Category: IAS Prelims Test Series

Environment & Ecology

Current Affairs 2020

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Important Topics UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam 2020

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UPSC Civil Services Prelims Exam 2020 Expected MCQ Part-11

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UPSC Civil Services Prelims Exam 2020 Expected MCQ Part-11

Q51. Consider the following statements with respect to Systematic Voters’ Education and Electoral Participation program (SVEEP):

1. It is a flagship program of the Government of India.

2. The programme was launched for spreading voter awareness and promoting voter literacy in India.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q52. Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojanawas launched in order to

A. Boost organic farming

B. Promote the use of traditional farming methods

C. Prevent sub division of agricultural land

D. Promote shifting cultivation

Solution:-A

Q53. Consider the following statements:

1. NASA’s Voyager 2 is the first and only manmade object to exit the Heliosphere.

2. It is the only spacecraft to have visited all four gas giant planets — Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.

Consider the following statements:

A. 1 only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q54. Consider the following statements:

1. Strait of Hormuz is a choke-point between the Gulf and the open ocean. With Iran on its northern coast and the UAE and an Omanian enclave on the south, the Strait, at its narrowest point, has a width of 34 km.

2. A third of crude oil exports transported via ships pass through the Strait, which makes it the world’s most important oil artery.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q55. Consider the following statements, regarding “Balsams”:

1. Consisting of both annual and perennial herbs, balsams are succulent plants with high endemism.

2. Because of their bright beautiful flowers, these groups of plants are of prized horticultural significance.

Which among the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-D

Q56. Consider the following statements:

1. A fuel cell is a device that converts chemical potential energy (energy stored in molecular bonds) into electrical energy.

2. Fuel cells which are used commercially in hydrogen fuel–based cars, require good catalysts that are efficient as well as cost-effective.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q57. Which of the following countries has been referred to as the “Last Shangri-La”?

A. Bhutan

B. Nepal

C. China

D. Japan

Solution:-A

Q58. Consider the following statements:

1. Monsoon refers to the climate associated with seasonal reversal in the direction of winds.

2. The movement of Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) plays an important role in the Indian Monsoon.

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q59. The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is known as:

A. Loo

B. Trade Wind

C. Kal Baisakhi

D. None of the above

Solution:-A

Q60. Consider the following statements:

1. North-Western part of India experiences the highest diurnal range of temperature.

2. Parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat are drought prone because they fall in the rain shadow area of the Aravalli.

Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-D

Q61. Consider the following statements:

1. The Election Commission of India is a permanent and independent statutory body.

2. The body is constituted to conduct free and fair elections to the national and state legislatures and of President and Vice-President.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q62. Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by

A. The President

B. The Chief Justice of India

C. The Prime Minister

D. The Lok Sabha Speaker

Solution:-A

Q63. Consider the following statements with respect to Seva Bhoj Yojana?

1. It is a programme of the Ministry of Culture.

2. The scheme envisages lessening the burden of such Charitable Religious Institutions who provide food without any cost.

Which of the given statement/s is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-D

Q64. Consider the following statements with respect to Pariwartan Scheme:

1. Under the scheme, there is a focus on warehousing stressed power projects to protect their value.

2. This scheme will be implemented by the Ministry of Ministry of Power.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q65. Consider the following statements:

1. During the Vajrayana phase of Buddhism, worship of the female form was seen.

2. The goal of spiritual practice within the Vajrayana traditions is to become a fully awakened Buddha.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q66. Consider the following statements:

1. India is a member of World Meteorological Organization (WMO).

2. WMO originated from the International Meteorological Organization.

3. Its secretariat is headquartered in Geneva. Which of the statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-D

Q67. The Gini coefficient is used to measure:

A. Inflation

B. Unemployment

C. Economic Growth

D. Income inequality

Solution:-D

Q68. Consider the following statements:

1. The Economist Intelligence Unit publishes the Democracy Index.

2. India is classified as a‘flawed democracy’in Democracy index 2018.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q69. Consider the following statements:

1. Futures and Options are types of derivatives.

2. An optiongives the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to buy or sell an asset at a specific price at any time during the life of the contract.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q70. Consider the following statements:

1. The origin of sedition law in India is linked to the Wahabi Movement of 19th century.

2. The Sedition Act was first invoked against Jogendra Chandra Bose.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q71. Consider the following statements with respect to Securities and Exchange Board of India

1. SEBI is a quasi-legislative, quasi-judicial and quasi- executive body.

2. It was initially constituted as a statutory body. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-A

Q72. Consider the following statements:

1. The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter- governmental body.

2. The objectives of the FATF are to set standards and promote effective implementation of legal, regulatory and operational measures for combating money laundering, terrorist financing and other related threats to the integrity of the international financial system.

Which among the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. Both 1 and 2

C. 2 only

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q73. Consider the following statements:

1. The Indian elephant is a Schedule-I animal under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

2. Section 9 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 prohibits their capture from the wild.

Which among the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. Both 1 and 2

C. 2 only

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q74. Consider the following statements:

1. The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.

2. ‘Project Tiger’ is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme of the Environment, Forests and Climate Change, providing funding support to tiger range States, for in-situ conservation of tigers in designated tiger reserves.

Which among the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. Both 1 and 2

C. 2 only

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q75. What is the theme of the G20 Summit scheduled to be held in Osaka, Japan?

A. “Human centred future society”

B. “Inclusive Growth for All”

C. “Technology and Innovation for All”

D. “Sustainable and Holistic Development for mankind”

Solution:-A

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Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a proposed Free Trade Agreement between ten ASEAN member states and their six Free Trade Agreement (FTA) partners namely India, Australia, China, Japan, New Zealand and Republic of Korea.

2. The RCEP is expected to provide market access for India’s goods and services exports and encourage greater investments and technology into India.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q2. Environment Minister has called for increasing the forest cover in the country with an efficient use of Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority.

Which of the following statements regarding the CAMPA stands true?

1 The main purpose of CAMPA is to compensate the loss of forest area due to non-forest activities like mining, infrastructure development etc and to maintain the ecological balance and sustainability.

2 As per the CAMPA act there must be proper study of vegetation of a region and a proper environment impact assessment ought to be carried out before afforestation.

3 According to CAMPA act, the land selected for afforestation should preferable be contiguous to the forest being destroyed so that it is easier for the forest officials to manage it.

A 1 & 2 only

B 2 & 3 only

C 1 & 3 only

D all of the above

Solution:-C

Q3. Consider the following statements:

1. PM KISAN is a Central Sector scheme with 100% funding from Government of India.

2. Under the scheme an income support of Rs.6000/- per year in three equal installments will be provided to small and marginal farmer families having combined land holding/ownership of upto 2 hectares.

Which among the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. Both 1 and 2

C. 2 only

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q4. Consider the following statements:

1. The Bab-el-Mandeb is a strait located between Yemen on the Arabian Peninsula, and Djibouti and Eritrea in the Horn of Africa. It connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden.

2. The Strait of Hormuz is a strait between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. The Strait of Hormuz is one of the most critical sea lanes in the world today.

Which among the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. Both 1 and 2

C. 2 only

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q5. Consider the following statements:

1. The Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) is the regulatory authority for civil aviation security in India.

2. The main responsibility of the BCAS are to lay down standards and measures in respect of security of civil flights at International and domestic airports in India.

Which among the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q6. Consider the following statements:

1. Photoluminescence is a process in which the material absorbs light and re-emits it as a spectrum.

2. Photoluminescence properties can be used in various devices such as quantum LEDs which can be used in communication and computation.

3. Electrons in semiconductors occupy bands of energy known as valence bands.

Which among the above statements is/are incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 Only

B. 2 and 3 Only

C. All 1, 2 and 3

D. Neither 1 nor 2 nor 3

Solution:-D

Q7. Consider the following statements:

1. The Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR), India, a premier national R&D organisation, is among the world’s largest publicly funded R&D organisation.

2. CSIR’s ‘Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (SSB) Prize for Science and Technology’, instituted in 1957 is the most coveted and revered prize in science and technology in the country.

Which among the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q8. Consider the following statements:

1. Genome editing (also called gene editing) is a group of technologies that give scientists the ability to change an organism’s DNA.

2. These technologies allow genetic material to be added, removed, or altered at particular locations in the genome.

Which among the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q9. Consider the following statements

1. Nanda Devi is the second highest mountain in India.

2. The mountain is located entirely within India.

3. Nanda Devi National Park, surrounding the mountain is a UNESCO World Heritage site.

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-D

Q10. Consider the following statements with respect to Generalized System of Preferences (GSP):

1. It is a trade program designed to promote economic growth in the developing world.

2. It provides duty free entry of selected goods from GSP beneficiary countries.

3. The preferential treatment is reciprocal.

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-B

Q11. Arrange the following events in chronological order with the earliest being first:

1. Second Round Table Conference

2. Salt Satyagraha

3. Quit India Movement

4. Gandhi Irwin pact Choose the correct option

A. 1-2-3-3

B. 1-4-2-3

C. 2-4-1-3

D. 2-1-4-3

Solution:-C

Q12. Which of the following is known as the metal age?

A. Paleolithic age

B. Mesolithic age

C. Neolithic age

D. Chalcolithic age

Solution:-D

Q13. Consider the following statements:

1. Sashastra Seema Bal is under the administrative control of Ministry of Defence.

2. It is one of India’s Central Armed Police Forces. Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q14. Consider the following statements:

1. Core inflation represents the long run trend in the price level.

2. Core inflation does not consider the inflation in food and fuel.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q15. Consider the following statements:

1. Montreux Recordis maintained as part of the List of Ramsar wetlands of international importance.

2. Bhitarkanika Mangroves and Chilika lake are listed under Montreux Record.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-A

Q16. Solar Radiation Management is a process through which:

1. The reflectivity of the Earth’s atmosphere is increased.

2. The efficiency of Solar Panels is increased. Choose the correct option:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-A

Q17. Consider the following statements:

1. Bills that are introduced in the Rajya Sabha and are pending there lapse with the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

2. Bills passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha do not lapse with the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the given statements are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-D

Q18. Which of the following are the criteria followed for determination of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups?

1. A pre-agriculture level of technology

2. A declining sex ratio

3. A stagnant or declining population

4. Extremely low literacy

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution:-C

Q19. Consider the following statements:

1. The IUCN Red List Categories define the extinction risk of species assessed

2. Red List categorizes the species assessed into five categories

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-A

Q20. Consider the following statements:

1. Bird Life International is the official Red List authority for birds, for the IUCN

2. It is a worldwide alliance of nongovernmental organizations that promotes the conservation of birds and their habitats

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q21. Consider the following statements:

1. Encephalitis is caused by a virus or bacterial infection and is the inflammation of the brain.

2. Meningitis is caused by bacterial infection and is the inflammation of the meninges or tissues that surround the brain.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q22. Consider the following statements:

1. The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights under article 32

2. High Court can issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights along with legal rights.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q23. Consider the following statements:

1. Foreign portfolio investment (FPI) consists of securities and other financial assets held by investors in another country.

2. It provides the investor with direct ownership of a company’s assets.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-A

Q24. Consider the following statements:

1. The Western Ghats is declared an ecological hotspot.

2. The Western Ghats is a UNESCO World Natural Heritage Site.

3. The Western Ghats are older than the Himalayas. Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-D

Q25. Consider the following statements:

1. River Sabarmati originates in the Aravalli Range.

2. It is a major East flowing river.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-A

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Q76. Recently, Beekeeping Development Committee was constituted under the chairmanship of:

(a) Bibek Debroy

(b) Arvind Subramanian

(d) Rajiv Kumar

Solution:-A

Q77. Which among the following states has launched world’s first emissions trading scheme for particulate pollution?

(a) Maharashtra

(b) Gujarat

(d) Madhya Pradesh

Solution:-B

Q78. The world’s southernmost city is:

(a) Ushuaia of Argentina

(b) Dover of Tasmania

(d) Puerto Williams of Chile

Solution:-D

Q79. Consider the following statements about Project SU.RE :

1. It was launched by the Union Textile Ministery.

2. It aims to contribute to the UN Sustainable Development Goals 2030.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q80. World Economic Outlook is published by:

(a) International Monetary Fund

(b) World Economic Forum

(d) None of the above

Solution:-A

Q81. Recently The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World, 2019 was released. In this context consider the following statements:

1. It is a biannual report issued by FAO, IFAD, UNEP, WEP, and WHO.

2. For the first time, the report comes with estimates of the prevalence of moderate or severe food insecurity based on the Food Insecurity Experience Scale (FIES).

3. The report highlights that hunger is declining.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

Solution:-A

Q82. Consider the following statements regarding Jnanpith Award:

1. It is awarded to Indian citizens writing only in Indian languages included in 8^th Schedule of the Constitution of India.

2. Recently, Amitav Ghosh has been conferred with 54th Jnanpith Award for his outstanding contribution to the Hindi literature.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q83. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Arogyapacha Plant?

1. Arogyapacha is a medicinal plant endemic to the Nilgiri hills.

2. It is known for its traditional use by the Kani tribal community to combat fatigue.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q84. Consider the following statements regarding the Sargasso Sea:

1. The growth of Sargasso seaweed algae belt is declining in Sargasso Sea.

2. It lies within the Northern Atlantic Subtropical Gyre defined only by the ocean currents.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-A

Q85. What is TEMPLATES recently seen in news?

(a) A programme to investigate how new stars are born.

(b) NASA’s mission to study the Trojan asteroids of Jupiter

(d) A programme to study the effect of solar flares on the communication system

Solution:-A

Q86. Consider the following statements regarding Orchids:

1. Trade-in wild orchids is banned globally.

2. Terrestrial orchids are found in large numbers in the temperate and alpine region and mycoheterotrophic orchids are found in temperate regions or growing with parasites in tropical regions.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q87. Vikram and Pragyan, seen in the news recently are:

(a) Long Range Inter-Continental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs) developed by DRDO.

(b) Lander and Rover of ISRO’s Chandrayaan-2 mission.

(d) Altitude long-endurance Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) by DRDO.

Solution:-B

Q88. Which of the following statements regarding Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019 is/are correct?

