UPSC Prelims 2020 Test 1-40 : IAS Test Series

The UPSC IAS Preliminary Test is by far the most challenging stage of the Civil Services Examination with nearly 5 lakh candidates taking the test each year. After GS Paper 2 – CSAT was made qualifying in 2015, the GS Paper- 1 has assumed greater significance in deciding the success of a candidate in the Preliminary Test which seeks to eliminate non-serious candidates from entering the Main Examination. With mere 100 questions deciding your entry into the Main Examination, the room for error in this stage is minuscule. In addition to changes in the pattern of Preliminary Test, GS Paper 1 is subjected to frequent changes in terms of the nature of the questions that appear in it. While the GS 1 paper from 2010-2014 focused on the conceptual understanding in conventional areas, in 2015 and 2016 the emphasis was on factual current events. On the other hand, the 2017, 2018 and 2019 papers tested the creative intelligence and problem solving skills of the candidates. The GS Paper 1 from 2017-19 was an interesting mix of questions ranging from epistemological understanding of important political underpinnings like liberty, equality etc to most contemporary issues like Google tax, AI, Block chain technology, UPI etc. Keeping in view the web of complexities the Exam can throw at you, we are striving to keep abreast with the dynamics of the Preliminary Test. UPSC Prelims 2020 Test 1-40

For simplicity, preparation for the upsc preliminary test can be divided into number of stages. The initial stages involve concept building and syllabus coverage followed by organizing the study material and revision. MYUPSC has the distinction of consistently delivering in this stage of your preparation through the online test programme, current affairs related upload & publications and yellow books (study material). Besides, our recent initiatives like current affairs-Yearbook 2020, online student portal, monthly recitals, summaries of magazines etc provide year-round additional support for continuous updation of the study material. However, concept building and syllabus coverage constitute only the 1st stage of upsc prelims preparation. Continuous assessment and exam-focused performance improvement through tests is the next important stage which completes the full circle of your upsc prelims preparation. UPSC Prelims 2020 Test 1-40

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In the Preliminary Test, MCQs are a chosen method of evaluation as they maintain consistency, efficiency, transparency and most importantly objectivity. Every year the Preliminary test is conducted by the UPSC on the last Sunday of May or the first week of June. This year the Prelim Test is scheduled to be held on 31 st May 2020.

In line with our motto ‘evaluate yourself before UPSC evaluates you’, we are pleased to announce the launch of Civil Services Preliminary Test Series 2020. The Test Series programme for 2020 will be held till May 2020. The MYUPSC.COM mock tests are so designed to simulate the Preliminary test conducted by the UPSC.  The OMR-based mock tests will be a simulation of exam-like conditions to train you to react and respond to challenges the exam throws at you. The tests are designed and developed by a coterie of experts with a keen eye on the examination pattern. MYUPSC.COM is exclusive in its approach towards the Prelim test series as it provides explanatory lectures by its experienced faculty, along with solutions and explanatory answers. The test series will support the candidates, through long months of preparation, to check their progress and improve their performance consistently. UPSC Prelims 2020 Test 1-40

MYUPSC is a pioneer in the IAS Prelims Test Series Programme with years of experience. As a result the institute has a huge question pool prepared by experts over the years apart generating fresh quality questions every year in sync with the civil services exam. The nature of questions, composition of papers and the number of tests are designed to take you towards the zone of certainty in your quest to clear the upsc prelims test. The number of practice tests is designed to cover various patterns of question papers in line with the UPSC Prelims Test conducted by UPSC in addition to timely coverage and revision of the syllabus. This gives you ample scope to work on the strategy, identify strengths and weaknesses, apply and re- apply new mantras of success, irrespective of the nature of paper.

The nature of questions will check your clarity of thought, conceptual understanding, and consistency in your preparation. Also the explanatory notes to the questions are provided to help you make amends you may need to make in your thought process along with additional information you may have missed in the preparatory phase. The Test Series will also include ample number of practice tests for GS Paper I to leave no stone unturned. The provision of online mode with an all-India rank list will help you to fairly assess your position in the competition. While being competitive is the only way to win a competition, continuous improvement is the only path to stay competitive, which is sole focus of MYUPSC IAS Preliminary Test Series 2020. UPSC Prelims 2020 Test 1-40

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MYUPSC ! IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test 9

myupsc.com – UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test for Civil Services Examination, IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test Series for UPSC Prelims Aspirants. UPSC IAS Prelims Test 9 Solution free download. Myupsc.com is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc.

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2019 Prelims- 40+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme

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myupsc.com – UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test for Civil Services Examination, IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test Series for UPSC Prelims Aspirants. UPSC IAS Prelims Test 9 Solution free download

There are Full Length 60 Very High Quality Tests that match very UPSC standard (acknowledged by hundreds of toppers every year).

  1. These 60 Tests are structured in such a way as to help you start from scratch and gradually gain advanced knowledge through self study using standard textbooks and multiple revisions.
  2. First 10 Tests are based on all Important NCERT Textbooks (New NCERTs).
  3. There will be full length REVISION TEST after every 5 Tests. This helps in timetaly revision of every important topic you have read, including current affairs, before you move on to new topics.
  4. Every Test will cover Current Affairs comprehensively from May 1, 2019. This helps you read and revise current affairs from the beginning.
  5. All tests will cover previous year question papers of UPSC civil services. NDA, CDS, IES, CAPF exams. This feature helps you understand the expectations of UPSC and prepare accordingly.
  6. Every test will cover 10 percent of previous test’s syllabus. This is to let you not forget what you have read for first test and thereafter. Helps you revise previous tests before the next test.
  7. There will be section-wise analysis of your performance in each test. This helps you know where you need to put extra efforts to prepare well for your weakest areas.
  8. Unlimited access to previous tests in the form of PDFs.

This test series will seriously prepare you to tackle actual exam with full confidence.

MYUPSC – UPSC CSP (2020) Test series will strategically provide its students with an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically designed revision plans covering the entire static and current portions (multiple times). With the help of guidance, we aim to make sure that our students are exam ready, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

  1. Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs
  2. Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
  3. Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
  4. Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
  5. All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

Performance Analysis of aspirants, Section wise analysis, Difficulty Analysis, All India Rank, comparison with toppers, Integrated Score Card, Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction.

myupsc.com – UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test for Civil Services Examination, IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test Series for UPSC Prelims Aspirants. UPSC IAS Prelims Test 9 Solution free download.

Download UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Test – 9 Solution

Some Important Study Notes for UPSC Exam 2020

Indian Economy Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

MYUPSC ! IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test 9

MYUPSC ! IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test 7

UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Online 60 Days Programme

JOIN OUR TELEGRAM CHANNEL FOR REGULAR UPDATES

2018 Prelims- 33+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme 

2019 Prelims- 40+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme

There are Full Length 60 Very High Quality Tests that match very UPSC standard (acknowledged by hundreds of toppers every year).

  1. These 60 Tests are structured in such a way as to help you start from scratch and gradually gain advanced knowledge through self study using standard textbooks and multiple revisions.
  2. First 10 Tests are based on all Important NCERT Textbooks (New NCERTs).
  3. There will be full length REVISION TEST after every 5 Tests. This helps in timetaly revision of every important topic you have read, including current affairs, before you move on to new topics.
  4. Every Test will cover Current Affairs comprehensively from May 1, 2019. This helps you read and revise current affairs from the beginning.
  5. All tests will cover previous year question papers of UPSC civil services. NDA, CDS, IES, CAPF exams. This feature helps you understand the expectations of UPSC and prepare accordingly.
  6. Every test will cover 10 percent of previous test’s syllabus. This is to let you not forget what you have read for first test and thereafter. Helps you revise previous tests before the next test.
  7. There will be section-wise analysis of your performance in each test. This helps you know where you need to put extra efforts to prepare well for your weakest areas.
  8. Unlimited access to previous tests in the form of PDFs.

This test series will seriously prepare you to tackle actual exam with full confidence.

MYUPSC – UPSC CSP (2020) Test series will strategically provide its students with an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically designed revision plans covering the entire static and current portions (multiple times). With the help of guidance, we aim to make sure that our students are exam ready, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

  1. Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs
  2. Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
  3. Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
  4. Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
  5. All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

Performance Analysis of aspirants, Section wise analysis, Difficulty Analysis, All India Rank, comparison with toppers, Integrated Score Card, Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction.

MYUPSC! IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test 3 Batch-1

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2018 Prelims- 33+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme 

2019 Prelims- 40+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme

MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test 3 – Solution – Download

Some Important Study Notes for UPSC Exam 2020

Indian Economy Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

MYUPSC! IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test 2 Batch-1

Join Our Test Series – UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020

MYUPSC UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

2018 Prelims- 33+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme 

2019 Prelims- 40+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme

MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test 2 – Solution – Download

Some Important Study Notes for UPSC Exam 2020

Indian Economy Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

MYUPSC! IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test 1 Batch-1

Join Our Test Series – UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020

MYUPSC UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

2018 Prelims- 33+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme 

2019 Prelims- 40+ questions asked from MYUPSC Test Series Programme

MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test 1 – Solution – Download

Some Important Study Notes for UPSC Exam 2020

Indian Economy Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian and World Geography Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian Polity Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

Indian History: Latest Current Affairs Yearbook 2020

MYUPSC! IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test

UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 Test Series

Important Topics for UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam 2020

UPSC IAS Preliminary Exam 2020 Practice Solved Test – 1 

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 GS Paper-I Practice Solved Test – 2

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 GS Paper-I Practice Solved Test – 3

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 GS Paper-I Practice Solved Test – 4 

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test – 1

Geography and Economy

We you will join the MYUPSC Test Series Programme, you will get the following:

  1. Detailed Solution of Every Test
  2. All India Ranking
  3. Free Study Material for Prelims Exam 2020
  4. Performance Analysis of aspirants
  5. Section wise analysis
  6. comparison with toppers
  7. Integrated Score Card
  8. Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction

Join IAS Prelims 2020 Test Series

Mock Test – 1

Section – 1 (Geography MCQ)

1. Consider the following statements;

1. Continent-making movements are called Epeirogenic movements.

2. Mountain-making movements are called orogenic movements.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of these

2. Which of the following conditions does not favour the formation of a tropical cyclone?

(a) Temperature above 27°C

(b) Significant vertical wind difference

(c) High humidity levels

(d) Divergence in the upper atmosphere

3. Consider the following statements;

1. Prairies are called Parklands.

2. Tropical rainforests are known as Selva.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of these

4. Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?

(a) Syria

(b) Jordan

(c) Lebanon

(d) Israel

5. Which one of the following is also known as Top Slip?

(a) Simlipal National Park

(B) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary

(C) Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary

(d) Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park

6. Consider the following statements;

1. Visakhapatnam is the deepest port of India.

2. Kochi is a natural harbour.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of these

7. Consider the following statements;

1. Assam shares a border with Bhutan and Bangladesh.

2. West Bengal shares a border with Bhutan and Nepal.

3. Mizoram shares a border with Bangladesh and Myanmar.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

8. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

(a) Kosi: Consequent River

(b) Narmada: Rift Valley River

(c) Sutlej: Antecedent River

(d) Ghaggar: River with interior drainage

9. Consider the following statements;

1. Groundnut is not grown in kharif season.

2. Sesame is a kharif crop in North India and Rabi crop in South India.

3. Cotton is not grown in Rabi season.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None of these

10. In which one of the following environment does one expect the presence of dispersed rural settlements?

(a) Alluvial plains of the Ganga

(b) Arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan

(c) Lower valleys of the Himalayas

(d) Forests and hills in the North-East

11. In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine productivity by bringing the?

1. Decomposer micro-organisms to the surface.

2. Nutrients to the surface.

3. bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(b) Only 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) Only 3

12. Which of the following is called as the ‘lighthouse of the Mediterranean’?

(a) Mount Vesuvius

(b) Mount Fujiyama

(c) Mount Chimborazo

(d) Mount Stromboli

13. Consider the following statements;

1. The winds which blow between 30°N and 60°S latitudes throughout the year are known as Westerlies.

2. the most air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of Westerlies.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Consider the following statements;

1. Namdapha National Park is in Assam.

2. Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary is in Bihar.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of these

15. The type of fault in which the rock blocks are displaced in opposite directions and one of the blocks moves downwards is called?

(a) Normal fault

(b) Reverse fault

(c) Thrust fault

(d) Step fault

16. Consider the following statements;

1. River Ken is a left bank tributary of Ganga.

2. River Chenab is the largest tributary of Indus.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of these

17. Consider the following statements;

1. between the valley of Narmada and Tapti lies Satpura.

2. Banas and its tributaries lies to the East of Aravallis.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of these

18. Shallow ploughing only to the depth need to ensure quick seed germination and leaving crop residues and ground litter to protect the soil is?

(a) no-tillage farming

(b) Minimum tillage farming

(c) Contour cropping

(d) Gully reclamation

19. According to the Demographic Transition Model;

1. Late expanding stage has declining fertility and mortality rates.

2. Early expanding stage has high fertility and declining mortality rates.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of these

20. Which one of the following countries is the first country in the world to propose a carbon tax for its people to address the global warming?

