Important Features of Indian Constitution

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Every written constitution in the world has its own unique characteristics, and no exception is the Indian Constitution. But the Indian Constitution has many prominent features that distinguish it from the other Constitutions. This article clearly explains the Indian Constitution’s 8 key features.

1. World’s Longest Constitution
The Indian Constitution contains 395 articles and 12 schedules, making it the world’s longest written constitution. Just compare it with other countries Constitutions. For example, the UK has no written constitution, while the US Constitution contains only seven articles.
 
Not only have this but since 1951 about 90 articles and more than 100 amendments been added. However, since the articles are not added separately as part of an existing article (e.g. Article 21A, 35A etc.) the total number of articles remains the same at 395.
 
2. Taken from various sources
The Indian Constitution was framed from multiple sources including the 1935 Government of India Act and Other Countries Constitutions.

Feature of Indian Constitution                           
 
Borrowed From (Source)
Basic structure (Federal scheme, Judiciary, Governors, Emergency powers, Public Service Commissions, Administrative details etc.) Government of India Act 1935
Fundamental Rights American Constitution
Directive Principles Irish Constitution
Cabinet form of government British Constitution


In addition to these, the Constitutions of Canada, Australia, Germany, the U.S.S.R., and France also adopted various provisions.

 
3. Federal System with Unitary Features
Federal System with Unitary The Indian Constitution includes all the federal characteristics of governance such as dual government system (center and state),division of powers between the three state organs (executive, judiciary and legislature), constitutional supremacy, independent judiciary and bicameralism (lower and upper house).

Nevertheless, the Indian Constitution is unique in that it includes many unitary features such as a strong centre, all India services common to the center and the states, emergency provisions that can transform the Constitution into a unitary one if necessary, appointment of governors by the president on the advice of the center, etc.
 
Indeed, Article 1 clearly states that India is a ‘ Union of States ‘ rather than a federation of States. In India, the states did not come together to form the centre (or Union) like in the case of the USA which is the purest form of a federation. Rather, for administrative convenience, it is the center that created the states. Article 3 of the Indian Constitution makes Parliament the sole authority to create new states clearly indicating that the Indian Constitution is of a unitary nature with certain federal characteristics.
 
4. Parliamentary Form of Government
On the pattern of the British parliamentary system of government, the Indian Constitution has opted for the parliamentary form of government. The key characteristics of the parliamentary form of government are:

1. Executive are members of the legislature

2. Collective responsibility to the legislature of the Council of Ministers


3. Rule of the majority party

4. Prime Minister’s or chief minister’s leadership in the state


5. Lower house dissolution (Lok Sabha and state assemblies)

6. Government form of the Cabinet


5. Balance between the Sovereignty of Parliament and Judicial Supremacy
A fine balance has been struck between parliamentary sovereignty and judicial supremacy by the Indian Constitution. The Supreme Court is vacuumed by Articles 13, 32 and 136 with the power of judicial review. By its power of judicial review, it can strike down any parliamentary law as unconstitutional.

On the other hand, the Parliament, being the representative of the people’s will, has the authority to make laws, and it can also amend the major part of the Constitution through its video vested powers under Article 368.
 
6. Independent and Integrated Judicial System
In India, unlike the United States where there is a two-tiered judiciary, a single judicial system prevails with the Supreme Court at the top, the State and District High Courts and other subordinate courts below and subject to the supervision of the High Courts.
 
It is the duty of all levels of courts in India to enforce both central and state laws unlike in the US, where federal courts adjudicate on federal matters and state courts on state matters.
 
Not only is the judiciary system well fully integrated in India, but because of the following provisions it is also independent

1. Appointment of judges of Supreme Court and High Courts by collegium system


2. Removal of judges in Parliament through an impeachment procedure that is very difficult to pass

3. Supreme Court judges salaries, pensions, and allowances are charged to India’s Consolidated Fund

4. Power to punish for self – disregard


5. Ban on judges practice after retirement…etc
 
7. Directive Principles of State Policy
In Part IV of the Constitution, the Directive Principles of State Policies (DPSPs) aims to make India a welfare state. Therefore, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar calls the Directive Principles as the Indian Constitution’s novel feature. The Principles of the Directive are inherently unjustifiable, that is, they are not enforceable for their violation by the courts.
 
Their usefulness, however, lies in their moral obligation to apply these principles to the state in making laws. As such, the principles of the directive are fundamental to the country’s governance.
 
8. Combination of rigidity and flexibility
The Indian Constitution strikes a fine balance between rigidity and flexibility when it comes to ease of modification. Article 368 lays down two types of modifications:

1. Some provisions may be amended by a special parliamentary majority, i.e. a 2/3rd majority of the members of each House present and vote and majority (i.e. more than 50 %) of each House’s total membership.

2. Some other provisions can be amended by a special parliamentary majority and with half of the total states ratifying them.
This ensures that with the widest possible majority, the Constitution is amended.

At the same time, in the manner of the ordinary legislative process, certain provisions of the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of Parliament. Such amendments are not within the scope of Article 368.

LADAKH AS A UNION TERRITORY (UT)

About

  1. Ladakh has been made a Union Territory along with the abrogation of Article 370 of the Constitution of India
  2. Ladakh is a mountainous region which is sandwiched between Karakoram Range in North and Himalayan Range in the South.
  3. It is composed of two districts:
  4. Leh – It is the 2nd largest district of India and it covers more than half of the area of Jammu and Kashmir.
  5. Kargil – It lies near Line of Control. Zaskar Range is a part of Kargil.

Analysis

Negative Implications

  1. Due to the expected change in demography and commercialisation of the region, Its unique ecological and cultural value may get affected
  2. Since the region is prone to international disturbances from China and Pakistan, a large portion of pasture land will be occupied by military personnel. This will affect the farmer community
  3. There is no evidence that coming under direct control of the central government would certainly lead to greater development of the region. For instance, the level of development in Andaman and Nicobar is not very impressive.
  4. The autonomy of Ladakh’s Autonomous Hill Development Council which was already on a decline will further reduce.

Positive Impact

  1. Currently, there is no medical college, engineering college or a management institution anywhere in Ladakh. Now, new start-ups, businesses and the government will create new infrastructure and boost development along with the creation of new jobs.
  2. The people of Ladakh will be brought to the mainstream Indian society.
  3. The increased tourism will bring significant revenue, which could be used to create additional social infrastructure.

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Jammu and Kashmir after Article 370 Revoked

Timeline:-

  1. Pakistan Prime minister Imran Khan – Tour of USA July 21, 2019
  2. Imran Khan Reached USA July 22, 2019
  3. Pakistan PM and USA President Donald Trumph Press Conference
  4. Pakistani Prime Minister request president Trumph to mediate between India and Pakistan on Jammu & Kashmir issue
  5. President Trumph said it will be good if I do so and he also said Indian prime minister offered me to mediate, but after this statement Indian govt release official statement and denied that Indian PM never said anyone to mediate and we are clear that it’s our internal matter.
  6. Indian govt take it serious and increase the security forces in Jammu and Kashmir for precautionary measures.
  7. Govt has put IAF and Army on high alert in Kashmir in last week of July-2019
  8. Govt sent additional 10,000 security forces in J&K on Last week of July-2019
  9. Govt sent additional 28,000 security forces in J&K on August 02, 2019

The government revoked Article – 370 on August 5, 2019 (Monday) the special status of Jammu and Kashmir and took steps to change how the region will be governed, a decision that has Ramifications for the state’s people, the country’s politics and relationship with Pakistan

Till now, J&K had a unique position among Indian states – it had its own Constitution and only a handful of laws that apply to other states were valid. The legal provision that gave it this unique position was Article 370 of the Constitution, which the government effectively abolished by changing some of its aspect and cancelling out some others through an order.
All of these privileges will now be at par with UTs. The Centre moved a draft law for parliament’s approval to turn J&K into one UT and Ladakh as another.

The Narendra Modi government’s move to scrap Article 370 and Article 35A that conferred special status to Jammu and Kashmir has likely put an end to ‘conflict entrepreneurship’ in the Valley — one of the most lucrative political ventures that for decades served the cause of a few elite political dynasties in the Valley and New Delhi.

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Final National Register of Citizens

The final National Register of Citizens (NRC) to be published on August 31, 2019.

Recently, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) clarified that those not included in the final list of the (NRC) in Assam will get 120 days to appeal against their exclusion in the Foreigners’ Tribunal.