1. It makes any pronouncement of talaq in written or electronic form void and illegal.

2. It makes declaration of talaq a cognizable offense in any circumstance.

3. It entitles Muslim women to seek a subsistence allowance for herself in case a talaq has been declared on her.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-B

Q89. Amrabad Tiger Reserve, recently in news, is located in:

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Telangana

(d) Maharashtra

Solution:-B

Q90. Consider the following statements about the Meghdoot App :

1. It is launched by Ministry of Earth Sciences and Ministry of Agriculture.

2. It will play a critical role in agriculture operation and will advise farmers on how to take care of their crops.

3. It is available in local languages.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-D

Q91. Consider the following statements regarding Direct Tax Code (DTC):

1. It is an attempt by the Government of India (GOI) to simplify the direct tax laws in India.

2. It will replace the Income-tax Act, 1961 (ITA) only.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-A

Q92. Recently, a campaign was launched by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to bring beneficiaries of PMAY (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojna) (urban) into the fold of other central schemes such as Ujjawala and Ayushman Bharat. This campaign is known as:

(a) PARAMARSH

(b) ANGIKAAR

(d) NISHTHA

Solution:-B

Q93. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Ramanujan Machine?

1. It is an algorithm that performs an unconventional function.

2. It has developed by scientists from Israel Institution of Technology.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q94. The Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA), 1967 was recently amended with the objective of uprooting terrorism from India. In this regard, consider the following statements:

1. The amendment act expands the scope of UAPA, 1967 by providing provisions for designating an individual as terrorist.

2. The amendment act empowers the National Investigation Agency (NIA) to conduct raids anywhere without prior permission of relevant state government.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q95. Consider the following statements regarding the amendments proposed to the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act, 2008:

1. The amendment empowers NIA to probe terror attacks targeting Indians/Indian Interests on foreign soil.

2. The amendment allows NIA to probe cases of human trafficking.

3. The amendment enables the central government to constitute special courts for NIA’s trials.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-A

Q96. Match the following:

GI TAG STATE

A. Palani Panchamirtham 1. Tamil Nadu

B. Tawlhlohpuan 2. Kerala

C. Tirur 3.Mizoram

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A B C

(a) 1 2 3

(b) 3 1 2

(d) 2 1 3

Solution:-C

Q97. Global Innovation Index is published by:

(a) World Economic Forum

(b) Human Development Innovation Fund

(d) World Intellectual Property Organization

Solution:-D

Q98. Indrajit Gupta Committee is related to:

(a) Nexus between crime and politics

(b) State funding of elections

(d) None of the above

Solution:-B

Q99. Consider the following statements regarding Hydrothermal Carbonisation Technology:

1. It can convert wet municipal solid waste to biofuel, soil amendment, and absorbents.

2. This technology can be used to generate energy from solid waste with low moisture content.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-A

Q100. Consider the following statements regarding Group of Twenty or G-20:

1. The first G-20 Leaders’ Summit was held in wake of Global financial Crisis.

2. The 2019 summit was hosted by Japan for the first time.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

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Q51. Recently, there has been a controversy over India’s new GDP series and its estimation methodology. Which of the following changes have been made in Indian GDP estimation in recent years?

1. Change in base year from 2004-05 to 2010-11

2. Valuation of GVA at basic prices for GDP estimation.

3. Considering GDP at market prices as headline GDP instead of GDP at factor cost

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-C

Q52. Which of the following was/were architectural features of Vijayanagara empire?

1. Fortification of agricultural hinterland and forests without the use of mortar or cementing agent.

2. Presence of chariot streets that extended from the temple gopuram in a straight line.

3. Presence of impressive platforms such as the mahanavami dibba.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-D

Q53. Recently RBI finalized the regulatory sandbox framework for innovation in Fin-Tech firms. In this context consider the following statements about regulatory sandbox:

1. It allows live testing of new products or services in a controlled or test regulatory environment.

2. Crypto currency or crypto assets services are included in the regulatory sandbox.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-A

Q54. Which of the following are the issues with Credit Rating Framework in India?

1. Credit Rating Agencies follow the ‘issuer pays model’.

2. Credit-rating market in India is monopolistic, with high barriers to entry.

3. Limited information.

4. Single regulator

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution:-A

Q55. The 26th round of negotiations for the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) have concluded recently. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. RCEP is billed as the world’s biggest trade agreement.

2. It would cover every aspect of economic trade such as goods, services, investment, economic and technical cooperation, intellectual property rights (IPR), rules of origin, competition and dispute settlement.

3. India is not a member of China-proposed ASEAN+3.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-D

Q56. Which of the following countries are not the members of Quadrilateral Coordination Group (QCG)?

1. USA

2. Russia

3. India

4. Afghanistan

5. Pakistan

6. China

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 6 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 4 and 6 only

Solution:-B

Q57. An Empowered Expert Committee (EEC) recommended considering 15 Public institutions and 15 Private institutions for giving status of Institutions of Eminence.

Who was the Chairperson of this Committee?

(a) T.S.R. Subramanian

(b) N.K. Singh

(d) N Gopalaswami

Solution:-D

Q58. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding CITES?

1. It is an international agreement between the governments to ensure that international trade in the specimen of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival.

2. CITES is legally binding but not self executing.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q59. Consider the following statements regarding Common Service Centres (CSCs):

1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Rural Development.

2. These centers act as the access points for the delivery of various digital services to villages in India.

3. Common Service Centres Scheme promotes rural entrepreneurship and the building of sustainable rural livelihoods.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-B

Q60. Constitution confers executive power of a subject in the Concurrent list to

a) Union Government

b) State Governments

c) President

d) All of the above

Solution:-B

Q61. Recently, 45th G-7 Summit was held at:

(a) Italy

(b) Japan

(d) France

Solution:-D

Q62. “Global Stocktake” sometimes seen in news, is related to which of the following agreements?

a) Copenhagen Accord

b) Paris Agreement

c) Basel Accord

d) Stockholm Convention

Solution:-B

Q63. Consider the following statements regarding The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill:

1. The Bill fixes the maximum number of judges in the Supreme Court at 30 judges, including the Chief Justice of India.

2. Originally, the strength of the Supreme Court was fixed at eight including Chief Justice of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q64. Consider the following statements regarding Legal Rights for Nature:

1. Giving nature legal rights means the law can see nature as a legal person.

2. Legal rights for nature enable nature to go to court to protect its rights.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q65. Recently, Gogabeel, an ox-bow lake in Bihar, has been declared as the state’s first ‘Community Reserve’. This lake is formed due to the meandering of which of the following rivers?

1. Mahananda

2. Kankhar

3. Ganga

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-D

Q66. “Utkarsh 2022”, seen in news recently refers to:

(a) A roadmap to double farmers’ income by 2022

(b) A medium-term strategy framework of RBI for evolving macro-economic environment in the country.

(d) NITI Aayog’s Strategy to build a New

India by 2022

Solution:-B

Q67. Chandrayaan-2 is India’s mission to explore the lunar surface. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. It is a completely indigenous mission.

2. It will be the first mission to the far side of the moon.

3. If successful, India will become the second country to soft-land on moon.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-A

Q68. India was recently granted a NATO ally-like status. In this regard, consider the following statements:

1. The status would result in increased Indo-US defense cooperation in the Indian Ocean.

2. Major non-NATO allies (MNNA) are only involved in strategic working partnerships with NATO countries.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q69. Which of the following countries became the first country to grant all of its rivers the same legal status as humans?

(a) Bangladesh

(b) India

(d) New Zealand

Solution:-A

Q70. With reference to Banning of Unregulated Deposits Scheme Act, 2019, consider the following statements:

1. It provides for a single regulator to oversee various deposit-taking schemes in India.

2. Fraudulent default in a regulated deposit scheme is an offense as per the act.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q71. Consider the following statements regarding the recently announced National Manufacturing Policy:

1. It aims to enhance the technological depth and environmental sustainability of growth in the manufacturing sector.

2. At least 30% of the total land area proposed for the National Investment and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs) will be utilized for location of manufacturing units.

3. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade is the nodal agency for NIMZ.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Solution:-D

Q72. CAFE Regulations, seen recently in news, is related with:

(a) Climate mitigation strategies

(b) Automobile sector

(d) Export promotion policy

Solution:-B

Q73. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Koshi-Mechi River Linking Project?

1. It is the country’s first river interlinking project.

2. Mechi is an important tributary of Mahanadi River

Select the correcr answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-D

Q74. Lok Sabha recently passed the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill, 2019. In this regard, consider the following statements:

1. It provides for a National Council for Transgender to be chaired by Union Minister of Social Justice.

2. It guarantees a right of self-identification to transgender on lines of NALSA judgment.

3. It provides for reservation in educational institutions and public employment for transgender.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

Solution:-C

Q75. Consider the following statements about the term “Eugenics” :

1. It is the science of improving the human species.

2. It encourages healthy, superior people to reproduce and discouraged the reproduction of the mentally challenged or anyone who fell outside the social norm.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

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Q26. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evem Utthan Mahabhiyan (PM KUSUM) Scheme has been launched with the objective(s) of:

(a) Installation of the grid-connected solar power plant.

(b) Solarisation of existing grid-connected agriculture water pumps.

(d) All of the above

Solution:-D

Q27. Which of the following statements regarding the Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project is/are correct?

1. It will be world’s largest multi-stage, multipurpose lift irrigation.

2. It is being built across the Godavari River in Nasik district of Maharashtra.

3. The advantage of lift irrigation is the minimal land acquisition and low-water losses.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-B

Q28. Consider the following statements regarding Zero Budget Natural Farming:

1. It is a method of chemical-free agriculture based on traditional Indian practices.

2. It encourages intensive irrigation and deep ploughing of the fields.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-A

Q29. Consider the following statements regarding Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Bill, 2019 in India:

1. Under the bill, parties are free to appoint their own arbitrators.

2. It provides for a time limit of 12 months to dispose international commercial arbitration matters.

3. B.N. Srikrishna Committee was set up to review institutionalization of Arbitration mechanism in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Solution:-C

Q30. With reference to Motihari-Amlekhganj Oil Pipeline seen recently in news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a joint project between India and Bangladesh.

2. It is the first cross-border petroleum pipeline in South Asia.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q31. Consider the following statements regarding the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):

1. SCO is a Eurasian political, economic and security organization founded in 2001.

2. Recently, the 19th SCO Summit was held in Qingdao, China.

3. Bishkek Declaration of SCO calls on the international community to promote global cooperation in combating terrorism with the central role played by the UN.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-A

Q32. Which among the following organizations develops SDG Gender Index?

(a) World Economic Forum

(b) UNDP

(d) International Labour Organization

Solution:-C

Q33. Which of the following are the impacts of Circular Economy?

1. Fewer Greenhouse Gas Emissions

2. Healthy and Resilient Soils

3. Employment growth

4. Increased potential for economic growth

5. Increased volatility in the prices of raw materials

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 5 only

(b) 2, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Solution:-C

Q34. Ministry of Human Resource Development launched Paramarsh Scheme recently. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. The scheme promotes quality assurance in primary education as well as higher education.

2. It recommends the establishment of National Accreditation and Assessment Council (NAAC) as an independent and autonomous body.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q35. Consider the following statements regarding Antimicrobial Resistance:

1. According to WHO, it is a global public health threat.

2. Madhya Pradesh and Kerala are the only states in India that have developed an action plan to manage antimicrobial resistance.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q36. Consider the following statements regarding the Leverage Ratio:

1. The leverage ratio is Tier-I capital as a percentage of the bank’s exposures.

2. It is one of the indicators under the RBI’s Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework.

3. A cut in leverage ratio implies that banks can lend less on the same capital base.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-A

Q37. Which of the following organisations releases World Investment Report?

(a) World Bank

(b) World Economic Forum

(d) United Nations Conference on Trade and

Development

Solution:-D

Q38. Consider the following statements regarding Ozone pollution:

1. Ozone is a secondary pollutant which gets directly emitted from vehicles, industry or power plants.

2. Ozone can reduce photosynthesis and slow the plant growth.

3. Gothenburg Protocol aims to abate Acidification, Eutrophication and Ground-level Ozone.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Solution:-A

Q39. Consider the following statements about Anti- Satellite (ASAT) missile:

1. It is a part of Mission Shakti which is a joint program of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).

2. For a country to have such a capability, it must be a member of Non-Proliferation Treaty.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-A

Q40. With reference to Earth Overshoot Day, consider the following statements:

1. It is the date when humanity’s demand for ecological resources in a given year exceeds what Earth can regenerate in that year.

2. It is calculated by Global Footprint Network.

3. A country’s overshoot day is the date on which Earth Overshoot Day would fall if all of humanity consumed like the people in this country.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-D

Q41. Jaipur recently got inducted into the UNESCO’s World Heritage Site list. What are the possible benefits of World Heritage Site Status?

1. UNESCO can provide funds for restoration, preservation and training if required.

2. Sites become protected under the Geneva Convention against destruction or misuse during wartime.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q42. With reference to events which occurred during the reign of Shahjahan, which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The capital of the mughal empire was shifted from Agra to Delhi.

(b) Monthly scale was introduced in Mansabdari system.

(d) Jats and Satnamis raised the banner of rebellion.

Solution:-D

Q43. Which of the following statements regarding Study in India Programme is/are correct?

1. It focusses on attracting foreign students from countries across South-East Asia, Middle East and Africa.

2. The programme offers fee waivers to meritorious foreign students.

3. Education Consultants India Limited (EDCIL) is the implementing agency of the programme.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-D

Q44. With reference to Surrogacy Regulation Bill, 2019, consider the following statements:

1. The bill aims to regulate commercial and altruistic surrogacy.

2. The surrogate mother must be a close relative of the couple intending for surrogacy.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q45. Arrange the following states in increasing order of the number of orchid species recorded:

1. Arunachal Pradesh

2. West Bengal

3. Sikkim

4. Kerala

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2-4-1-3

(b) 4-2-1-3

(d) 2-4-3-1

Solution:-C

Q46. Washington Convention is related to:

(a) Climate Change

(b) Wildlife Protection

(d) Global Financial System

Solution:-B

Q47. Which of the following statements regarding Stand-Up India Scheme is/are correct?

