of policies and supervise their implementation. In each Ministry they supervise the allotment and utilization of funds by the field officers in the Ministry. They may also be asked to furnish information to the Parliament in response to queries relating to the Ministry. Sometimes, their works entail visits to the States. Depending on the rank, an IAS officer might even be the government nominee on the Board of Directors of some Public Sector Corporation. They may also at times be nominated to independently represent India at International forums or accompany the Minister for such meetings. From the rank of Deputy Secretary to the Government of India, they can sign international agreements on behalf of the Government of India. However, more than half their career life will be spent in the State they are allocated, where they will look after law and order, general administration, revenue work and developmental functions. During the course of their two-year probation they will be attached to various training schools, to the Secretariat and field offices and to a district collector’s office. Here they will do the work of a sub magistrate. On completion of their two-year’s probation they will be appointed as a Sub Divisional Magistrate (SDM). As SDM they will look after law and order, general administration, revenue work and such developmental work as may be assigned to them. In the next three scales i.e. Senior Scale, Junior Administrative Grade and Selection Grade they will serve as District Magistrate, Chief Development Officer, Director of a department, Managing Director of a Public Sector Unit or a Senior officer in the State Secretariat. In other words, they could be a District Magistrate in their fifth year of service and remain a DM till they are promoted to the Super Time Scale in the 17th year of their service. Following this there are promotions in scale to the ranks of Principal Secretary and additional Chief Secretary. The highest post in the State is that of the Chief Secretary.

INDIAN FOREIGN SERVICE (IFS)

The Indian Foreign Service deals with the country’s external affairs, including diplomacy, trade and cultural relations. It is responsible for the administration and activities of Indian missions abroad, and for the framing and implementation of the Government’s foreign policy. After the training at Mussoorie, the IFS probationers are attached to the Ministry of External Affairs and have to become conversant in a major foreign language. During the second year they are appointed as Third Secretaries in Indian Embassy/High Commission where that language is spoken. They spend another two years in the same Embassy as Second Secretaries. After two postings abroad, the IFS Officers are posted in India in the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA). In the MEA, they will look after India’s political, economic and commercial work. In the Senior Scale and the Junior Administrative Grade the IFS Officers are appointed as First Secretaries. In the Selection Grade, IFS Officers serve as Counsellors. In very small countries the Indian Ambassador would be in that grade. In the super time scale, many IFS Officers become Ambassadors of medium sized countries while others are appointed as Ministers in the large embassies like Washington and Moscow. In the Additional Secretaries Grade, IFS Officers are made ambassadors in relatively big embassies or as Deputy High Commissioner in London. The Indian Embassies/High Commissions like Moscow, Washington and London are headed by Ambassadors of the rank of Secretary. At this level, some Ambassadors are non-IFS Officers like politicians, retired or serving IAS Officers or retired Defence Chief. There are four to five Secretary level officers in the MEA- the senior most being the Foreign Secretary.

INDIAN POLICE SERVICE (IPS)

The IPS (Indian Police Service) is responsible for public safety and security. The IPS mainly takes care of law and order, which, at the district level, is a responsibility shared with the IAS; crime prevention and detection; and traffic control and accident prevention and management. In order to fulfill these functions with greater efficiency, this service is divided into various functional departments, including: a) Crime Branch b) Criminal Investigation Department (CID) c) Home Guards d) Traffic Bureau. A number of Central Policing Agencies are also headed by the IPS. These include: the Intelligence Bureau (IB), Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), Cabinet Secretariat Security, the Border Security Force (BSF), and the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF). During the probation period they will undergo a year training in the office of a Superintendent of Police of a district in the State they have been allocated. On completing their two-year probation, they will be confirmed as a three star Assistant Superintendent of Police (ASP). They will then in all probability be posted as the Police Officer of a sub-division (SDPO) for two years till they are promoted to the Senior Scale. As the SDPO, Superintendent of Police, Senior Superintendent of Police of a District and as Deputy Inspector General of a Range (group of districts), they will be exclusively responsible for the prevention and detection of crime. However, the law and order duties will be shared with their IAS counterpart. In cities like Delhi, Mumbai and Bangalore, the law and order duties are the exclusive responsibility of the police force. In these cities the ASP, SP, and the DIG are called Assistant Commissioner of Police (ACPO), Deputy Commissioner of Police (DCP) and Commissioner of Police (CP). On being promoted to the Senior Scale they could serve as ASP of a larger district for the first two years or SP of a small district. They are likely to spend about thirteen years covering the Senior Scale, Junior Administrative Grade and Selection Grade as SP/SSP of a district, SP (Crime), SP (CID), SP (Home Guards), the head of some police battalion, SP (Traffic) and so on. Outside the districts, the most satisfying jobs are in the intelligence agencies of the Government of India especially in the Intelligence Bureau (IB) and the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). There are many other Central agencies to which the IPS Officers may be sent on deputation at every stage of their career, except in the Junior Scale. Some of these are the Cabinet Secretariat, the Border Security Force, the Central Reserve Police Force and the Central Industrial Security Force. Unlike IAS Officers who cannot permanently serve the Central government, some IPS dominated central agencies absorb the IPS Officers till they retire. The senior posts in the IPS are those of the Deputy Inspector General, Inspector General, Additional DG and Director General.