  • The MHA will bring about an amendment in the NRC rules which stipulate only 60 days for an appeal to be made in the Foreigners’ Tribunal.
  • Every individual, whose name does not figure in the final NRC, can represent his/her case in front of the appellate authority i.e. Foreigners Tribunals.
  • Under the provisions of Foreigners Act 1946 and Foreigners (Tribunals) Order 1964, only Foreigners Tribunals are empowered to declare a person as a foreigner.
  • Thus, non-inclusion of a person’s name in NRC does not by itself amount to him/her being declared as a foreigner.
  • However, the final publication of the NRC poses a legal challenge for the Election Commission of India (ECI).
  • ECI in 1997, while revising the state’s voter list, introduced a new category of voters for Assam marked as ‘D’ (Doubtful) voters.
  • D voters are a category of voters in Assam whose citizenship is doubtful or under dispute.
  • While ‘D’ voters continue to remain on Assam’s electoral roll, they cannot vote in an election unless their case is decided by a Foreigners’ Tribunal. However, those excluded from the draft NRC were allowed to vote, creating an anomaly.

So, ECI has to revise the D-voters list in a short span of time.

Foreigners’ Tribunals

The Foreigners’ Tribunals are quasi-judicial bodies meant to “furnish opinion on the question as to whether a person is or is not a foreigner within the meaning of Foreigners Act, 1946”.

The MHA constitutes foreigners tribunals whenever required to look into the question of whether a person is or not a foreigner within the meaning of Foreigners Tribunals act, 1946.

In the backdrop of finalization of NRC, this order was amended in 2019, to empower individuals to approach the Tribunals. Earlier, only the State administration could move the Tribunal against a suspect.

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Indian Polity for Civil Services Examination

Polity & Constitution of India: Complete Study Notes

This Indian Polity for Civil Services Examination of India book would be highly useful for aspirants of civil services and other competitive examination and especially for those who do not have a background in Polity & Constitution.
Indian Polity is a key subject for UPSC & State Public Services Commission Competitive Examinations. So, considering the importance of the subject we have created a Comprehensive Study material on Indian Polity with major sections like Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP, Parliament, Supreme Court, Bodies etc.

      Topic Covered:

Indian Constitution: An overview

List of Presidents in India

List - Prime Minister of India

The making of the Constitution of India

Schedules in the Constitution of India

List of Important Articles of the Indian Constitution

The Acts passed before constitution

The Acts passed before the Formation of Indian Constitution

Preamble of the Constitution

Features of the Indian Constitution

Indian Constitution: Important Amendments at a Glance

Constitution of India: features taken from other countries

Parliamentary System in India

Citizenship

Fundamental Rights & Fundamental Duties

Directive Principles of State Policy

Elections in India

Special Status to the Other Indian States

Scheduled and Tribal Areas in India

Emergency Provisions in Indian Constitution

Electoral Reforms in India

Panchayati Raj Systems in India

Parliament & Indian Judiciary

Union & State Executive

PMO and Cabinet Secretary

Cabinet Committees

Union-State Relations / Centre-State Relations

Union Territories

Constitutional & Non-Constitutional Bodies

Election Commission of India

Union Public Service Commission

State Public Service Commission

National Finance Commission

State Finance Commission

National Commission for Scheduled Castes

National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities

Comptroller and Auditor General of India

Attorney General of India

Advocate General of the State

National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog

Planning Commission and NITI Aayog

National Human Rights Commission

State Human Rights Commission

Central Information Commission

State Information Commission

Central Vigilance Commission

Central Bureau of Investigation

Lokpal and Lokayukta in Indian Constitution

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Draft E-Commerce Norms- 2019: Ministry of Consumer Affairs

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Ministry of Consumer Affairs has released the draft guidelines on e-commerce for consumer protection.

  • The e-Commerce guidelines for Consumer Protection, 2019 will be applicable on all business-to-consumer (B2C) e-commerce platforms.
  • E-Commerce norms will act as the guiding principles for e-commerce business for preventing fraud, unfair trade practices and protecting the legitimate rights and interests of consumers.
  • The key areas that have been covered in the rules include preventing price influencing, addressing counterfeit, improving integrity of reviews as well as increasing transparency of terms e-commerce have with sellers and disclosure of seller information.

Key Guidelines

Compulsory Return Policy: It is mandatory for e-commerce entities to accept returns in the event the products delivered are defective, wrong or spurious or if they do not have the characteristics or features advertised.

Seller Details: E-commerce companies will also have to display details about the sellers on their website, especially the type of business furnished by the seller entity.

Transparent Contract: The draft guidelines propose to increase transparency in contracts signed between e-commerce entities and the sellers, directing them to display terms of their contracts relating to aspects like return, refund, exchange, warranties and guarantees, delivery and shipment, mode of payments and redressing grievances.

Grievance Redressal: The draft has also sought transparency on the procedure followed to address complaints, directing e-commerce companies to publish contact details of their grievance officers on their websites and setting a one-month timeline for them to redress issues from the time the complaint is registered.

Fair Pricing Policy: E-commerce platforms will not be allowed to directly or indirectly influence the price of the products and services they offer.

Unfair Trade Practice: E-commerce platforms cannot adopt any trade practice for the purpose of promoting the sale, use or supply of any goods or services or use unfair and deceptive methods and practices that may influence the consumer’s transactional decisions.

False Reviews: Guidelines aim to restrict sellers from falsely representing themselves as consumers or posting reviews as well as misrepresenting and exaggerating the quality and features of products on their sites.

Indian E-commerce Market

  1. According to Morgan Stanley report- 2019, India is adding one Internet user every three seconds.
  2. The e-commerce sector in India is estimated to reach USD 230 billion by 2028 (accounting for 10% of India’s retail).
  3. The e-commerce sector in India has been witnessing an explosive growth fuelled by the increase in the number of online users, growing penetration of smartphones and the rising popularity of social media platforms.
  4. The Indian e-commerce industry is expected to surpass the US to become the second largest e-commerce market in the world by 2034.

Online shoppers in India are expected to reach 120 million in 2018 and eventually 220 million by 2025.

Article 371

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While Article 370, which limited purchase and inheritance of property to permanent residents, was scrapped for J&K, similar provisions are also provided under Article 371 in many states.

Article 371A prohibits anyone who is not a resident from buying land in Nagaland, which may only be bought by tribals who are residents of the state.

Article 371F bestows on Sikkim government the right of ownership of all land in the state, even if it was owned by private individuals prior to the state’s merger with India. 

  • The same Constitutional provision mandates a four-year term for the Sikkim state assembly, though assembly elections in the state have violated that clause as they have been held every 5 years.
  • Moreover, Article 371F states that “neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall have jurisdiction in respect of any dispute or other matter arising out of any treaty, agreement, engagement or other similar instrument relating to Sikkim”, however, a specific condition allows the President to step in if the need arises related to constitutional law.

Article 371G is similar to Article 371A, as it limits the ownership of land to Mizoram’s tribals except for setting up of industries by the private sector, land can now be acquired by the state government as per the provisions of Mizoram (Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement) Act, 2016.

Both Articles 371A and Article 371G limit the Parliament’s authority to enact any law that interferes with tribal religious laws, customs, including their justice system.

Moreover, under Article 371 non-residents are still not allowed to buy agriculture land in Himachal Pradesh.

Source: PIB

The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill -2019

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The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill -2019 after receiving Presidents nod became an Act.

The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019 has replaced an Ordinance promulgated on triple talaq.

Key Provisions

Declaration of Talaq: The Act makes all declaration of talaq, including in written or electronic form, to be void (i.e. not enforceable in law) and illegal.

  • The Act defines talaq as talaq-e-biddat or any other similar form of talaq pronounced by a Muslim man resulting in instant and irrevocable divorce.

Offence and Penalty: The Act makes a declaration of talaq a cognizable offence, attracting up to three years imprisonment with a fine.

  • A cognizable offence is one for which a police officer may arrest an accused person without warrant.

Cognizable Offence: The offence will be cognizable only if information relating to the offence is given by married woman (against whom talaq has been declared), or any person related to her by blood or marriage.

Bail: The Act provides that the Magistrate may grant bail to the accused. 

  • The bail may be granted only after hearing the woman (against whom talaq has been pronounced), and if the Magistrate is satisfied that there are reasonable grounds for granting bail.

Compounding Offence: The offence may be compounded (i.e. the parties may arrive at a compromise) by the Magistrate upon the request of the woman (against whom talaq has been declared). 