1. Loans under the scheme are available for Greenfield projects only.

2. It is operated by all the branches of Scheduled Commercial Banks only.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q48. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY):

1. Under the scheme, the employer is incentivized by the government for increasing the employee base in the establishment through payment of EPF (Employees’ Provident Fund) contribution.

2. It is implemented by Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

3. Employees with salary greater than 15,000 per month are eligible under the scheme.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-B

Q49. IndSpaceEx, seen in news recently refers to:

(a) India’s first space warfare exercise.

(b) Exercise to intercept a satellite in outer space based on indigenous technology.

(d) First UN-crewed experimental flight for Indian Human Spaceflight Programme.

Solution:-A

Q50. The Union Environment Ministry has selected 12 beaches in India for a ‘Blue Flag’ certification. In this context consider the following statements regarding Blue Flag Certification:

1. It is run by international, nongovernmental, non-profit organization Foundation for Environmental Education.

2. If approved, beaches are given the qualification for a year and must apply annually to continue meriting the right to fly the flag at their locations.

3. Greece has the highest nunber of beaches under Blue Flag certification.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

Solution:-A

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Q1. Consider the following statements regarding Food Fortification:

1. It is an addition of one or more micronutrients to food and aims to replace the current balanced diet to address malnutrition.

2. Food Safety and Standards (Fortification of Foods) Regulations, 2018 has prescribed standards for fortification of food products in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q2. Which of the following is not correct regarding the concept of ‘Place of Effective Management (POEM)’?

(a) It aims to determine a foreign company’s residential status.

(b) It helps to assess if companies are setting up shell subsidiaries abroad to evade taxes.

(d) POEM guidelines are not applicable in India.

Solution:-D

Q3. The central government has recently reconstituted the Cabinet Committees. In this regard consider the following statements regarding Cabinet Committees:

1. They are constitutional bodies set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation.

2. Cabinet Committee on Investment and Growth is a newly constituted committee to identify and implement key projects involving investments of Rs 1,000 crore or more.

3. Prime Minister presides over all the Cabinet Committees.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Solution:-B

Q4. Which of the following statements regarding DNA Technology (Uses and Application) Regulation Bill, 2019 is/are correct?

1. The bill aims at strengthening the justice delivery system of the country.

2. The bill provides for the establishment of a DNA Regulatory Board chaired by the Union Minister of Science & Technology.

3. The bill provides for consent-based collection of DNA for DNA Profiling in all categories of cases.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 only

Solution:-A

Q5. The Archeological Survey of India has been restoring the Markandeshwar group of temples for the past 2 years. In this regard, consider the following statements regarding Markandeshwar group of temples:

1. The Markandeshwar temple group is also called Khajuraho of Vidarbha.

2. The temples belong to Nagara style of architecture of North India.

3. Gopuram is an essential feature of these temples.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 only

Solution:-D

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Sheath Blight disease:

1. It is a bacterial disease affecting the yield of rice crop.

2. Plants are more vulnerable to sheath blight during the summer season.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q7. Proton therapy, as seen recently in news, is used in the treatment of:

(a) Cancer

(b) Tuberculosis

(d) Zika virus

Solution:-A

Q8. Consider the following pairs:

1. Dragon fly mission – NASA’s mission to Saturn

2. Cassini Mission – First spacecraft to orbit Saturn

3. Raavana-1 – Sri Lanka’s first satellite

Which of the above-given pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-C

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding Varunastra:

1. It is an indigenously-built heavyweight anti-submarine nuclear torpedo.

2. It has been developed by the Naval Science and Technology Laboratory (NTSL).

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-A

Q10. Recently, the Reserve Bank of India has set up an Expert Committee to review the current framework for the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. Who is the chairman of the committee?

(a) C. Rangrajan

(b) Bimal Jalan

(d) U. K. Sinha

Solution:-D

Q11. Consider the following statements regarding Composite Water Management Index:

1. It has been launched by the Ministry of Jal Shakti.

2. The majority of Indian states are demonstrating progress on the water index.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q12. The Government of India has adopted the strategy of “Detect – Treat – Prevent – Build” (DTPB) for the elimination of:

(a) Tuberculosis

(b) AIDS

(d) None of the above

Solution:-A

Q13. With reference to E-2020 initiative, seen in news recently, consider the following statements:

1. It is a World Health Organization (WHO) supported initiative to eliminate malaria in 21 countries by 2022.

2. India is not a part of E-2020 initiative.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q14. Which of the following is not a cultural festival of Jammu and Kashmir?

(a) Mela Kheer bhawani

(b) Gang- Ngai

(d) Chamliyal Mela

Solution:-B

Q15. Consider the following pairs:

Stupa States

1. Chaukhandi Stupa – Uttar Pradesh

2. Dhamekh Stupa – Bihar

3. Bharhut Stupa – Madhya Pradesh

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Solution:-D

Q16. ISRO plans to send humans to space as part of Gaganyaan Mission by 2022. In this regard, consider the following statements:

1. India will become the 3rd country after Russia and USA to launch human spaceflight mission.

2. ISRO has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with NASA for a short visit to International Space Station as a training mission.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-D

Q17. With reference to 4th cycle of All India Tiger Estimation, consider the following statements:

1. All India Tiger Estimation is done every

4 years by National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).

2. Karnataka has the maximum number of tigers in India.

3. M-STRIPES Application for digital estimation of tiger population is developed by Wildlife Institute of India (WII).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-A

Q18. Consider the following statements about the Chandipur Virus :

1. The virus spreads mainly through the bite of sand flies, and sometimes through mosquitoes.

2. The virus is discovered in 2019 for the first time.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-A

Q19. Which of the following statements regarding Great Indian Bustard is/are correct?

1. It is listed as endangered in the IUCN Red List.

2. It is a flagship species of grassland ecosystem.

3. Project Godawan was launched by Gujarat to conserve the Great Indian Bustard.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Solution:-B

Q20. Which of the following is/are correct regarding One Nation, One Ration Card Scheme?

1. Ration card – Aadhar linkage is not mandatory to access the scheme.

2. It aims to remove fake ration cardholders.

3. It will control the rising food subsidy bill.

4. It will allow the poor migrant workers to buy subsidized rice and wheat from any ration shop in the country.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution:-C

Q21. Strum Ataka, seen recently in news, is a:

(a) Zika virus vaccine

(b) Military exercise between India and Mongolia

(d) Anti-tank missile

Solution:-D

Q22. With reference to the 10th Ministerial Meeting of Mekong Ganga Cooperation (MGC). Consider the following statements:

1. The new MGC Plan of Action envisages project-based cooperation in areas like science & technology, skill development, and capacity building.

2. It was held in Bangkok, Thailand.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q23. Recently, Ocean Energy has been declared as Renewable Energy by Ministry of New & Renewable Energy. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. Currently, there is no installed ocean energy capacity in India.

2. The potential location for tidal energy in India is Khambat and Kutch region.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q24. What is Jeevamrutha?

(a) A new anti-malerial drug.

(b) A mixture used in Zero Budget Natural Farming.

(d) None of the above

Solution:-B

Q25. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

River Linking Project Benefited States

1. Ken-Betwa : Madhya Pradesh only

2. Koshi-Mechi : Bihar

3. Par-Tapi-Narmada: Maharashtra only

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-B

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Q76. Which of the following is/are correct with reference to the policies adopted by Bahadur Shah towards strengthening the Mughal rule?

1. He tried to conciliate the Sikhs by making peace with Guru Gobind Singh and giving him a high mansab.

2. He restored peace in the Deccan by recognizing Shahu as the rightful

Maratha King.

3. He improved the position of the state finances by following prudent economic policies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-A

Q77. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the British military policy during the 1880-1900s?

1. British Indian army was used for imperial pursuits in Africa and Asia.

2. Indians could be taken into the army as volunteers.

3. Military expenditure was entirely borne by the British government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Solution:-A

Q78. In the context of the 19th and early 20^th century, which of the following statements best describes the term the Great Game?

(a) It refers to an intense rivalry between the British and other colonial empires in Africa.

(b) It refers to an intense rivalry between the British and French empires to colonize India.

(d) It refers to an intense rivalry between the British and Russian empires to influence or control Central Asia.

Solution:-D

Q79. With reference to the Maratha Kingdom in the 18th century, consider the following statements:

1. Peshwa became the functional head of the Maratha Empire in the tenure of Balaji Vishwanath.

2. Maratha kings were dependent on private armies of Maratha sardars for conquest outside their original kingdom.

3. The Maratha rulers encouraged science and technology as well as promoted trade and industry based on modern developments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-B

Q80. Who among the following were associated with judicial reforms in India?

1. Warren Hastings

2. WIlliam Bentinck

3. Lord Ripon

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-D

Q81. ‘Akademik Lomonosov’, recently seen in news is:

(a) A Russia-funded Antarctic exploration programme.

(b) A crater found on the southern pole of the moon.

(d) A Planetarium software launched to educate high-school students of developing nations.

Solution:-C

Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the first session of the INC:

1. The majority of members were from the Bengal province.

2. The members were drawn from every social stratum.

3. There was no official permission granted for the session.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-D

Q83. With reference to the Santhal tribal Rebellion, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The rebellion did not witness any significant violence.

(b) ‘Dikus’ were the groups formed among the tribes to attack the British establishments.

(d) At the end of rebellion, Santhal inhabited areas were constituted into Santhal Parganas, which recognised the distinctiveness of their tribal culture and identity.

Solution:-D

Q84. With reference to the growth of local self government in India , which of the following was/were the provisions of Ripon”s Resolution of 1870?

1. The local bodies to have majority of the non-officials.

2. Non-officials to act as chairpersons of the local bodies.

3. No official executive sanction required for imposition of new taxes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-B

Q85. With respect to the 14th Conference of Parties (COP) to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) held recently in India, consider the following statements:

1. This was the first COP to UNCCD to have been hosted by India.

2. At this Conference, the parties for the first time endorsed the Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) agenda for 2030 to combat desertification.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-A

Q86. “This national park is a part of the Nilgiri biosphere reserve in Tamilnadu and is located in the western corner of the Nilgiris Plateau near the popular hill station of Ooty. The vegetation, climate and appearance of the Park bear a striking resemblance to that of the Himalayas minus the snow. Recently, it reported an increase in the population of Nilgiri Tahr for the second consecutive year in a row.”

Which of the following National Parks is being described in the above passage?

(a) Silent Valley National Park

(b) Bandhavgarh National Park

(d) Mukurthi National Park

Solution:-D

Q87. Which of the following factors contributed to the decline of Portuguese in India?

1. The rise of the Marathas

2. The religious policies of the Portuguese

3. Rivalries with Britsh and Dutch Companies

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-D

Q88. With reference to the nature of working class movement during the different phases of freedom struggle, consider the following statements:

1. During the Swadeshi Movement, there was a shift from labor struggles on purely economic questions to the involvement of the worker with the wider political issues of the day.

2. Although the nationalist mass upsurge declined temporarily after 1908, the labor movement continued with increased fervour.

3. During the Non-cooperation Movement, the working-class activity slowed down.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-A

Q89. With reference to the International Astronomical Union (IAU), consider the following statements:

1. It is a body of individual astronomers across the world.

2. It is responsible for defining fundamental astronomical and physical constants.

3. It assigns designations to celestial bodies and surface features on them.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-D

Q90. Which of the following was/were the economic impact of British rule?

1. Between 1901 and 1941 the percentage of population dependent on agriculture increased.

2. The rural artisan industries developed rapidly with the coming of the railways.

3. Indian industrial efforts shifted towards setting up of heavy or capital goods industries.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-A

Q91. In the context of British India, consider the following statements regarding the development of press:

1. The first newspaper of British India was The Bengal Gazette.

2. The first newspaper in an Indian language was the Sambad Kaumudi.

3. This first news agency was the Associated Press of India (API).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Solution:-C

Q92. Arrange the following events in the chronological order:

1. Beginning of Sanyasi rebellion

2. Travancore rebellion led by Dewan Velu Thampi

3. Kittur uprising led by Chennamma

4. Second Anglo-Sikh War

Select the correct answer using the code given below,

(a) 1-2-3-4

(b) 2-3-4-1

(d) 3-1-2-4

Solution:-A

Q93. With reference to ‘Bombay Blood Group’, consider the following statements:

1. It is a rare type of blood group only found in certain individuals hailing from Mumbai.

2. People with this blood group can receive blood only from the O blood group.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-D

Q94. In the context of the British rule in India, the objective of the Fowler Committee was to:

(a) Suggest measures to rationalise military expenditure.

(b) Examine the currency situation in India.

(d) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.

Solution:-B

Q96. Consider the following pairs of wars and their concluding treaties :

War Treaty

1. Anglo-Bhutan: Treaty of Yandabo

2. Anglo-Nepal: Treaty of Sinchula

3. Anglo-Tibet: Treaty of Gandamak

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) None

Solution:-D

Q97. In the context of Indian national movement, the Simla Manifesto of 1838 is associated with:

(a) The demands for ensuring Indianization of Civil Services.

(b) The formal declaration of Doctrine of Lapse as British policy for annexation of Princely states.

(d) The setting up of Commission for redressal of grievances of peasants in Deccan region.

Solution:-C

Q98. Consider the following statements, with reference to “Mansabdari System”:

1. This system was introduced by Akbar in order to maintain a strong army.

2. The salary of the soldiers was paid by assigning them jagirs and not in cash.

3. Mansabdars maintained horses, elephants, camels and carts under the expenditure of the state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-A

Q99. Consider the following statements with reference to the Regulating Act of 1773:

1. It created a new body called the Board of Control to manage the work of the Directors of the East India Company.

2. It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court of at Calcutta.

3. It successfully resolved the conflict between the Company and its opponents in England.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Solution:-B

Q100. Consider the following statements with reference to the recently launched NIRVIK Scheme:

1. The scheme aims to ease the lending process and enhance loan availability for exporters.

2. The scheme has been introduced by the Ministry of Finance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-A

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Q51. Which of the following statements are correct about the Wahabi movement of the 19th century?