INDIAN CUSTOMS AND CENTRAL EXCISE SERVICE

It is basically concerned with two main aspects, mainly Customs and Excise. While Customs is concerned with the checking and levy of duty on taxable goods brought into the country, the Excise department is involved with the taxation of goods manufactured within the country.

CUSTOMS

Customs officers could be dealing with customs, excise or narcotics related matters. They are not only posted in important coastal and border towns or in towns with international airports, they can be posted anywhere. Their probation will be either in Chennai, Mumbai, Kolkata or Delhi and in the Junior and Senior scales they will be designated as Assistant Commissioner of Customs. As Deputy Commissioner in the JAG they will move to much bigger towns. In this grade of Junior Administration Grade (JAG) they could later become Additional Commissioner of Customs.

CENTRAL EXCISE

Probation will be in Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai or Chennai and will be posted in industrial townships to begin with and then in big cities. In the Junior Scale, the Central excise officer could serve as Assistant Commissioner of Central Excise. They can hold the latter rank in the senior scale also. In the JAG they could be a Deputy or Additional Commissioner of Central Excise. Commissioners of Customs and Central Excise are officers in the Senior Administrative Grade. They wield enormous power and the jurisdiction which normally extends over several states. Chief Commissioners of Customs and Central Excise are placed in the next higher grade which is similar to that of Additional Secretaries. After that they can aspire to become a member of the Central Board of Excise and Customs and later even its Chairman.

INDIAN REVENUE SERVICE

The job involves all the processes from investigation to decisions and policy planning. As the job deals with the fiscal policy and budget, aptitude for accounts as well as a legal aptitude is useful. The professional training is conducted in the National Academy of Direct Taxes, Nagpur and the probationer will also receive on-the-job training at an Assistant Commissioner’s office for some time. Following this they will serve as an Assistant Commissioner for about eight years. They will examine cases in which the tax assessed is more than the prescribed figure. In the Junior Administrative Grade (JAG) and Selection Grade they would be a Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax or Deputy Director (Investigation). In the Senior Administrative Grade they could be a Commissioner of Income Tax in a metropolitan town or one of the state capitals or a Director of Income Tax. Some of these Commissioners are designated Chief-Commissioners of Income Tax and are in a scale similar to that of Additional Secretaries. The Director General of Income Tax is also in this scale. The head of the Income Tax hierarchy is the Chairman of the Central Board of Direct Taxes and is assisted by six members.

INDIAN RAILWAY SERVICE

It is essentially responsible for the running of India’s vast railway network. There are four non-technical and technical or engineering cadres in the railways. Entry for non-technical services- the Indian Railway Traffic Services (IRTS), the Indian Railway Personnel Services (IRPS), the Indian Railway Accounts Services (IRAS), and the Railway Police Service is through the Civil Services examination. However, the engineering services have a different recruitment procedure.

INDIAN RAILWAY TRAFFIC SERVICES (IRTS)

This service looks after commercial (goods and passengers) and operational (movement of trains) functions with an emphasis on safety. In the Junior Scale, they will serve as either Assistant Commercial Manager or Assistant Operating Manager and posted at the Divisional Headquarters. If posted at a very big railway station they may be designated as Assistant Transport Manager. Within four years of service they are likely to get the senior scale and posted at divisional headquarters as Divisional Commercial Manager or Divisional Operating Manager or Divisional Safety Officer. Most of the branch officers like the Senior Divisional Commercial Manager or Senior Divisional Operating Manager are in the JAG. At the zonal level the hierarchy is as follows: On the Commercial side, the structure is headed by the Chief Commercial Manager followed by the Additional Chief Commercial Manager and the Deputy Chief Commercial Manager. On the operations side, the Chief Operations Manager is at the head, followed by the Additional Chief Operations Manager, Chief Freight Traffic Manager, Chief Passenger Traffic Manager and the Deputy Chief Operations Manager.

INDIAN RAILWAY ACCOUNTS SERVICES (IRAS)

This service monitors all the income and expenditure of the vast railway network. In the Junior Scale, as an IRAS officer they will be posted to divisional headquarters as Assistant Accounts Officers. On being promoted to the senior scale they will become a Divisional Accounts Officer and in the JAG they will be designated as Senior Divisional Accounts Officer. In the Senior Administrative Grade they are promoted to the coveted position of Financial Advisor-cum-Chief Accounts Officer of a zone.

INDIAN RAILWAY PERSONNEL SERVICE (IRPS)

As an officer in this service the IRPS officers will deal with recruitment, promotions, in service training and welfare of the employees. They will be interested to know that IRPS officers get the equivalent of the Super time Scale before any other service of the Government of India. The postings are as follows: In the junior scale, they will be designated Assistant Personnel Officer and posted at Divisional Headquarters. Following this they will become a Divisional Personnel Officer in the Senior Scale and Senior Divisional Personnel Officer of Deputy Chief Planning Officer in the JAG. They will be made Additional Chief Planning Officer once they get the selection grade. In the Senior Administrative Grade they will be designated Chief Personnel Officer and serve at Zonal Headquarters. At a non-divisional set-up there are commensurate posts for officers belonging to all the railway services.

RAILWAY PROTECTION FORCE

This force protects one of the biggest railway networks in the world. RPF officer’s training will be at Vadodra and Lucknow. The Junior and Senior scales are similar to the other railway services. There is no equivalent of JAG or SG. Instead, they have the grades of Senior Commandant, Head Quarters and Deputy Inspector General (DIG) respectively. The Inspector General’s grade is the same as the IAS suppertime scale or the IPS IGP’s scale. The final promotion is as the Director General of the Force.

INDIAN AUDIT AND ACCOUNTS SERVICES

This service audits the accounts of all Central and State government departments, P&T departments, defence, public sector organizations, railways, etc. It functions within the federal structure and coordinates effectively between the Centre and the states. As the head of the organization, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is a constitutional authority with a fixed tenure. During the career, the officer can go on deputation to various ministries, state governments, autonomous bodies, public sector organizations etc. They can also be posted at one of the two audit offices abroad- Washington or London. Presently India is one of the three countries auditing the accounts of the United Nations and a Director General of the service is based at New York for this purpose. Officers selected to this service undergo training in Shimla. They serve either in account offices in Central or State Governments or in Statutory Audit Offices under the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG). In the Junior Scale, they will be posted as an Assistant AG in the office of an Accountant General (AG). They will be posted in similar offices throughout the career; only their designation and responsibilities will keep changing. In the senior scale, they will be a Deputy AG, in the JAG and Selection Grade a Senior DAG and in the Senior Administrative Grade a fully fledged AG. At the next rung is the Additional Deputy Comptroller and Auditor General. Above this is the Deputy Comptroller and Auditor General of India, who gets a Secretary’s salary. At the very top of the accounts/audit hierarchy is a constitutional authority, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

INDIAN POSTAL SERVICE

It is the only service from which one can go on a deputation to the army and serve from Captain to Major General. An attractive aspect of a career in the Indian Postal Service is that there is job mobility as well as variety.

An Indian Postal Service officer can serve in any ministry at any level depending on the seniority and aptitude. Officers are also sent on deputation to the Universal Postal Union at Berne, Switzerland or on assignments to other countries.

Professional course is at the Postal Staff College, Ghaziabad. During probation the officer will be “attached” to “field” offices of the department, where they will work in various capacities. They will serve in divisional headquarters as Senior Superintendent of Post Office (SSPO) or Senior Superintendent Railway Mail (SSRM) in the junior scale as well as in the first 2-3 years of the senior scale. Only personnel from the Indian Postal Service go on deputation to the Army Postal Service. Later in the Senior Scale they will be promoted to the rank of Assistant PMG (Post Master General) or Assistant Director General at the Directorate. In the JAG they will be made a Director. In the selection grade they will remain as a Director. They can be promoted to the senior most level of PMG of a “Circle”. Promotions after that are to the posts of (a) Additional Secretary in a ministry (b) One of the members of the Postal Services Board (c) Chief PMG or rather HAG i.e. Higher Administrative Grade d) Secretary, Department of Post who is also ex-officio DG and Chairman of the Postal Services Board.

P&T FINANCE AND ACCOUNTS SERVICES

As in the case of the Indian Railways there is a separate P&T Finance and Accounts Service. Here an officer works for the Postal & Telecom departments. They are posted in major cities and as this is a comparatively new service, (established in 1974) the promotions are fast. Within 17 years one can be Joint Secretary (SAG) which corresponds with the Super Time Scale of the IAS. Officers start their career as the Assistant Chief Accounts Officer. Within two years, they are the Chief Accounts Officers. After six years they become the Director Finance and Accounts in the Junior Administrative Grade. In another eleven years they enter the SAG as GM Finance which is a field posting or as Deputy Director General at the Directorate. Following this promotions to the higher posts are limited as there is just one member Finance and one Senior DDG, Finance. However, they can go on deputation to other ministries or to the Videsh Sanchar Nigam Limited (VSNL) or Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited (MTNL) as Director Finance.

INDIAN INFORMATION SERVICES AND INDIAN DEFENCE ACCOUNTS SERVICES THE INDIAN INFORMATION SERVICES (IIS)

This was initially called the Central Information Service (CIS) which was constituted as late as 1960. As it is a comparatively new and expanding service there is scope for quicker promotions. The scales in this service are exactly the same as in the other services, till the Senior Administrative Grade (SAG). At the top is a grade which is called Selection Grade and has a fixed salary, equal to what the senior most Additional Secretary would get. Training during probation is at the Indian Institute of Mass Communication (IIMC), New Delhi. An IIS Officer can be posted in organizations dealing with print media, in the electronic media or in an advertising agency. In short, IIS Officers can be posted to any of the several organizations that are controlled by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting or the Ministry of Defence (Directorate of Public Relations).

THE INDIAN DEFENCE ACCOUNTS SERVICES (IDAS)

An IDAS officer start off, after probation, as an Assistant CDA (Controller of Defence Accounts) in the Junior Scale, and will work in cantonment towns. In the next three scales, they will be Deputy CDAs, posted at State capitals (or bigger towns). In the Senior Administrative Grade (SAG) they will become a full-fledged CDA and will be posted at places where headquarters of defence ‘commands’ are located. In the Additional Secretaries’ Scale IDAS Officer’s are made Additional CGDAs (Controller General of Defence Accounts) incharge of Audit or Inspection. They could also be posted as Controller of Accounts (Factories), Calcutta.

Indian Ordnance & Factories Services and Indian Civil Accounts Services

THE INDIAN ORDNANCE AND FACTORIES SERVICES (IOFS)

IOFS officers will be required to serve mostly where ordnance factories (i.e. factories that make equipment including sleeping bags and tents, for the defence services) are located e.g. Jabalpur. During the first 10 years in the Service, they could even be asked to serve for up to 4 years, as a Commissioned Officer in the Armed Forces. The promotions up to the Senior Administrative Grade are standard Central Service Promotions. In the Additional Secretaries’ Grade they would most probably be made a General Manager. After that, there is a scale which begins at the AS level. In this scale are the Members of the OFS (ordinance Factories Board)/the Additional DGOF (Director General Ordnance Factories). The head of the service is the chairman of the OFB/DGOF, who has the same fixed salary as the Secretaries.

THE INDIAN CIVIL ACCOUNTS SERVICES (ICAS)

Training will be in the office of the CGA (Controller General of Accounts), Department of Expenditure (Ministry of Finance) Delhi and in the offices of the Chief Controller of Accounts in the various ministries of Government of India. The first posting will be as Assistant Controller of Accounts in some ministry of the Government of India. In the Senior Scale, they will become the Deputy Controller of Accounts. In the Senior Administrative Grade they will be made Chief Controller of Accounts. The highest career post for an ICAS officer is Controller General of Accounts and has a salary fixed higher than that of the Additional Secretaries’ Scale.

THE INDIAN DEFENCE ESTATES SERVICES (IDES)

This service deals entirely with spacious, well-planned, green, landscaped cantonments. In this service an IDES officer will begin his career in the junior scale, as an Executive Officer in a Class I or a Class II Cantonment. In the Senior Scale he would normally be sent to a Class I Cantonment as an Executive Officer of Assistant Director or Deputy Assistant Director General or Defence Estate Officer. Next promotion in the “Ordinary Grade” (similar to the JAG) will be as Joint Director the designation which he will retain in the Selection Grade as well. After the Selection Grade the IDES Officers are first promoted as Directors (Level I) before they are made Directors (Level III). The latter post is in the Senior Administrative Grade. The top officer is the Director General Defence Estates.

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2020 COMPLETE STUDY MATERIAL GS PAPER-1

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Science & Technology Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20

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RPSC RAS/RTS Prelims Exam Rajasthan GK Complete Study Material in English

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How to Apply for UPSC Civil Services Exam 2020?

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MYUPSC UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series
  1. Login to the official website of UPSC and search a link for “Application Form”.
  2. Once you get the link, click on it and application form window will be opened consisting of 2 stages registration- part I & Part II.
  3. You need to click on Part I registration & fill all the details as required in the application form.
  4. Once all the details are entered, you have to click on submit. On submission, a registration ID will be generated.
  5. Now the applicants will have to proceed with Part II registration by using registration ID generated during Part I registration.
  6. Here you have to choose the examination you want to appear for.
  7. Now upload the scanned images of your photograph & signature in specified format.
  8. Also pay application fee as mentioned in the website.
  9. On successful completion of application fee, the registration process will be completed.
  10. The applicants can take down the print out of their online submitted application forms for future reference.

