IAS Prelims 2020: GS Paper Test-4

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Indian Polity & Constitution

1.       By “Rule of Law”, we mean who among the following are subject to the law of the land?

1.       Every subject of the law of the land only

2.       Every subject of the law of the land including the lawmakers

3.       Every subject of the law of the land, lawmakers, law enforcement officials and judges Choose the correct statements

(a)     1 only

(b)     Both 1 and 2

(c)      2 only

(d)     Both 1 and 2

2. Which of the following could not be construed as apart of concept of “Rule of Law”?

(a) Law must be publicly declared and is established or adopted through popular consent

(b) Prospective application (punishments)

(c) Characteristics of generality equality and protection of individual rights

(d) Requirements with regard to the content of the law

3. Consider the following statements.

1. In the Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narayan case, the Apex Court held that Rule of Law embodied in Article 14 of the Constitution is the “basic feature” of the Indian Constitution.

2. In the Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India case, the Supreme Court held that Indian Constitution is based on the American system of ‘Due Process of Law

Correct statement/s is/are

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

4. Consider the following statements.

1. Constitutionalism can be established in a country even without a written Constitution.

2. Written Constitution in a country would not qualify a country automatically to be a Constitutionalised one

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

5. Consider the following statements.

1. While in case of Written Constitutions there is clear distinction between constitutional laws and other laws (like statutory laws and bylaws), in case of unwritten Constitutions there is no such marked difference as every law

Passed by the parliament becomes constitutional.

2. While in case of Written Constitutions, the structure of government can be federal or unitary, in case of unwritten Constitutions, the structure of government is necessarily unitary because the parliament is considered supreme

The correct statement/s is/are

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

6. Consider the following statements regarding the Parliamentary form of the government and choose the INCORRECT feature.

(a)     Existence of a Titular or Constitutional Ruler

(b)     Absence of clear principle of separation of powers

(c)      Ministry formed from the popular chamber of the legislature

(d)     None of the above

7. Which of the following is NOT considered as an essential nature of Democratic government?

(a)     A belief in the fundamental importance of the individual.

(b)     Equality of All Persons

(c)      Majority Rule but recognition of Minority Rights

(d)     Freedom of the individuals rather than the rights of society

8. Consider the following statements.

1. Fundamental rights acts as a limitation on the authority of the state

2. Directive Principles authorises the state to carry out certain functions The correct statement/s is/are

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

9. Consider the following statements with regard to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

1. Preamble contains the philosophical part of the Constitution, the principles which are essentially uncodified.

2. The principles contained in the Preamble can be altered through an amendment, but without altering the basic features contained in it.

The correct statement/s is/are

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

10. Objective Resolution was silent as to the concept of …..? Which was inserted into the Preamble by the Constituent Assembly?

(a)     Republic

(b)     Sovereignty

(c)      Democratic

(d)     Justice

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Previous Years Questions – Indian Polity

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10 Practice Set-IAS Prelims Exam 2019 GS Paper-I

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UPSC IAS Prelims Test Series-2019 Updated

Important Study Notes IAS Prelims 2019

Modern History of India Study Notes With MCQ

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UPSC and State PSC Prelims Exam Indian Polity Question Bank

Q.1) Consider the following statements with regard to Regulating Act of 1773:

1. The first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British

Government was enacted through this Act.

2. This Act is of great constitutional importance as it was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (b)

Q.2) considers the features given below and chooses the correct answer:

1. This Act provided for the first time for the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the Viceroy and Governors.

2. This Act introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’.

3. This Act retained official majority in the Central Legislative Council but allowed the provincial legislative councils to have non-official majority.

The above important features are part of –

a) Indian Councils Act of 1861

b) Indian Councils Act of 1892

c) Indian Councils Act of 1909

d) Government of India Act of 1919

Solution (c)

Features of the Act of 1909 also known as Morley-Minto Reforms:

1. It considerably increased the size of the legislative councils, both Central and provincial.

2. It retained official majority in the Central Legislative Council but allowed the provincial legislative councils to have non-official majority.

3. It enlarged the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at both the levels. For example, members were allowed to ask supplementary questions, move resolutions on the budget, and so on.

4. It provided (for the first time) for the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the Viceroy and Governors.

5. It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’.

6. It also provided for the separate representation of presidency corporations, chambers of commerce, universities and zamindars.

Q.3) which among the following is/are the feature common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation?

1. Three lists in the Constitution

2. A federal supreme court to interpret the Constitution

3. Single citizenship

4. Appointment of state governors by the Centre

Choose correct option:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) 2 only

d) 2 and 3 only

Solution (c)

Q.4) Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble were the features borrowed from –

a) Weimar Constitution of Germany

b) French Constitution

c) Irish Constitution

d) US Constitution

Solution (b)

Q.5) the Preamble reveals which among the following ingredients or components –

1. Source of authority of the Constitution

2. Nature of Indian State

3. Objectives of the Constitution

4. Date of adoption of the Constitution

Choose correct option:

a) 2 and 3 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (d)

Q.6) Consider the below statements:

1. The Indian Constitution provides for direct democracy where the people exercise their supreme power.

2. The term ‘democratic’ is used in the Preamble in the broader sense embracing not only political democracy but also social and economic democracy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (b)

Q.7) in which of the following case, the Supreme Court laid down that the Constitution is federal and characterised federalism as its ‘basic feature’?

a) Bommai case (1994)

b) Minerva Mills case (1980)

c) Cooper case (1970)

d) Shankari Prasad (1951)

Solution (a)

Q.8) In addition to the making of the Constitution and enacting of ordinary laws, the

Constituent Assembly also performed which of the following functions?

1. Elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India

2. Adopted India’s National Anthem and National Song

3. Adopted the National Flag of India

4. Ratified India’s membership of the Commonwealth

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) All of the above

Solution (d)

Q.9) Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the Division of powers?

a) Schedule Two

b) Schedule Four

c) Schedule Three

d) None

Solution (d)

Q.10) Consider the following statements:

1. Process for changing the name of a state or its district/villages can be initiated by state only.

2. Formation of new states, altering boundary and name is not considered as Constitutional Amendment under Art 368.

3. Parliament has power to change the name of a state or its districts and villages.

Which of the statements provided above is/are correct?

a) 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (a)

Q.11) the Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has

1. Republican system

2. Doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament

3. System of legal responsibility of the minister

4. System of judicial review

5. Both a real and a nominal executive

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 3 and 4

b) 4 and 5 only

c) 2, 4 and 5

d) 1 and 4 only

Solution (d)

Q.12) The Constitution of India confers which among the following rights and privileges on the citizens of India (and denies the same to aliens)?

1. Equality before law and equal protection of laws

2. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion

3. Freedom to manage religious affairs

4. Six basic freedoms subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19

5. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2 and 4

b) 4 and 5 only

c) 2, 4 and 5

d) 3 and 5 only

Solution (b)

Q.13) Consider the statements given below:

1. In India only a citizen by birth and not a naturalised citizen are eligible for the office of President.

2. The Constitution does not contain provisions dealing with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (b)

Q.14) Consider the following:

1. States not indestructible

2. Single Constitution

3. Flexibility of the Constitution

4. Three tier government

5. Integrated Election Machinery

Which of the terms given above are unitary features of the Indian Constitution?

a) 1, 2 and 4

b) 2, 3 and 5

c) 1, 2, 3 and 5

d) 1, 2 and 5

Solution (c)

Q.15) Arrange the below given States in correct chronological sequence based on their creation after the reorganisation of the states in 1956:

1. Haryana

2. Nagaland

3. Gujarat

4. Sikkim

Choose the correct code:

a) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3

b) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4

c) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3

d) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4

Solution (b)

Q.16) if any foreign territory becomes a part of India –

a) Government of India specifies the persons who among the people of the territory shall be the citizens of India.

b) Automatically all the people belonging to the territory become the citizens of India.

c) Parliament has to amend the Citizenship Act and make provision for providing citizenship to people of the territory.

d) People of the territory can acquire citizenship of India by Registration.

Solution (a)

Q.17) which among the following powers are granted to the Parliament by Article 2 of the Indian Constitution?

1. Power to admit into the Union of India new states

2. Power to increase the area of any state

3. Power to alter the boundaries of any state

4. Power to establish new states which were previously not part of India

Select the correct code:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (c)

Q.18) Consider the following statements:

1. Republic Day is celebrated to commemorate the adoption of constitution.

2. The Beating Retreat ceremony is held after officially denoting the end of Republic Day festivities i.e. evening of 26th January.

3. Beating Retreat ceremony is performed by the bands of the three wings of the military, the Indian Army, Indian Navy and Indian Air Force.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 2

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Q.19) Consider the following statements regarding the states of India:

1. States in India have no right to territorial integrity.

2. Indian Federation is “an indestructible Union of indestructible states”.

3. In order to change the name or boundary of a country ratification of the State Legislature is required.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) None

Solution (a)

Unlike in other federations, the states in India have no right to territorial integrity. The Parliament can by unilateral action change the area, boundaries or name of any state. Moreover, it requires only a simple majority and not a special majority. Hence, the Indian Federation is “an indestructible Union of destructible states”. The American Federation, on the other hand, is described as “an indestructible Union of indestructible states”.

Q.20) The Swaran Singh Committee considered the question of –

a) Integration of British provinces and the princely states

b) Reorganisation of states on the basis of linguistic factor

c) The suitability of the Presidential form of government for India

d) Reorganisation of states on the basis of administrative convenience

Solution (c)

The Swaran Singh Committee was appointed by the Congress government in 1975 which considered the question of the suitability of the Presidential form of government for India. The committee gave report in favor of presidential form of government owing to various advantages over presidential form of government. However, the committee also opined that there is no need to replace parliamentary system.