1. It was started against Sikhs of Punjab.

2. It was inspired by the teachings of Delhi saint Shah Waliullah.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q52. Consider the following statements regarding Satya Shodhak Samaj:

1. It was founded with Mahatma Jyotiba Phule as its first secretary and Savitribai Phule as its first president.

2. A member at Satya Shodhak Samaj had to take an oath in the name of god and declare his allegiance to British rule.

3. It rejected the idea of the caste system and the basic four-fold division of society.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 only

Solution:-C

Q53. Consider the following statements regarding Anglo-Maratha wars:

1. The first Anglo- Maratha war happened during the reign of Lord Warren Hastings.

2. The Pindaris were one of the main factors behind the Second Anglo- Maratha war.

3. The Peshwa was dethroned and pensioned after the Third Anglo- Maratha war.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-C

Q54. Which of the following were the conventions adopted by the Indian National Congress?

1. Sessions to be held only in major centers like Bengal, Bombay, and Madras.

2. The president of the session should be from a region other than the place of session.

3. The sessions to be organized in the way of a Parliament using tools like resolutions and voting on them.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-B

Q55. Which of the following were the constituents of Home Charges, which was one of the methods of Economic Drain?

1. Dividend to the shareholders of the East India Company.

2. Interest on Public Debt raised abroad.

3. Pensions and furloughs payments of British officers in the Civil and Military departments in India.

4. Interest on Foreign Capital Investments.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Solution:-A

Q56. The Maxwell-Broomfield Commission was set up by the British government to

(a) To survey and report the increase in Malaria cases in the provinces.

(b) Review the status of famine in India and suggest measures for its prevention.

(d) Suggest reforms in the land revenue settlement system in Bengal.

Solution:-C

Q57. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Deccan riots of the 1870s?

(a) The areas of activity of the Deccan riots were under the Zamindari system of land revenue.

(b) Social boycott was used as a major instrument during the Deccan riots.

(c) The riots ultimately led to the passage Deccan Agriculturists’ Relief Act of 1879 which provided protection against the moneylenders.

(d) It was supported by the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha, led by Justice Ranade.

Solution:-A

Q58. With reference to the Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB), consider the following statements:

1. It is an association of Election Management Bodies (EMBs) of all UN member nations.

2. It conducts and supervises general elections if requested by the national government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-D

Q59. Consider the following pairs:

Governor Generals/ Viceroy Acts Passed

1. Lord Curzon: Age of Consent Act 1891

2. Lord Dalhousie: Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act, 1856

3. Lord Northbrook: Female Infanticide Prevention Act, 1870

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Solution:-B

Q60. Consider the following statements with reference to the Mahalwari System:

1. It was introduced in the Gangetic valley and the North-West Provinces of India.

2. Under it, the revenue settlement was to be made in a village with heads of families who collectively claimed to be the landlords of the village.

3. In Mahalwari areas, the land revenue was periodically revised.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-D

Q61. Consider the following statements regarding the Rangpur Rebellion during the late 19^th Century in Eastern India:

1. The rebellion happened in opposition to the Permanent Settlement introduced by Britishers in Bengal.

2. The rebellion acquired violent communal overtones.

3. Bakshi Jagbandhu was an important leader of the movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) None

Solution:-D

Q62. Consider the following publications:

1. Bhawani Mandir

2. Vartaman Rananiti

3. Sandhya

Which of the above journals/newspaper preached revolutionary ideas during the Indian freedom struggle?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Solution:-A

Q63. In the context of early attempts at labour reforms during the late 19th Century, consider the following statements:

1. Sasipada Banerjea set up a Workingmen’s Club in 1870 and brought out a monthly journal called Bharat Sramjeebi.

2. In Bombay, Narayan Meghajee Lokhanday brought out an Anglo- Marathi weekly called Deenbandhu.

3. G.S. Agarkar formed the Bombay Mill and Millhands’ Association in 1890 to advocate labour reforms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-B

Q64. Who among the following leaders held the position of president of the Indian National Congress?

1. Badruddin Tyabji

2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

3. Mahadev Govind Ranade

4. Romesh Chandra Dutt

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Solution:-B

Q65. With reference to Wardha scheme of basic education, consider the following statements:

1. It was inspired by Gandhian ideas in his weekly “Harijan”.

2. The underlying principle behind this education was “learning through activity”.

3. It received massive support from the masses and was continued till independence.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-A

Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the economic conditions/policies during the rule of Tipu Sultan:

1. He made attempts to introduce modern industries in India by importing foreign workmen as experts and by extending state support to many industries.

2. Peasants under his rule were much more prosperous than the peasants in most other parts of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q67. With reference to ‘Marsiya Poetry’, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is the compilation of teachings of Moinuddin Chishti in the form of a book of hymns.

2. It was patronized by the nawabs of Lucknow in the nineteenth century.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q68. With reference to Press Act of 1910, consider the following statements:

1. Printing-presses had to deposit a security amount with the local government.

2. It covered vernacular newspapers and books.

3. The Magistrate was given full discretion and there was no provision for appeal against his action on printing-presses.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-B

Q69. The famous Curzon-Kitchener controversy associated with:

(a) The partition of Bengal.

(b) Ending the dual control of military affairs.

(d) Ending scholarship to Indian student in the Calcutta University.

Solution:-B

Q70. With reference to Elephant Endotheliotropic herpes viruses (EEHV), recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a virus that causes a fatal hemorrhagic disease in the elephants.

2. It primarily affects African elephants and is not observed in their Asian counterparts.

3. It can be transmitted to humans when they come in contact with an infected animal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Solution:-A

Q71. With reference to the stance of Congress in its initial years, towards the labour reforms, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. They took a consistent position in favour of factory reforms which proposed to improve the living condition of labourers.

2. They organised a campaign against the exploitation of the labourers at the Assam tea gardens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q72. With reference to an initiative called ‘The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)’ which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an initiative of the G20 countries.

2. The coalition aims to help develop disaster resilient technologies and mechanism for integrating risk reduction in infrastructure financing.

3. The secretariat of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) will be established in New Delhi.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Solution:-C

Q73. Consider the following statements with respect to the Basel Ban Amendment, a global waste dumping prohibiting convention:

1. It prohibits trans boundary export of all hazardous wastes except plastic wastes.

2. Recently, India has ratified the Basel Ban Amendment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-D

Q74. With reference to the recently announced post of Chief of Defence Staff, consider the following statement:

1. He will act as the single-point advisor to the Government of India on matters related to all the three services.

2. Senior-most among the three service chiefs will be designated as the Chief of Defence Staff.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-C

Q75. ‘Goldschmidtite’, recently seen in news, is a/an:

(a) Human fossil belonging to Mesozoic era.

(b) New crypto currency pegged against real gold.

(d) New mineral discovered from the earth’s mantle.

Solution:-D

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Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to salt production and consumption in India:

1. Gujarat is the largest producer of salt in India.

2. Tamil Nadu has the highest percentage of households consuming adequately iodized salt.

3. In India, salt production and distribution are monitored by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Solution:-D

Q2. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Lunar Reconnaissance Orbiter’ is correct?

(a) It is a NASA robotic spacecraft currently orbiting the moon.

(b) It imaged the area of the targeted Chandrayaan-2 landing site to help detect Vikram lander.

(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

Solution:-D

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding government policies towards Dalit/backward castes in British India:

1. The first attempt to replace the term scheduled castes with depressed classes was made by the Councils Act of 1891.

2. The Government of India Act 1909 was the first statute to provide political representation to the depressed classes in the provincial legislature through nomination.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-D

Q4. With reference to the Asiatic Society of Bombay, consider the following statements:

1. It was created by the British to impart western education to train select Indians for administrative posts.

2. Annie Besant was elected as the first woman president of the society in 1917.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-D

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the National Council of Women in India (NCWI):

1. The leadership and membership of the Council primarily came from the middle-class and lower-class women.

2. It primarily aimed education for women through social mobilization and awareness campaigns among women.

3. It acted as the national branch of the International Council of Women before merging into All-India Women’s Conference.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) None

Solution:-D

Q6. Which of the following is/are correct regarding the British Doctrine of Lapse policy?

1. It was an instrument used by Lord Hastings to annex Indian princely states.

2. It denied the ruler of a princely state the right to choose a successor in the absence of a natural heir.

3. It was used for annexing the kingdom of Avadh.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Solution:-B

Q7. With reference to the Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS), consider the following statements:

1. It is a payment system launched by the National Payment Corporation of India

2. It allows payments through physical cash as well as digital modes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q8. With reference to the political associations before the birth of Indian National Congress consider the following statements:

1. Landholders’ Society was the first political organization formed to agitate against British rule.

2. Indian Association of Calcutta was founded by Dwarkanath Tagore with the objective of unifying people on a common political programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-A

Q9. Chittaranjan Das, famously known as Deshbandhu, was associated with:

1. Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party

2. All India Trade Union Congress

3. Civil Disobedience Movement

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-B

Q10. UMMID, a recently launched scheme, aims to

(a) Reunite the rescued victims of human trafficking with their families

(b) Tackle inherited genetic diseases among newborn babies

(d) Provide scholarships to specially-abled meritorious graduates to undertake higher studies programmes.

Solution:-B

Q11. Which of the following movements was/were revivalist in nature?

1. Ahmadiya Movement

2. Deoband Movement

3. Aligarh Movement

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-A

Q12. Consider the following pairs:

Personality Founder

1. Radhakanta Deb: Widow Remarriage Association

2. Keshub Chandra Sen: Tabernacle of New Dispensation

3. Annie Beasant: Theosophical Society

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-A

Q13. Which of the following literary works were associated with Bal Gangadhar Tilak?

1. The Arctic home in the Vedas

2. Kesari

3. Mahratta

4. Gita Rahasya

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution:-D

Q14. With reference to ‘Turtle Survival Alliance’, consider the following statements:

1. It is an inter-governmental body involved in the protection of marine and freshwater turtles.

2. It was established as an IUCN partner in response to the ‘Asian Turtle Crisis’.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-B

Q15. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the economic nationalism of India during the late 19th Century?

1. A literary critique of the economic system of the British was put forward by Dadabhai Naoroji, M.G. Ranade and R.C. Dutt.

2. One of the criticisms was that no measures were taken to arrest the falling exchange rate of the rupee.

3. The complete abolition of capitalism was put forward as a solution to Indian economic problems by the nationalists.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-C

Q16. Which of the following is not correct with reference to Nadir Shah’s invasion in India?

(a) His entry into the north-west India was met by strong opposition by the combined forces of the Rajputs and the Mughal.

(b) The Emperor Muhammad Shah was taken prisoner by the forces of Nadir Shah.

(d) The Mughal emperor was compelled to cede to him all the provinces of the Empire west of the river Indus.

Solution:-A

Q17. Consider the following statements with reference to the role of the Sayyid brothers in the 18th century India:

1. They wielded significant authority under the reign of Mughal emperor Jahandar Shah.

2. They abolished the jizyah and the pilgrim tax from a number of places.

3. They were constantly at conflict with several of the Jat and Rajput princes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 only

Solution:-D

Q18. Arrange the following business organizations in the chronological order of their formation:

1. Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry

2. The Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India

3. The Indian Merchants’ Chamber

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1-2-3

(b) 3-2-1

(d) 2-1-3

Solution:-B

Q19. Consider the following statements with reference to the Brahmo Samaj:

1. It was based on the twin pillars of reason and the Vedas and Upanishads.

2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting religious writings.

3. It actively opposed the caste system and child-marriage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:-D

Q20. With reference to the revolt of 1857, consider the following statements:

1. During revolt, the Bombay and Madras armies remained loyal to the British.

2. Malabar region in the south was one of the nerve centers of the 1857 revolt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-A

Q21. With reference to the Buddhist sangha, consider the following statements:

1. Only men were allowed into the sangha.

2. Irrespective of socio-economic background, all members were regarded as equal.

3. The decisions on debatable subjects were taken by an assembly of elders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Solution:-B

Q22. ‘Galo’, ‘Wancho’ and ‘Adi’, often seen in news, are:

(a) Tribal communities of Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Glacial lakes located in Leh Ladakh

(d) Buddhist monastries located in Sikkim

Solution:-A

Q23. The word ‘Cryodrakon Boreas’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to

(a) Fossils of a kind of dinosaurs.

(b) The largest flying animal of primaeval sky.

(d) A tree species capable of retaining leaves in a frigid zone.

Solution:-B

Q24. With reference to Global Fund for AIDS, TB and Malaria (GFTAM), consider the following statements:

1. It is a public-private partnership designed to accelerate the end of AIDS, tuberculosis and malaria.

2. India has joined it very recently to mobilize funds for National Health Mission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:-A

Q25. Which of the following features can be attributed to the socio-religious reform movements for the empowerment of women during the 19th century?

1. These movements were aimed at a radical change towards the existing patriarchal structure of society.

2. Women spearheaded most of these movements with the primary aim to alter their adverse social conditions.

3. The provision for education for girls was primarily meant to equip them to be self sufficient and independent.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) None

Solution:-D

Medieval Indian History MCQ Part-1

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Medieval Indian History MCQ Part-1

1. The death of Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb occurred at which among the following places?

(A) Agra
(B) Bijapur
(C) Ahmednagar
(D) Pune

2. Who among the following rulers had stamped the figure of Goddess Lakshmi on his coins and had his name inscribed in Nagari Characters?

(A) Muhammad Ghazni
(B) Muhammad Ghori
(C) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(D) Iltutmish

3. Ibn Battuta, the famous Muslim explorer who came to India during regime of Mohammad Bin Tughlaq, belonged to which country?

(A) Afghanistan
(B) Morocco
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran

4. Which of the following Rajput rulers is known to have donated for the reconstruction of a mosque?

(A) Mihir Bhoja
(B) Bhoja Parmar
(C) Prithviraj III
(D) Jai Singh Siddharaj

5. The lowest in rank in the Maratha infantry was of__?

(A) Nayak
(B) Havaldar
(C) Jumladar
(D) Hazari

6. During the invasion of Mohammed Bin Kasim, many Hindus in Sindh were forcibly converted to Islam. They were reconverted to Hinduism by the authority of __?