(a) Australia

(b) Germany

(c) Japan

(d) New Zealand

21. Consider the following statements;

1. Cement industry is not a weight losing industry.

2. Hindustan Aluminium Corporation is located at Jaykaynagar.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of these

22. Which of the following add/adds nitrogen to soil?

1. Excretion of urea by animals.

2. Burning of coal by man.

3. Death of vegetation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) All of these

23. Consider the following statements;

1. The desert proper is known as Marusthali.

2. The shifting sand-dunes are locally known as Durian.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of the above

24. Which of the following have short life cycle and may form a fairly dense stand after rainfall?

(a) Perennials

(b) Ephemerals

(c) Succulents

(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

25. In which of the following types of age-sex pyramids, both birth and death rates are low and declining?

(A) Progressive

(b) Regressive

(C) Stationary

(d) Intermediate

26. Brunt land Commission is also known as

(a) The World Commission on Environmental and Development

(b) The World Commission on Reduction of Greenhouse Gases

(c) The World Commission on Ozone Depletion

(d) The World Commission on Protection of Spice

27. Volcanic activity occurs in which of the following tectonic settings?

1. Sea floor spreading 2. Subduction

3. Hotspot

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

28. Which one of the following rivers has the highest replenishable groundwater resource in the country?

(a) The Indus

(b) The Ganga

(c) The Brahmaputra

(d) The Godavari

29. Consider the following statements;

1. Cork, Oak, Jarrah, Karri, Cedar, Sequoia trees are found in tropical rainforest.

2. Quinine is extracted from the bark of Cinchona trees.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of these

30. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Vikramshila Monastery: Uttar Pradesh

(b) Hemkund Gurudwara: Himachal Pradesh

(c) Udayagiri Caves: Maharashtra

(D) Amaravati Buddhist Stupa: Andhra Pradesh

31. Which of the following findings are evident for the climate change?

1. Carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere now reached about 398 PPM that is highest in last 65000 years.

2. Global surface temperature increased about 0.6°C from the average temperature.

3. Arctic ice sheet is declining at a rate of 11.5% per decade.

4. The global average sea level has risen 4-8 inches over the past century.

5. 2000 to 2009 was the warmest decade on record.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below;

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2, 4 and 5

(d) All of these

32. Economic density is?

(a) Total number of people per unit of land

(b) Agricultural population per unit area of land

(c) Agricultural population per unit area of cultivated land

(d) Ratio between the requirements of population and the resources made available to it

33. Consider the following statements;

1. Length of a terrestrial mile is lesser than that of a nautical mile.

2. Harmattan is a dusty land-wind of the East African coast.

3. Greece and Albania form a part of the lberian Peninsula.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(c) Only 3

(d) All of these

34. Which one of the following phenomenons happens when the sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn in the Southern hemisphere?

(a) High pressure develops over the North-Western India due to low temperatures

(b) Low pressure develops over the North-Western India due to high temperatures

(c) No changes in temperature and pressure occur in the North-Western India

(d) ‘Loo’ blows in the North-Western India

35. Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?

(a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium

(b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen

(c) Oxygen, Hydrogen, Phosphorus

(d) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium

36. Which of the following signifies an elimination of thin fertile film of soil from large area?

(a) Rill erosion

(b) Sheet erosion

(c) Gully erosion

(d) Slip erosion

37. Which one of the following is not one of the missions in India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change?

(a) National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture

(b) National Water Mission

(c) National Mission on Sustainable Habitat

(d) National Pollution Mission

38. Which of the following is true about Coriolis force?

1. Occurs as a result of Earth’s rotation from West to East.

2. Deflection of wind/current occurs to the right in North hemisphere and left in South hemisphere.

3. Coriolis effect is maximum at the equator and minimum at poles.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below;

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(C) All of these

(d) None of these

39. Through which one of the following groups of countries does the equator pass?

(a) Brazil, Zambia and Malaysia

(b) Columbia, Kenya and Indonesia

(c) Brazil, Sudan and Malaysia

(d) Venezuela, Ethiopia and Indonesia

40. Consider the following statements;

1. Air borne plants that form symbiotic relationships with host plants is called epiphytes.

2. Low lying broad leaved plants is called as Forbes.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of the above

41. In the context of CO2 emission and global warming, what is the name of a market driven device under the UNFCC that allows developing countries to get funds/ incentives from the developed countries to adopt better technologies to reduce greenhouse gas emissions?

(a) Carbon Footprint

(b) Carbon Credit Rating

(c) Clean Development Mechanism

(d) Emission Reduction Norm

42. Consider the following statements;

1. Thein Dam Project provides drinking water to Delhi.

2 The purpose of Damodar Project is both flood control and irrigation.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of the above

43. Which one of the following facts was not considered by those while discussing the concept of sea floor spreading?

(a) Volcanic activity along the mid-oceanic ridges

(b) Stripes of normal and reverse magnetic field observed in the rocks of ocean floor

(c) Distribution of fossils in different continents

(d) Age of rocks from the ocean floor

44. If there were no Himalayan ranges, what would have been the most likely geographical impact on India?

1. Much of the country would experience the cold waves from Siberia.

2. Indo-Gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvial soils.

3. The pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at present.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below?

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

45. In India, which type of forest among the following occupies the largest area?

(A) Montane wet temperate forest

(b) Sub-tropical dry evergreen forest

(c) Tropical moist deciduous forest

(d) Tropical wet evergreen forest

46. Ecotone is?

(a) Mixed ecosystem

(b) Borders of ecosystem

(c) Transitional region between ecosystems

(d) Core of ecosystem

47. Which of the following substances are found in the beach sands of many parts of Kerala?

1. Ilmenite

2. Zircon

3. Sillimanite

4. Tungsten

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) All of the above

48. Most of the winter precipitation of lowlands in the middle latitudes is of?

(a) Cyclonic origin

(b) Convectional origin

(c) Orographic origin

(d) Monsoonal origin

49. The ‘Red Data Books’ published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of?

1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.

2. threatened plant and animal species.

3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 3

(b) Only 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) Only 3

50. If a tropical rainforest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because

(a) The soil of rainforest is deficient in nutrients

(b) Propagules of the trees in a rainforest have poor viability

(c) The rainforest species are slow growing

(d) Exotic species invade the fertile soil of rainforest

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Section – 2: Practice Test – 1 (Economy MCQ)

1. Which of the following statement(s) is true about HDI?

1. Since 2010, UNDP began using the new method of calculating HDI.

2. It is based on life expectancy, per capita income mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling.

3. HDI is the arithmetic mean of the Life Expectancy Index, Education Index and Income Index.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

(d) All of these

2. Deficit financing leads to inflation in general, but it can be checked if?

(a) Government expenditure leads to increase in aggregate supply in ratio of aggregate demand

(b) Only aggregate demand is increased

(c) All the expenditure is devoted to the payment of national debt

(d) All of the above

3. Name the bank announced to be set-up in the budget for regulating and refinancing all Micro-Finance Institutions (MFI) which are in the business of lending to micro/small business entities engaged in manufacturing, trading and services activities?

(a) Micro Bank

(b) MUDRA Bank

(c) SIDBI Bank

(d) Micro-Finance Bank

4. Which of the following are the main causes of slow rate of growth of per capita income in India?

1. High level of fiscal deficits.

2. High capital output ratio.

3. High rate of household savings.

4. High rate of growth of population.

5. High rate of capital formation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 5

5. Which of the following statements are true regarding the TRIPS agreement of the WTO?

1. TRIPS are related to protecting the intellectual property rights.

2. Developing countries were supposed to pass TRIPS Complaint National Legislation by 2005. While for developed countries the time limit was till 1995.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. Consider the following statements regarding the OPEC

1. At present, OPEC has total 14 members’ countries.

2. The objective of OPEC was to control production and price of petroleum so as to safeguard the interests of oil exporting countries.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. Consider the following regarding the functions of WTO

1. To provide facilities for implementation, administration and operation of multilateral agreements of the World Trade.

2. To provide a platform to member countries to decide future strategies related to trade and tariff.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Consider the following statements;

1. Geographical indication is granted to a community or group or an institution that represents the interests of the world.

2. It is given to a product for a specific period of time (10 years in India).

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. The GST Bill comprises –

1. The CGST Bill – The Central Goods and Services Tax Bill, 2017

2. The IGST Bill – The Integrated Goods and Services Tax Bill, 2017

3. The UTGST Bill- The Union Territory Goods and Services Tax Bill, 2017

4. The Compensation Bill – The Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to the States) Bill, 2017

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a)Only 1

(b) 1 and 2

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

10. After a gap of over 20 years, ` 1 note has been released in the country on 6th March, 2015 by Finance Secretary Rajiv Mehrishi. The new ` 1 note bears the signature of

(A) Finance Minister

(B) RBI Governor

(C) Finance Secretary

 (d) Home Secretary

11. The capital account convertibility of the Indian Rupee implies

(a) That the Indian Rupee can be exchanged by the authorised dealers for travel

(b) That the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trade in goods and services

(c) That the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trading financial assets

(d) None of the above

12. World Bank provides long-run capital to member countries for economic reconstruction and development.

World Bank provides capital mainly for the following purposes

1. To rehabilitate war ruined economics.

2. To finance productive efforts according to peacetime requirements.

3. To develop resources and production facilities in underdeveloped countries.

Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

13. Consider the following statements

1. Ministerial conference is the highest decision-making body of the WTO, which usually meets once every 2 years.

2. Its headquarters is in Geneva.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Consider the following statement(s) regarding the International Monetary fund

1. IMF is controlled and managed by a Board of Governors.

2. Each Governor has the right of 250 votes on the basis of membership and one additional vote for each SDR 1 lakh quota.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15. Consider the following statements

1. General agreement on trade in services is a treaty of the

World Trade Organisation (WTO) that entered into force in

January, 1995.

2. All members of the WTO are signatories to the general agreement on trade in services.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. IMF was established to meet which of the following objectives?

1. Promoting International Monetary Co-operation.

2. Expanding International Trade.

3. Lessening the disequilibrium in balance of trade.

4. Avoiding competitive exchange depreciations.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

17. Consider the following statements about ‘Mega Food Park’

1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for food processing industries.

2. To increase processing perishable items and reduce wastage.

3. To provide emerging and eco friendly food processing technology to entrepreneurs.

Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3

(d) All of these

18. Which one of the following is related with the Baltic Dry index?

(a) An assessment of the price of moving the major raw materials by sea

(b) An index showing the rising and falling prices of shares and equities in the Baltic region

(c) An assessment showing the prices of the crude oil produced in the Baltic region

(d) None of the above

19. Which one of the following items has the highest share of India in the world exports?

(a) Coffee, Tea, Mate, Spices etc

(b) Pearls, Precious stones, Metals, Coins etc

(c) Lac, Gums, Resins, Vegetable Saps and extracts etc

(d) Vegetable Plaiting Materials, Vegetable Products etc

20. The fair and remuneration price of sugarcane is approved by the

(a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs

(b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices

(c) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture

(d) Agricultural Produce Market Committee

21. Which one of the following factors is taken account to calculate the Balance of Payment (BOP), of a country?

(A) Current account

(b) Changes in the foreign exchange reserves

(c) Errors and omissions (d) All of these

22. Which one of the following international organisations offers political risk insurance guarantees to help investors to protect foreign direct investments made in developing countries against political risk?

(a) IDA

(b) IFC

(c) IMF

(d) MIGA

23. Examine the following statements in the context of the Base Rate system of interest rates

1. Corporate entities were able to get loans at interest rates lower than PLR while it is not possible with Base Rate.

2. Monetary policy is transmitted better through Base Rate system.

3. Base Rate is applicable only to loans given after 1st July, 2010.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(c) Only 2

(d) All of these

24. Consider the following statements

1. Regional Rural banks were set-up in 1975, under an Act of Parliament to exclusively cater to the credit needs of rural population.

2. The sponsor banks have the largest share in the equality of Regional Rural banks.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

25. Which of these statements is true regarding the Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) of IMF?

1. The SDRs are equivalent to a currency and represent a claim on the IMF.

2. The value of SDRs in terms of its component currencies is fixed annually.

3. The basket of currencies of SDRs which presently consist of US Dollar, Euro, the Chinese renminbi, Pound and Yen is revised every 5 years.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 3

(b) Only 1

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) All of these

26. Which of the following statements are true regarding Hedge Funds?

1. Hedge funds are open to only select group of investors.

2. Hedge funds have been allowed to function in India recently after registering with SEBI.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

27. Consider the following statements;

1. NABARD is the nodal agency for implementing the schemes in respect of co-operative credit and RRBs.

2. NABARD was the nodal agency for implementing the agricultural debt waiver and Debt Relief Scheme, 2008.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2

28. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Agreement on Agriculture of the WTO?