  • The terms and conditions of the compounding of the offence will be determined by the Magistrate.

Allowance: A Muslim woman, against whom talaq has been declared, is entitled to seek subsistence allowance from her husband for herself and for her dependent children. 

  • The amount of the allowance will be determined by the Magistrate.

Custody: A Muslim woman, against whom such talaq has been declared, is entitled to seek custody of her minor children. 

  • The manner of custody will be determined by the Magistrate.

Source: PIB

Article 370 and 35(A) Revoked

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On 5th of August 2019, the President of India promulgated the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 2019. 

  • The order effectively abrogates the special status accorded to Jammu and Kashmir under the provision of Article 370 – whereby provisions of the Constitution which were applicable to other states were not applicable to Jammu and Kashmir (J&K).
  • According to the Order, provisions of the Indian Constitution are now applicable in the State.
  • This Order comes into force “at once”, and shall “supersede the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954.”
  • A separate Bill – the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Bill 2019 – was introduced to bifurcate the State into two separate union territories of Jammu and Kashmir (with legislature), and Ladakh (without legislature).
  • Jammu and Kashmir Reservation (Second Amendment) Bill, 2019 was also introduced to extend the reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in educational institutions and government jobs in Jammu and Kashmir.

History

  • J&K acceded to the Dominion of India after the Instrument of Accession was signed by Maharaja Hari Singh, the ruler of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir, on 26 October 1947.
  • Article 370 of the Indian Constitution provided that only Articles 1 and 370 itself would apply to J&K. The application of other Articles was to be determined by the President in consultation with the government of the state.
  • The Constitution Order of 1950 specified the matters on which the Union Parliament would be competent to make laws for J&K, in concurrence with the Instrument of Accession – 38 Subjects from the Union List were added.
  • The Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954 settled the constitutional relationship of J&K and the Union of India. It made the following provisions –
    • Indian citizenship and all related benefits (fundamental rights) were extended to the ‘permanent residents’ of Jammu and Kashmir.
    • Article 35A was added to the Constitution (empowering the state legislature to legislate on the privileges of permanent residents with regard to immovable property, settlement in the state and employment)
    • The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India was extended to the State.
    • Central Government was given the power to declare a national emergency in the event of external aggression. The power in case of internal disturbances could be exercised only with the concurrence of the State Government.
    • Normalized the financial relations between the Centre and J&K

Article 370 – Features and Provisions

  • Present in part XXI of the Indian Constitution which comprises of Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions with rest to various states of India.
  • Forms the basis of the “Special Status” of J&K.
  • Provides for a separate Constitution of J&K.
  • Limits the Union Parliament’s power to make laws for J&K to those subjects mentioned in the Instrument of Accession (defense, foreign affairs, and communications) and others as and when declared by the Presidential Orders with the concurrence of the Government of the State.
  • Specified the mechanism by which the Article shall cease to be operative. That is, on the recommendation of the Constituent Assembly of the State before the President issues such a notification. However, this provision has been amended by the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 2019.

Was it Temporary?

  • The Article was introduced to accommodate the apprehensions of Maharaja Hari Singh who would not have acceded to India without certain concessions.
  • Territorial integrity was of paramount importance to India post-independence, thus, such a special provision was inducted in the constitution.
  • The provision, however, is part of the “Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions” of our constitution.
  • Moreover, Article 370 could be interpreted as temporary in the sense that the J&K Constituent Assembly had a right to modify/delete/retain it; it decided to retain it.
  • Another interpretation was that accession was temporary until a plebiscite.

Issues in Revoking

  • Article 370 is the bedrock of the constitutional relationship between Jammu and Kashmir and the rest of India.
  • It has been described as a tunnel through which the Constitution is applied to J&K.
  • India has used Article 370 at least 45 times to extend provisions of the Indian Constitution to J&K. This is the only way through which, by mere Presidential Orders, India has almost nullified the effect of J&K’s special status.
  • By the 1954 order, almost the entire Constitution was extended to J&K including most Constitutional amendments.
  • However, abrogating the article altogether may threaten the peace in the state which is already a hotspot of conflicts and militancy.
  • It will completely change the relationship between the state and the rest of India.
  • It will also clear the path for abrogating Article 35A which would allow Indian citizens to purchase land and settle permanently in J&K.
  • Thus, the move is bound to have a significant impact on the demography, culture, and politics of J&K.

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Indian Polity & Constitution

1.       By “Rule of Law”, we mean who among the following are subject to the law of the land?

1.       Every subject of the law of the land only

2.       Every subject of the law of the land including the lawmakers

3.       Every subject of the law of the land, lawmakers, law enforcement officials and judges Choose the correct statements

(a)     1 only

(b)     Both 1 and 2

(c)      2 only

(d)     Both 1 and 2

2. Which of the following could not be construed as apart of concept of “Rule of Law”?

(a) Law must be publicly declared and is established or adopted through popular consent

(b) Prospective application (punishments)

(c) Characteristics of generality equality and protection of individual rights

(d) Requirements with regard to the content of the law

3. Consider the following statements.

1. In the Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narayan case, the Apex Court held that Rule of Law embodied in Article 14 of the Constitution is the “basic feature” of the Indian Constitution.

2. In the Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India case, the Supreme Court held that Indian Constitution is based on the American system of ‘Due Process of Law

Correct statement/s is/are

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

4. Consider the following statements.

1. Constitutionalism can be established in a country even without a written Constitution.

2. Written Constitution in a country would not qualify a country automatically to be a Constitutionalised one

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

5. Consider the following statements.

1. While in case of Written Constitutions there is clear distinction between constitutional laws and other laws (like statutory laws and bylaws), in case of unwritten Constitutions there is no such marked difference as every law

Passed by the parliament becomes constitutional.

2. While in case of Written Constitutions, the structure of government can be federal or unitary, in case of unwritten Constitutions, the structure of government is necessarily unitary because the parliament is considered supreme

The correct statement/s is/are

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

6. Consider the following statements regarding the Parliamentary form of the government and choose the INCORRECT feature.

(a)     Existence of a Titular or Constitutional Ruler

(b)     Absence of clear principle of separation of powers

(c)      Ministry formed from the popular chamber of the legislature

(d)     None of the above

7. Which of the following is NOT considered as an essential nature of Democratic government?

(a)     A belief in the fundamental importance of the individual.

(b)     Equality of All Persons

(c)      Majority Rule but recognition of Minority Rights

(d)     Freedom of the individuals rather than the rights of society

8. Consider the following statements.

1. Fundamental rights acts as a limitation on the authority of the state

2. Directive Principles authorises the state to carry out certain functions The correct statement/s is/are

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

9. Consider the following statements with regard to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

1. Preamble contains the philosophical part of the Constitution, the principles which are essentially uncodified.

2. The principles contained in the Preamble can be altered through an amendment, but without altering the basic features contained in it.

The correct statement/s is/are

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

10. Objective Resolution was silent as to the concept of …..? Which was inserted into the Preamble by the Constituent Assembly?

(a)     Republic

(b)     Sovereignty

(c)      Democratic

(d)     Justice

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Q.1) Consider the following statements with regard to Regulating Act of 1773:

1. The first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British

Government was enacted through this Act.

2. This Act is of great constitutional importance as it was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (b)

Q.2) considers the features given below and chooses the correct answer:

1. This Act provided for the first time for the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the Viceroy and Governors.

2. This Act introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’.

3. This Act retained official majority in the Central Legislative Council but allowed the provincial legislative councils to have non-official majority.

The above important features are part of –

a) Indian Councils Act of 1861

b) Indian Councils Act of 1892

c) Indian Councils Act of 1909

d) Government of India Act of 1919

Solution (c)

Features of the Act of 1909 also known as Morley-Minto Reforms:

1. It considerably increased the size of the legislative councils, both Central and provincial.

2. It retained official majority in the Central Legislative Council but allowed the provincial legislative councils to have non-official majority.

3. It enlarged the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at both the levels. For example, members were allowed to ask supplementary questions, move resolutions on the budget, and so on.

4. It provided (for the first time) for the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the Viceroy and Governors.

5. It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’.

6. It also provided for the separate representation of presidency corporations, chambers of commerce, universities and zamindars.

Q.3) which among the following is/are the feature common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation?