(A) Devali Smriti
(B) Narada Smriti
(C) Vishnu Smriti
(D) Yajnavalkya Smriti

7.The irrigation tax was charged on the farmers for the first time by which among the following Sultans?

(A) Alauddin Khilji
(B) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(C) Mohammad Tughlaq
(D) Firoz Tughlaq

8.Who among the following Sultans of Delhi assumed the title Sikandar-i-Sani?

(A) Balban
(B) Alauddin Khalji
(C) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
(D) Sikandar Lodi

9.The Sayyid dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate is called so because__?

(A) Its founder and his successors adopted the title Sayyid
(B) Its founder and his successors belonged to the Sayyid tribe of eastern Turkistan
(C) Its founder and his successors were descendant of the prophet Muhammad
(D) Its founder was a scholar of Islamic theology

10.During the Delhi Sultanate, who among the following were called the Barids?

(A) Craftsmen
(B) Bodyguards of the Sultan
(C) Officer-in-charge of state exchequer
(D) The spy / news reporters

11.Which among the following terms was used for the Royal cavalry of the Maratha Army System?

(A) The Shiledars
(B) The Bargirs
(C) The Hazari
(D) The Subedars

12.The real name of Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II was__:

(A) Alamgir II
(B) Ahmed Shah Durrani
(C) Mirza Najaf Khan
(D) Ali Gauhar

13.Who among the following was appointed as the supreme authority in justice during the era of Mughal Emperors ?

(A) Qazi-ul-Quzat
(B) Qazi-ul-Hazat
(C) Qazi-Faiz-ul-Islam
(D) None of these

14.Who was Sultan of Delhi Sultanate when Timur invaded India in 1398?

(A) Mahmud Shah Tughluq
(B) Jalal ud din Firuz Khilji
(C) Aram Shah
(D) Ghiyas-ud-din Balban

15.“Silver Tanka” and “Copper Jital” coins were introduced by:

(A) Iltutmish
(B) Abu Bakr Shah
(C) Firuz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Sikander Lodi

16.In 1293 A.D., Marco Polo, an Italian traveller, visited which Indian Kingdom?

(A) Kakatiya
(B) Satavahana
(C) Pandyan
(D) Chera

17.Who among the following is associated with translation of Rajatarangini in Persian?

(A) Dara Shikoh
(B) Zain-ul-Abidin
(C) Abdul Razzaq Jilani
(D) Bande Nawaz

18.Which of the following rulers died in the Kalinjar Fort situated in the Bundelkhand region of central India?

(A) Mahmud of Ghazni
(B) Sher Shah Suri
(C) Humayun
(D) Jahangir

19.Which among the following Sikh Gurus had been given the “Palace of Amritsar” by Mughal Emperor Akbar?

(A) Guru Ram Das
(B) Guru Arjun Das
(C) Guru Angad
(D) Guru Hargovind

20.Which among the following building built by Shah Jahan at Agra is similar in pattern of the Saint Basil’s Cathedral in Moscow?

(A) Taj Mahal
(B) Agra fort
(C) Pearl Mosque
(D) Shah Jahani Mahal

Answer Key:

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Civil Services Preliminary exam comprises of two compulsory papers of 200 marks each (General Studies Paper I and General Studies Paper II). The questions will be of multiple choices, objective type. The marks in prelims will not be counted for final ranking, but just for qualification for main exam.The Commission will draw a list of candidates to be qualified for Civil Service (Main) Examination based on the criterion of minimum qualifying marks of 33% in General Studies Paper-II of Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination and total qualifying marks of General Studies Paper-I of Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination as may be determined by the Commission.

UPSC Syllabus for GS Paper I – (200 marks) Duration: Two hours (Counted for the merit rank in the Prelims)·

Current events of national and international importance.

History of India and Indian National Movement.

Indian and World Geography – Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World.

Indian Polity and Governance – Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.

Economic and Social Development Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector initiatives, etc.

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Daily News Prescription - General Studies of India

Polity: UPSC Prelims 2020 Highly Expected Questions

15- Polity & Governance Solved Test Paper: Highly Expected Questions for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam General Studies Paper-1. 15-Practice Set from Static and Current Affairs of Polity Section. These Questions will definitely improve your score in exam. Polity UPSC Prelims Questions

The first stage of the UPSC Civil Services exam is the Prelims. In IAS prelims, questions are of objective type (MCQ) which also carry negative marks for wrong answers. We have compiled a list of UPSC MCQ to give aspirants an idea about the intricacies of the IAS Prelims. In the list of UPSC MCQ, we have modelled the questions as per the UPSC prelims syllabus and previous year analysis. The UPSC MCQ will be regularly updated and more categories will be added so do keep checking MYUPSC.COM regularly.

The download link for UPSC Practice Test/ UPSC MCQ / UPSC Quiz on polity (with answers) can be found below. To ascertain your preparation level for IAS prelims, you can refer the sample questions in this article.

IAS Prelims: UPSC Test/ MCQ On Polity

For Polity part of IAS prelims, aspirants need to be prepared with the fundamental aspects of the Indian constitution.

Q. Which Schedule of the Constitution is related to the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the States and the Union Territories?

Fourth Schedule
Fifth Schedule
Sixth Schedule
Seventh Schedule

Q. Which of the following features of the Constitution have been borrowed from the Government of India Act of 1935?

Office of governor
Concurrent list
Emergency Provisions
Rule of law

Mark the correct response:

Only 4
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above

Q. Which of the following provisions makes the Indian Constitution rigid?

A Constitutional Amendment Bill shall be passed by a special majority as given under article 368 and not by simple majority.
Some of the Constitutional Amendment Bills passed by the Parliament shall have to be ratified by not less than half of the State Legislatures.
A Constitutional Amendment Act cannot violate the basic structure of the Constitution.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 and 2 only
Only 2
2 and 3 only
All the above

Q 1: Which of the following features of the Constitution have been borrowed from the Government of India Act of 1935?

1. Office of governor

2. Concurrent list

3. Emergency Provisions

4. Rule of law

Mark the correct response:

a. Only 4

b. 1, 3 and 4 only

c. 1, 2 and 3 only

d. All of the above

ANS: b

Q 2: consider the following statements regarding the Advocate General of a State:

1. The Advocate General of a State must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of a high court.

2. Constitution specifies the age of Advocate General to be not more than 65 years.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. Only 1

b. Only 2

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

ANS: a

Q 3: Under the Anti-Defection Law, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha takes decisions on the question of

Disqualification of a member of the House under which of the following capacity?

a. Arbitration

b. Presiding Officer

c. Administrative Head of the Lok Sabha

d. Tribunal

ANS: d

Ques 4 Which Schedule of the Constitution is related to allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the States and the Union Territories?

a. Fourth Schedule

b. Fifth Schedule

c. Sixth Schedule

d. Seventh Schedule

ANS – a

Polity UPSC Prelims Questions

Ques 5 A constitutional amendment to the Fundamental rights?

a) Cannot be challenged in the court of law

b) Can be challenged on the ground that it violates basic structure of the constitution

c) Can be challenged under Article 32 on the grounds of violation of Fundamental rights

d) Is deemed to be a violation to the basic structure of the constitution

ANS -b

Ques 6 consider the following Statements:

1. Sare Jahan Se Acha was written by Muhammad Iqbal.

2. National Anthem was written by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee.

3. National Song was written by Rabindranath Tagore.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 2 and 3 only

b. Only 1 and 3

c. Only 1

d. All the above

ANS – c

Ques 7 Which of the following is/are the characteristics of the Federal System?

1. Division of power between Centre and States

2. Supremacy of the Constitution.

3. Bicameralism

4. Separation of Power

Mark the correct response:

a. Only 1

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 1, 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 4 only

ANS – c

Ques 8 The subject of ‘Urban Local Government’ is managed by which of the following Ministries of Government of India?

1. Ministry of Panchayati Raj

2. Ministry of Urban Development

3. Ministry of Home Affairs

4. Ministry of Defence

Mark the correct response:

a. Only 1

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2 and 3 only

ANS – c

Ques 9 Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

i) Seventh schedule – Union, state and concurrent lists

ii) Third schedule – Provisions so as to the President and Governors of states

iii) Second schedule – Oaths and affirmations

iv) Tenth schedule – Provisions for disqualification on the ground of defection

Answers:

a) i) and iii) only

b) ii) and iv) only

c) i), ii) and iii) only

d) i) and iv) only

ANS – d

Polity UPSC Prelims Questions

Ques 10 Which of the following bodies of India has a quasi-judicial function?

1. Comptroller and Auditor General of India

2. Finance Commission

3. Election Commission of India

4. Central Information Commission

5. National Human Rights Commission

Mark the correct response:

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

c. 3, 4 and 5 only

d. All the above

ANS – d

Ques 11 In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held Federalism to be a part of the basic structure of the Constitution?

a. Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala

b. S.RBommai vs. Union of India

c. Minerva Mills vs. Union of India

d. Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab

ANS – b

Ques 12 consider the following statements regarding ‘Zero Hour’ discussion:

1. It is an informal device not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure of the Houses.

2. It is directed against an individual member.

3. It covers questions raised over matters of public importance.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 2 and 3 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. All the above

ANS – d

Ques 13 what are the powers of Gram Sabha in the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996?

1. It shall approve all plans for social and economic development for implementation

2. It shall identify or select persons as beneficiaries under poverty alleviation schemes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. Only 1

b. Only 2

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

ANS – c

Ques 14 Which of the following languages is not a part of Scheduled Languages under Eighth Schedule of the Constitution?

1. Kashmiri

2. Nepali

3. Tamil

4. Mathili

Mark the correct response:

a. Only 1

b. 1 and 4 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. None of these

ANS – d

Polity UPSC Prelims Questions

Ques 15 “Rule of Law’ contains which of the following principles:

1. No person can be punished or made to suffer in body or goods except for the violation of law.

2. No person shall be punished without being heard.

3. No person shall be a judge of his own case.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. Only 1

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 1 and 3 only

ANS – a

Ques 16: The National Green Tribunal has jurisdiction over which of the following laws?

1. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act

2. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act

3. Scheduled Tribes (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act 2005

4. Forest (Conservation) Act

5. Public Liability (Insurance) Act.

Mark the correct response:

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

c. 1, 2 and 4 only

d. 2 and 4 only

ANS – b

Ques 17 The objective(s) of the Theory of Separation of Power is/are:

1. To prevent the concentration of powers of government in a single authority.

2. To safeguard the individual’s liberty.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. Only 1

b. Only 2

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

ANS – c

Ques 18

i) Supreme court has jurisdiction over the decisions regarding disqualification of a member of the parliament.

ii) An exemption has been provided to the Speaker and deputy speaker of the House of people to disqualification.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) i) only

b) ii) only

c) Both i) and ii)

d) None

ANS – b

Ques 19 Majority as under Article 368 is needed in which of the following:

1. for the passage of Constitutional Amendment Bill in the Parliament.

2. for the removal of judges of SC and HCs.

3. for the continuation of national emergency.

4. for the removal of Speaker of Lok Sabha.

5. for the removal of Vice-president in Rajya Sabha.

Mark the correct response:

a. Only 1

b. 1, 2 and 3 only

c. 1, 4 and 5 only

d. 4 and 5 only

ANS – b

Ques 20 Which of the following provisions of the Constitution was amended under the Constitution (Ninety-Fifth Amendment) Act, 2009?

1. Substituted “Odia” for “Oriya”

2. Gave a Constitutional status and protection to co-operative societies.

3. Extended the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies for a further period of 10 years.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. Only 1

b. Only 2

c. Only 3

d. 1 and 2 Only

ANS – c

Ques 21 Consider the following statements in relation to Article 368 of the constitution.

i) It deals with power of the Parliament to amend the constitution and its procedure.

ii) Under this, the Parliament is empowered to amend anything and everything in the constitution.

iii) Amendment can be done by variation or addition only.

Which of the above statements is correct?

a) i) only

b) i) and iii) only

c) i), ii) and iii)

d) None of the above

ANS – a

Ques 22 Which of the following is/are NOT full-fledged govt.(s)?

1. Cabinet form of government.

2. Coalition government

3. Minority government

4. Care-taker government

ANS – d

Ques 23 the Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing International Treaties:

a. with the consent of all the States

b. without the consent of any State

c. with the consent of majority of the States

d. with the consent of the States concerned

ANS – b

Polity UPSC Prelims Questions

Ques 24 i) The President is not answerable to any court for exercising the powers and duties of his office.

ii) Article 365 empowers the President to hold that a situation of constitutional failure has arisen in a state.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) i) only

b) ii) only

c) Both i) and ii)

d) None

ANS – c

Ques 25 Consider the following statements:

1. DPSPs are positive obligations of the State.

2. DPSPs are non-justiciable in character.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. Only 1

b. Only 2

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

ANS – c

Ques 26:

i) The official language of the union is to be Hindi written in Devanagari script.

ii) State legislatures have the authority to decide on the official language of the state.

iii) All proceedings in the Supreme Court have to be in Hindi and English only.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) i) only

b) i) and iii) only

c) iii) only

d) ii) and iii) only

ANS – c

Polity UPSC Prelims Questions

Ques 27 consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution describes India as the “Federation of India”.

2. The expression ‘Union of India’ protects the unity and territorial integrity of India better than the expression “Federation of India”.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. Only 1

b. Only 2

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

ANS – b

Ques 28: Which among the following ideals in the Preamble to the Constitution of India has been borrowed from the Russian Constitution?

a. Justice

b. Liberty

c. Equality

d. Fraternity

ANS – a

Ques 29 Which of the following changes was made in the Constitution under 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011:

1. Part IX-B was added to the Constitution.

2. A new DPSP on promotion of co-operative societies was included.

3. Right to form co-operative societies was made a Fundamental right.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. Only 3

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. All the above

ANS – d

Ques 30 Which of the following provisions makes the Indian Constitution rigid? Polity UPSC Prelims Questions

1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill shall be passed by a special majority as given under article 368 and not by simple majority.