1. Green box, blue box and amber box refer to domestic subsidies in agriculture.

2. There is no limit on green box subsidies for both developing and developed economies.

3. In the long-run, the agreement on agriculture is expected to benefit the developing countries.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) All of these

29. Which State Government launched ‘Bhagya shree’ scheme in place of the Sukanya scheme which caters to girls from Below Poverty Line (BPL) families?

(a) Gujarat

(b) Kerala

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Haryana

30. Which of the following are the objectives of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)?

1. To stabilise agricultural prices.

2. To ensure meaningful real income levels to the farmers.

3. To protect the interest of the consumers by providing essential agricultural commodities at reasonable rate through PDS.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) All of the above

31. Which of these statements is true regarding the lending provisions of the IMF?

1. IMF lends to only member countries.

2. IMF lends only to help with Balance of Payments (BoP) problems.

3. IMF lending is also possible for specific projects relating to economic restructuring of an economy.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 1 and 3

(b) Only 1

(c) 1 and 2

(d) Only 3

32. Which of the following statements is true regarding a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC)?

1. NBFC cannot accept demand deposits.

2. For a NBFC financial assets must be 50% more than its total assets.

3. Normal banks do all of the activities normally done by an NBFC.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a)Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

(d) All of these

33. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) wants the rules tightened to bring a larger number of Mergers and Acquisitions (M and As) under its scrutiny. In this context, consider the following statements about CCI

1. Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established with effect from14th October, 2003.

2. The goal is to curtail the monopoly tendencies and foster the competition among public sector enterprises.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

34. Which of the following statements is true regarding the innovation index measure?

1. It is developed by INSEAD, France.

2. Japan is the top country in this index.

3. The National Innovation Council (NIC) was formed to foster innovation in India especially in the area of growth.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below;

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3

(d) All of the above

35. Examine these statements in the context of the financial instruments known as futures.

1. Futures are agreements between two parties to buy or sell shares at a future date.

2. Options are a class of futures where there is a right, but not the obligation to buy or sell at a future date.

3. Forwards are a particular class of futures.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 3

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) All of these

36. Which one of the following is likely to the most inflationary, in its effect?

(a) Repayment of public debt

(b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit

(c) Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deficit

(d) Creating new money to finance a budget deficit

37. Consider the following statements regarding Reserve Bank of India;

1. It is a banker to the Central Government.

2. It formulates and administers monetary policy.

3. It acts as an agent of the government in respect of India.

4. It handles the borrowing programme of Government of India.

Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) All of the above

38. Consider the following regarding World Trade organisation

1. The Uruguay round of GATT (1986-93) gave birth to WTO.

2. WTO was officially constituted as a permanent body on 1st January, 1995 as an effective formal organisation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

39. Under the WTO agreement, Agreement on Agriculture (AoA), developing countries won over with some concessional features and flexibilities. Its three pillars are?

1. Domestic support

2. Export subsidies

3. Market access

4. Non-tariff barriers

Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) All of the above

40. Consider the following regarding WTO

1. WTO negotiations proceed not by consensus of all members, but by a process of informal negotiations between small groups.

2. Such negotiations are often called green room.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

41. Personal Income Tax limit was not changed in Union Budget 2016-17. What is the present Personal I-T exemption limit?

(a) 2.5 lakh

(b) 2.75 lakh

(c)  3 lakh

(d)  5 lakh

42. Which one of the following items has gained the highest growth rate in the import composition of the Indian economy in the last decade?

(a) Pearls, precious and semiprecious stones

(b) Gold and silver

(c) Oil-cake and other solid residues

(d) None of the above

43. Consider the following regarding the objectives of WTO

1. To improve the standard of living of people in member countries.

2. To ensure full employment and increase in effective demand.

3. To enlarge production and trade of goods and services.

Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) All of these

44. The Indian banking system consists of?

1. 26 public sector banks

2. 20 private sector banks

3. 43 foreign banks

4. 56 regional rural banks

5. 1589 urban cooperative banks

6. 93550 rural cooperative banks

Select the correct option from the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 3, 4 and 5

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

(d) All of these

45. Hawala transactions relate to payments

(a) Received in rupees against overseas currencies and vice versa without going through the official channels

(b) Received for sale or transfer of shares without going through the established stock exchanges

(c) Received as commission for services rendered to overseas investors, buyers or sellers in assisting them to get over the red tape and in getting preferential treatment

(d) Made to political parties or to individuals for meeting election expenses

46. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) cancelled the certificate of registration of the 26 Non- Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) including?

(a) Mathura Financial Services Limited

(b) SJ Finance & Consultants Private Limited

(c) Modern Vintrade Private Limited

(d) All of the above

47. The main cause of cyclical unemployment is that?

(a) Firms engage in race, gender and sex discrimination in their hiring practices

(b) Some individuals do not have marketable job skills

(c) The level of overall economic activity fluctuates

(d) Workers often voluntarily quit a job look for a better job

48. If the Cash Reserve ratio is lowered by the RBI, its impact upon credit creation will be to?

(a) Decrease it

(b) Increase it

(c) No impact

(d) None of these

49. Which of the following is true about money market in India?

1. the most active segment of money market is overight call market.

2. The money market instruments have maturity of less than 1 year.

3. The money market instruments in India are regulated by RBI and SBI.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 1 and 2

(b) Only 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) All of the above

50. With regard to proposed GST, which of the following is correct?

1. Taxes on items containing alcohol and petroleum product are kept out of GST.

2. Entertainment tax, luxury tax and taxes on gambling are part of GST.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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(Batch-2)MOCK TEST SERIES FOR UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2020

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MYUPSC – UPSC CSP (2020) Test series will strategically provide its students with an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically designed revision plans covering the entire static and current portions (multiple times). With the help of guidance, we aim to make sure that our students are exam ready, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

  1. Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs
  2. Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
  3. Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
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Performance Analysis of aspirants, Section wise analysis, Difficulty Analysis, All India Rank, comparison with toppers, Integrated Score Card, Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction

UPSC (CSE Prelims) IAS Test Series 2020 Schedule Batch – 2

IAS Test Series 2020   Date
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 11 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 24 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 38 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 412 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 516 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 620  December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 724 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 828 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 92 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 106 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1110 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1214 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1318 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1422 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1527 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1630 January 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 172 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 186 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1910 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2014 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2118 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2222 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2326 February 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 242 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 256 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2610 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2714 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2818 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2922 March 2020
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 3026 March 2020
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MYUPSC UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

MYUPSC – UPSC CSP (2020) Test series will strategically provide its students with an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically designed revision plans covering the entire static and current portions (multiple times). With the help of guidance, we aim to make sure that our students are exam ready, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

  1. Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs
  2. Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
  3. Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
  4. Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
  5. All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

Performance Analysis of aspirants, Section wise analysis, Difficulty Analysis, All India Rank, comparison with toppers, Integrated Score Card, Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction

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MYUPSC – UPSC CSP (2020) Test series will strategically provide its students with an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically designed revision plans covering the entire static and current portions (multiple times). With the help of guidance, we aim to make sure that our students are exam ready, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

  1. Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs
  2. Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
  3. Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
  4. Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
  5. All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

Performance Analysis of aspirants, Section wise analysis, Difficulty Analysis, All India Rank, comparison with toppers, Integrated Score Card, Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction

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MYUPSC – UPSC CSP (2020) Test series will strategically provide its students with an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically designed revision plans covering the entire static and current portions (multiple times). With the help of guidance, we aim to make sure that our students are exam ready, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs

Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests

Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers

Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions

All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

Performance Analysis of aspirants, Section wise analysis, Difficulty Analysis, All India Rank, comparison with toppers, Integrated Score Card, Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction

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Must Read Books For UPSC Prelims;

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

MYUPSC UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Test 3 with solution

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MYUPSC – UPSC CSP (2020) Test series will strategically provide its students with an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically designed revision plans covering the entire static and current portions (multiple times). With the help of guidance, we aim to make sure that our students are exam ready, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

  1. Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs
  2. Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
  3. Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
  4. Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
  5. All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

Performance Analysis of aspirants, Section wise analysis, Difficulty Analysis, All India Rank, comparison with toppers, Integrated Score Card, Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction

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Must Read Books For UPSC Prelims:

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 8

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Practice Mock Test – 8

1. Which of the following banks has been listed as a Domestic Systemically Important Banks (DSIBs) by the Reserve bank of India?

(a) Punjab National Bank

(b) Bank of Baroda

(c) HDFC Bank

(d) IndusInd Bank

2. The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution had launched negotiable warehousing receipts (NWR) in electronic format.

Consider the following in this regard:

1. The depositors are bailee against commodities deposited in warehouses for which documents are issued by warehouses.

2. NWRs can be traded, sold, swapped and used as collateral to support borrowing or loans from banks.

3. It is an important step towards doubling farmers’ income by 2022.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

3. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding The National Agricultural Higher Education Project?

1. The project has been formulated by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare in partnership with the World Bank.

2. Project Management and Learning is an important component of the project.

3. The project has been launched with 50:50 cost sharing basis with the World Bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

4. Bharat 22 is the second ETF (Exchange Traded Fund launched by the Government of India. Consider the following in this regard:

1. ETF’s are more liquid than mutual funds as they can be sold quickly on stock exchanges.

2. Bharat 22 comprises of 22 stocks and is managed by SBI Blue-chip Fund.

3. It gives highest sector wise weightage to energy.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

5. Which of the following are the features of the Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP)?

1. Uniform license

2. An open acreage policy

3. Profit sharing model

4. Marketing and pricing freedom

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) Only 1, 2 and 4

(c) Only 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

6. Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY):

1. It is a pension scheme launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

2. It is operated by Life Insurance Company in collaboration with the National Insurance Company (NIC).

3. The scheme also offers loan up to 75% of the purchase price after 3 policy years.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

7. Consider the following statements regarding the Jute-ICARE project:

1. It has been launched by the Ministry of Textiles to double the income of jute farmers.

2. A microbial consortium called SONA has been developed by the National Jute Board under Jute-ICARE project.

3. Retting is a process in which jute is placed in liquid so as to promote tightening of the fibres in the woody tissue.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

8. Administered Price Mechanism (APM) for petrol and diesel was dismantled by the government in 2017. Consider the following statements:

1. In dynamic fuel pricing, the oil retailers fortnightly revise the retail selling prices of petrol and diesel.

2. In India, the dynamic fuel pricing has been introduced for fixing the petrol prices only.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding the Innovate in India (i3) project?

1. I3 is a flagship program of the Government of India under the National Biopharma Mission.

2. It has been launched by the Union Ministry of Science & Technology in collaboration with World Bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. Consider the following statements regarding the Hill Area Development Programme (HADP):

1. The scheme aims to ensure equitable development of every area, tribe and every section in the North Eastern Region.

2. It has been launched by The Ministry for Development of North Eastern Region.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

11. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the National Policy on Marine Fisheries?

1. The policy is in line with the FAO’s Code of Conduct for Responsible Fisheries on conservation, development and management of fisheries.

2. The Policy has proposed chip-based smart registration cards for fishermen and their fishing vessels.

3. It focuses on Species-specific and area specific management plans with spatial and temporal measures for sustainable utilization of resources.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. With respect to information utilities

(IU), consider the following:

1. It maintains information of all financial contracts in a demat format.

2. National E-Governance Services Limited (NeSL) is India’s first Information Utility.

Which of the above statements is /are Incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Which of the following committees has recommended an overhaul of corporate governance norms for listed firms?

(a) Bimal Julka Committee

(b) Vasudev Committee

(c) Tarapore Committee

(d) Uday Kotak Committee

14. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Peer-to Peer lending (P2P)?

1. Peer-to Peer lending allows a business to sell its invoices at a discount to a pool of individual or institutional investors for cash.

2. P2P platforms are now treated as non banking financial companies (NBFCs) and thus regulated by Securities and Exchange Board of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15. With reference to ‘Non Banking Financial Company (NBFC), consider the following statements:

1. NBFC is engaged in loans and advances, industrial activity, the sale, purchase or construction of immovable property.

2. NBFC is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 of India.

3. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched the Ombudsman Scheme for Non Banking Financial Companies (NBFC).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

16. Various activities to promote best practices and enhance agriculture income being undertaken under Krishi Kalyan Abhiyan are

1. Distribution of Soil Health Cards to all farmers

2. Artificial insemination saturation

3. Demonstration programmes on Micro-irrigation

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

17. ‘Project Sashakt ‘has been launched is

(a) Personality development programme through social (or community) service

(b) Comprehensive medical care facilities to Central Government employees and their family members.

(c) One-time cash incentive to pregnant women for institutional/home births through skilled assistance.

(d) A scheme that aims to strengthen the credit capacity, credit culture and credit portfolio of public sector banks.