1. Three lists in the Constitution

2. A federal supreme court to interpret the Constitution

3. Single citizenship

4. Appointment of state governors by the Centre

Choose correct option:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) 2 only

d) 2 and 3 only

Solution (c)

Q.4) Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble were the features borrowed from –

a) Weimar Constitution of Germany

b) French Constitution

c) Irish Constitution

d) US Constitution

Solution (b)

Q.5) the Preamble reveals which among the following ingredients or components –

1. Source of authority of the Constitution

2. Nature of Indian State

3. Objectives of the Constitution

4. Date of adoption of the Constitution

Choose correct option:

a) 2 and 3 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (d)

Q.6) Consider the below statements:

1. The Indian Constitution provides for direct democracy where the people exercise their supreme power.

2. The term ‘democratic’ is used in the Preamble in the broader sense embracing not only political democracy but also social and economic democracy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (b)

Q.7) in which of the following case, the Supreme Court laid down that the Constitution is federal and characterised federalism as its ‘basic feature’?

a) Bommai case (1994)

b) Minerva Mills case (1980)

c) Cooper case (1970)

d) Shankari Prasad (1951)

Solution (a)

Q.8) In addition to the making of the Constitution and enacting of ordinary laws, the

Constituent Assembly also performed which of the following functions?

1. Elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India

2. Adopted India’s National Anthem and National Song

3. Adopted the National Flag of India

4. Ratified India’s membership of the Commonwealth

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.9) Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the Division of powers?

a) Schedule Two

b) Schedule Four

c) Schedule Three

d) None

Solution (d)

Q.10) Consider the following statements:

1. Process for changing the name of a state or its district/villages can be initiated by state only.

2. Formation of new states, altering boundary and name is not considered as Constitutional Amendment under Art 368.

3. Parliament has power to change the name of a state or its districts and villages.

Which of the statements provided above is/are correct?

a) 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (a)

Q.11) the Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has

1. Republican system

2. Doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament

3. System of legal responsibility of the minister

4. System of judicial review

5. Both a real and a nominal executive

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 3 and 4

b) 4 and 5 only

c) 2, 4 and 5

d) 1 and 4 only

Solution (d)

Q.12) The Constitution of India confers which among the following rights and privileges on the citizens of India (and denies the same to aliens)?

1. Equality before law and equal protection of laws

2. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion

3. Freedom to manage religious affairs

4. Six basic freedoms subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19

5. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2 and 4

b) 4 and 5 only

c) 2, 4 and 5

d) 3 and 5 only

Solution (b)

Q.13) Consider the statements given below:

1. In India only a citizen by birth and not a naturalised citizen are eligible for the office of President.

2. The Constitution does not contain provisions dealing with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (b)

Q.14) Consider the following:

1. States not indestructible

2. Single Constitution

3. Flexibility of the Constitution

4. Three tier government

5. Integrated Election Machinery

Which of the terms given above are unitary features of the Indian Constitution?

a) 1, 2 and 4

b) 2, 3 and 5

c) 1, 2, 3 and 5

d) 1, 2 and 5

Solution (c)

Q.15) Arrange the below given States in correct chronological sequence based on their creation after the reorganisation of the states in 1956:

1. Haryana

2. Nagaland

3. Gujarat

4. Sikkim

Choose the correct code:

a) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3

b) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4

c) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3

d) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4

Solution (b)

Q.16) if any foreign territory becomes a part of India –

a) Government of India specifies the persons who among the people of the territory shall be the citizens of India.

b) Automatically all the people belonging to the territory become the citizens of India.

c) Parliament has to amend the Citizenship Act and make provision for providing citizenship to people of the territory.

d) People of the territory can acquire citizenship of India by Registration.

Solution (a)

Q.17) which among the following powers are granted to the Parliament by Article 2 of the Indian Constitution?

1. Power to admit into the Union of India new states

2. Power to increase the area of any state

3. Power to alter the boundaries of any state

4. Power to establish new states which were previously not part of India

Select the correct code:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (c)

Q.18) Consider the following statements:

1. Republic Day is celebrated to commemorate the adoption of constitution.

2. The Beating Retreat ceremony is held after officially denoting the end of Republic Day festivities i.e. evening of 26th January.

3. Beating Retreat ceremony is performed by the bands of the three wings of the military, the Indian Army, Indian Navy and Indian Air Force.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 2

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.19) Consider the following statements regarding the states of India:

1. States in India have no right to territorial integrity.

2. Indian Federation is “an indestructible Union of indestructible states”.

3. In order to change the name or boundary of a country ratification of the State Legislature is required.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) None

Solution (a)

Unlike in other federations, the states in India have no right to territorial integrity. The Parliament can by unilateral action change the area, boundaries or name of any state. Moreover, it requires only a simple majority and not a special majority. Hence, the Indian Federation is “an indestructible Union of destructible states”. The American Federation, on the other hand, is described as “an indestructible Union of indestructible states”.

Q.20) The Swaran Singh Committee considered the question of –

a) Integration of British provinces and the princely states

b) Reorganisation of states on the basis of linguistic factor

c) The suitability of the Presidential form of government for India

d) Reorganisation of states on the basis of administrative convenience

Solution (c)

The Swaran Singh Committee was appointed by the Congress government in 1975 which considered the question of the suitability of the Presidential form of government for India. The committee gave report in favor of presidential form of government owing to various advantages over presidential form of government. However, the committee also opined that there is no need to replace parliamentary system.

Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha: Indian Polity topic-wise MCQ

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Q.1     Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya sabha?   

(A)      The chairman, Rajya sabha                   (B)      The President

(C)       The joint – session of parliament        (D)      None

Answer (D)

Q.2     Rajya sabha enjoys more power than the Lok sabha in the casa of?           

(A)      Money Bills                                                            

(B)      Non Money Bills

(C)       Setting up of new all India service     

(D)      Amendment of the constitution

Answer (C)

 Q.3     The tenure of the Rajya sabha is?     

(A)      2 Years       (B)      5 Years

(C)       6 Years       (D)      Permanent

Answer (D)

Q.4     What is the term of a member of the Rajya sabha?        

(A)      3 years          (B)      4 years          (C)       5 years          (D)      6 years

Answer (D)

 Q.5     The vice-president is the ex-officio chairman of the?   

(A)      Rajya Sabha                       

 (B)      Lok Sabha

(C)       Planning Commission    

 (D)      National Development Council

Answer (A)

 Q.6     The Rajya sabha is dissolved after?   

(A)      Every Five years                                       

(B)      Every Six Years

(C)       On the advice of the Prime Minister

 (D)      None of these

Answer (D)

 Q.7     The upper house of Indian parliament is known as?       

(A)      The Rajya Sabha               

(B)      The Lok Sabha

(C)       The National Assembly  

(D)      The Indian parliament

Answer (A)

Q.8Who is the chairman of Rajya Sabha?           

(A)      The president                    

(B)      The Vice-President

(C)       The Prime minister         

(D)      The Speaker

Answer (B)

 Q.9 which is the house where the chair person is not the member of that house?

(A)      Rajya Sabha                       

 (B)      Lok Sabha

(C)       Legislative council           

(D)      Legislative assembly

Answer (A)

Q.10   How many members are nominated by the president in the Rajya Sabha?

(A)      2          (B)      10                  

(C)       12        (D)      15

Answer (C)

Q.11   Which one of the following is president over by one who is not its member?

(A)      Vidhan Sabha                     

(B)      Council of ministers

(C)       Lok Sabha                            

(D)      Rajya Sabha

Answer (D)

 Q.12   What could be the maximum time limit of ‘Zero Hour’?

(A)      30 Minutes            

(B)      1 Hour

(C)       2 Hours                    

(D)      Indefinite period

Answer (B)

Q.13   What is the fixed strength of Rajya Sabha?

(A)      210                 (B)      220                 (C)       230                 (D)      250

Answer (D)

Q.14   The First mid-term election for lok sabha was held in?

(A)      1962              (B)      1971              (C)       1977              (D)      1980

Answer (B)

 Q.15   The Speaker’s vote in the lok sabha is called?     

(A)      Casting vote                       

(B)      Sound vote

(C)       Direct vote             

(D)      Indirect vote

Answer (A)

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Practice Question for UPSC IAS And Other Competitive Exams

Q.1     What can be the maximum interval between two sessions of parliament?        

(A)      3 Months         (B)      4 Months

(C)       6 Months         (D)   9 Months

Answer (C)

Q.2 which of the following non-member of parliament has the right to address it?

(A)      Attorney General            

(B)      Solicitor General of India

(C)       Chief justice of India      

 (D)      Chief election Commissioner

Answer (A)

Q.3     Age of a candidate t contest parliamentary election should not be lesser than?

(A)      18 Years          (B)      21 Years

(C)       25 Years          (D)      26 Years

Answer (C)

Q.4     The most important feature of the Indian parliament is that?

(A)      It is the union legislature in India      

(B)      It also comprises of the president

(C)       It is bicameral in nature   

(D)   The upper house of the parliament is never dissolved

Answer (B)

 Q.5 Japan’s Parliament Known as?

(A)      Diet                (B)      Dial

(C)       Yuan              (D)      Shora

Answer (A)

 Q.6   Who sail, ‘Parliamentary system provides a daily as well as a periodic assessment of the government?

(A)      B.R. Ambedkar                  

(B)      B.N. Nehru

(C)       Jawahar Lal Nehru                       

(D)      Rajendra Prasad

Answer (A)

Q.7     How many members of the Anglo-indian community can be nominated by the president of India to the parliament?    

(A)      1                       (B)      2         

(C)       5                      (D)      8

Answer (B)

Q.8     Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the president of India?

(A)      Only Lok Sabha                                         

(B)      Only Rajya Sabha

(C)       Either house of the parliament                       

(D)      Any Legislative assembly

Answer (C)

Q.9     Which of the following has the powers to create a new all India service? 

(A)      Parliament             

(B)      Union public service commission

(C)       Union Cabinet       

(D)      Ministry of personnel, Public grievances and Pensions

Answer (A)

 Q.10   Sovereignty of Indian parliament is restricted by? 

(A)      Powers of the president of India        

(B)      Judicial review

(C)       Leader of the opposition                       

(D)      Powers of the prime minister of India

Answer (B)

Q.11   The committee of parliament on official language comprises the members?

(A)  20 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(B)  10 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

(C)   10 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(D)  20 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

Answer (A)

Q.12 which of the following is NOT a parliamentary committee?   

(A)      Committee on public accounts           

(B)      Committee on public undertakings

(C)      Committee on Estimates                      

(D)      Demands for grants committee

Answer (D)

Q.13     Which one of the following is the largest committee of the parliament?   

(A)      The Public accounts committee                      

(B)      The Estimates committee

(C)       The committee on public undertakings       

(D)      The committee on petitions

Answer (B)

 Q.14   In which of the following committees there is no representation of Rajya Sabha?

(A)    Public accounts committee                              

(B)    Committee on public undertakings

(C)   Committee on government assurance        

 (D)  Estimates Committee

Answer (D)

Q.15   Which of the following is NOT a tool of parliamentary control over public expenditures?           

(A) Public accounts committee                  

(B) Comptroller and Auditor general of India

(C) Estimates Committee                            

(D) Committee on public undertakings

Answer (B)

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Q.1     The comptroller and auditor general of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the? 

(A)      Union Government                     

(B)      State Government

(C)       Union and State Government

(D)      Neither Union nor State Government

Answer (C)

 Q.2     What is the period of appointment of the comptroller and auditor general of India?

(A)      6 Years                                                                                 

(B)      Upto 65 Years of age

(C)     6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier     

(D)    Upto 64 years of age

Answer (C)

 Q.3     Who is the highest civil servant of the union government?    

(A)      Attorney General            

(B)      Cabinet Secretary

(C)       Home Secretary               

(D)      Principle secretary to the P.M

Answer (B)

 Q.4     The Attorney general of India is appointed by?   

(A)      The president of India                 (B)      The Prime Minister

(C)       The Chief justice of India           (D)      The UPSC

Answer (A)

Q.5     In india’ The Comptroller –general of accounts presents a detailed analytical review of union government accents to the finance ministry every?     

(A)      Years                                    

(B)      Six Months

(C)       Three Months       

(D)      Month

Answer (A)

 Q.6     Who advises the government of India on legal matters?           

(A)      Attorney General                         (B)      Chief justice of Supreme Court

(C)       Chairman, law commission        (D)      none of these

Answer (A)

 Q.7     Comptroller and auditor – general of India is appointed by:     

(A)      President                                                                 

(B)      Speaker of the lok sabha

(C)       Chairman of the planning commission         

(D)      Finance minister

Answer (A)

 Q.8     The attorney General of India is a legal advisor to?    

(A)      The president of India                 (B)      The Prime Minister

(C)       Lok Sabha                                  (D)      Government of India

Answer (D)

 Q.9     Who is called the guardian of public purse?           (UP PCS Main 2008)

(A)      President                

(B)   Comptroller   and auditor- general

(C)       Parliament             

(D)      Council of Ministers

Answer (B)

 Q.10   Which non-member cab participates in the business of either house of parliament?

(A)      The Vice-President                       (B)      The Solicitor General

(C)       The Attorney General                 (D)      The Chief justice of India

Answer (C)

Q.11     Which of the following standing committees of parliament has no MP from Rajya Sabha?

 (A)     Public accounts committees                

(B)      Committee on public undertakings

(C)       Committee on government assurance         

(D)      Estimates committee

Answer (D)

 Q.12     The parliament committee which scrutinizes the report of the comptroller and auditor general of Indian is?       

(A)      Estimates committee                  (B)      Select Committee

(C)       Public Account Committee        (D)      None of these

Answer (C)

 Q.13     Who among the following forms the advisory committee of the parliament?

(A)      Speaker of Lok Sabha                   (B)      Vice-President of India

(C)       President of India                         (D)      None of these

Answer (A)

Q.14     The committee of parliament on official language comprises the members?

(A) 20 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(B)  10 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

(C) 10 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(D) 20 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

Answer (A)

 Q.15     Which of the following is NOT a parliamentary committee?   

(A)      Committee on public accounts           

(B)      Committee on public undertakings

(C)       Committee on Estimates                       

(D)      Demands for grants committee

Answer (D)

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Q.1     The president of India enjoys emergency powers of? (SSC Grad 2007)

(A)      Two Types      (B)      Three Types

(C)       Four Types     (D)      Five Types

Answer (B)

 Q.2     How many times the president of India can seek reelection to his post?

(A)      Once                

(B)      Two times

(C)       Three Times  

(D)      Any number of times

Answer (D)

 Q.3     Which of the following appointments not made by the president of India?

(A)      Speaker of the Lok Sabha         

(B)      Chief justice of India

(C)       Chief of air staff                            

(D)      Chief of Army

Answer (A)

Q.4     What is the maximum age limit prescribed for the post of the president of India?                   

(A)      58 Years                  

(B)      60 Years

(C)       62 Years                  

(D)      There is no maximum age limit

Answer (D)

Q.5     Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by?

(A)      Edward stone        

(B)      Le Corbusier

(C)       Edwin Lutyens        

(D)      Tarun Dutt

Answer (C)

 Q.6     A presidential ordinance can remain force?         

(A)      For Three Months            

(B)      For Six Months

(C)       For Nine Months              

(D)      Indefinitely

Answer (B)

 Q.7   To be eligible for election as president of Indian, a person must have completed the age of?    

(A)      25 years                   (B)      30 Years

(C)       35 Years                (D)      40 Years

Answer (C)

 Q.8     Who was the president of India at the time of proclamation of emergency in the year 1975?                  

(A)       V.V Giri                                

(B)      Giani Zail singh

(C)     Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad    

(D)    Shankar Dayal Sharma

Answer (C)

Q.9     Under Which Article of the constitution of India can the president of India be impeached?         

(A)      Article 61            (B)      Article 75

(C)       Article 76          (D)      Article 356

Answer (A)

 Q.10   Who holds the power to appoint the nominees from Anglo-Indian community in the lok sabha?        

(A)      Minorities commission              

(B)      President of India

(C)       Prime Minister                             

(D)      Vice-President

Answer (B)

Q.10   Who holds the power to appoint the nominees from Anglo-Indian community in the lok sabha?

(A)      Minorities commission              

(B)      President of India

(C)       Prime Minister                             

(D)      Vice-President

Answer (B)

Q.11   The first president of independent India hails from?                 

(A)      U.P                

(B)      Andhra Pradesh

(C)       Bihar             

(D)      Tamil Nadu

Answer (C)

Q.12   Acting chief justice of the supreme court in India is appointed by the? 

(A)      Chief justice of Supreme Court                       

(B)      Prime Minister

(C)       President                                                    

(D)      Law Minister

Answer (C)

Q.13   Comptroller and auditor general of India are appointed by?      

(A)      President                                                       

(B)      Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(C)       Chairman of the planning Commission    

(D)      Finance Minister

Answer (A)

 Q.14   The vacancy of the Office of the president of India must be filled up within?

(A)      90 Days        

(B)      6th Months

(C)       1 Years         

(D)   Within the period decided by the parliament

Answer (B)

Q.15   Who among the following is constitutionally empowered to declare a geographical area as a Scheduled area?      

(A)      Governor                

(B)      Chief Minister

(C)     Prime Minister      

(D)      President

Answer (D)

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Q.1     Separation of the judiciary from the executive has been provided in one of the following parts of the Indian constitution?

(A)      The preamble                                             

(B)       The fundamental right

(C)       The directive principle of state policy  

(D)      The Seventh Schedule     

Answer (C)

 Q.2     Under the directive principle of state policy, up to what age of children they are expected to be provided free and compulsory education?

(A)      14 Years        (B)       15 Years

(C)       16 Years        (D)      16 Years                                           

Answer (A)

Q.3     Which part of the Indian constitution deals with the directive principle of the state policy?

(A)      Part I              (B)       Part III

(C)       Part IV           (D)      Part V                                            

Answer (C)

Q.4     The articles of the constitution of India which deal with directive principle of state policy are:

(A)      26 to 41        (B)       30 to 45

(C)       36 to 51        (D)      40 to 55                               

Answer (C)

Q.5     ‘Equal pay for equal work’ has been ensured in the Indian constitution as one of the?

(A)      Fundamental right            

(B)       Directive principle of state policy

(C)       Fundamental duties         

(D)      Economic right                              

Answer (B)

 Q.6     The concept of ‘Welfare State’ is included in which part of the Indian constitution?

(A)      Preamble of the constitution                 

(B)       The fundamental right

(C)       The directive principle of state policy 

 (D)  The fundamental right     

Answer (C)

 Q.7     ‘The directive principle of state policy is a cheque which is paid on Bank’s convenience’ who told it?

(A)      B.R. Ambedkar                  

 (B)       K.M. Munshi

(C)       Rajendra Prasad               

 (D)      K. T. Seth                             

Answer (A)

 Q.8    The directive principle of state policy is:

(A)      Justiciable     

(B)       Non Justiciable

(C)       Only some of the provisions are justiciable

(D)      None of these                                                                                 

Answer (B)

Q.9     The purpose of the inclusion of directive principle of state policy in the Indian constitution is to establish?

(A)      Political democracy                       (B)       Social democracy

(C)       Gandhian democracy                   (D)      Social and economic democracy          

Answer (D)

 Q.10   Which one of the following article of the directive principles of state policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security?

(A)      41             (B)       43 A

(C)       48 A         (D)      51                                                                               

Answer (D)

Q.11   How many fundamental duties are in the Indian constitution?

(A)      9          (B)       11

(C)       12       (D)      20                                                                  

Answer (B)

 Q.12   By which amendment act the fundamental duties of citizen are included in Indian constitution?

(A)      42nd amendment               

(B)       44th amendment

(C)       56th amendment               

(D)      73rd amendment                        

Answer (A)

Q.13   In which of the following years the fundamental duties have been added to the existent fundamental right the constitution of India?

(A)      1965              (B)       1976

(C)       1979              (D)      1982                                                             

Answer (B)

 Q.14   The 42nd amendment act has incorporated into the constitution of India a new chapter on?                       

(A)      Administration of union territories

(B)       Formation of interstate councils

(C)       Fundamental duties

(D)      None of these

Answer (C)

 Q.15   By what term, the ten commandments of 42nd constitutional amendment act are called?           

(A)      Fundamental rights          

(B)      Fundamental duties

(C)      Panchayati Raj Principle

(D)     Directive principle of state policy

Answer (B)

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Q.1     How does the constitution of India describe India as?

(A)      A federation of states and Union Territories

(B) A Union of State

(C)       Bharatvarsh                       

 (D)     A federated Union                        

Answer (B)

Q.2     Which commission made the recommendations which formed the basis for the Punjab reorganization act which created the states Punjab and Haryana?

(A)      Dhar Commission  

(B)       Dass Commission

(C)       Shah Commission  

(D)      Mahajan Commission                                         

Answer (C)

 Q.3     Article 1 of the constitution of India declares India as—

(A)      Federal state           

(B)       Quasi-Federal state

(C)       Unitary state           

(D)      Union of state                                            

Answer (D)

 Q.4     The no. of union territories on India is?

(A)      5          (B)       6

(C)       7          (D)      9                                                                                  

Answer (C)

Q.5   Of the following the town does not come within the national capital region (NCR) is?

(A)      Panipat          (B)       Rohtak

(C)       Khurja           (D)      Mathura                                                       

Answer (D)

Q.6Which of the following state is a member of the ‘seven Sisters?

(A)      West Bengal (B)       Tripura

(C)       Orissa            (D)      Bihar                                                             

Answer (B)

Q.7     Sikkim was made an integral part of India under the?

(A)      36th Amendment   

(B)       39th Amendment

(C)       40th Amendment    

(D)      42nd Amendment             

Answer (A)

 Q.8     Among the following states, which one was formed last?

(A)      Andhra Pradesh     (B)       Gujarat

(C)       Karnnataka              (D)      Punjab                                               

Answer (C)

 Q.9Which one of the following is the first state to have been formed on linguistic basis?

(A)      Andhra Pradesh     (B)       Gujarat

(C)       Karnnataka              (D)      Punjab                                              

Answer (A)

 Q.10   What is the correct chronological order in which the following states of the indianunion were created or granted full statehood?

1. Andhra Pradesh      2.Maharashtra

3. Nagaland                 4. Haryana

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4                         (B) 2,1,3,4

(C) 4,3,2,1                            (D) 2,1,4,3

Answer (A)

Q.11   The power to curve out a new state is vested in?

(A)      The Parliament      

(B)       The President

(C)       The Council of Ministers  

(D)      State’s Reorganizations commission

Answer (A)

 Q.12   Andhra Pradesh was created as a linguistic state in?

(A)      1950              (B)       1953

(C)       1956              (D)      1961                                                             

Answer (B)

 Q.13   ‘Uttarakhand’ state came into existence on?

(A)      1, November 2000             

(B)      9, November 2000

(C)      10, November 2001         

(D)      1, January 2008                            

Answer (B)

 Q.14   Which of the following is not a union territory?

(A)      Goa                                       

(B)       Lakshadweep

(C)       Dadar and Nagar Haveli  

(D)      Chandigarh                                     

Answer (A)

 Q.15   In which year was the state of Jharkhand formed?

(A)      1998              (B)       1999

(C)       2000             (D)      2001                                                            

Answer (C)

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Q.1     From the following languages listed in the eighth schedule of the constitution pick out of the one which is official language of a state?

(A)      Kashmiri        (B)       Urdu

(C)       Sindhi           (D)      Nepali

Answer (B)

Q.2     The item ‘Education’ belongs to the—-?

(A)      Union List

(B)       State List

(C) Concurrent List

(D)      Residuary List

Answer (C)

Q.3     How many schedules the constitution of India contains?

(A)      9          (B)       10

(C)       11       (D)      12

Answer (D)

Q.4 which article of the Indian constitution provides for the institution of panchayati-Raj?

(A)      Article 36                  (B)   Article 39

(C)       Article 40                  (D)-Article 48

Answer (C)

Q.5     Article 1 of the constitution declares India as –?

(A)      Federal State

(B)       Quasi-Federal State

(C)       Unitary State

(D)      Union of State

Answer (D)

Q.6     How many Articles are there in the Indian constitution?

(A)      395                 (B)       396

(C)       398                 (D)      399

Answer (A)

Q.7     Which part of the Indian constitution deals with Fundamental Right?

(A)      Part I                 (B)       Part II

(C)       Part III              (D)      Part IV

Answer (C)

Q.8     How many languages have recognized by the Constitution?

(A)      15                   (B)       18

(C)       22                   (D)      24

Answer (C)

Q.9     Which one of the following Article of the Constitution of India has provision for the president to proclaim emergency?

(A)      Article 352    (B)       Article 355

(C)       Article 356    (D) Articles 360

Answer (A)

Q.10   The Method of constitutional amendment is provided in?

(A)      Article 348       (B)       Article 358

(C)       Article 368        (D) Articles 378

Answer (C)

Q.11 With what subject to the article 5 to 11 of the constitution of India deal ?

(A)      Indian Union and its territory                 (B)       Citizenship

(C)       Fundamental Duties                                  (D)      Union Executive

Answer (B)

Q.12   The tenth schedule of Indian constitution deals with?

(A)      Anti-Defection Legislation

(B)       Panchayati Raj

(C)       Land Reforms

(D)      Distribution of powers between Union and State

Answer (A)

Q.13   Procedure for creation of legislative council in state has been described in which article of the constitution?

(A)      Article 69

(B)       Article 169

(C)       Article 269

(D)      Article369

Answer (B)

Q.14   Which of the constitutional provision lays down that taxes can neither be levied nor collected without the authority of law?

(A)      Article 265

(B)       Article 266

(C)       Article 300

(D)       Article 368

Answer (A)

Q.15   Which provision relating to the fundamental rights is directly related to the exploitation of children?

(A)      Article 17

(B)       Article 19

(C)       Article 23

(D)       Article 24

Answer (D)

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Q.1- the Concept of judicial review in our constitution has been taken from the constitution of?

(A)        England            

(B)          USA

(C)       Canada

(D)        Australia                                                                             

Answer (B)

Q.2   The constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian federation from the constitution of:

(A)          USA             

(B)          Canada

(C)          U.K             

(D)          Ireland                                                                                                  

Answer (B)

Q.3   The federal system with strong center has been borrowed by the Indian constitution from?

(A)          USA              (B)          Canada

(C)          U.K              (D)          France                                                                                                  

Answer (B)

Q.4   The idea of including the Emergency provisions in the constitution of India has been borrowed from?

(A)   Constitution of Canada          

(B)    Weimar constitution of Germany

(C)  Constitution of Ireland 

(D) Constitution of USA                                                       

Answer (B)

Q.5 The Office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India is based on which one of the following—-?

(A)   Parliamentary commissioner of UK

(B)  Ombudsman in Scandinavia

(C)  Procurator general of Russia

(D)   Council of state in France                                                                                            

Answer (B)

Q.6   Which of the following was the biggest source for the constitution of India?

(A)    The Government of India act, 1919

(B)     The Government of India act, 1935

(C)    The Indian Independence act, 1947

(D)    None of Above                                                                                                

Answer (B)

Q7   Of the following words in the preamble of the constitution of India which was not inserted through the constitution (Forty Second)

(A)   Socialist               

(B)  Secular

(C) Dignity                 

(D) Integrity                                                                              

Answer (C)

Q.8   At the time of enactment of the constitution, which one of the following ideals was not included in the preamble?

(A) Liberty                  (B)          Equality

(C) Socialist                (D)          Justice                                                                                  

Answer (C)

Q.9     Which Amendment act introduced changes in the preamble to the Indian constitution?

(A)          The 38th Amendment act 1975

(B)          The 40th Amendment act 1976

(C)          The 42nd Amendment act 1976

(D) The 44th Amendment act 1979                                                                                   

Answer (C)

Q.10 The preamble of our constitution reads India as?

(A)  Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic

(B)  Sovereign, Democratic, socialist, secular republic

(C)  Socialist sovereign, democratic, secular, republic

(D)  Democratic, sovereign, secular, socialist republic                                                            

Answer (A)

Q. 10 the preamble of our constitution reads India as?

(A)  Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic

(B)   Sovereign, Democratic, socialist, secular republic

(C)  Socialist sovereign, democratic, secular, republic

(D)  Democratic, sovereign, secular, socialist republic                                                           

Answer (A)

Q.11   Which Amendment of the Indian constitution inserted the two words—Socialist and Secular in the preamble?

(A)          28th       

(B)          40th

(C)          42nd       

(D)          52nd                                                                                                       

Answer (C)

Q.12 in Which amendment the words socialist secular and unity and integrity of the nation were added to the preamble of constitution of India?

(A)          42nd      (B)   44th

(C)          52nd      (D)   none of them                                                                  

Answer (A)

Q.13   Consider the following Words?

1. Socialist                   2. Democratic

3. Sovereign                4. Secular

Choose the response that gives the correct in the preamble?

(A)          3, 1, 4, and 2                         

(B)          3, 4, 1, and 2

(C)          3, 4, 1, and 2                         

(D)          4, 1, 3, and 2                                                        

Answer (A)

Q.14       Which one of the following describes India a secular state?

(A)          Fundamental Rights        

(B)          Preamble to the Constitution

(C)          9th Schedule                      

(D)          Directive principles                                         

Answer (B)

Q.15   Which one of the following liberty is not embodied in the preamble to the constitution of India?

(A)          Liberty of Thought         

 (B)          Liberty of Expression

(C)          Liberty of belief               

(D)          Economic Liberty                                                             

Answer (D)

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Q.1     The presidential government operates on the principle of?

(A)      Division of powers between centre and state

(B)       Centralization of powers

(C)       Balance of powers

 (D)      Separation of powers

Answer (D)                                                            

Q.2     Which of the following countries have an unwritten constitution?

(A)      USA                (B)       UK

(C)       India               (D)      Pakistan

Answer (B)

Q.3     The unitary system of government possesses which of the following advantages?

(A)      Grater adaptability                                  (B)       Strong state

(C)       Greater participation by the people     (D)      Lesser chances of authoritarianism

Answer (D)

Q.4     Which of the following countries enjoys a federal form of government?

(A)      China              (B)       USA

(C)       Cuba              (D)      Belgium

Answer (B)

Q.5     The English crown is an example of?

(A)      Real executive                    

(B)       Quasi-real executive

(C)       Nominal executive            

(D)      Nominated executive

Answer (C)

Q.6      The declaration that democracy is a government ‘of the people, by the people, for the people ‘was made by?

(A)      Abraham Lincoln    

(B)       George Washington

(C)       Theodore Roosevelt

(D)     Winston Churchill

Answer (A)

Q.7     At which of its session, did the congress officially accept the ‘socialistic pattern of Society?

(A)      Bombay session of 1953               (B)       Avadi session of 1955

(C)       Calcutta session of 1957              (D)      Nagpur session of 1959

Answer (B)

Q.8     In Indian polity which one is Supreme?

(A)      The Supreme Courts        

(B)       The Constitution

(C)       The Parliament                  

(D)      Religion

Answer (B)

Q.9     In Indian polity, The Executive is subordinate to the –?

(A)      Judiciary                               

(B)       Legislature

(C)       Election commission         

(D)      U P S C

Answer (B)

Q.10   Which of the following official documents is related with India?

(A)      White Paper           

(B)       Green Paper

(C)       Yellow Book            

(D)      Blue Book

Answer (A)

Q.11   Which one of the following is a basic feature of the Presidential Government?

(A)      Rigid constitution                           (B)       Single Executive

(C)       Supremacy of the Legislature        (D)      Residual powers of the state

Answer (B)

Q.12   Where was the concept of written constitution, first born?

 (A)      France          (B)       USA

(C)       Britain         (D)      Switzerland

Answer (B)

Q.13   Where was the first parliamentary form of government formed?

(A)      Britain                       

(B)       Belgium

(C)       France                      

(D)      Switzerland

Answer (A)

Q.14   Who called Indian federalism as the co-operative federalism? (C PCS Pre 2008)

(A)    G. Austin           

(B)    K. C. Where

(C)   Sir Ivory Jennings   

 (D)  D.D. Basu

Answer (A)

Q.15   The constitution of India is?

(A)      Rigid              

(B)       Flexible

(C)       Very Rigid    

(D)      Partly Rigid, Partly Flexible

Answer (D)

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Indian Polity Topic Wise Question for UPSC IAS and Other Competitive Exams.

Q.1     who was the chairman of the Union Power committee of constituent assembly of India?

(A)      Sardar Vallabhai patel

(B)       Dr. B.R Ambedkar

(C)       Sir Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar

(D)      Pt. Jawahar lal Nehru

Answer (D)

Q.2     The constitution of India was adopted on?

(A)      26 January 1950

(B)       26 January 1949

(C)       26 November 1949

(D)      15 August 1947

Answer (C)

Q.3     who presided over the first meeting of the Indian constitution Assembly?

(A)      Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B)       Sachchidanand sinha

(C)       B.R. Ambedkar

(D)      H.V. Kamath

Answer (B)

Q.4 who among the following was the advisor to the drafting committee of constituent assembly?  (NDA 2009, UP PCS2014)

(A)      B. Shiva Rao

(B)       B.R. Ambedkar

(C)       Sachidananda sinha

(D)      B.N. Rau

Answer (D)

Q.5 The Constituent assembly of India started functioning from?

(A) 9th December 1946

(B) 1st January 1947

(C   26th January 1947

(D) 15th August 1947

Answer (A)

Q.6     Who among the following was not a member of the constituent assembly?

(A)      Sardar Vallabhbhai patel

(B)       Acharya J.B. Kriplani

(C)       Jai Prakash Narayan

(D)      K.M. Munshi

Answer (C)

Q.7     The constitution of India was completed on?

(A)      February 11, 1948

(B)       November 26, 1949

(C)       January 26, 1950

(D)      None of these

Answer (B)

Q.8 How many sessions of the Indian constituent assembly were conducted for the formulation of Indian constitution?

(A)      7                      (B)       11

(C)       12                   (D)      15

Answer (B)

Q.9     The first day session of Indian constitution assembly was chaired by:

(A)  Dr Rajendra Prasad

(B)   B.R. Ambedkar

(C)   Pt. Jawahar lal Nehru

(D)  Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha

Answer (D)

Q.10   How much time the constitution assembly took to frame the constitution of India?

(A)  2 years 7 Months 23 days               (B)   2 years 11 Months 18days

(C)  3 years 4 Months 14 days               (D) 3 years 11 Months 5 days

Answer (B)

Q.11   The Constitution assembly set up a drafting committee under the chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on?

(A)      13th December 1946

(B)       22nd January 1947

(C)       3rd June, 1947

(D)      29th August 1947

Answer (D)

Q.12   The number of members included in the constitution drafting committee was?

(A)      Seven             (B)       Nine

(C)       Eleven            (D)      Thirteen

Answer (A)

Q.13   The first session of the constitutional assembly was held on:

(A)      26 November 1946

(B)       9 December 1946

(C)       16 August 1947

(D)      26 January 1948

Answer (B)

Q.14   Who proposed the preamble before the drafting committee of the constitution?

(A)      Jawahar lal Nehru                  (B)       B.R. Ambedkar

(C)       B. N. Rau                               (D)      Mahatma Gandhi

Answer (A)

Q.15   Who was the president of the constituent assembly of independent India?

(A)      Dr. B.R. Ambedkar                         (B)       Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(C)       C. Rajagopalachari                         (D)      K.M. Munshi

Answer (B)

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Indian Polity Question Bank for UPSC IAS, State PSC and All Other Competitive Exams.

Q 1.Which of the following exercised the most profound influence in farming the Indian constitution?                                                                                           

(A)British constitution

(B)US constitution

(C)Irish constitution

(D)The Government of India Act, 1935                                             

Answer (A)

Q 2.The First attempt to introduce a representative and popular element in the governance of India was made through:

(A) Indian Council Act, 1861

(B) Indian council Act 1892

(C)Indian council Act, 1909

(D) Government of India Act, 1919                                                    

Answer (D)

Q 3 Which of the following acts introduced communal electorate in India?

(A) Indian Council Act, 1861

(B) Indian Council Act, 1892

(C) Indian Council Act, 1909

(D) Government of India Act, 1919                                                                

Answer (C)

Q 4.By virtue of which Act, dyarchy was introduced in India?

(A)      Indian council Act 1909

(B)      Government of India Act 1919

(C)       Government of India Act 1935

(D)      Indian independence Act 1947                                                                      

Answer (B)

Q.5The instrument of instructions contained in the Government of India in the Act 1935 has been incorporated in the constitution of India in the year 1950 as?

(A)      Fundamental right

(B)    Directive principles of the state policy

(C)   Fundamental Duties

(D)   Emergency Provisions                                                                

Answer (D)

 Q.6     The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on?       

(A)      The principle of federation and parliamentary system

(B)      The principle of succession of the British Indian provinces

(C)       Acceptance of the idea of a constituent Assembly to draft a constitution

Answer (A)

Q.7 the monopoly of Indian trade of the east India company was abolished by the?                                                                                                                                      

(A)      Regulating Act, 1773

(B)      Charter Act, 1813

(C)       Charter Act, 1833

(D)      Government of India Act, 1858

Answer (B)

Q.8Which reference to the colonial period on India, The trade monopoly of the East India Company was ended by?                                                           

(A)      The Regulating Act, of 1773

(B)      Pitt’s India Act, of 1784

(C)       The Charter Act, 1813

(D)      The Charter Act, 1833

Answer (C)

Q.9 Two independent states of India and Pakistan were created by:

(A)      The Simla Conference

(B)      The Cripps Proposal

(C)       The Cabinet Mission plan

(D)      The Indian Independence Act.                                               

Answer (D)

Q.10 The first definite step to provided parliamentary control over East India Company was taken by:                                                                  

(A)      The Regulating Act, 1773

(B)      The Pitt’s India Act, 1784

(C)       The Charter Act, 1793

(D)      The charter Act, 1813

Answer (A)

Q.11 The Montague- Chelmsford Report formed the basis of:        

(A)      The Indian council act, 1909

(B)      The government of India Act 1919

(C)       The government of India act, 1935

(D)      The Indian independence act, 1947

Answer (B)

Q.12 through which one of the following was commercial activities of the East India Company finally put to an end?                                                      

(A)      The charter act, 1793

(B)      The charter act, 1813

(C)       The charter act, 1833

(D)      The charter act, 1853

Answer (C)

Q.13 which of the following vasted the secretary of state for India with supreme control over the government of India?                                             

(A)      Pitt’s India act, 1784

(B)      Government of India act, 1858

(C)       Indian council act, 1861

(D)      Morley- Minto Reforms 1909

Answer (B)

Q.14   Diarchy was first introduced under?                                    

(A)      Morley-Minto Reforms

(B)      Mont-Ford Reforms

(C)       Simon Commission Plan

(D)      Government of India Act, 1935

Answer (B)

Q.15   which of the following was/were the main feature’s of the government of India act, 1919?                                                                                                            

1.         Introduction of separate electorates for Muslims

2.         Devolution of legislative authority by the centre

3.         Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A)      2 only

(B)      1 and 3 only

(C)       3 only

(D)      2 and 3 any

Answer (D)

Indian Polity MCQ’s useful for IAS/PCS/NDA/CDS/SSC and All other Competitive exams

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INDIAN POLITY AND CONSTITUTION

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This Indian Polity Question Bank for Civil Services Examination of India book would be highly useful for aspirants of civil services and other competitive examination and especially for those who do not have a background in Polity & Constitution.

Indian Polity is a key subject for UPSC & State Public Services Commission Competitive Examinations. So, considering the importance of the subject we have created a Comprehensive Study material on Indian Polity with major sections like Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP, Parliament, Supreme Court, Bodies etc.

 

Topic Covered:

 

  • Indian Constitution: An overview

 

  • List of Presidents in India

 

  • List – Prime Minister of India

 

  • The making of the Constitution of India

 

  • Schedules in the Constitution of India

 

  • List of Important Articles of the Indian Constitution

 

  • The Acts passed before constitution

 

  • The Acts passed before the Formation of Indian Constitution

 

  • Preamble of the Constitution

 

  • Features of the Indian Constitution

 

  • Indian Constitution: Important Amendments at a Glance

 

  • Constitution of India: features taken from other countries

 

  • Parliamentary System in India

 

  • Citizenship

 

  • Fundamental Rights & Fundamental Duties

 

  • Directive Principles of State Policy

 

  • Elections in India

 

  • Special Status to the Other Indian States

 

  • Scheduled and Tribal Areas in India

 

  • Emergency Provisions in Indian Constitution

 

  • Electoral Reforms in India

 

  • Panchayati Raj Systems in India

 

  • Parliament & Indian Judiciary

 

  • Union & State Executive

 

  • PMO and Cabinet Secretary

 

  • Cabinet Committees

 

  • Union-State Relations / Centre-State Relations

 

  • Union Territories

 

  • Constitutional & Non-Constitutional Bodies

 

  • Election Commission of India

 

  • Union Public Service Commission

 

  • State Public Service Commission

 

  • National Finance Commission

 

  • State Finance Commission

 

  • National Commission for Scheduled Castes

 

  • National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

 

  • Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities

 

  • Comptroller and Auditor General of India

 

  • Attorney General of India

 

  • Advocate General of the State

 

  • National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog

 

  • Planning Commission and NITI Aayog

 

  • National Human Rights Commission

 

  • State Human Rights Commission

 

  • Central Information Commission

 

  • State Information Commission

 

  • Central Vigilance Commission

 

  • Central Bureau of Investigation

 

  • Lokpal and Lokayukta in Indian Constitution
 

Indian Polity and Constitution General Study Question Answer for Competitive Exams

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