2. Some of the Constitutional Amendment Bills passed by the Parliament shall have to be ratified by not less than half of the State Legislatures.

3. A Constitutional Amendment Act cannot violate the basic structure of the Constitution.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. Only 2

c. 2 and 3 only

d. All the above

ANS – b

Q. Consider the following statements regarding National Emergency:

A proclamation of National Emergency may be applicable to the entire country or only a part of it.
The President can proclaim a National Emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q. Which of the following taxes are levied by the Centre but collected and appropriated by the states (Art 268)?

Taxes on the sale of goods in the course of inter-state trade.
Any cess levied for specific purposes.
Land Revenue
Tolls

Mark the correct response:

Only 3
1 and 3 only
1,2 and 4 only
None of these

For answers to the above questions and more UPSC Practice highly expected MCQ on polity for IAS prelims, you can download the UPSC MCQ – Polity PDF. Polity UPSC Prelims Questions

Targetting UPSC Prelims? Check our UPSC Prelims 2020 page.

In the links below, check out the Prelims Test series 2020 and find all the important information about UPSC Civil Services Exam 2020 like syllabus, eligibility, previous year questions and more. For UPSC specific analysis of topics in news, follow our comprehensive daily news analysis. Polity UPSC Prelims Questions

UPSC Prelims 2020 Batch 4: Complete Revision

UPSC Prelims 2020 Batch 4 : Complete Revision of Prelims through 6000+ MCQs will start on 12th February 2020. UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 GS Paper-1 Last Time Revision Notes and Practice Test / Question Bank. UPSC Prelims 2020 Revision

Highlights:

60 Days Online Revision Test Programme

45 Days Concept cum Revision Daily Test
17 Days Prelims Current Affairs Tests
Special Test on Economic Survey & Budget
Special Test on India Year Book & Mapping
Prelims Mock Test Series
Prelims Study Material

UPSC Prelims 2020 Batch 4: Complete Revision of Prelims through 6000+ MCQs

Programme Approach

UPSC Prelims is all about managing micro detailing of subjects & handling negative marking. As aspirants tend to get confused about what to study and how to study (i.e. up to what level/extent) for Civil Services Prelims, this programme has been designed to help students to cover whole syllabus effectively within a stipulated time and also have an assessment through test series.
This programme covers the complete syllabus including – History, Geography, Polity, Economy, Science, Environment and Current Affairs with the correct mix of Fundamental and Advance level of study to cover micro detailing of sub-topics & current developments.
44 Days Concept cum Revision tests for covering basic concepts. In each Test there will be a test of 100 questions (based on the topics given in schedule) followed by Class to cover basic aspects of each topic and approach to handle questions.
17 days Current Affairs Test covering last 2 years current topics/issues supplemented by notes.
Current Affairs Test will also include updates on Indian Year Book (IYB), PIB, Budget and Economic Survey.
Special Test on Mapping (World & Indian Geography).
Complete Prelims Study Material & Prelims Current Affairs Material will also be provided (It will cover Current Affairs of past 2 years). UPSC Prelims 2020 Revision

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

Test Plan

TEST	DATE	TOPIC	Sub Topics Cover
Test 1	12-Feb-2020	GOVERNANCE	 Working of Ministries and Department  Functions of Cabinet Secretariat  Functions of Central Secretariat  RTI  E-Governance  Citizen Charter  Governing Institutions
Test 2	13-Feb-2020	GOVERNANCE	 Schemes  Programmes  Policies  Vulnerable sector  Bills
Test 3	14-Feb-2020	GOVERNANCE	 Full length
Test 4	15-Feb-2020	GEOGRPAHY	 Climatology  Atmosphere  Inversion of Temp  Insolation & Heat Budget  Winds & Pressure Belts  Air Mass, Fronts Cyclones & Jet Stream  Precipitation  Climatic Zone
Test 5	16-Feb-2020	GEOGRPAHY	 Full length
Test 6	17-Feb-2020	GEOGRPAHY	 The origin of the Earth  The Evolution of the Earth  Geological History of the Earth  Earth  Origin of Life  Geological Time Scale  Interior of the Earth  Geology  Earthquakes  Volcano  Geomorphic Processes  Distribution of Continents & Oceans  Landforms and their Evolution  Landforms across the world
Test 7	18-Feb-2020	GEOGRPAHY	 Full length
Test 8	19-Feb-2020	GEOGRPAHY	 Oceanography  Hydrosphere  Submarine Relief Features  Temperature & Salinity  Waves, Ocean Currents  Marine Resources  Ocean Deposits & Corals
Test 9	20-Feb-2020	GEOGRPAHY	 Demography  Human Resource  Population growth  Demographic Transition  Settlements & Urbanization
Test 10	21-Feb-2020	GEOGRPAHY	 Soil  Vegetation resources  Basic terms related to Agriculture  Productivity of Crops and conditions for growth
Test 11	22-Feb-2020	GEOGRPAHY	 Mineral resource  Energy resources  Industry  Transport
Test 12	23-Feb-2020	ANCIANT HISTORY	 Pre Historic Cultures In India  Pastoral and Farming Communities  Indus Valley Civilization  Vedic Society  Pre Mauryan Period
Test 13	24-Feb-2020	ANCIANT HISTORY	 The Mauryan Empire  Post-Mauryan India  Growth of Jainism and Buddhism  Imperial Guptas  Harshavardhana  The Southern Dynasties
Test 14	25-Feb-2020	ANCIANT HISTORY	 Visual Art  Architecture in Ancient India  Indo-Islamic Architecture  Modern Architecture  Indian Paintings  Pottery Tradition in India
Test 15	26-Feb-2020	INDIAN CULTURE	 Music in India  Dances in India  Martial Arts in India  Indian Theatre  Indian Puppetry  Indian Cinema  Religions in India  Bhakti & Sufi Movements  Languages & Literature in India  Miscellaneous Topics
Test 16	27-Feb-2020	MEDIVAL HISTORY	 The Establishment of the North Indian Empire  Consolidation and Expansion of the Empire – Akbar  State and Government under Akbar  Akbar’s Religious Views  The Deccan and the Mughals (Upto 1657)  Foreign Policy of the Mughals  India in the First Half of the Seventeenth Century  Aurangzeb – Religious Policies, North India and the Rajputs  Climax and Crisis of the Mughal Empire the Marathas and the Deccan  Society-Structure and Growth  Economic Life-Patterns and Prospects  Religion, Fine Arts, Science and Technology  Northern India in the First Half of the Eighteenth Century  The Maratha Bid for Supremacy
Test 17	28-Feb-2020	MODERN HISTROY	 The Advent of Europeans In India  The English in Bengal from 1757 TO 1772  Impact of British Administration  The Revolt of 1857  Administrative Changes After 1857
Test 18	29-Feb-2020	MODERN HISTROY	 Social reforms in India  Development of Indian Press  Development of Education  Struggle by the Masses  Terrorist and Revolutionary Movements
Test 19	01-March-2020	MODERN HISTROY	 The Early Phase of the Freedom Struggle (1900-1915)  Middle Phase of the Freedom Struggle (1915-1930)  Closer to Freedom (1930-1947)
Test 20	02-March-2020	ENVIRONMENT	 Ecology  Ecological Community  Ecological Succession: Its types & Process  Ecosystem and its dynamics  Ecosystem: Functions, Properties and Dynamics  Biomagnification  Biogeochemical Cycles & its types  Biomes: Forest, Grassland, Mountain, and Desert Ecosystems  Aquatic Life Zones: Ocean, Rivers, Lakes, and Wetlands
Test 21	03-March-2020	ENVIRONMENT	 Biodiversity Basics  Keystone, Indicator, Invasive Species  Biodiversity distribution, uses & values  Biodiversity Hotspots  Ecoregion  Bio piracy  IUCN classification Scheme  Biodiversity Conservation  Ex-Situ & In-Situ  UNESCO (MAB)  Conventional Biological Diversity  Important Bird Areas
Test 22	04-March-2020	ENVIRONMENT	 Effect of Human Activities on Environment  Water Resource degradation  Water Cycle (Hydrological Cycle)  Minerals & Environmental Degradation  Mining and Environment  Impact of Mining  Deforestation  Strategies for Reducing Deforestation  Waste Management  Solid Waste  Hazardous Waste  e-Waste  Environmental Pollution  Air Pollution  Water Pollution  Thermal Pollution  Soil Pollution or Land Degradation  Noise Pollution  Solid Waste Management  Coastal ecosystem management  Mangroves  Estuaries  Coral Reefs  Steps for Coastal Ecosystem Management
Test 23	05-March-2020	ENVIRONMENT	 Environmental Impact Assessment  International Environmental Governance  Urbanization and climate  Pollution in metros and climate change  Urban Heat Island  Impact of agriculture on climate  Global Warming & Health  Ozone depletion and Human Health  Sustainable Development
Test 24	06-March-2020	ENVIRONMENT	 Environmental Laws  Environment related Institutions and Organizations  Pollution Control Boards  National Green Tribunal  Forest Survey of India  National Board for Wildlife  Schemes  Environment related Institutions and Organizations
Test 25	07-March-2020	POLITY	 Historical evolution and features  Preamble  Fundamental rights  DPSP
Test 26	8-Mar-2020	POLITY	 Fundamental duties  Citizenship  Panchayats  The Scheduled And Tribal Areas  Relations Between The Union And The States
Test 27	9-Mar-2020	POLITY	 Services  Tribunals  Elections  Special Provisions Relating To Certain Classes  Official language provisions  Emergency provisions  Amendments
Test 28	10-Mar-2020	POLITY	 Union and States  The President  Vice President  Prime Minister
Test 29	11-Mar-2020	POLITY	 Council of Ministers  Attorney General of India  Parliament  The Union Judiciary
Test 30	12-Mar-2020	POLITY	 Comptroller and Auditor-General of India  The Governor  CM  CoM
Test 31	13-Mar-2020	POLITY	 The Advocate-General for the State  State legislature
Test 32	14-Mar-2020	ECONOMY	 Basic concepts in Economics  Micro-economics  Macro-economics  Economic Growth  Major Growth Models  Harrod-Domar  Lewis Model  Rostow stages of growth  Balance Growth and Big-push model  Dependency theory  Sen’s Growth theory  Malthus’ limits on growth, etc  Basic Features of Indian Economy – 1  Agriculture  Economic Reforms
Test 33	15-Mar-2020	ECONOMY	 Money  New Monetary Aggregates  Monetary Policy  Monetary Policy Committee  Inflation  Types of Inflation  Effects of inflation  Measures taken by RBI  Banking
Test 34	16-Mar-2020	ECONOMY	 Full length
Test 35	17-Mar-2020	ECONOMY	 Indian Financial Market  Importance of Money Market  Types of Capital Market  Nature and functions of a stock exchange  Role of SEBI, IRDA  Government Budgeting/Deficits  Budget  Deficit Financing  Fiscal Policy – Revenue  Tax-Direct Tax, Indirect Tax  Methods of Taxation – Progressive, Regressive Proportional
Test 36	18-Mar-2020	ECONOMY	 Subsidies  Planning  Objectives of Planning – Major Objective of Planning  Planning History  Investment Models  Classification of Investment  FDI  Angel Investors and Start-ups  Investment Models  Mutual Funds
Test 37	19-Mar-2020	ECONOMY	 External Sector  Fixed Foreign Currency Market  Float Foreign Currency Market  Balance of Payments  Foreign Portfolio Investment  Exchange Market  International Organizations  Trade agreements
Test 38	20-Mar-2020	ECONOMY	Full length
Test 39	21-Mar-2020	ECONOMY	Full length
Test 40	22-Mar-2020	ECONOMY	Full length
Test 41	23-Mar-2020	SCIENCE AND TECH	 Mobile generations  Telecommunication technologies  Computer terminologies  Supercomputer  Government initiatives  Policies related to science and technology  Schemes and institutions
Test 42	24-Mar-2020	SCIENCE AND TECH	 Biotechnology terminologies  Applications of biotechnology  Biotechnology projects  Diseases  Vaccines
Test 43	25-Mar-2020	SCIENCE AND TECH	 Space organizations in India  Space terminologies  Types of satellites  Space programmes of India  Important space missions  Missile system  India’s Missile systems  UAVs  Submarines  Latest Defence Updations
Test 44	26-Mar-2020	SCIENCE AND TECH	 Technology related to Renewable Energy  Nuclear technology basics  India’s Nuclear programme  Nuclear institutions  Radiation technologies and applications
Test 45	27-Mar-2020	SCIENCE AND TECH	 Nanotechnology terminologies  Applications of nanotechnology  Robotics and its types  Applications of Robotics
Test 46	30-Mar-2020	GEOGRAPHY MAPPING	 Mapping (World Geography)
Test 47	31-Mar-2020	GEOGRAPHY MAPPING	 Mapping (Indian Geography)
Test 48	5 April, 2020	Polity & National Issues
Test 49	6 April, 2020	Polity & National Issues
Test 50	7 April, 2020	International Affairs
Test 51	8 April, 2020	Indian Economy
Test 52	9 April, 2020	Indian Economy
Test 53	10 April, 2020	Indian Economy
Test 54	11 April, 2020	Indian Culture
Test 55	12 April, 2020	Environment
Test 56	13 April, 2020	Environment
Test 57	14 April, 2020	Science & Technology
Test 58	15 April, 2020	Science & Technology
Test 59	16 April, 2020	Economic Survey
Test 60	17 Apr, 2020	Economic Survey
Test 61	18 Apr, 2020	Indian Budget
Test 62	19 Apr, 2020	Governance & India Year Book
Test 63	20 Apr, 2020	Governance & India Year Book
Test 64	21 Apr, 2020	Governance & India Year Book

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MYUPSC - UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Test Series

UPSC Prelims 2020 Test 1-40 : IAS Test Series

The UPSC IAS Preliminary Test is by far the most challenging stage of the Civil Services Examination with nearly 5 lakh candidates taking the test each year. After GS Paper 2 – CSAT was made qualifying in 2015, the GS Paper- 1 has assumed greater significance in deciding the success of a candidate in the Preliminary Test which seeks to eliminate non-serious candidates from entering the Main Examination. With mere 100 questions deciding your entry into the Main Examination, the room for error in this stage is minuscule. In addition to changes in the pattern of Preliminary Test, GS Paper 1 is subjected to frequent changes in terms of the nature of the questions that appear in it. While the GS 1 paper from 2010-2014 focused on the conceptual understanding in conventional areas, in 2015 and 2016 the emphasis was on factual current events. On the other hand, the 2017, 2018 and 2019 papers tested the creative intelligence and problem solving skills of the candidates. The GS Paper 1 from 2017-19 was an interesting mix of questions ranging from epistemological understanding of important political underpinnings like liberty, equality etc to most contemporary issues like Google tax, AI, Block chain technology, UPI etc. Keeping in view the web of complexities the Exam can throw at you, we are striving to keep abreast with the dynamics of the Preliminary Test. UPSC Prelims 2020 Test 1-40

For simplicity, preparation for the upsc preliminary test can be divided into number of stages. The initial stages involve concept building and syllabus coverage followed by organizing the study material and revision. MYUPSC has the distinction of consistently delivering in this stage of your preparation through the online test programme, current affairs related upload & publications and yellow books (study material). Besides, our recent initiatives like current affairs-Yearbook 2020, online student portal, monthly recitals, summaries of magazines etc provide year-round additional support for continuous updation of the study material. However, concept building and syllabus coverage constitute only the 1st stage of upsc prelims preparation. Continuous assessment and exam-focused performance improvement through tests is the next important stage which completes the full circle of your upsc prelims preparation. UPSC Prelims 2020 Test 1-40

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In the Preliminary Test, MCQs are a chosen method of evaluation as they maintain consistency, efficiency, transparency and most importantly objectivity. Every year the Preliminary test is conducted by the UPSC on the last Sunday of May or the first week of June. This year the Prelim Test is scheduled to be held on 31 st May 2020.