18. India’s first ‘freight village’ will be developed by

(a) The Inland Waterways Authority of India

(b) The National Highways Authority of India

(c) The State government of Gujarat

(d) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural

Development

19. With reference to the Municipal Bonds in India, which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

1. The market for municipal bonds in India is almost non-existent unlike US and many developing countries.

2. Thiruvananthapuram Municipal Corporation was the first urban local body in India to issue tax-free municipal bonds.

3. RBI has mandated guarantee from the State Government or Central Government for issuing such bond.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 (a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

20. With reference to special economic zone (SEZ) in India, consider the following statements:

1. India’s SEZ Policy was implemented from 1991.

2. The Baba Kalyani led committee was constituted to study the existing SEZ policy of India.

3. There is absence of clear exit mechanism for the SEZ developers in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Q. 1 (c)

Q. 2 (b)

Q. 3 (c)

Q. 4 (a)

Q. 5 (b)

Q. 6 (a)

Q. 7 (a)

Q. 8 (d)

Q. 9 (c)

Q. 10 (c)

Q. 11 (d)

Q. 12 (d)

Q. 13 (d)

Q. 14 (d)

Q. 15 (b)

Q. 16 (d)

Q. 17 (d)

Q. 18 (a)

Q. 19 (c)

Q. 20 (c)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 7

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Practice Mock Test – 7

Q1. Consider the following about ‘RAILMADAD’:

1. It is a mobile App to register complaints by passengers through mobile phone/web.

2. It relays real time feedback to passengers on the status of redressal of their complaints which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. Consider the following about ‘Renewal Energy Dialogue’:

1. This dialogue is organised by Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW).

2. It offers a platform for engaged deliberations on the role of different stakeholders in advancing renewable energy deployment, balancing both domestic priorities and international mitigation ambitions and commitments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q3. Consider the following about ‘Mission Solar Charkha’:

1. It is an initiative of The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).

2. Its main objective is to leverage low-cost, innovative technologies and processes for sustenance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q4. In which of the following locations Strategic Oil Reserves have not been established?

a) Visakhapatnam

b) Mangalore

c) Padur

d) Ambala

Q5. Which of the following state government has launched ‘Surya Shakti Kisan Scheme’?

a) Uttar Pradesh

b) Gujarat

c) Madhya Pradesh

d) Rajasthan

Q6. Consider the following statements about ‘UDYAM SANGAM’:

1. It is organised by The Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

2. The purpose of the Conclave is to encourage dialogue and partnership among various stakeholders of the MSME ecosystem and for promoting innovation and knowledge sharing on MSME related issues.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q7. Consider the following statements about ‘Unorganised Worker Identification Number’:

1. It is an initiative of The Ministry of

Corporate Affairs under Unorganized Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008

2. It will improve unorganised workers’ access to all social security schemes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q8. Consider the following about ‘Water Productivity Mapping of Major Indian Crops Report’:

1. The report is released by Niti Aayog.

2. The report presents for the first time, maps on the water productivity of ten major Indian crops across cultivating districts and states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q9. Consider the following about ‘Zero Budget Natural Farming’:

1. ‘Zero Budgets’ farming promises to end a reliance on loans and drastically cut production costs, ending the debt cycle for desperate farmers.

2. Under this initiative there is no use of chemicals.

3. The movement first evolved in Karnataka.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 3 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 only

d) All of the above

Q10. With reference to ‘Financial stability report’, consider the following statements:

1. It is released by the Ministry of Finance.

2. It reflects the overall assessment of the stability of India’s financial system and its resilience to risks emanating from global and domestic factors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q11. With reference to ‘Prompt Corrective

Action (PCA) Framework’, consider the following statements:

1. It is a set of guidelines by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to private companies for improving their financial condition.

2. It is a framework for improving the financial condition of the scheduled commercial banks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q12. What is/are possible factor for depreciation of rupees?

a) Rise in international crude oil prices.

b) Tightening of U.S. monetary policy

c) Both a and b

d) None of the above

Q13. With reference to ‘Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016’, consider the following statements:

1. It deals primarily with insolvency issues in the banking sector.

2. Timeline for Insolvency resolution process is 2 years under IBC, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q14. With reference to ‘Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)’, consider the following statements:

1. It is a subsidiary of Life Insurance Corporation.

2. It provides insurance to deposits up to 10 lakhs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q15. ‘Compact2025’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to

a) It is an initiative for ending hunger and under nutrition by 2025.

b) It is an initiative for increasing forest cover up to 30 percent all over the world by 2025.

c) It is an initiative for the elimination of gender inequality by 2025.

d) It is an initiative for increasing primary health coverage by 2025.

Q16. With reference to ‘Consumer Confidence Survey’, consider the following statements:

1. It is released by the Central Statistics Office (CSO)

2. This Survey is being used by the Reserve Bank as one of the important inputs for monetary Policy formulation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q17.With reference to ‘Liberalized Remittance Scheme (LRS)’, consider the following statements:

1. It was launched by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

2. Regulations for the scheme are provided under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q18) ‘MADAD (Mobile Application for Desired Assistance During travel)’, recently in the news is related to

a) Monitoring the Non-performing assets

(NPA) of banks

b) Monitoring dropout rate in primary schools

c) Promotion of girl education in India.

d) Expedite and streamline passenger grievance redressal

Q19. With reference to ‘Monetary Policy

Committee’, consider the following statements:

1. The committee was created in 2016 to bring transparency and accountability in fixing India’s Fiscal Policy.

2. All members of the committee are nominated by the Government of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q20. Consider the following Statements about Advance Pricing Agreement:

1. It is an agreement between the taxpayer and the tax authority regarding transfer pricing in the future.

2. The agreement will be binding on both the taxpayer and the tax authorities.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q21. Which of the following sequence is correct about share capital in Regional Rural Banks?

a) Union Government>Sponsor Bank>State Government

b) Sponsor Bank>State Government>Union Government

c) Union Government>State Government>Sponsor Bank

d) State Government>Sponsor Bank>Union Government

Answer

Q1.  C

Q2.  C

Q3.  B

Q4.  D

Q5.  B

Q6.  B

Q7.  B

Q8.  B

Q9.  D

Q10.  B

Q11.  B

Q12.  C

Q13.  D

Q14.  D

Q15.  A

Q16.  B

Q17.  D

Q18).  D

Q19.  D

Q20.  C

Q21.  A

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 6

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Practice Mock Test – 6

Q1. Which of the following is the best description of the term ‘Asian Premium’ often seen in news?

a) It is the money which developed countries agreed to give to the poor countries of Asia to avoid climate change.

b) Extra charges being collected by OPEC countries from Asian countries when selling oil in comparison to Western countries.

c) The total amount of investments Asian

Countries received from World Bank in the last decade.

d) The extra amount of FDI Asian Countries received in last few years due to their population and lack of development.

Q2. Consider the following about ‘Compact 2025’:

1. It is an initiative for ending hunger and under nutrition by 2025.

2. It has been started by Food Corporation of India (FCI).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q3. ‘Consumer Confidence Survey’ often seen in the news is released by:

a) NITI Aayog

b) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

c) The Reserve Bank of India

d) Ministry of Consumer Affairs

Q4 Consider the following about ‘Directorate of Revenue Intelligence’:

1. It is the apex anti-money laundering agency of India.

2. It works under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs, Ministry of Finance, and Government of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q5. Consider the following about ‘Export

Promotion Council for Handicrafts’:

1. It is a non-profit organisation established under the Companies Act in the year 1986- 87.

2. It is an apex body of handicrafts exporters for promotion of exports of Handicrafts from country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q6. ‘Generalised System of Preferences’, often seen in the news is:

a) A preferential tariff system extended by developed countries to developing countries.

b) Non-discriminatory trade policy commitment offered by one country to another on a reciprocal basis.

c) A preferential tariff system extended by India to African countries.

d) A generalized system of mapping consumer preferences

Q7. Consider the following about ‘Global Real Estate Transparency Index’:

1. The survey is released by United Nations Human Settlement Programme.

2. In the latest edition (2018) of index, India has moved up one place due to improvement in market fundamentals, policy reforms, and liberalisation of FDI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q8. Which of the following best describes ‘Liberalised Remittance Scheme’ of RBI?

a) All resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2, 50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.

b) All non-resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2, 50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.

c) All resident individuals, excluding minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2, 50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.

d) All foreigners are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2, 50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.

Q9. Which of the following is the best description of the term ‘Mathew Effect’ sometimes seen in news?

a) A social phenomenon wherein people who already possess high economic or social status continue to do so over time

b) A social phenomenon wherein people who possess high economic or social status suddenly lose that status.

c) A social phenomenon wherein people who possess low economic or social status improve their status over time

d) Convergence of income between the poor and the rich.

Q10. Which of the following best describes ‘No-Fly List’?

a) It is a list prepared by the government, of people who are prohibited to travel through airways.

b) It is a list prepared by the government, of aircrafts which are prohibited from flying.

c) It is a list prepared by the government, of zones where private aircrafts are prohibited from entering.

d) It is a list prepared by the government of types of drones which are prohibited from flying near government premises.

Answer

Q1.  B

Q2.  A

Q3.  C

Q4.  B

Q5.  C

Q6.  A

Q7.  B

Q8.  A

Q9.  A

Q 10.  A

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 5

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Practice Mock Test – 5

Q1. Which of the following adaptations is/are found in the mangrove plants?

1. Absence of stomata.

2. Turn their leaves to reduce exposure to the sunlight.

3. Pneumatophores

4. Salt glands

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 3, 4

c) 2, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Q2. Which of the following are responsible for land degradation?

1. Overgrazing

2. Salination

3. Water-logging

4. Landslides

5. Practice of Jhum cultivation

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 2, 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

d) 1, 2, 4, 5

Answer: c

Q3. Consider the following pairs.

Disease                       Pollutant

1. Itai-itai disease                  Cadmium

2. Minamata disease                         Mercury

3. Blue Baby Syndrome                    Arsenic

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

a) 1, 3

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 2

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q4. Which of the following pyramids can be both upright and inverted?

1. Pyramid of Biomass

2. Pyramid of Numbers

3. Pyramid of Productivity

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: a

Q5. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs

a) The water vapours of the air and retains its heat

b) Infrared part of solar radiation

c) The ultraviolet part of the solar radiation

d) All the solar radiations

Answer: b

Q6. Which of the following Ramsar site is manmade?

a) Deepor Beel

b) Wular Lake

c) Bhoj Wetland

d) Loktak Lake

Answer: c

Q7. Consider the following statements about South Asian Nitrogen Hub.

1. The Indian government has announced a research project, South Asian Nitrogen Hub.

2. The project aims to study the impact of different forms of nitrogen pollution, particularly looking at nitrogen in agriculture in eight countries of South Asia.

3. UNEP will partner with different organisations from South Asia.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2 only

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Q8. With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:

1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.

2. Food chains are found within the population of a species.

3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1, 2, 3

d) None

Answer: a

Q9. Consider the following statements about Wildlife Protection Society of India.

1. It is an attached office to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

2. It protects endangered species and their habitats through awareness, support, and training.

3. Collaborate with state governments to monitor the illegal wildlife trade.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q10. Consider the following statements about “ECOMARK” scheme.

1. It is a Scheme on Labelling of Environment Friendly Products.

2. Provide an incentive for manufacturers and importers to reduce adverse environmental impact of products.

3. Reward initiatives by companies to reduce adverse environmental impact of their products.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q11. The composting process is dependent on which of the following micro-organisms?

1. Bacteria

2. Fungi

3. Virus

4. Actino bacteria

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 2, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Q12. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as a financial mechanism for which of the following conventions?

1. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)

2. Convention on the International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Flora and Fauna (CITES)

3. UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)

4. Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 3

c) 1, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q13. Consider the following statements.

1. Bioleaching is used essentially for the recovery of copper, uranium and gold.

2. Bioaugmentation can be involved in bioremediation.

3. Biosparging can be used to reduce concentrations of petroleum constituents that are dissolved in groundwater.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) None

Answer: d

Q14. Consider the following statements about Mammals of India (MAOI) initiative.

1. It is an online, peer- reviewed, freely-accessible portal exclusively for mammals.

2. It is the initiative of Ministry of Environment & Forests (MoEF).

3. It provides a facility to the citizen to upload photographic observations about mammals.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q15. Consider the following statements.

1. It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International.

2. It was declared as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.

3. The forest region is home to world’s largest population of Indian Rhinoceros.

4. It is also a Tiger Reserve.

The above statements are related to which National Park?

a) Manas National Park

b) Nameri National Park

c) Orang National Park

d) Kaziranga National Park

Answer: d

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Practice Mock Test – 4

Q1. Consider the following pairs.

     Governor-General                                  Events in their Rule

1. Cornwallis                                      Introduction of Civil services

2. Wellesley                                        Telegraph and postal reforms

3. William Bentinck                           Introduction of English as official language

4. Dalhousie                                       Introduction of Subsidiary Alliance

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 2, 4

b) 1, 3

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: b)

Explaination:

Cornwallis – Europeanisation of administrative machinery and Introduction of Civil services.

Wellesley – Introduction of Subsidiary Alliance, 1798.

William Bentinck – Educational reforms and introduction of English as the official language.

Dalhousie – Telegraph (4000 miles of telegraph lines to connect Calcutta with Bombay, Madras and Peshawar) and postal (Post Office Act, 1854) reforms.

Q2. Consider the following statements.

1. Charter Act of 1813 promoted modern sciences in the country.

2. Macaulay’s Minute led to the promotion of mass education.

3. Hunter Education Commission report is considered as the ‘Magna Carta of English Education in India”.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q3. Muhammad Ali Jinnah in March 1929 gave fourteen points for safeguarding the rights and interests of the Muslims. Which of the following were included in the fourteen points?

1. Federal Constitution with residual powers to provinces.

2. One-third Muslim representation in the central legislature.

3. Separation of Sindh from Bombay.

4. Not separate electorates, but joint electorates with reserved seats for Muslims.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2, 4

b) 1, 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Q4. Which of the following is/are correct about Pathshala under British India?

1. These were institutions working on the principle of decentralized governance with minimum of rules

2. Wood’s Despatch was against the system of Pathshala.

Select the correct answer sing codes below.

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: a

Q5. The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because:

1. The Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence.

2. The rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session.

3. A resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) None

Answer: a

Q6. With reference to medieval kingdoms of North-eastern India what was the position of paiks?

a) They were the patrons of literature and arts.

b) They were mercenaries recruited from other kingdoms.

c) They held large amount of land and gold and donated it for public welfare.

d) They were forced to work for the state.

Answer: d

Q7. Kornish in medieval history refers to:

a) A kind of salutation.

b) A kind of revenue system.

c) A title given to the courtier

d) A kind of crop brought to India by the British.

Answer: a

Explaination:

Kornish was a form of ceremonial salutation in which the courtier placed the palm of his right hand against his forehead and bent his head. It suggested that the subject placed his head – the seat of the senses and the mind – into the hand of humility, presenting it to the royal assembly.

Q8. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Iltutmish, the medieval ruler?

1. He founded the Ilbari dynasty.

2. He introduced the Arabic Coinage into India.

3. He introduced the Persian festival of Nauroz.

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 3

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 2

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q9. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Samudragupta was an ardent follower of Vaishnavism.

2. He had very little interest in music.

3. He patronized the great Buddhist scholar Vasubandu.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q10. Consider the following dynasties of Medieval India.

1. Rajput

2. Lodi

3. Tughluq

4. Sayyid

The correct chronological order in which they appeared in India is?

a) 3, 1, 2, 4

b) 3, 1, 4, 2

c) 1, 3, 2, 4

d) 1, 3, 4, 2

Answer: d

Q11. Which of the following provisions are related to the Charter Act of 1813?

a) It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body.

b) It introduced for the first time, local representation in the Central Legislative Council.

c) For the first time explicitly defined the constitutional position of the British territories in India.

d) It separated for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor- General’s council.

Answer: c

Explaination:

Statement a – Charter Act of 1833

Statement b and d – Charter Act of 1853

Q12. Which of the following statement is correct regarding Hunter Education Commission?

a) Government of India must assume responsibility for education of the masses.

b) Indian learning was inferior to European learning.

c) For improving university education, improving secondary education was a necessary.

d) Primary education should be imparted through vernacular.

Answer: d

Q13. By the time Gandhiji arrived in India

1. Indian National Congress (INC) was already established in India

2. He had already forged a technique of non-violent Satyagraha in South Africa

3. The first Swadeshi movement had already been waged

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q14. The partition of Bengal by Lord Curzon intended to

1. Curb Bengali influence

2. Divide people on the basis of religion

3. Achieve administration convenience

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q15. Which of the following Indian activist, thinker and social reformer was famously known as Lokhitwadi?

a) Mahadev Govind Ranade

b) Akshay Kumar Dutt

c) Gopal Hari Deshmukh

d) Jyotiba Phule

Answer: C

Q16. The Sangam texts mention prominently the ports of

1. Musiri

2. Tondi

3. Korkai

4. Podouke (Arikamedu)

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 2, 4

b) 1, 3

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q17. He was a follower of Jainism in the early part of his career and converted to Saivism later. He is hailed as ‘Vichitra chitta’ who constructed a temple for Brahma, Vishnu and Siva without the use of bricks, timber, metal and mortar. Who is the ruler?

a) Rajaraja Chola 1

b) Kadambas of Banavasi

c) Harihara 1

d) Mahendravarman I

Answer: d

Q18. Why did Buddhism start declining in India in the early medieval times?

1. Vaishnavism, Shaivism and other Hindu traditions became increasingly popular, and

Brahmins developed a new relationship with the state

2. The Kings of Gupta dynasty were strongly opposed to Buddhism.

Select the correct code:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: a

Q19. Consider the following statements.

1. Most of the Ashoka’s inscriptions were in Pali language.

2. Arikamedu is a coastal settlement known for it being a site for unloading goods from distant lands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q20. Consider the following statements about Chalukyas

1. The Chalukya administration was highly decentralized.

2. They developed the Dravidian style in the building of structural temples.

3. Their cave temples are found in Ajanta, Ellora and Nasik.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 3 only

c) 1, 3

d) 2 only

Answer: a

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UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 3

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Practice Mock Test – 3

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. Jaimini Brahmana speaks collectively on dance only.

2. In Hindustani music, Dhrupad is the pure music without distraction of words.

3. There was no evidence of musical instruments found at the sites of Indus valley civilization.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 2 only

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2

Answer: b

Q2. Consider the following with reference to Central Indian paintings.

1. They take inspiration from Puranas and Indian folk-lore.

2. Vaishnavism, Saivism and Sakti exercised tremendous influence on these paintings.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: c

Q3. Consider the following statements with reference to Sangam Literature

1. Sangam literature dealt both with personal lives such as love and relationships as well as ethics, heroism, values and social customs.

2. Only men were allowed to compose Sangam literature.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q4. Consider the following statements

1. According to this philosophy, Vedas are eternal and possess all knowledge.

2. Religion means the fulfilment of duties prescribed by the Vedas.

3. This philosophy encompasses the Nyaya-Vaisheshika systems and emphasizes the concept of valid knowledge.

The above statements are related to?

a) Mimamsa School

b) Vedanta School

c) Yoga School

d) Samkhya School

Answer: a

Q5. Consider the following about Kalighat paintings which originated in Bengal.

1. The school produced paintings that were irreproducible by lithography.

2. The school restricted itself to the depiction of natural, nationalistic and secular themes.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Answer: d

Q6. Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?

1. Arasavalli

2. Amarakantak

3. Omkareshwar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a

Q7. With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements regarding Samkhya School.

1. Samkhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.

2. Samkhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Explaination: The Samkhya School denies the existence of God. However, rebirth and transmigration of soul are inherent in the Samkhya School.  Liberation results from the disappearance of the limitations of self-awareness.

Q8. With reference to Giddha, Ghoomar and Garba, consider the following statements:

1. All three dances are primarily performed by women only

2. All three are folk dances

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q9. Which of the following are correctly matched?

Reform movement: Region of influence

1. Sri Narayana Dharma Paripalana Sabha: Karnataka

2. Sarin Sabha: Punjab

3. Paramhansa Mandali: Madhya Pradesh

4. Kayastha Sabha: Uttar Pradesh

Select from the codes below

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: b

Q10. Which of these is NOT one of the eight components of Yoga as described by Patanjali?

a) Yamas

b) Niyama

c) Asana

d) Mulahara

Answer: d

Q11. MANIYARO a variety of folk dance is of which state?

a) Assam

b) Andhra Pradesh

c) Gujarat

d) Manipur

Answer: c

Q12. Consider the following statements about National School of Drama.

1. It was set up by the Sangeet Natak Akademi as one of its constituent units in 1959.

2. It is fully financed by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.

3. The School has two performing wings – the Repertory Company and Theatre-in- Education Company.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q13. Consider the following pairs:

Classical Dance Feature

1. Bharatanatyam Fire Dance

2. Kuchipudi Lasya and Tandava elements

3. Odissi Mobile Sculpture

4. Mohiniattam Tandava aspect is dominant

Which of the above is correctly matched?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 2, 3

c) 1, 2, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q14. Which of the following temples have ‘Nagara Style of Architecture’?

1. Sun Temple at Konark

2. Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar

3. Vishwanath Temple at Khajuraho

4. Doddabasappa temple at Dambal

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Q15. Consider the following pairs.

     Temple                                          Country

1. Prambanan Temple                      Indonesia

2. Angkoar Vat                                   Cambodia

3. Pashupatinath Temple                 Sri Lanka

4. Munneswaram Temple                Nepal

Which of the above are correctly matched?

a) 1, 3

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Explaination:

Pashupatinath Temple – Nepal

Munneswaram Temple – Sri Lanka

Q16. The prominent construction works undertaken during Akbar’s reign are:

1. Agra Fort

2. Ibadat Khana

3. Buland Darwaza

Select the correct code:

a) 2 only

b) 1, 2

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q17. Consider the following statements about Kalbelia.

1. Folk dance performed by the women of the Kalbelia community of Gujarat.

2. ‘Been’ is the popular musical instrument of this dance form.

3. The UNESCO has inscribed Kalbelia folk songs and dances in the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Explaination:

Kalbelia is a sensuous folk dance performed by the women of the Kalbelia community of Rajasthan. The costumes and dance movement are similar to that of the serpents. ‘Been’ (wind instrument played by snake charmers) is the popular musical instrument of this dance form.

The UNESCO has inscribed Kalbelia folk songs and dances in the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2010.

Q18. With reference to Giddha, Gangore and Jhumar, consider the following statements:

1. All three dances are primarily performed by women only

2. All three are folk dances

Select the correct code:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q19. Which of the following is the earliest treatise on mathematics?

a) Aryabhattiya

b) Brahmasputa Siddhantika

c) Siddhanta Shiromani

d) Sulvasutra

Answer: d

Q20. Consider the following statements.

1. This Veda is also known as Brahma Veda

2. It is mostly concerned with peace and prosperity of the human society

3. It focuses on treatment of several ailments

The above statements refer to

a) Rig Veda

b) Sama Veda

c) Atharva Veda

d) Yajur Veda

Answer: c

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UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

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Practice Set – 1

Q1. With reference to Right to Constitutional Remedies guaranteed under Article 32, consider the following statements:

1. The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the constitution.

2. Fundamental rights and other statutory rights can be enforced under Article 32.

3. The Supreme Court has both executive and original jurisdiction in case of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

4. Article 32 cannot be invoked to determine the constitutionality of an executive order or legislation unless it directly infringes on any Fundamental Rights.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 and 4

b) 2 and 3

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: b)

Q2. Which of the statements about State Human Rights Commission is correct?

a) State Human Rights Commission is a constitutional body

b) If any case is already being inquired by the National Human Rights Commission then the State Human Rights Commission does not inquire into that case, whereas if the case is being inquired by any other statutory commission then the State Human Rights Commission can inquire into that case.

c) To review the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the protection of human rights.

d) The chairperson and members of State Human Rights Commission are appointed by the President.

Answer: c)

Q3. Consider the following about Secretary of the panchayat

1. Secretary of the panchayat is elected by the Gram Panchayat from amongst its members.

2. Secretary of the panchayat is responsible for calling the meeting of the Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat and keeping a record of the proceedings.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Answer: b)

Explaination:

Gram panchayat has a Secretary who is also the secretary of the Gram Sabah. This person is not an elected person but is appointed by the state government, to oversee panchayat activities. He is responsible for calling the meetings of the Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat and keeps a record of the proceedings.

Q4. Which of the following are the compulsory provisions of the 73rd Constitutional amendment act?

1. Reservation of one-third seats for women in panchayats at all the three levels.

2. Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-government.

3. Granting financial powers to the panchayats to levy collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.

4. Fixing tenure of 5 years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six months in the event of suppression of any panchayat.

a) 1 and 2

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 1 and 4

Answer: d

Q5. A parliamentary committee means a committee that:

1. Is appointed or elected by the House

2. Works under the direction of the Speaker / Chairman

3. Presents its report to the President

4. It has a secretariat provided by the Cabinet secretary

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: a

Explaination:

A parliamentary committee means a committee that:

1. Is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker / Chairman1

2. Works under the direction of the Speaker / Chairman

3. Presents its report to the House or to the Speaker / Chairman

4. It has a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha

Q6. Which of the following is/are not the federal features of the Indian Constitution?

1. The Constitution is written and not easily amendable.

2. Equal representation of all states in Rajya Sabha

3. State governments derive authority from the Centre.

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b)

Explaination:

The division of powers established by the Constitution as well as the supremacy of the Constitution can be maintained only if the method of its amendment is rigid. Hence, the Constitution is rigid to the extent that those provisions which are concerned with the federal structure. State governments derive their authority from the constitution, not the Centre.

The states are given representation in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the membership varies from 1 to 31.

Q7. Consider the following about National Human Rights Commission.