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2020 COMPLETE STUDY MATERIAL GS PAPER-1

Current Affairs Half Yearly July-December for Civil Services Examination 2020

Current Affairs Yearbook 2020 Useful for UPSC & PSC Exams

Physical Economic and Human Geography of India

Indian Polity for Civil Services Examination

Indian History Complete Study Notes

Indian Art, Culture, Heritage and Architecture for Civil Services Examination

India Yearbook Question Bank: UPSC CSE Prelims Exam 2020

Indian Economy Question Bank: UPSC CSE Prelims 2020

Indian History Question Bank

Indian Geography Question Bank

Indian Polity Topic Wise Question Bank

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Indian Geography-NCERT MCQ Compilation Class 6-12th

Science & Technology Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20

Geography & Environment Current issues yearbook 2019

Indian Polity and Governance Yearbook 2019-20

2000 MCQ: IAS Preliminary exam 2020

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UPSC IAS Main exam GS Paper-1 Complete study notes

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-2 Complete Study Notes

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-3 Complete Study Notes

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Polity and Administration of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with MCQ

History of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Art Culture & Heritage of Rajasthan

Economy of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Current Affairs Rajasthan Yearbook 2019

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UPSC Civil Services Prelims and Mains Exam Syllabus

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MYUPSC UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

Exam Syllabus

S.No. Subject (Paper-I)S.No. Subject (Paper-II)
1. Indian History and Freedom Struggle 1. Decision Making & Problem Solving
2. World and Indian Geography : Physical, Social, Economic, Political Geog. 2. Interpersonal Skill & Communication Skill)
3. Indian Polity : (i) Constitution 3. Comprehension
4. Indian Economy 4. Administrative Analytical Reasoning
5. General Science : (i) Zoology (ii) Botany (iii) Physics and Chemistry 5. Basic Numeracy
6. Bio diversity 6. General Mental Ability
7. Ecology & Environment 7. Data Interpretation
8. Current Events of National and International Importance

Note 1: The CSAT aptitude test or Paper-II of the Civil Services (Preliminary) examination will be a qualifying paper only with a minimum of 33% to be secured to sit for the Civil Services (Mains) exam.

Note 2: The questions in both Paper-I (current affairs) and Paper-II (aptitude test) will be of multiple choice, objective type for 200 marks each and the time allotted for each paper is two hours.

Note 3: It is mandatory for the candidate to appear in both the papers of Civil Services (Prelim) examination for the purpose of evaluation. Therefore a candidate will be disqualified in case he or she does not appear in both the papers of the (Prelims) exam.

Civil Services Mains Exam 2020 Syllabus

The written examination will consist of the following papers:

Paper A – Modern Indian language 300 Marks – Qualifying nature – Marks not counted – Passing mandatory-

Comprehension of given passages.

Precise Writing

Usage and Vocabulary

Short Essay

Translation from English to the Indian language and vice-versa

Note 1: The Papers on Indian Languages and English will be of Matriculation or equivalent standard and will be of qualifying nature only. The marks obtained in these papers will not be counted for ranking.

Note 2: The candidates will have to answer the English and Indian Languages papers in English and the respective Indian language (except where translation is involved).

Paper B – English -300 marks – Qualifying nature – Marks not counted- Passing mandatory. The aim of the paper is to test the candidates’ ability to read and understand serious discursive prose, and to express his ideas clearly and correctly, in English and Indian Language concerned.

The pattern of questions would be broadly as follows:-

Comprehension of given passages

Precise Writing

Usage and Vocabulary

Short Essay

Paper-I

Essay – 250 Marks:-

  • To be written in the medium or language of the candidate’s choice – Candidates will be required to write an essay on a specific topic.
  • The choice of subjects will be given. They will be expected to keep closely to the subject of the essay to arrange their ideas in orderly fashion, and to write concisely.
  • Credit will be given for effective and exact expression.

Paper-II

General Studies-I 250 Marks :-( Indian Heritage and Culture, History and Geography of the World and Society)

  • Indian culture will cover the salient aspects of Art Forms, Literature and Architecture from ancient to modern times.
  • Modern Indian history from about the middle of the eighteenth century until the present- significant events, personalities, issues The Freedom Struggle – its various stages and important contributors /contributions from different parts of the country.
  • Post-independence consolidation and reorganization within the country.
  • History of the world will include events from 18th century such as industrial revolution, world wars, redrawal of national boundaries, colonization, decolonization, political philosophies like communism, capitalism, socialism etc.- their forms and effect on the society. Salient features of Indian Society, Diversity of India.
  • Role of women and women’s organization, population and associated issues, poverty and developmental issues, urbanization, their problems and their remedies.
  • Effects of globalization on Indian society
  • Social empowerment, communalism, regionalism & secularism.
  • Salient features of world’s physical geography.
  • Distribution of key natural resources across the world (including South Asia and the Indian sub-continent); factors responsible for the location of primary, secondary, and tertiary sector industries in various parts of the world (including India)
  • Important Geophysical phenomena such as earthquakes, Tsunami, Volcanic activity, cyclone etc., geographical features and their location- changes in critical geographical features (including water-bodies and ice-caps) and in flora and fauna and the effects of such changes.

Paper-III

General Studies -II: 250 Marks: – (Governance, Constitution, Polity, Social Justice and International relations)

  • Indian Constitution- historical underpinnings, evolution, features, amendments, significant provisions and basic structure.
  • Functions and responsibilities of the Union and the States, issues and challenges pertaining to the federal structure, devolution of powers and finances up to local levels and challenges therein.
  • Separation of powers between various organs dispute redressal mechanisms and institutions.
  • Comparison of the Indian constitutional scheme with that of other countries Parliament and State Legislatures – structure, functioning, conduct of business, powers & privileges and issues arising out of these. Structure, organization and functioning of the Executive and the Judiciary Ministries and Departments of the Government; pressure groups and formal/informal associations and their role in the Polity.
  • Salient features of the Representation of People’s Act.
  • Appointment to various Constitutional posts, powers, functions and responsibilities of various Constitutional Bodies. Statutory, regulatory and various quasi-judicial bodies.
  • Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation.
  • Development processes and the development industry the role of NGOs, SHGs, various groups and associations, donors, charities, institutional and other stakeholders.
  • Welfare schemes for vulnerable sections of the population by the Centre and States and the performance of these schemes; mechanisms, laws, institutions and Bodies constituted for the protection and betterment of these vulnerable sections.
  • Issues relating to development and management of Social Sector/Services relating to Health, Education, Human Resources.
  • Issues relating to poverty and hunger.
  • Important aspects of governance, transparency and accountability, e-governance- applications, models, successes, limitations, and potential; citizens charters, transparency & accountability and institutional and other measures.
  • Role of civil services in a democracy.
  • India and its neighborhood- relations.
  • Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affecting India’s interests Effect of policies and politics of developed and developing countries on India’s interests, Indian diaspora.
  • Important International institutions, agencies and fora, their structure, mandate.

PAPER-IV

General Studies -III 250 Marks :-( Technology, Economic Development, Bio-diversity, Environment, Security and Disaster Management)

  • Development, Bio diversity, Environment, Security and Disaster Management.
  • Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization of resources, growth, development and employment.
  • Inclusive growth and issues arising from it.
  • Government Budgeting.
  • Major crops cropping patterns in various parts of the country, different types of irrigation and irrigation systems storage, transport and marketing of agricultural produce and issues and related constraints; e-technology in the aid of farmers.
  • Issues related to direct and indirect farm subsidies and minimum support prices; Public Distribution System objectives, functioning, limitations, revamping; issues of buffer stocks and food security; Technology missions; economics of animal-rearing.
  • Food processing and related industries in India- scope and significance, location, upstream and downstream requirements, supply chain management Land reforms in India.
  • Effects of liberalization on the economy, changes in industrial policy and their effects on industrial growth.
  • Infrastructure: Energy, Ports, Roads, Airports, Railways etc.
  • Investment models.
  • Science and Technology- developments and their applications and effects in everyday life Achievements of Indians in science & technology; indigenization of technology and developing new technology.
  • Awareness in the fields of IT, Space, Computers, robotics, nano-technology, bio-technology and issues relating to intellectual property rights. Conservation, environmental pollution and degradation, environmental impact assessment Disaster and disaster management.
  • Linkages between development and spread of extremism.
  • Role of external state and non-state actors in creating challenges to internal security.
  • Challenges to internal security through communication networks, role of media and social networking sites in internal security challenges, basics of cyber security; money-laundering and its prevention.
  • Security challenges and their management in border areas; linkages of organized crime with terrorism.
  • Various Security forces and agencies and their mandate.

Paper-V

General Studies -IV 250 Marks (Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude)

  •  This paper will include questions to test the candidates’ attitude and approach to issues relating to integrity, probity in public life and his problem solving approach to various issues and conflicts faced by him in dealing with society. Questions may utilise the case study approach to determine these aspects. The following broad areas will be covered.
  • Ethics and Human Interface: Essence, determinants and consequences of Ethics in human actions; dimensions of ethics; ethics in private and public relationships.
  • Human Values – lessons from the lives and teachings of great leaders, reformers and administrators; role of family, society and educational institutions in inculcating values.
  • Attitude: content, structure, function; its influence and relation with thought and behaviour; moral and political attitudes; social influence and persuasion.
  • Aptitude and foundational values for Civil Service , integrity, impartiality and non-partisanship, objectivity, dedication to public service, empathy, tolerance and compassion towards the weaker-sections.
  • Emotional intelligence-concepts, and their utilities and application in administration and governance.
  • Contributions of moral thinkers and philosophers from India and world.
  • Public/Civil service values and Ethics in Public administration: Status and problems; ethical concerns and dilemmas in government and private institutions; laws, rules, regulations and conscience as sources of ethical guidance; accountability and ethical governance; strengthening of ethical and moral values in governance; ethical issues in international relations and funding; corporate governance.
  • Probity in Governance: Concept of public service; Philosophical basis of governance and probity; Information sharing and transparency in government, Right to Information, Codes of Ethics, Codes of Conduct, Citizen’s Charters, Work culture, Quality of service delivery, Utilization of public funds, challenges of corruption.
  • Case Studies on above issues.

Paper-VI

Optional Subject – Paper I -250 Marks

Paper-VII

Optional Subject – Paper II -250 Marks

NOTE:
Marks obtained by the candidates for all papers EXCEPT PAPER -A & B will be counted for merit ranking. However, the Commission will have the discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all papers of the examination Aspirants can log on to UPSC’s official website (www.upsc.gov.in) to see the detailed notification.

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Civil Services Examination (CSE): Am I eligible?

“Where do you see yourself when you grow up?”

This is the most cliché question a child must answer. And the most common answer given by children is engineer or doctor (given by the more ambitious ones).

Little do these young ones know about the wonderful job that IAS is? Otherwise, why would we have so many engineers qualifying the Civil Services Examination, Kanishka Kataria Rank 1, and CSE 2019 being the latest example. Ira Singhal, Athar Aamir khan, Srushti Jayant Deshmukh and Akshat Jain are some of the engineer-turned-IAS officers. Dr Shah Faesal and Dr Sheena Aggrawal are the doctor-turned-IAS officers.

Being a civil servant offers something that many top corporate jobs, businesses and even many reputed government jobs can’t.

It could be power, fame, prestige, self-actualization, perks, a grand accommodation, very own staff, an opportunity to serve the nation and comfortable life.

Many young aspirants start preparing for CSE just after completing their intermediate (12th standard).

But it is very vital for a candidate, especially for a fresher to know the right time to take the mother of all examinations.

This is not as simple as it sounds. Many deserving candidates fall short of their attempts because they come to know about the existence of Civil Services Examination (CSE) very late in their life when they are on the verge of completing the maximum age limit.

It takes time to understand the demand for this examination and everybody has his/her speed of assessing their strengths and weaknesses. Having no time or lesser number of attempts due to age issues creates additional pressure on the candidate. Yet the lucky ones can sail through.

Many officers who qualify CSE cannot get the service of their choice since they have crossed the age limit, they can’t give it another shot.

If you are OBC/SC/ST /Physically Handicapped (PH), you should know that you are given extra attempts and extended age limit as compared to the general category students. You can feel thankful about it and start preparing for the exam more rigorously.

If you are a GENERAL category student, you should know that you have limited attempts as compared to others and try cracking the examination in one go.

The point is that it is crucial to know the various eligibility criteria to prepare yourself the best possible way and start at the right time in advance.

Knowing all the UPSC eligibility criteria thoroughly, in fact, makes you smarter and gives you an edge over others who are unaware( believe it or not) because then you can plan your UPSC journey( the journey of a lifetime) in a manner best suitable for you.

In the light of that, below are the various UPSC eligibility criteria you must know to give your best shot.

UPSC EXAM ELIGIBILITY

 

NATIONALITY

For Indian administrative service, Indian Foreign Service, & Indian Police Service

  • A candidate must be a citizen of India.

For other services

  • A candidate must be a citizen of India/ Nepal/Bhutan.
  • A Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India. or
  • A person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.

If you are from Nepal, Bhutan, Tibet or other above-mentioned countries ( having the intention of permanently settling in India), knowing only the fact that you are eligible for such coveted posts will boost your confidence and surely, you would not want to miss this chance.

There are many youngsters from such countries living in India yet unaware of this golden opportunity in their way. 

By studying the job profiles, you are eligible for, you can choose one dream job that drives you crazy and it will motivate you in your hard times throughout the UPSC journey.

A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination but the offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him/her by the Government of India.

AGE LIMITS

You should be at least 21 year of age to sit in the Civil Services Examination. Further, you can give your valid number of attempts till you attain the age of 32 years. (Relaxations described below excluded).

CATEGORY AGE RELAXATIONS
SC/ST Five years
OBC Three years
Defence Services Personnel Three years
Ex-servicemen Five years
Blindness and low vision, deaf and hard of hearing, loco motor disability including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attack victims and muscular dystrophy, autism, intellectual disability, specific learning disability, mental illness and multiple disabilities including deaf blindness. Ten years
If you are domiciled in State of Jammu and Kashmir Five years

 

MINIMUM EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION

The candidate must hold a degree, or possess an equivalent qualification to fulfil the eligibility criteria for IAS. Your degree should be recognized either by an act of parliament or state legislature or University Grants Commission. With the intention of bringing socio-economic balance in our society, government encourages women to apply for CSE in large numbers.

Candidates who have appeared or intend to appear for the qualifying examination and are awaiting results are also eligible to appear for the Preliminary Examination.

Candidates who have passed the final year of MBBS or any Medical Examination but are yet to complete the internship can also appear for the Main Examination.

The UPSC may in exceptional cases treat a candidate without the foregoing requisite qualification as an eligible candidate if he / she have passed an examination conducted by other institutions, the standard of which justifies his / her admission in the opinion of the Commission.

Candidates with professional and technical qualifications recognized by the Government as equivalent to professional and technical degrees can also appear for Civil Services Examination.

NUMBER OF ATTEMPTS

Every candidate appearing at the examination, who is otherwise eligible, shall be permitted six attempts at the examination.
Age Educational Qualification No. of Attempts
General 21-32 Yrs Graduate (any stream) Six
OBC 21-35 Years Graduate (any stream) Nine
SC/ST 21-37 Years Graduate (any stream) Any number of attempts till the age limit

PHYSICALLY HANDICAPPED (PH) AGE CRITERIA & NUMBER OF ATTEMPTS

CATEGORY AGE LIMIT (MIN. AGE- MAX. AGE) NUMBER OF ATTEMPTS
General 21-42 years Nine
OBC 21-42 years Nine
SC/ST 21-47 years Any number of attempts till the age limit

What will count as an attempt at the Civil Services Examination?

An attempt at a Preliminary Examination shall be deemed to be an attempt at the Civil Services Examination If:

Appearance of the candidate at the examination will count as an attempt.

If a candidate just applies for UPSC CSE but don’t appear, that won’t be counted as an attempt by UPSC.

If a candidate actually appears in any one paper in the Preliminary Examination, he/she shall be deemed to have made an attempt at the Examination.

RESTRICTIONS ON APPLYING FOR EXAMINATION

  • A candidate who is appointed to the Indian Administrative Service or the Indian Foreign Service on the results of an earlier examination and continues to be a member of that service will not be eligible to compete at this examination. In case such a candidate is appointed to the IAS/IFS after the Preliminary Examination of Civil Services Examination, 2019 is over and he/she continues to be a member of that service, he/she shall not be eligible to appear in the Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2019 notwithstanding his/her having qualified in the Preliminary Examination, 2019. 
  • Also provided that if such a candidate is appointed to IAS/IFS after the commencement of the Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2019 but before the result thereof and continues to be a member of that service, he/she shall not be considered for appointment to any service/post on the basis of the result of this examination viz. Civil Services Examination, 2019.
  • A candidate who is appointed to the Indian Police Service on the results of an earlier examination and continues to be a member of that service will not be eligible to opt for the Indian Police Service in Civil Services Examination, 2019.

PHYSICAL STANDARDS

Candidates must be physically fit for admission to Civil Services Examination, 2019. Guidelines are given in Appendix-III of rules of examination.

These were some of the criteria which will surely help you in a manner that will guide before you start your UPSC journey.

(Batch-2)MOCK TEST SERIES FOR UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2020

MYUPSC UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

TEST SERIES AVAILABLE ONLY IN ENGLISH

2018 Prelims- 33+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme 

2019 Prelims- 40+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme

There are Full Length 60 Very High Quality Tests that match very UPSC standard (acknowledged by hundreds of toppers every year).

  1. These 60 Tests are structured in such a way as to help you start from scratch and gradually gain advanced knowledge through self study using standard textbooks and multiple revisions.
  2. First 10 Tests are based on all Important NCERT Textbooks (New NCERTs).
  3. There will be full length REVISION TEST after every 5 Tests. This helps in timetaly revision of every important topic you have read, including current affairs, before you move on to new topics.
  4. Every Test will cover Current Affairs comprehensively from May 1, 2019. This helps you read and revise current affairs from the beginning.
  5. All tests will cover previous year question papers of UPSC civil services. NDA, CDS, IES, CAPF exams. This feature helps you understand the expectations of UPSC and prepare accordingly.
  6. Every test will cover 10 percent of previous test’s syllabus. This is to let you not forget what you have read for first test and thereafter. Helps you revise previous tests before the next test.
  7. There will be section-wise analysis of your performance in each test. This helps you know where you need to put extra efforts to prepare well for your weakest areas.
  8. Unlimited access to previous tests in the form of PDFs.

This test series will seriously prepare you to tackle actual exam with full confidence.

MYUPSC – UPSC CSP (2020) Test series will strategically provide its students with an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically designed revision plans covering the entire static and current portions (multiple times). With the help of guidance, we aim to make sure that our students are exam ready, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

  1. Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs
  2. Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
  3. Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
  4. Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
  5. All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

Performance Analysis of aspirants, Section wise analysis, Difficulty Analysis, All India Rank, comparison with toppers, Integrated Score Card, Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction

UPSC (CSE Prelims) IAS Test Series 2020 Schedule Batch – 2

IAS Test Series 2020   Date
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 11 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 24 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 38 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 412 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 516 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 620  December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 724 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 828 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 92 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 106 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1110 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1214 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1318 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1422 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1527 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1630 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 172 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 186 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1910 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2014 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2118 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2222 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2326 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 242 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 256 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2610 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2714 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2818 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2922 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 3026 March 2020
Next Schedule to be updated soon………………….

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MYUPSC UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

MYUPSC – UPSC CSP (2020) Test series will strategically provide its students with an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically designed revision plans covering the entire static and current portions (multiple times). With the help of guidance, we aim to make sure that our students are exam ready, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

  1. Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs
  2. Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
  3. Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
  4. Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
  5. All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

Performance Analysis of aspirants, Section wise analysis, Difficulty Analysis, All India Rank, comparison with toppers, Integrated Score Card, Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction

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