In line with our motto ‘evaluate yourself before UPSC evaluates you’, we are pleased to announce the launch of Civil Services Preliminary Test Series 2020. The Test Series programme for 2020 will be held till May 2020. The MYUPSC.COM mock tests are so designed to simulate the Preliminary test conducted by the UPSC. The OMR-based mock tests will be a simulation of exam-like conditions to train you to react and respond to challenges the exam throws at you. The tests are designed and developed by a coterie of experts with a keen eye on the examination pattern. MYUPSC.COM is exclusive in its approach towards the Prelim test series as it provides explanatory lectures by its experienced faculty, along with solutions and explanatory answers. The test series will support the candidates, through long months of preparation, to check their progress and improve their performance consistently. UPSC Prelims 2020 Test 1-40

MYUPSC is a pioneer in the IAS Prelims Test Series Programme with years of experience. As a result the institute has a huge question pool prepared by experts over the years apart generating fresh quality questions every year in sync with the civil services exam. The nature of questions, composition of papers and the number of tests are designed to take you towards the zone of certainty in your quest to clear the upsc prelims test. The number of practice tests is designed to cover various patterns of question papers in line with the UPSC Prelims Test conducted by UPSC in addition to timely coverage and revision of the syllabus. This gives you ample scope to work on the strategy, identify strengths and weaknesses, apply and re- apply new mantras of success, irrespective of the nature of paper.

The nature of questions will check your clarity of thought, conceptual understanding, and consistency in your preparation. Also the explanatory notes to the questions are provided to help you make amends you may need to make in your thought process along with additional information you may have missed in the preparatory phase. The Test Series will also include ample number of practice tests for GS Paper I to leave no stone unturned. The provision of online mode with an all-India rank list will help you to fairly assess your position in the competition. While being competitive is the only way to win a competition, continuous improvement is the only path to stay competitive, which is sole focus of MYUPSC IAS Preliminary Test Series 2020. UPSC Prelims 2020 Test 1-40

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myupsc.com – UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test for Civil Services Examination, IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test Series for UPSC Prelims Aspirants. UPSC IAS Prelims Test 9 Solution free download. Myupsc.com is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc.

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There are Full Length 60 Very High Quality Tests that match very UPSC standard (acknowledged by hundreds of toppers every year).

These 60 Tests are structured in such a way as to help you start from scratch and gradually gain advanced knowledge through self study using standard textbooks and multiple revisions.
First 10 Tests are based on all Important NCERT Textbooks (New NCERTs).
There will be full length REVISION TEST after every 5 Tests. This helps in timetaly revision of every important topic you have read, including current affairs, before you move on to new topics.
Every Test will cover Current Affairs comprehensively from May 1, 2019. This helps you read and revise current affairs from the beginning.
All tests will cover previous year question papers of UPSC civil services. NDA, CDS, IES, CAPF exams. This feature helps you understand the expectations of UPSC and prepare accordingly.
Every test will cover 10 percent of previous test’s syllabus. This is to let you not forget what you have read for first test and thereafter. Helps you revise previous tests before the next test.
There will be section-wise analysis of your performance in each test. This helps you know where you need to put extra efforts to prepare well for your weakest areas.
Unlimited access to previous tests in the form of PDFs.

This test series will seriously prepare you to tackle actual exam with full confidence.

MYUPSC – UPSC CSP (2020) Test series will strategically provide its students with an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically designed revision plans covering the entire static and current portions (multiple times). With the help of guidance, we aim to make sure that our students are exam ready, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs
Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

Performance Analysis of aspirants, Section wise analysis, Difficulty Analysis, All India Rank, comparison with toppers, Integrated Score Card, Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction.

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Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

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2018 Prelims- 33+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme

2019 Prelims- 40+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme

There are Full Length 60 Very High Quality Tests that match very UPSC standard (acknowledged by hundreds of toppers every year).

These 60 Tests are structured in such a way as to help you start from scratch and gradually gain advanced knowledge through self study using standard textbooks and multiple revisions.
First 10 Tests are based on all Important NCERT Textbooks (New NCERTs).
There will be full length REVISION TEST after every 5 Tests. This helps in timetaly revision of every important topic you have read, including current affairs, before you move on to new topics.
Every Test will cover Current Affairs comprehensively from May 1, 2019. This helps you read and revise current affairs from the beginning.
All tests will cover previous year question papers of UPSC civil services. NDA, CDS, IES, CAPF exams. This feature helps you understand the expectations of UPSC and prepare accordingly.
Every test will cover 10 percent of previous test’s syllabus. This is to let you not forget what you have read for first test and thereafter. Helps you revise previous tests before the next test.
There will be section-wise analysis of your performance in each test. This helps you know where you need to put extra efforts to prepare well for your weakest areas.
Unlimited access to previous tests in the form of PDFs.

This test series will seriously prepare you to tackle actual exam with full confidence.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs
Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Solved Test Series

2018 Prelims- 33+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme

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Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

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2018 Prelims- 33+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme

2019 Prelims- 40+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme

MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test 2 – Solution – Download

Some Important Study Notes for UPSC Exam 2020

Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

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Join Our Test Series – UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020

2018 Prelims- 33+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme

2019 Prelims- 40+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme

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Some Important Study Notes for UPSC Exam 2020

Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

MYUPSC! IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test

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UPSC IAS Preliminary Exam 2020 Practice Solved Test – 1

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 GS Paper-I Practice Solved Test – 2

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test – 1

Geography and Economy

We you will join the MYUPSC Test Series Programme, you will get the following:

Detailed Solution of Every Test
All India Ranking
Free Study Material for Prelims Exam 2020
Performance Analysis of aspirants
Section wise analysis
comparison with toppers
Integrated Score Card
Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction

Join IAS Prelims 2020 Test Series

Mock Test – 1

Section – 1 (Geography MCQ)

1. Consider the following statements;

1. Continent-making movements are called Epeirogenic movements.

2. Mountain-making movements are called orogenic movements.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None of these

2. Which of the following conditions does not favour the formation of a tropical cyclone?

(a) Temperature above 27°C

(b) Significant vertical wind difference

(d) Divergence in the upper atmosphere

3. Consider the following statements;

1. Prairies are called Parklands.

2. Tropical rainforests are known as Selva.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None of these

4. Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?

(a) Syria

(b) Jordan

(d) Israel

5. Which one of the following is also known as Top Slip?

(a) Simlipal National Park

(B) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary

(d) Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park

6. Consider the following statements;

1. Visakhapatnam is the deepest port of India.

2. Kochi is a natural harbour.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None of these

7. Consider the following statements;

1. Assam shares a border with Bhutan and Bangladesh.

2. West Bengal shares a border with Bhutan and Nepal.

3. Mizoram shares a border with Bangladesh and Myanmar.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(d) All of these

8. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

(a) Kosi: Consequent River

(b) Narmada: Rift Valley River

(d) Ghaggar: River with interior drainage

9. Consider the following statements;

1. Groundnut is not grown in kharif season.

2. Sesame is a kharif crop in North India and Rabi crop in South India.

3. Cotton is not grown in Rabi season.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(d) None of these

10. In which one of the following environment does one expect the presence of dispersed rural settlements?

(a) Alluvial plains of the Ganga

(b) Arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan

(d) Forests and hills in the North-East

11. In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine productivity by bringing the?

1. Decomposer micro-organisms to the surface.

2. Nutrients to the surface.

3. bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(b) Only 2

(d) Only 3

12. Which of the following is called as the ‘lighthouse of the Mediterranean’?

(a) Mount Vesuvius

(b) Mount Fujiyama

(d) Mount Stromboli

13. Consider the following statements;

1. The winds which blow between 30°N and 60°S latitudes throughout the year are known as Westerlies.

2. the most air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of Westerlies.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Consider the following statements;

1. Namdapha National Park is in Assam.

2. Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary is in Bihar.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None of these

15. The type of fault in which the rock blocks are displaced in opposite directions and one of the blocks moves downwards is called?

(a) Normal fault

(b) Reverse fault

(d) Step fault

16. Consider the following statements;

1. River Ken is a left bank tributary of Ganga.

2. River Chenab is the largest tributary of Indus.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None of these

17. Consider the following statements;

1. between the valley of Narmada and Tapti lies Satpura.

2. Banas and its tributaries lies to the East of Aravallis.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None of these

18. Shallow ploughing only to the depth need to ensure quick seed germination and leaving crop residues and ground litter to protect the soil is?

(a) no-tillage farming

(b) Minimum tillage farming

(d) Gully reclamation

19. According to the Demographic Transition Model;

1. Late expanding stage has declining fertility and mortality rates.

2. Early expanding stage has high fertility and declining mortality rates.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None of these

20. Which one of the following countries is the first country in the world to propose a carbon tax for its people to address the global warming?

(a) Australia

(b) Germany

(d) New Zealand

21. Consider the following statements;

1. Cement industry is not a weight losing industry.

2. Hindustan Aluminium Corporation is located at Jaykaynagar.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None of these

22. Which of the following add/adds nitrogen to soil?

1. Excretion of urea by animals.

2. Burning of coal by man.

3. Death of vegetation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

23. Consider the following statements;

1. The desert proper is known as Marusthali.

2. The shifting sand-dunes are locally known as Durian.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None of the above

24. Which of the following have short life cycle and may form a fairly dense stand after rainfall?

(a) Perennials

(b) Ephemerals

(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

25. In which of the following types of age-sex pyramids, both birth and death rates are low and declining?

(A) Progressive

(b) Regressive

(d) Intermediate

26. Brunt land Commission is also known as

(a) The World Commission on Environmental and Development

(b) The World Commission on Reduction of Greenhouse Gases

(d) The World Commission on Protection of Spice

27. Volcanic activity occurs in which of the following tectonic settings?

1. Sea floor spreading 2. Subduction

3. Hotspot

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) All of these

28. Which one of the following rivers has the highest replenishable groundwater resource in the country?

(a) The Indus

(b) The Ganga

(d) The Godavari

29. Consider the following statements;

1. Cork, Oak, Jarrah, Karri, Cedar, Sequoia trees are found in tropical rainforest.

2. Quinine is extracted from the bark of Cinchona trees.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None of these

30. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Vikramshila Monastery: Uttar Pradesh

(b) Hemkund Gurudwara: Himachal Pradesh

(D) Amaravati Buddhist Stupa: Andhra Pradesh

31. Which of the following findings are evident for the climate change?

1. Carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere now reached about 398 PPM that is highest in last 65000 years.

2. Global surface temperature increased about 0.6°C from the average temperature.

3. Arctic ice sheet is declining at a rate of 11.5% per decade.

4. The global average sea level has risen 4-8 inches over the past century.

5. 2000 to 2009 was the warmest decade on record.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below;

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) All of these

32. Economic density is?

(a) Total number of people per unit of land

(b) Agricultural population per unit area of land

(d) Ratio between the requirements of population and the resources made available to it

33. Consider the following statements;

1. Length of a terrestrial mile is lesser than that of a nautical mile.

2. Harmattan is a dusty land-wind of the East African coast.

3. Greece and Albania form a part of the lberian Peninsula.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

34. Which one of the following phenomenons happens when the sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn in the Southern hemisphere?

(a) High pressure develops over the North-Western India due to low temperatures

(b) Low pressure develops over the North-Western India due to high temperatures

(d) ‘Loo’ blows in the North-Western India

35. Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?

(a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium

(b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen

(d) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium

36. Which of the following signifies an elimination of thin fertile film of soil from large area?

(a) Rill erosion

(b) Sheet erosion

(d) Slip erosion

37. Which one of the following is not one of the missions in India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change?

(a) National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture

(b) National Water Mission

(d) National Pollution Mission

38. Which of the following is true about Coriolis force?

1. Occurs as a result of Earth’s rotation from West to East.

2. Deflection of wind/current occurs to the right in North hemisphere and left in South hemisphere.

3. Coriolis effect is maximum at the equator and minimum at poles.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below;

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(d) None of these

39. Through which one of the following groups of countries does the equator pass?

(a) Brazil, Zambia and Malaysia

(b) Columbia, Kenya and Indonesia

(d) Venezuela, Ethiopia and Indonesia

40. Consider the following statements;

1. Air borne plants that form symbiotic relationships with host plants is called epiphytes.

2. Low lying broad leaved plants is called as Forbes.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None of the above

41. In the context of CO2 emission and global warming, what is the name of a market driven device under the UNFCC that allows developing countries to get funds/ incentives from the developed countries to adopt better technologies to reduce greenhouse gas emissions?