1. It is a constitutional authority.

2. The Commission is independent of the government.

3. There is no fee to approach the NHRC.

4. Its recommendations are binding on the courts but not government.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 4

b) 1, 2, 4

c) 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: c)

Explaination:

The commission has been established by law as autonomous of the government, and not by the constitution.

The NHRC cannot by itself punish the guilty. That is the responsibility of courts. The NHRC is there to make independent and credible inquiry into any case of violation of human rights.

Thus, its recommendations are not binding on neither the courts not the government. Any citizen of India can write a letter to the NHRC to complain against the violation of human rights. There is no fee or any formal procedure to approach the NHRC.

Q8. “It shall be the endeavour of every state and every local authority within the state to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.” This is a

1. Forms part of Fundamental rights under Part III of the Constitution

2. Provision made under an Act of Parliament

3. Justiciable in courts if not implemented by the Government of India

Select the correct code:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) None

Answer: d)

Q9. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the

a) Contingency Fund of India

b) Consolidated Fund of India

c) Consolidated Fund of the State

d) Contingency Fund of the State

Answer: c)

Explaination:

The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the HC are charged to the Consolidated Fund of the state but their pensions are payable as Charged Expenditure /Art 112(3).

Q10. Which of these constitutional bodies are functionally autonomous from the government?

1. State Public Service Commissions

2. Election Commission of India

3. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q11. Under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution, which of the following comes under the definition of State?

1. Government and Parliament of India

2. ONGC and any private agency working for Aadhaar registration

3. District boards and improvement trusts

Select the correct code:

a) 1only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

Answer: d

Explaination:

The term ‘State’ has been used in different provisions concerning the fundamental rights.

Hence, Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State includes the following:

(a) Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union government.

(b) Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state government.

(c) All local authorities that is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.

(d) All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc. According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the ‘State ‘under Article 12.

Q12. With reference to the procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368, consider the following statements.

1. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only in either House of Parliament.

2. The bill can be introduced only by a minister and not by a private member.

3. Prior permission of the president is not required for the introduction of the bill.

4. The ratification by the state legislature is not required.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 3

b) 2, 4

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Explaination:

The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution is laid down in Article 368:

1. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.

2. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.

3. The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.

4. Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.

5. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.

6. After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.

7. The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.

8. After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act.

Q13. Which of the following comes outside the scope of Article 368?

1. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.

2. Rules of procedure in Parliament.

3. Supreme Court and high courts.

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 3

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 2

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Explaination:

A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These include: Elections to Parliament and state legislatures and Rules of procedure in Parliament.

The provisions related to Supreme Court and high courts can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.

Q14. Consider the following statements about State Legislature.

1. The Constitution does not provide for the abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.

2. The governor can nominate two members from the Anglo-Indian community, if the community is not adequately represented in the assembly.

3. The actual strength of a council is fixed by the governor.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Explaination:

The Constitution provides for the abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.

Accordingly, the Parliament can abolish a legislative council (where it already exists) or create it (where it does not exist), if the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect.

The governor can nominate one member from the Anglo-Indian community, if the community is not adequately represented in the assembly.

Though the Constitution has fixed the maximum and the minimum limits, the actual strength of a Council is fixed by Parliament.

Q15. Special provisions for marginalized classes in the constitution are related to

1. Educational Grants

2. Appointment of Commissions to investigate their socio-economic condition

3. Reservation in Legislatures and local bodies

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Explaination:

The Constitution makes special provisions for the scheduled castes (SCs), the scheduled tribes (STs), the backward classes (BCs) and the Anglo-Indians. These special provisions are contained in Part XVI of the Constitution from Articles 330 to 342. They are related to the following:

1. Reservation in Legislatures

2. Special Representation in Legislatures

3. Reservation in Services and Posts

4. Educational Grants

5. Appointment of National Commissions

6. Appointment of Commissions of Investigation

Q16. The value of secularism can be found in which of the following parts of the constitution?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy

2. Fundamental Duties

3. Preamble

4. Fundamental Rights

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 3, 4

c) 2, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: d

Q17. Which of the following is the competent authority to change the name of any State of India?

a) Governor of the State

b) Concerned State Legislature

c) Union Home Minister

d) Parliament

Answer: d

Explaination:

The Constitution authorizes the Parliament to form new states or alter the areas, boundaries or names of the existing states without their consent.

Q18. A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:

1. Quorum in Parliament.

2. Rules of procedure in Parliament

3. Election of the President and its manner

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2 only

c) 1, 3

d) None

Answer: a

Q19. If the Union Parliament wishes to move a matter from Concurrent List to the Union List, which of these follows?

a) The Rajya Sabha must initiate a constitutional amendment bill.

b) The President must consult the Governors of a majority of States and act according to their advice.

c) The Cabinet must pass an executive fiat to this effect.

d) It must obtain the consent of all State Legislatures for the same.

Answer: a

Explaination:

Moving a matter from the Concurrent List to Union List needs an amendment to the constitution

Q20. Which of the following were the suggestions made by Swaran Singh Committee to be included as Fundamental Duties?

1. Duty to pay taxes

2. Family Planning

3. Casting vote

Select from the codes below

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above

Answer: a

Q21. Consider the following statements about Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions

1. The committee classifies bills and allocates time for discussion on bills and resolutions introduced by private members.

2. This is a special committee of the Lok sabha only.

3. In Lok sabha it is chaired by the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Explaination:

This committee classifies bills and allocates time for the discussion on bills and resolutions introduced by private members (other than ministers). This is a special committee of the Lok Sabha and consists of 15 members including the Deputy Speaker as its chairman. The Rajya Sabha does not have any such committee. The same function in the Rajya Sabha is performed by the Business Advisory Committee of that House.

Q22. Consider the following statements about Motion of Thanks.

1. It is addressed by the Leader of the House.

2. The motion is put to vote in both the houses of the parliament.

3. It is addressed at the beginning of every new session of the Parliament.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q23. When a MP has voted against his political party in the Parliament, which among the following authorities will decide on his disqualification pertaining to anti defection law?

a) Parliamentary Committee on Anti defection

b) President of India

c) Election Commission of India

d) Presiding Officer of that House of the Parliament

Answer: d

Explaination:

Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the House.

Q24. Which of these is/are Constitutional bodies?

1. Central Vigilance Commission

2. National Commission for STs

3. National Human Rights Commission

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2 only

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Explaination:

The Constitutional Bodies include:

  • Election Commission
  • Union Public Service Commission
  • State Public Service Commission
  • Finance Commission
  • National Commission for SCs
  • National Commission for STs
  • Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
  • Comptroller and Auditor General of India
  • Attorney General of India
  • Advocate General of the State

Q25. The Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution deal with the oath or affirmations for:

1. Members of Parliament

2. Members of State Legislative Council

3. The Judges of High Courts

4. Attorney General of India

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Explaination:

Third Schedule: Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for-

1. The Union ministers

2. The candidates for election to the Parliament

3. The members of Parliament

4. The judges of the Supreme Court

5. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

6. The state ministers

7. The candidates for election to the state legislature

8. The members of the state legislature

9. The judges of the High Courts

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UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 27

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

1. Consider the following statements regarding PM Rozgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY):

1) PMRPY is a scheme to incentivise employers registered with the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) for job creation by the Government paying the full contribution of employers to the Employee Pension Scheme (EPS) and Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF) .

2) The PMRPY Scheme is targeted for employees earning wages more than Rs 15,000/- per month. Thus, new employees earning wages less than Rs 15,000/- per month will not be eligible.

3) All establishment availing benefits under PMRPY scheme should be registered with EPFO under EPF Act 1952 and have a valid LIN.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of recent places in news and the corresponding country:

1) Khyber Pakhtunkhwa: Afganishtan

2) Baramchal: Bangladesh

3) Oyigbo: Nigeria

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

3. Consider the following statements:

1) Antibiotic-resistant infections are a threat to global public health, food safety and an economic burden.

2) Plant-based foods can transmit antibiotic resistance to the microbes living in our gut.

3) Spread of antibiotic-resistant superbugs from plants to humans is similar to outbreaks of diarrheal illnesses caused immediately after eating contaminated vegetables

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding ‘side pocketing’ in market economy stands true?

1) Side pocketing is a framework that allows mutual funds to segregate the bad assets in a separate portfolio within their debt schemes.

2) As per the rule, if a debt instrument is downgraded to default rating by credit rating agencies, then the fund house has the option to create a side pocket so that good assets can be ring fenced.

3) Market regulator SEBI has said that side pocket should not be looked upon as a sign of encouraging undue credit risks as any misuse of the option would be considered serious and stringent action can be taken.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. When the CJI writes to the President and the PM for removal of a High Court judge, which of the following offices/persons appoints a three-judge inquiry committee in consultation with the CJI to look into the allegations?

a) President

b) Prime minister

c) Rajya Sabha chairman

d) Lok Sabha chairman

Answer:

1(c)

2(b)

3(a)

4(d)

5(c)

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UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 25

Q1. An MoU was signed between Dr.Ambedkar International Centre (DAIC), Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and Dalit Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industry (DICCI) to empower SC and ST Communities through research on Dalit Entrepreneurship

Which of the following statements regarding the same are true?

1) DICCI brings together all Dalit entrepreneurs under one umbrella and acts as a one-stop Resource Centre for existing and aspiring Dalit entrepreneurs and promotes entrepreneurship among Dalits as a solution to their socio-economic problems.

2) DAIC through this collaboration will try to find out how far the SC and ST communities have engaged themselves in starting and establishing their own businesses.

3) The data will be used to identify the reason why the spirit of entrepreneurship has not been infused among Dalit youth to develop business leadership for empowering them to walk in step with the world.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of Himalayan Rivers and their corresponding tributaries:

1) Ganga: Tamsa

2) Brahmaputra: Tons

3) Yamuna: Tawa

4) Ravi: Saho

5) Satluj: Baspa

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 2 & 4 only

c) all of the above

d) 1, 4& 5 only

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding vaccinations:

1) Vaccines protect billions of people around the world. They have completely got rid of one disease – smallpox – and are bringing the world close to eliminating others, such as polio.

2) But some other diseases, such as measles, are making a resurgence and experts say people avoiding vaccines, fuelled by fear and misinformation, is one of the main causes.

3) As per surveys people in richer countries have a higher trust in vaccines.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements:

1) LTE (Long Term Evolution) is a standard for 3G wireless broadband technology that offers increased network capacity and speed to mobile device users.

2) LTE offers higher peak data transfer rates of up to 100 Mbps downstream and 30 Mbps upstream. It also provides reduced latency, scalable bandwidth capacity and backward-compatibility with existing GSM and UMTS technology.

Which of the above statements are not true ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 & 2

d) None

5. “Asian development outlook” is a publication released by which of the following institutions?

a) World Bank

b) Asian development Bank (ADB)

c) Asian infrastructure and investment bank (AIIB)

d) BRICS Bank

Answer:

1 – (d)

2- (d)

3- (a)

4- (a)

5- (b)

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UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

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UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 24

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 24

1. Consider the following statements:

1) The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has plans to stop funding coal-fired power plants except in selected countries where the bank considers the alternatives to be limited.

2) The ADB’s new energy policy is being reviewed in line with the Paris Agreement and the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals, and will be released by the end of 2020.

3) India has achieved the fastest growth in the Asia-Pacific economies comprised of 45 countries, according to the Asian Development Bank (ADB).

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of missile defence systems and their corresponding nations:

1) Arrow missile system: Israel

2) PAAMS: UK

3) A-135 anti ballistic missile: U.S

4) AWACS: Russia

5) AAD (Advanced air defence): India

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 3, 4 & 5 only

c) 1, 2 & 5 only

d) 2, 4 & 5 only

3. The Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister today released a detailed note titled GDP estimation in India- Perspectives and Facts.

Which of the following statements regarding the same are true?

1) The new methodology that uses 2011-12 as the base year includes two major improvements, a) Incorporation of MCA21 database, and b) Incorporation of the Recommendations of System of National Accounts (SNA), 2008.

2) This change was in line with other countries that have changed their methodologies in line with SNA 2008 and revised their respective GDP figures.

3) As of today India’s GDP estimation methodology is at par with its global standing as a responsible, transparent and well-managed economy.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding data usage in smartphones India as per the ‘Ericsson Mobility Report’ are true?

1) India has the highest average data usage per smartphone, reaching 9.8 GB per month at the end of 2018, according to a new study.

2) Increased numbers of LTE subscriptions, attractive data plans being offered by service providers, and young people’s changing video viewing habits have driven monthly usage growth.

3) LTE would remain the most dominant access technology in the region up to 2024, even as 5G subscriptions are expected to grow during this period.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Guthis are socio-economic institutions (trusts), both public and private, that fund their obligations from incomes from cultivated or leased land assets. Depending on their obligations, Guthis fulfil religious, public service or social roles and could either involve members from a common lineage, or several

Large scale protest against the controversial “Guthi Bill” has being taking place in which of the following countries recently?

a) Srilanka

b) Myanmar

c) Nepal

d) Bangladesh

Answer:

1 – (a) 2 – (c) 3 – (d) 4 – (d) 5 – (c)

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UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 23

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 23

1. Which of the following adaptations is/are found in desert animals?

  1. Long legs for avoiding excessive heat from sand
  2. Nocturnal in habit
  3. Aestivation during summer months

Select the correct answer code:

 a) 2 only

 b) 1, 2 and 3

 c) 1, 3

 d) 1, 2

Solution: b

2.  Which of the following Ramsar site is manmade?

 a) Deepor Beel

 b) Harike Wetland

 c) Bhoj Wetland

 d) Loktak Lake

Solution: c

3. Consider the following statements regarding Great Indian Bustard:

  1. Great Indian Bustard is considered the flagship grassland species, representing the health of the grassland ecology.
  2. It is one of the heaviest flying birds.
  3. In India, Gujarat is home to a greater number of Great Indian Bustard.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 1, 2

 c) 1, 3

 d) 2, 3

Solution: b

4.  Consider the following statements regarding Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).

  1. It is an International agreement between governments that is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  2. CITES is legally binding on state parties to the convention, which are obliged to adopt their own domestic legislation to implement its goals.
  3. CITES was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted at a meeting of members of IUCN.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1, 2

 b) 2, 3

 c) 1, 3

 d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: d

5.  Consider the following statements:

  1. It is located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River.
  2. It is the only stronghold of rhinoceros on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River.
  3. It is also known as ‘Mini Kaziranga National Park’.

The above statements refer to.

 a) Manas National Park

 b) Nameri National Park

 c) Orang National Park

 d) Dibru-Saikhowa National Park

Solution: c

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UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 21

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 21

1. Which of the following are the major Buddhist pilgrimage sites in India?

  1. Mahabodhi temple.
  2. Shravanabelagola
  3. Nagapattinam
  4. Sittannavasala Caves

Select the correct answer code:

 a) 1, 2, 3

 b) 1, 3

 c) 2, 3, 4

 d) 1, 3, 4

Solution: b

  • Sittannavasala Caves in Tamil Nadu and Shravanabelagola in Karnataka are Jain pilgrimage sites in India.

2. Which of the following are the features of Indo-Islamic architecture?

  1. Indo-Islamic architecture used human and animal figures.
  2. The architecture of this period heavily used the principles of Geometry.
  3. An important feature of the architecture during this period was the use of water in the premises of the constructions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1, 2

 b) 1, 3

 c) 2, 3

 d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: c

3. Which of the following are the features of trabeate style of architecture?

  1. Minars were present on the four corners of the mosques.
  2. Stone was the primary component of all constructions.

Select the correct answer code:

 a) 1 only

 b) 2 only

 c) Both

 d) None

Solution: b

4. Consider the following statements:

  1. The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from Chandogya Upanishad
  2. The Words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ were originally inscribed on the Lion Capital of Ashoka around 250 BCE.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 2 only

 c) Both

 d) None

Solution: d

5.  With reference to the ‘Sugam Sangeet’, consider the following statements

  1. It is the genre of devotional music, which brings classical and folk together.
  2. Bhajan, Shabad and Qawwali are different forms of Sugam Sangeet.
  3. Tevaram is sung in the praise of Lord Vishnu.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 1, 2

 c) 3 only

 d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: b

  • Tevaram denotes the first seven volumes of the Tirumurai, the twelve-volume collection of Lord Shiva devotional poetry.

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 17

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 17

1. Consider the following statements regarding the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI):

1) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) is the national professional accounting body of India. It was established as a statutory body under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 enacted by the Parliament.

2) It recommends the accounting standards to be followed by companies in India to National Advisory Committee on Accounting Standards (NACAS) and sets the accounting standards to be followed by other types of organisations.

3) It works closely with the Government of India, Reserve Bank of India and the Securities and Exchange Board of India in formulating and enforcing such standards.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following palaces/forts in India and their corresponding locations:

1) Victoria memorial: Mumbai

2) Neermahal Palace: Tripura

3) Fort.St.george: Kolkata

4) Kumbhalgarh Fort: Rajsamand

5) Lalgarh palace: Bikaner

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 2, 4 & 5 only

c) 1, 3 & 5 only

d) all of the above

3. Scientists have created high-resolution maps of points around the globe where groundwater meets the oceans, which of the following statements regarding the study are true?

1) The study found that in some parts of the world, groundwater could be polluting oceans and lakes with nutrients and other chemicals.

2) Groundwater can carry higher concentrations of nitrates a key contributor of the types of harmful algal blooms as well as high concentrations of mercury.

3) Most of the water that gets to lakes and oceans comes from ground water sources carrying minerals and, in some cases, pollutants, to surface bodies of water.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) All the of above

4. Which of the following statements regarding the recently published UNICEF report on child marriage are true?

1) The study reveals that child marriage among boys is prevalent across a range of countries around the world, spanning sub-Saharan Africa, Latin America and the Caribbean, South Asia, and East Asia and the Pacific.

2) According to the data, the India has the highest prevalence of child marriage among males (28%), followed by Nicaragua (19%) and Madagascar (13%).

3) Early marriage brings early fatherhood, and with it added pressure to provide for a family, cutting short education and job opportunities.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Which of the following countries of the Indian subcontinent recently passed a law legalizing homosexuality?

a) Srilanka

b) Nepal

c) Bhutan

d) Myanmar

Answer:

1(d), 2(b), 3(a), 4(c), 5(c)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 16

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 16

1. Consider the following statements regarding food safety:

1) An estimated 600 million cases of foodborne diseases occur annually worldwide.

2) Unsafe food is a threat to human health and economies, disproportionately affecting vulnerable and marginalized people, especially women and children, populations affected by conflict and migrants.

3) World Food Safety Day adopted by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations is aimed at imposing non tariff barriers to protect local foods/agri products.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of space missions and their respective countries/space agencies:

1) Sputnik -1: Russia

2) Long March -1: China

3) Giotto: European space agency

4) Explorer 1: Japan

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 4 only

c) 2 & 3 only

d) 1 & 4 only

3. Which of the following statements air quality and BS emission standards are true?

1) India is among those nine countries where the forest cover has increased by one percent.

2) Vehicular pollution which is 28 to 30 per cent of air pollution is expected to be reduced drastically after implementation of Bharat Stage (BS)-6 emission norms from next year.

3) However in 2014 in the National Capital the number of poor air quality days was 300 and it increased to 326 days in 2018.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding RBI’s regulation of leverage ratio in the banking sector stands true?

1) The leverage ratio was introduced for banks post the financial crisis of 2008, as one of the underlying features of the crisis was the build-up of excessive on- and off-balance sheet leverage in the banking system.

2) The central bank has mandated leverage ratio of 3.5% for all the banks except for the domestic systemically important banks (D-SIBs), which will have a 4% ratio.

3) The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to bring leverage ratio for banks is in line with Basel-III standards.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Which of the following countries recently organised the “Gandhi cycle rally for peace” to mark the 150th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi?

a) India

b) China

c) Saudi Arabia

d) Australia

Answer:

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 14

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 14

1. Consider the following statements with respect to the micro finance sector in India?

1) The Indian microfinance sector is expected to register a more than 30% year-on-year growth to Rs. 90,000 crore in 2018-19.

2) Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), cooperative societies and other large lenders have played an important role in providing refinance facility to MFIs.

3) The RBI formed Malegam committee aimed to address the primary customer complaints that led to the crisis, including coercive collection practices, usurious interest rates, and selling practices that resulted in over-indebtedness.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q2. Consider the following pairs of mineral resources in India and their corresponding locations:

1) Uranium, Mica: Karnataka

2) Limestone, Mica: Rajasthan

3) Bauxite, Manganese: Andhra Pradesh

4) Chromite, coal : Tamilnadu

5) Iron ore and clay: Goa

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2& 3 only

b) 1, 3 & 5 only

c) 2 & 5 only

d) 1 & 4 only

Q3. With respect to the recently released gender equality index report, which of the following statements are true ?

1) The index, covering 14 of the 17 SDGs, measures countries on 51 issues ranging from health, gender-based violence, climate change, decent work and others.

2) The overall index score and individual goal scores are based on a scale of 0-100. A score of zero reflects the achievement of gender equality in relation to the targets set for each indicator.

3) India ranks 95 out of 129 countries, below countries such as Ghana, Rwanda and Bhutan in the new gender equality index.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM):

1) GDM is defined as glucose intolerance with onset or first recognition during pregnancy, GDM simply represents relatively high glucose levels at one point in the life of a young woman.

2) Higher glucose transfer to the foetus, when the mother has high blood sugar, stimulates the foetal pancreatic cells to start secreting insulin earlier and in higher quantities.

3) It has become imperative that every pregnant woman be screened for high blood glucose even if no symptoms are exhibited in order to avoid GDM.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q5. Which of the following countries have launched the first arctic train named Zarengold which will travel from Saint Petersburg through Petrozavodsk, the historic town of Kem and Murmansk?

a) Germany

b) Russia

c) Norway

d) Denmark

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 11

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 11

1. Which of the following statements regarding article 370 of Indian constitution are correct?

1) Article 370 in the part XXI of the constitution of India provides a special status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir and other tribal states of India.

2) Laws on Union and concurrent list will be made by centre only with the consent of state of J&K.

3) Dr BR Ambedkar who was the chairman of the drafting committee of the constitution assembly was against the incorporation of article 370 in the constitution.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Which of the following are used as gene editing tools in biotechnology?

1) CRISPR-Cas9

2) TALENs

3) transposons

4) rAAV

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) all of the above

d) 2 & 4 only

3. Which of the following statements regarding the newly approved Agriculture Export Policy are true?

1) It is aimed at increasing India’s exports to $100 billion by 2032 from the current $37 billion.

2) The policy also aims to promote the export of novel, indigenous, organic, ethnic, traditional and non-traditional products.

3) The Mission target the establishment of 15 Technology Innovation Hubs (TIH), six Application Innovation Hubs (AIH) and four Technology Translation Research Parks (TTRP) also.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Consider the following statements:

1) Rice blast, caused by a fungus Magnaportheoryzae, is one of the major diseases of the rice crop.

2) Fungicides are very expensive, harmful for the environment and inappropriate application can cause health issues.

3) The rapid changes in pathogen virulence pose a constant challenge to the success of existing blast-resistant rice varieties.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Which of the following African countries recently banned the importation, production, sale and use of plastic bags in its territory?

a) Zimbabwe

b) Tanzania

c) Nigeria

d) Zambia

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 1

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 1

1. Consider the following statements:

  1. Brahmanism emphasizes on the rites performed by, and the status of priestly class
  2. Brahmanism emerged from Vedanta principles

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 Only

 b) 2 Only

 c) Both 1 and 2

 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

2. Pratyakṣa (perception), Anumāna (inference) and śabda (Āptavacana, word/testimony of reliable sources) are accepted as the only reliable means of gaining knowledge in which of the following schools of the Hindu philosophy?

 a) Yoga

 b) Samkhya

 c) Nyaya

 d) Both b and c

Solution: d

3. which of the following schools of thought maintained that though events (dharmas) have only momentary existence, there is a transmigrating substratum of consciousness that contains within it seeds of goodness that are in every person?

 a) Sautrantika

 b) Sammitiya

 c) Vaisheshika

 d) None of the above

Solution: a

4. The major form of Buddhism practised in Tibet, China, Korea, and Japan is

 a) Theravada

 b) Vajrayana

 c) Mahayana

 d) Hinayana

Solution: c

5. With reference to Avalokitesvara, consider the following statements:

  1. Avalokitesvara is a divine and compassionate depiction of Jina in certain parts of coastal Karnataka
  2. Avalokitesvara is the earthly manifestation of the self-born eternal Amitabha (another name for Bahubali)

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 Only

 b) 2 Only

 c) Both 1 and 2

 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Raus IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test Series

Raus IAS Prelims 2020 Test 6

Raus IAS Prelims 2020 Test 5

Raus IAS Prelims 2020 Test 4

Raus IAS Prelims 2020 Test 3

Raus IAS Prelims 2020 Test 2

Raus IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1

Some other important links

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam Solved Test 1-15 GS Paper-I

India Yearbook Question Bank: UPSC CSE Prelims Exam 2020

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Practice Test 1-12

Indian History Question Bank

Indian Geography Question Bank

Indian Polity Topic Wise Question Bank

Science & Technology Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20

APPSC Andhra Pradesh Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20

Haryana Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20 Updated

2000 MCQ: IAS Preliminary exam 2020

Indian Geography-NCERT MCQ Compilation Class 6-12th

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test -10

Geography & Environment Current issues yearbook 2019

Indian Polity and Governance Yearbook 2019-20

UPSC IAS Prelims Previous Year Solved Paper 2010-19

UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Practice Test 9

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-4 Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-3 Complete Study Notes

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-2 Complete Study Notes

UPSC IAS Main exam GS Paper-1 Complete study notes

Art & Culture of India

Indian History Complete Study Notes

Indian Polity for Civil Services Examination

Physical Economic and Human Geography of India

Art Culture & Heritage of Rajasthan

Economy of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Geography of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

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Forum IAS UPSC Prelims 2020 Test 3 With Solutions PDF

Forum IAS UPSC Prelims 2020 Test 2 With Solutions PDF

Forum IAS UPSC Prelims 2020 Test 1 With Solutions PDF

Some other important links

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam Solved Test 1-15 GS Paper-I

India Yearbook Question Bank: UPSC CSE Prelims Exam 2020

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Practice Test 1-12

Indian History Question Bank

Indian Geography Question Bank

Indian Polity Topic Wise Question Bank

Science & Technology Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20

APPSC Andhra Pradesh Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20

Haryana Current Affairs Yearbook 2019-20 Updated

2000 MCQ: IAS Preliminary exam 2020

Indian Geography-NCERT MCQ Compilation Class 6-12th

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test -10

Geography & Environment Current issues yearbook 2019

Indian Polity and Governance Yearbook 2019-20

UPSC IAS Prelims Previous Year Solved Paper 2010-19

UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Practice Test 9

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-4 Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-3 Complete Study Notes

UPSC IAS Main Exam GS Paper-2 Complete Study Notes

UPSC IAS Main exam GS Paper-1 Complete study notes

Art & Culture of India

Indian History Complete Study Notes

Indian Polity for Civil Services Examination

Physical Economic and Human Geography of India

Art Culture & Heritage of Rajasthan

Economy of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

Geography of Rajasthan Complete Study Notes with Practice MCQ

UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Weekly Test-2

(Join) Test Series: UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020

  • This is a one year test series package for aspiring to become an IAS, IFS, IPS and other services under central government.
  • Under this test series programme, you will be provided 100 objective questions of latest standard for UPSC Civil Services Examination for General Studies Paper-I.
  • General Study Prelims questions with detailed explanation will be sent to your e-mail in PDF format (weekly).
  • These 100 questions for preliminary examination will comprise from all sections of the General Studies -I paper (NCERT (6-12th), Current Affairs, Indian History, Geography, Indian polity, Economy, Art and Culture, Environment and Ecology, Government Schemes and Programmes, Science and Technology etc.)
  • Questions of the test series have been prepared from standard study materials such as The Hindu, NCERT, Standard Books, PIB, Annual Reports of the Government of India, Down to Earth etc.
  • You will also get our monthly current affairs study magazine free.
  • Objective questions will be based on the latest trends of the Civil Services Preliminary Examination conducted by the UPSC.
  • At the end of the programme you will be provided 10-Full length test covered whole syllabus, so that you can evaluate your complete preparation. 
  • A small investment from your side can have significant impact on your result. With this timetable you don’t have to plan by yourself and can save hundreds of hours. Completion of syllabus is a must to succeed in this exam. Our test series will help you here very much.
  • Don’t think about pricing too much. If you think you have paid or paying good amount, extract maximum from the test series. Do justice to the price you have paid. From our end, we will do justice to the price you have paid.
  • First Test (100 Solved MCQ) will be start from July 01, 2019. if you joined late, then we will provide the PDF you have missed.

Total Fee: Rs. 2400/-

Payment Method:Click Here-easebuzz
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You can also pay through paytm/phonepe on +919610830576

UPSC-IAS-Preliminary-Examination-Test-Series-2020-Test-2 -Download

UPSC Prelims Last 10 Years Solved Questions GS Paper-I

UPSC IAS Preliminary Exam: General Studies Paper-I. we are providing here detailed Previous Year Solved Papers (2010-2019) to understand how and why UPSC framed questions in prelims exam. These will definitely help you to boost your confidence and score in real exams.

Test Series: UPSC IAS Preliminary Exam 2020-Join Here

Why solving previous year UPSC question papers are very important?

Practice makes a man perfect; it is true that a student with proper practice can excel in any kind of examination. Practicing previous year question papers is very important for preparation, as these papers are the most reliable and dependable source of information for aspirants appearing for prelims examination. A student should never neglect the importance of previous year question papers, sample papers as a practice.

How old IAS question papers help students?

Solving question papers offer the students an elaborate understanding about their skills, like self-evaluation about their speed and time management. Students understand and learn the lesser things which might be the odds in a civil service examination. By solving these papers, students also realize the familiarity in sample papers. So, students can really understand what not to ignore and which is important to select.

Moreover, solving these papers also helps them in revision. It is always advisable to solve these papers when students have completely done with their preparations. In the end, students can evaluate their own performance and work on their shortcomings. They can notice that many of the questions are reshaped or rephrased in the exams. Students must read the questions carefully in the exam and can see how helpful it has been.

It is always better for the students to self-evaluate their performance and gauge their understanding of the concepts. So, students must go ahead and solve sample papers – previous year question papers if they really desire to succeed in the civil service both prelims and mains exam.

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Indian Economy: UPSC Prelims Previous Year Solved Questions

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination Practice Solved Papers: We are providing here the Previous year solved questions of Indian Economy have been asked in Indian Administrative Services Preliminary exam, General Studies Paper-I. These Questions will help to understand the pattern and type of questions asked by UPSC. By Practice these MCQ, it will also help to boost both your preparation and score in actual exam.

Test Series: UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020

Join our Telegram Channel for Regular updates

  • This is a one year test series package for aspiring to become an IAS, IFS, IPS and other services under central government.
  • Under this test series programme, you will be provided 100 objective questions of latest standard for UPSC Civil Services Examination for General Studies Paper-I.
  • General Study Prelims questions with detailed explanation will be sent to your e-mail in PDF format (weekly).
  • These 100 questions for preliminary examination will comprise from all sections of the General Studies -I paper (NCERT (6-12th), Current Affairs, Indian History, Geography, Indian polity, Economy, Art and Culture, Environment and Ecology, Government Schemes and Programmes, Science and Technology etc.)
  • Questions of the test series have been prepared from standard study materials such as The Hindu, NCERT, Standard Books, PIB, Annual Reports of the Government of India, Down to Earth etc.
  • You will also get our monthly current affairs study magazine free.
  • Objective questions will be based on the latest trends of the Civil Services Preliminary Examination conducted by the UPSC.
  • At the end of the programme you will be provided 10-Full length test covered whole syllabus, so that you can evaluate your complete preparation. 
  • A small investment from your side can have significant impact on your result. With this timetable you don’t have to plan by yourself and can save hundreds of hours. Completion of syllabus is a must to succeed in this exam. Our test series will help you here very much.
  • Don’t think about pricing too much. If you think you have paid or paying good amount, extract maximum from the test series. Do justice to the price you have paid. From our end, we will do justice to the price you have paid.
  • First Test (100 Solved MCQ) will be start from July 01, 2019. if you joined late, then we will provide the PDF you have missed.

Total Fee: Rs. 2400/-

Payment Method:Click Here

You can also pay through paytm/phonepe on +919610830576

Previous Years Questions – Indian Economy

Indian History Previous Year UPSC Prelims Question Bank

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination Practice Solved Papers: We are providing here the Previous year solved questions of History of India have been asked in Indian Administrative Services Preliminary exam, General Studies Paper-I. These Questions will help to understand the pattern and type of questions asked by UPSC. By Practice these MCQ, it will also help to boost both your preparation and score in actual exam.

Test Series: UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020

Join our Telegram Channel for Regular updates

  • This is a one year test series package for aspiring to become an IAS, IFS, IPS and other services under central government.
  • Under this test series programme, you will be provided 100 objective questions of latest standard for UPSC Civil Services Examination for General Studies Paper-I.
  • General Study Prelims questions with detailed explanation will be sent to your e-mail in PDF format (weekly).
  • These 100 questions for preliminary examination will comprise from all sections of the General Studies -I paper (NCERT (6-12th), Current Affairs, Indian History, Geography, Indian polity, Economy, Art and Culture, Environment and Ecology, Government Schemes and Programmes, Science and Technology etc.)
  • Questions of the test series have been prepared from standard study materials such as The Hindu, NCERT, Standard Books, PIB, Annual Reports of the Government of India, Down to Earth etc.
  • You will also get our monthly current affairs study magazine free.
  • Objective questions will be based on the latest trends of the Civil Services Preliminary Examination conducted by the UPSC.
  • At the end of the programme you will be provided 10-Full length test covered whole syllabus, so that you can evaluate your complete preparation. 
  • A small investment from your side can have significant impact on your result. With this timetable you don’t have to plan by yourself and can save hundreds of hours. Completion of syllabus is a must to succeed in this exam. Our test series will help you here very much.
  • Don’t think about pricing too much. If you think you have paid or paying good amount, extract maximum from the test series. Do justice to the price you have paid. From our end, we will do justice to the price you have paid.
  • First Test (100 Solved MCQ) will be start from July 01, 2019. if you joined late, then we will provide the PDF you have missed.

Total Fee: Rs. 2400/-

Payment Method:Click Here

You can also pay through paytm/phonepe on +919610830576

History Previous Year Questions UPSC Prelims Exam

Geography Solved Questions asked in UPSC IAS Prelims Previous Exams

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination Practice Solved Papers: We are providing here the Previous year solved questions of Geography have been asked in Indian Administrative Services Preliminary exam, General Studies Paper-I. These Questions will help to understand the pattern and type of questions asked by UPSC. By Practice these MCQ, it will also help to boost both your preparation and score in actual exam.

Test Series: UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020

  • This is a one year test series package for aspiring to become an IAS, IFS, IPS and other services under central government.
  • Under this test series programme, you will be provided 100 objective questions of latest standard for UPSC Civil Services Examination for General Studies Paper-I.
  • General Study Prelims questions with detailed explanation will be sent to your e-mail in PDF format (weekly).
  • These 100 questions for preliminary examination will comprise from all sections of the General Studies -I paper (NCERT (6-12th), Current Affairs, Indian History, Geography, Indian polity, Economy, Art and Culture, Environment and Ecology, Government Schemes and Programmes, Science and Technology etc.)
  • Questions of the test series have been prepared from standard study materials such as The Hindu, NCERT, Standard Books, PIB, Annual Reports of the Government of India, Down to Earth etc.
  • You will also get our monthly current affairs study magazine free.
  • Objective questions will be based on the latest trends of the Civil Services Preliminary Examination conducted by the UPSC.
  • At the end of the programme you will be provided 10-Full length test covered whole syllabus, so that you can evaluate your complete preparation. 
  • A small investment from your side can have significant impact on your result. With this timetable you don’t have to plan by yourself and can save hundreds of hours. Completion of syllabus is a must to succeed in this exam. Our test series will help you here very much.
  • Don’t think about pricing too much. If you think you have paid or paying good amount, extract maximum from the test series. Do justice to the price you have paid. From our end, we will do justice to the price you have paid.
  • First Test (100 Solved MCQ) will be start from July 01, 2019. if you joined late, then we will provide the PDF you have missed.

Total Fee: Rs. 2400/-

Payment Method:Click Here

You can also pay through paytm/phonepe on +919610830576

Geography Solved MCQ Previous Year

Test Series: UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020

UPSC IAS Preliminary Examination Test Series 2020 (Weekly)

  • This is a one year test series package for aspiring to become an IAS, IFS, IPS and other services under central government.
  • Under this test series programme, you will be provided 100 objective questions of latest standard for UPSC Civil Services Examination for General Studies Paper-I.
  • General Study Prelims questions with detailed explanation will be sent to your e-mail in PDF format (weekly).
  • These 100 questions for preliminary examination will comprise from all sections of the General Studies -I paper (NCERT (6-12th), Current Affairs, Indian History, Geography, Indian polity, Economy, Art and Culture, Environment and Ecology, Government Schemes and Programmes, Science and Technology etc.)
  • Questions of the test series have been prepared from standard study materials such as The Hindu, NCERT, Standard Books, PIB, Annual Reports of the Government of India, Down to Earth etc.
  • You will also get our monthly current affairs study magazine free.
  • Objective questions will be based on the latest trends of the Civil Services Preliminary Examination conducted by the UPSC.
  • At the end of the programme you will be provided 10-Full length test covered whole syllabus, so that you can evaluate your complete preparation. 
  • A small investment from your side can have significant impact on your result. With this timetable you don’t have to plan by yourself and can save hundreds of hours. Completion of syllabus is a must to succeed in this exam. Our test series will help you here very much.
  • Don’t think about pricing too much. If you think you have paid or paying good amount, extract maximum from the test series. Do justice to the price you have paid. From our end, we will do justice to the price you have paid.
  • First Test (100 Solved MCQ) will be start from July 01, 2019. if you joined late, then we will provide the PDF you have missed.

Total Fee: Rs. 2400/-

Payment Method:Click Here-Easebuzz
Payment Method : Click Here -Instamojo

You can also pay through paytm/phonepe on +919610830576

UPSC-IAS-Prelims-Exam-2020-Demo-MCQ – Click Here