(a) Carbon Footprint

(b) Carbon Credit Rating

(d) Emission Reduction Norm

42. Consider the following statements;

1. Thein Dam Project provides drinking water to Delhi.

2 The purpose of Damodar Project is both flood control and irrigation.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None of the above

43. Which one of the following facts was not considered by those while discussing the concept of sea floor spreading?

(a) Volcanic activity along the mid-oceanic ridges

(b) Stripes of normal and reverse magnetic field observed in the rocks of ocean floor

(d) Age of rocks from the ocean floor

44. If there were no Himalayan ranges, what would have been the most likely geographical impact on India?

1. Much of the country would experience the cold waves from Siberia.

2. Indo-Gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvial soils.

3. The pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at present.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below?

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 3

(d) All of these

45. In India, which type of forest among the following occupies the largest area?

(A) Montane wet temperate forest

(b) Sub-tropical dry evergreen forest

(d) Tropical wet evergreen forest

46. Ecotone is?

(a) Mixed ecosystem

(b) Borders of ecosystem

(d) Core of ecosystem

47. Which of the following substances are found in the beach sands of many parts of Kerala?

1. Ilmenite

2. Zircon

3. Sillimanite

4. Tungsten

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) All of the above

48. Most of the winter precipitation of lowlands in the middle latitudes is of?

(a) Cyclonic origin

(b) Convectional origin

(d) Monsoonal origin

49. The ‘Red Data Books’ published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of?

1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.

2. threatened plant and animal species.

3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 3

(b) Only 2

(d) Only 3

50. If a tropical rainforest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because

(a) The soil of rainforest is deficient in nutrients

(b) Propagules of the trees in a rainforest have poor viability

(d) Exotic species invade the fertile soil of rainforest

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Section – 2: Practice Test – 1 (Economy MCQ)

1. Which of the following statement(s) is true about HDI?

1. Since 2010, UNDP began using the new method of calculating HDI.

2. It is based on life expectancy, per capita income mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling.

3. HDI is the arithmetic mean of the Life Expectancy Index, Education Index and Income Index.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

2. Deficit financing leads to inflation in general, but it can be checked if?

(a) Government expenditure leads to increase in aggregate supply in ratio of aggregate demand

(b) Only aggregate demand is increased

(d) All of the above

3. Name the bank announced to be set-up in the budget for regulating and refinancing all Micro-Finance Institutions (MFI) which are in the business of lending to micro/small business entities engaged in manufacturing, trading and services activities?

(a) Micro Bank

(b) MUDRA Bank

(d) Micro-Finance Bank

4. Which of the following are the main causes of slow rate of growth of per capita income in India?

1. High level of fiscal deficits.

2. High capital output ratio.

3. High rate of household savings.

4. High rate of growth of population.

5. High rate of capital formation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 5

5. Which of the following statements are true regarding the TRIPS agreement of the WTO?

1. TRIPS are related to protecting the intellectual property rights.

2. Developing countries were supposed to pass TRIPS Complaint National Legislation by 2005. While for developed countries the time limit was till 1995.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 2

(b) Only 1

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. Consider the following statements regarding the OPEC

1. At present, OPEC has total 14 members’ countries.

2. The objective of OPEC was to control production and price of petroleum so as to safeguard the interests of oil exporting countries.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. Consider the following regarding the functions of WTO

1. To provide facilities for implementation, administration and operation of multilateral agreements of the World Trade.

2. To provide a platform to member countries to decide future strategies related to trade and tariff.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Consider the following statements;

1. Geographical indication is granted to a community or group or an institution that represents the interests of the world.

2. It is given to a product for a specific period of time (10 years in India).

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. The GST Bill comprises –

1. The CGST Bill – The Central Goods and Services Tax Bill, 2017

2. The IGST Bill – The Integrated Goods and Services Tax Bill, 2017

3. The UTGST Bill- The Union Territory Goods and Services Tax Bill, 2017

4. The Compensation Bill – The Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to the States) Bill, 2017

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a)Only 1

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

10. After a gap of over 20 years, ` 1 note has been released in the country on 6th March, 2015 by Finance Secretary Rajiv Mehrishi. The new ` 1 note bears the signature of

(A) Finance Minister

(B) RBI Governor

(d) Home Secretary

11. The capital account convertibility of the Indian Rupee implies

(a) That the Indian Rupee can be exchanged by the authorised dealers for travel

(b) That the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trade in goods and services

(d) None of the above

12. World Bank provides long-run capital to member countries for economic reconstruction and development.

World Bank provides capital mainly for the following purposes

1. To rehabilitate war ruined economics.

2. To finance productive efforts according to peacetime requirements.

3. To develop resources and production facilities in underdeveloped countries.

Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

13. Consider the following statements

1. Ministerial conference is the highest decision-making body of the WTO, which usually meets once every 2 years.

2. Its headquarters is in Geneva.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Consider the following statement(s) regarding the International Monetary fund

1. IMF is controlled and managed by a Board of Governors.

2. Each Governor has the right of 250 votes on the basis of membership and one additional vote for each SDR 1 lakh quota.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15. Consider the following statements

1. General agreement on trade in services is a treaty of the

World Trade Organisation (WTO) that entered into force in

January, 1995.

2. All members of the WTO are signatories to the general agreement on trade in services.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. IMF was established to meet which of the following objectives?

1. Promoting International Monetary Co-operation.

2. Expanding International Trade.

3. Lessening the disequilibrium in balance of trade.

4. Avoiding competitive exchange depreciations.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) All of these

17. Consider the following statements about ‘Mega Food Park’

1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for food processing industries.

2. To increase processing perishable items and reduce wastage.

3. To provide emerging and eco friendly food processing technology to entrepreneurs.

Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(d) All of these

18. Which one of the following is related with the Baltic Dry index?

(a) An assessment of the price of moving the major raw materials by sea

(b) An index showing the rising and falling prices of shares and equities in the Baltic region

(d) None of the above

19. Which one of the following items has the highest share of India in the world exports?

(a) Coffee, Tea, Mate, Spices etc

(b) Pearls, Precious stones, Metals, Coins etc

(d) Vegetable Plaiting Materials, Vegetable Products etc

20. The fair and remuneration price of sugarcane is approved by the

(a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs

(b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices

(d) Agricultural Produce Market Committee

21. Which one of the following factors is taken account to calculate the Balance of Payment (BOP), of a country?

(A) Current account

(b) Changes in the foreign exchange reserves

22. Which one of the following international organisations offers political risk insurance guarantees to help investors to protect foreign direct investments made in developing countries against political risk?

(a) IDA

(b) IFC

(d) MIGA

23. Examine the following statements in the context of the Base Rate system of interest rates

1. Corporate entities were able to get loans at interest rates lower than PLR while it is not possible with Base Rate.

2. Monetary policy is transmitted better through Base Rate system.

3. Base Rate is applicable only to loans given after 1^st July, 2010.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

24. Consider the following statements

1. Regional Rural banks were set-up in 1975, under an Act of Parliament to exclusively cater to the credit needs of rural population.

2. The sponsor banks have the largest share in the equality of Regional Rural banks.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

25. Which of these statements is true regarding the Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) of IMF?

1. The SDRs are equivalent to a currency and represent a claim on the IMF.

2. The value of SDRs in terms of its component currencies is fixed annually.

3. The basket of currencies of SDRs which presently consist of US Dollar, Euro, the Chinese renminbi, Pound and Yen is revised every 5 years.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 3

(b) Only 1

(d) All of these

26. Which of the following statements are true regarding Hedge Funds?

1. Hedge funds are open to only select group of investors.

2. Hedge funds have been allowed to function in India recently after registering with SEBI.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

27. Consider the following statements;

1. NABARD is the nodal agency for implementing the schemes in respect of co-operative credit and RRBs.

2. NABARD was the nodal agency for implementing the agricultural debt waiver and Debt Relief Scheme, 2008.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

28. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Agreement on Agriculture of the WTO?

1. Green box, blue box and amber box refer to domestic subsidies in agriculture.

2. There is no limit on green box subsidies for both developing and developed economies.

3. In the long-run, the agreement on agriculture is expected to benefit the developing countries.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) All of these

29. Which State Government launched ‘Bhagya shree’ scheme in place of the Sukanya scheme which caters to girls from Below Poverty Line (BPL) families?

(a) Gujarat

(b) Kerala

(d) Haryana

30. Which of the following are the objectives of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)?

1. To stabilise agricultural prices.

2. To ensure meaningful real income levels to the farmers.

3. To protect the interest of the consumers by providing essential agricultural commodities at reasonable rate through PDS.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) All of the above

31. Which of these statements is true regarding the lending provisions of the IMF?

1. IMF lends to only member countries.

2. IMF lends only to help with Balance of Payments (BoP) problems.

3. IMF lending is also possible for specific projects relating to economic restructuring of an economy.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 1 and 3

(b) Only 1

(d) Only 3

32. Which of the following statements is true regarding a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC)?

1. NBFC cannot accept demand deposits.

2. For a NBFC financial assets must be 50% more than its total assets.

3. Normal banks do all of the activities normally done by an NBFC.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a)Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

33. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) wants the rules tightened to bring a larger number of Mergers and Acquisitions (M and As) under its scrutiny. In this context, consider the following statements about CCI

1. Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established with effect from14th October, 2003.

2. The goal is to curtail the monopoly tendencies and foster the competition among public sector enterprises.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

34. Which of the following statements is true regarding the innovation index measure?

1. It is developed by INSEAD, France.

2. Japan is the top country in this index.

3. The National Innovation Council (NIC) was formed to foster innovation in India especially in the area of growth.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below;

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(d) All of the above

35. Examine these statements in the context of the financial instruments known as futures.

1. Futures are agreements between two parties to buy or sell shares at a future date.

2. Options are a class of futures where there is a right, but not the obligation to buy or sell at a future date.

3. Forwards are a particular class of futures.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 3

(b) Only 1

(d) All of these

36. Which one of the following is likely to the most inflationary, in its effect?

(a) Repayment of public debt

(b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit

(d) Creating new money to finance a budget deficit

37. Consider the following statements regarding Reserve Bank of India;

1. It is a banker to the Central Government.

2. It formulates and administers monetary policy.

3. It acts as an agent of the government in respect of India.

4. It handles the borrowing programme of Government of India.

Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) All of the above

38. Consider the following regarding World Trade organisation

1. The Uruguay round of GATT (1986-93) gave birth to WTO.

2. WTO was officially constituted as a permanent body on 1^st January, 1995 as an effective formal organisation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

39. Under the WTO agreement, Agreement on Agriculture (AoA), developing countries won over with some concessional features and flexibilities. Its three pillars are?

1. Domestic support

2. Export subsidies

3. Market access

4. Non-tariff barriers

Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) All of the above

40. Consider the following regarding WTO

1. WTO negotiations proceed not by consensus of all members, but by a process of informal negotiations between small groups.

2. Such negotiations are often called green room.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

41. Personal Income Tax limit was not changed in Union Budget 2016-17. What is the present Personal I-T exemption limit?

(a) 2.5 lakh

(b) 2.75 lakh

(d) 5 lakh

42. Which one of the following items has gained the highest growth rate in the import composition of the Indian economy in the last decade?

(a) Pearls, precious and semiprecious stones

(b) Gold and silver

(d) None of the above

43. Consider the following regarding the objectives of WTO

1. To improve the standard of living of people in member countries.

2. To ensure full employment and increase in effective demand.

3. To enlarge production and trade of goods and services.

Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

44. The Indian banking system consists of?

1. 26 public sector banks

2. 20 private sector banks

3. 43 foreign banks

4. 56 regional rural banks

5. 1589 urban cooperative banks

6. 93550 rural cooperative banks

Select the correct option from the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 3, 4 and 5

(d) All of these

45. Hawala transactions relate to payments

(a) Received in rupees against overseas currencies and vice versa without going through the official channels

(b) Received for sale or transfer of shares without going through the established stock exchanges

(c) Received as commission for services rendered to overseas investors, buyers or sellers in assisting them to get over the red tape and in getting preferential treatment

(d) Made to political parties or to individuals for meeting election expenses

46. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) cancelled the certificate of registration of the 26 Non- Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) including?

(a) Mathura Financial Services Limited

(b) SJ Finance & Consultants Private Limited

(d) All of the above

47. The main cause of cyclical unemployment is that?

(a) Firms engage in race, gender and sex discrimination in their hiring practices

(b) Some individuals do not have marketable job skills

(d) Workers often voluntarily quit a job look for a better job

48. If the Cash Reserve ratio is lowered by the RBI, its impact upon credit creation will be to?

(a) Decrease it

(b) Increase it

(d) None of these

49. Which of the following is true about money market in India?

1. the most active segment of money market is overight call market.

2. The money market instruments have maturity of less than 1 year.

3. The money market instruments in India are regulated by RBI and SBI.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 1 and 2

(b) Only 2

(d) All of the above

50. With regard to proposed GST, which of the following is correct?

1. Taxes on items containing alcohol and petroleum product are kept out of GST.

2. Entertainment tax, luxury tax and taxes on gambling are part of GST.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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(Batch-2)MOCK TEST SERIES FOR UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2020

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Every test will cover 10 percent of previous test’s syllabus. This is to let you not forget what you have read for first test and thereafter. Helps you revise previous tests before the next test.
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Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

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Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

UPSC (CSE Prelims) IAS Test Series 2020 Schedule Batch – 2

IAS Test Series 2020	Date
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1	1 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2	4 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 3	8 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 4	12 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 5	16 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 6	20 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 7	24 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 8	28 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 9	2 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 10	6 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 11	10 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 12	14 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 13	18 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 14	22 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 15	27 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 16	30 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 17	2 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 18	6 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 19	10 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 20	14 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 21	18 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 22	22 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 23	26 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 24	2 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 25	6 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 26	10 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 27	14 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 28	18 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 29	22 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 30	26 March 2020
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Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

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Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs
Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

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Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs

Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests

Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers

Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions

All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure