UPSC Notification for Civil Services Examination 2020 Released: 796 Vacancies; Apply Now!

Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has released the notification for Civil Services Examination 2020. Apply now if your ambition is to become an IAS/IPS/IFS officer. It’s the time to apply if your dream job is that of a top civil servant in the country. UPSC has published the notification for Civil Services Exam (CSE) 2020. Aspirants who wish to join services like IAS, IPS, IFS etc should apply to appear before the last date, which is March 03, 2020.

The UPSC CSE Preliminary Exam will be conducted on May 31, 2020 (Sunday).

UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 : Complete Revision

How to apply for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2020?

Candidates are required to apply online by using the website https://www.upsconline.nic.in

Candidates will be required to complete the Online Application Form containing two stages viz. Part-I and Part-II as per the instructions available in the above-mentioned official site. The Online applications (Part I and II) can be filled from 12th February 2020 to 03rd March 2020 till 18:00 Hrs.

Fees – Rs.100 for General/OBC (Male)

The candidates are required to pay a fee of Rs.100/- (Rupees One Hundred only). SC/ST/ Female/Persons with Benchmark Disability candidates are exempted from payment of the fee. The fees can be paid either by depositing the money in any branch of State Bank of India by cash, or by using net banking facility of State Bank of India or by using any Visa/Master/RuPay Credit/ Debit Card.

Age Limit – 32 for General; 35 for OBC; 37 for SC/ST

If your age limit is between 21-32 years (General Category) as on August 1, 2020, you can apply for the UPSC Civil Services Exam 2020. The upper age limit for OBC candidates is 35 years, while that of SC/ST candidates is 37 years. For details, refer this link – UPSC Civil Services Exam eligibility criteria.

Note: The Commission takes up verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents only after the candidate has qualified for Interview/Personality Test. UPSC Civil Services Notification 2020

Economically Weaker Section Candidates (EWS)

Candidates who wish to apply under EWS category for Prelims 2020 are requested to get their EWS Certificate ready at the earliest. The EWS Candidate applying for CSE 2020 must produce and Income and Asset Certificate for F.Y. 2018-2019.

Candidates seeking reservation benefits

Candidates seeking reservation/relaxation benefits available for SC/ST/OBC/EWS/PwBD/Ex-servicemen must ensure that they are entitled to such reservation/relaxation as per eligibility prescribed in the Rules/Notice.

They should also be in possession of all the requisite certificates in the prescribed format in support of their claim as stipulated in the Rules/Notice for such benefits.

Candidates should note that certificates should be dated earlier than the due date (closing date) of the application of Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2020 , i.e March 03, 2020.

You need to upload Photo, Signature, and Photo ID card
  • Before start filling up of Online Application, a candidate must have his/her photograph and signature duly scanned in the jpg format in such a manner that each file should not exceed 40 KB and must not be less than 3 KB in size for the photograph and 1 KB for the signature.
  • Candidate should have details of one Photo ID Card viz. Aadhaar Card/Voter Card/PAN Card/Passport/Driving Licence/Any other Photo ID Card issued by the State/Central Government. The details of this Photo ID Card will have to be provided by the candidate while filling up the online application form. The candidates will have to upload a scanned copy of the Photo ID whose details have been provided in the online application by him/her. This Photo ID Card will be used for all future referencing and the candidate is advised to carry this Photo ID Card while appearing for Examination/Personality Test.

UPSC Notification for Civil Services Examination (CSE) 2020

You can download the latest UPSC CSE notification here.

The notification contains the UPSC CSE syllabus, exam pattern, medical requirement and so on.

UPSC Syllabus – Civil Services Preliminary Exam

The Civil Services Preliminary exam comprises of two compulsory papers of 200 marks each (General Studies Paper I and General Studies Paper-II). The questions will be of multiple-choice, objective type. The marks in prelims will not be counted for final ranking, but just for qualification for the main exam.

The Commission will draw a list of candidates to be qualified for Civil Service (Main) Examination based on the criterion of minimum qualifying marks of 33% in General Studies Paper II of Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination and total qualifying marks of General Studies Paper-I of Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination as may be determined by the Commission.

UPSC syllabus for paper I – (200 marks) duration: two hours (counted for the merit rank in the prelims)
  • Current events of national and international importance.
  • History of India and Indian National Movement.
  • Indian and World Geography – Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World.
  • Indian Polity and Governance – Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.
  • Economic and Social Development Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector initiatives, etc.
  • General issues on Environmental Ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Change – that do not require subject specialization.
  • General Science.
UPSC syllabus for paper-ii- (200 marks) duration: two hours (not counted for the merit rank in prelims but a Qualifying Paper; just needs 33% marks)
  • Comprehension.
  • Interpersonal skills including communication skills.
  • Logical reasoning and analytical ability.
  • Decision-making and problem-solving.
  • General mental ability.
  • Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude, etc.) (Class X level), Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc. – Class X level).

There is no change in the UPSC CSE Main Exam format – 4 GS Papers, 1 Essay Paper and 2 Optional Papers from one optional subject.

Indian Forest Service Exam 2020 Notification

A separate notification for Indian Forest Service Exam (IFoS) 2020 is also released by UPSC. The Preliminary Exam for both CSE and IFoS is common while the Main Exam and Interview will be conducted separately.

Click to download the IFoS 2020 Notification.

UPSC Examination Calendar 2020 – Important Dates
  • Date of Notification for Civil Service Prelims and Indian Forest Service Prelims: February 12, 2020
  • Last date to apply for Civil Service Prelims and Indian Forest Service Prelims: March 03, 2020
  • Date of UPSC CSE Prelims 2020 and IFS Prelims 2020: May 31, 2020
  • Date of UPSC CSE Mains 2020: September 18, 2020 (5 days)
  • Date of UPSC IFS Mains 2020: November 22, 2020(10 days; only for IFoS aspirants)
  • Date of UPSC IFS Personality Test (Interview) 2020-21: January 2021 (Only for Indian Forest Service Aspirants)
  • Date of UPSC CSE Personality Test (Interview) 2020-21: February-March 2021

Note: The dates of the commencement and duration of examinations are liable to alteration if the circumstances so warrant.

796 Vacancies for CSE; 90 Vacancies for IFoS

The number of vacancies to be filled on the result of the UPSC CSE 2020 is expected to be approximately 796. This reported number is about 100 vacancies lesser than the number of reported vacancies in 2019. In 2019, the number of vacancies as per the notification was 896. In 2018, there were only 782 Vacancies for CSE and 110 Vacancies for IFoS. The vacancies can increase, once additional data becomes available in the coming months.

What if you submit multiple applications?
  • Applicants should avoid submitting multiple applications. However, if due to any unavoidable circumstances, any applicant submits multiple applications then he/she must ensure that the applications with higher RID are complete in all respects.
  • In case of multiple applications, the applications with higher RID shall be entertained by the Commission and fee paid against one RID shall not be adjusted against any other RID. UPSC Civil Services Notification 2020
Ensure that you give a valid Email ID
  • The applicants must ensure that while filling their Application Form, they are providing their valid and active E-mail IDs as the Commission may use electronic mode of communication while contacting them at different stages of the examination process.
  • The applicants are advised to check their emails at regular intervals and ensure that the email addresses ending with @ nic.in are directed to their inbox folder and not to the SPAM folder or any other folder.
Don’t wait for the last date; apply early!

Candidates are strongly advised to apply online well in time without waiting for the last date for submission of Online Applications.

How should you prepare for UPSC 2020 now?

The best strategy to clear IAS prelims 2020 in a short-time is by following the IAS Test-Based approach.

Practice and revision of MYUPSC Prelims Online Mock exams are very crucial.

Join IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 to practice and learn from 60 online mock exams. We also have other addon programs like CSAT mock exams, and previous year UPSC question paper re-take exams.

This would help you remain focused, learn quickly, and thus increase your marks by a big margin.

UPSC Civil Services Notification: UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 Trending Topics
#ImportantTopicsPrelims2020

UPSC Prelims 2020 Batch 4: Complete Revision

UPSC Prelims 2020 Batch 4 : Complete Revision of Prelims through 6000+ MCQs will start on 12th February 2020. UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 GS Paper-1 Last Time Revision Notes and Practice Test / Question Bank. UPSC Prelims 2020 Revision

Highlights:

60 Days Online Revision Test Programme

  • 45 Days Concept cum Revision Daily Test
  • 17 Days Prelims Current Affairs Tests
  • Special Test on Economic Survey & Budget
  • Special Test on India Year Book & Mapping
  • Prelims Mock Test Series
  • Prelims Study Material

UPSC Prelims 2020 Batch 4: Complete Revision of Prelims through 6000+ MCQs

Programme Approach

  1. UPSC Prelims is all about managing micro detailing of subjects & handling negative marking. As aspirants tend to get confused about what to study and how to study (i.e. up to what level/extent) for Civil Services Prelims, this programme has been designed to help students to cover whole syllabus effectively within a stipulated time and also have an assessment through test series.
  2. This programme covers the complete syllabus including – History, Geography, Polity, Economy, Science, Environment and Current Affairs with the correct mix of Fundamental and Advance level of study to cover micro detailing of sub-topics & current developments.
  3. 44 Days Concept cum Revision tests for covering basic concepts. In each Test there will be a test of 100 questions (based on the topics given in schedule) followed by Class to cover basic aspects of each topic and approach to handle questions.
  4. 17 days Current Affairs Test covering last 2 years current topics/issues supplemented by notes.
  5. Current Affairs Test will also include updates on Indian Year Book (IYB), PIB, Budget and Economic Survey.
  6. Special Test on Mapping (World & Indian Geography).
  7. Complete Prelims Study Material & Prelims Current Affairs Material will also be provided (It will cover Current Affairs of past 2 years). UPSC Prelims 2020 Revision

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

Test Plan

TEST DATE TOPIC Sub Topics Cover
Test 1 12-Feb-2020 GOVERNANCE   Working of Ministries and Department
  Functions of Cabinet Secretariat
  Functions of Central Secretariat
  RTI
  E-Governance
  Citizen Charter
  Governing Institutions
Test 2 13-Feb-2020 GOVERNANCE   Schemes
  Programmes
  Policies
  Vulnerable sector
  Bills
Test 3 14-Feb-2020 GOVERNANCE   Full length
Test 4 15-Feb-2020 GEOGRPAHY   Climatology
  Atmosphere
  Inversion of Temp
  Insolation & Heat Budget
  Winds & Pressure Belts
  Air Mass, Fronts Cyclones & Jet Stream
  Precipitation
  Climatic Zone
Test 5 16-Feb-2020 GEOGRPAHY  Full length
Test 6 17-Feb-2020 GEOGRPAHY   The origin of the Earth
  The Evolution of the Earth
  Geological History of the Earth
  Earth
  Origin of Life
  Geological Time Scale
  Interior of the Earth
  Geology
  Earthquakes
  Volcano
  Geomorphic Processes
  Distribution of Continents & Oceans   Landforms and their Evolution
  Landforms across the world
Test 7 18-Feb-2020 GEOGRPAHY   Full length
Test 8 19-Feb-2020 GEOGRPAHY   Oceanography
  Hydrosphere
  Submarine Relief Features
  Temperature & Salinity
  Waves, Ocean Currents
  Marine Resources
  Ocean Deposits & Corals
Test 9 20-Feb-2020 GEOGRPAHY   Demography
  Human Resource
  Population growth
  Demographic Transition
  Settlements  & Urbanization
Test 10 21-Feb-2020 GEOGRPAHY   Soil
  Vegetation resources
  Basic terms related to Agriculture   Productivity of Crops and conditions for growth
Test 11 22-Feb-2020 GEOGRPAHY   Mineral resource
  Energy resources
  Industry
  Transport
Test 12 23-Feb-2020 ANCIANT HISTORY   Pre Historic Cultures In India
  Pastoral and Farming Communities   Indus Valley Civilization
  Vedic Society
  Pre Mauryan Period
Test 13 24-Feb-2020 ANCIANT HISTORY   The Mauryan Empire 
  Post-Mauryan India
  Growth of Jainism and Buddhism
  Imperial Guptas
  Harshavardhana
  The Southern Dynasties
Test 14 25-Feb-2020 ANCIANT HISTORY   Visual Art
  Architecture in Ancient India
  Indo-Islamic Architecture
  Modern Architecture
  Indian Paintings
  Pottery Tradition in India
Test 15 26-Feb-2020 INDIAN CULTURE   Music in India
  Dances in India
  Martial Arts in India
  Indian Theatre
  Indian Puppetry
  Indian Cinema
  Religions in India
  Bhakti & Sufi Movements
  Languages & Literature in India
  Miscellaneous Topics
Test 16 27-Feb-2020 MEDIVAL HISTORY   The Establishment of the North Indian Empire
  Consolidation and Expansion of the Empire – Akbar
  State and Government under Akbar   Akbar’s Religious Views
  The Deccan and the Mughals (Upto 1657)
  Foreign Policy of the Mughals
  India in the First Half of the Seventeenth Century
  Aurangzeb – Religious Policies, North India and the Rajputs
  Climax and Crisis of the Mughal Empire the Marathas and the Deccan   Society-Structure and Growth
  Economic Life-Patterns and Prospects
  Religion, Fine Arts, Science and Technology
  Northern India in the First Half of the Eighteenth Century
  The Maratha Bid for Supremacy
Test 17 28-Feb-2020 MODERN HISTROY   The Advent of Europeans In India   The English in Bengal from 1757 TO 1772
  Impact of British Administration
  The Revolt of 1857
  Administrative Changes After 1857
Test 18 29-Feb-2020 MODERN HISTROY   Social reforms in India
  Development of Indian Press
  Development of Education
  Struggle by the Masses
  Terrorist and Revolutionary Movements
Test 19 01-March-2020 MODERN HISTROY   The Early Phase of the Freedom Struggle (1900-1915)
  Middle Phase of the Freedom Struggle (1915-1930)
  Closer to Freedom (1930-1947)
Test 20 02-March-2020 ENVIRONMENT   Ecology
  Ecological Community
  Ecological Succession: Its types & Process
  Ecosystem and its dynamics
  Ecosystem: Functions, Properties and Dynamics
  Biomagnification
  Biogeochemical Cycles & its types
  Biomes: Forest, Grassland, Mountain, and Desert Ecosystems
  Aquatic Life Zones: Ocean, Rivers, Lakes, and Wetlands
Test 21 03-March-2020 ENVIRONMENT   Biodiversity Basics
  Keystone, Indicator, Invasive Species   Biodiversity distribution, uses & values
  Biodiversity Hotspots
  Ecoregion
  Bio piracy
  IUCN classification Scheme
  Biodiversity Conservation
  Ex-Situ & In-Situ
  UNESCO (MAB)
  Conventional Biological Diversity
  Important Bird Areas
Test 22 04-March-2020 ENVIRONMENT   Effect of Human Activities on Environment
  Water Resource degradation
  Water Cycle (Hydrological Cycle)
  Minerals & Environmental Degradation
  Mining and Environment
  Impact of Mining
  Deforestation
  Strategies for Reducing Deforestation   Waste Management
  Solid Waste
  Hazardous Waste
  e-Waste
  Environmental Pollution
  Air Pollution
  Water Pollution
  Thermal Pollution
  Soil Pollution or Land Degradation   Noise Pollution
  Solid Waste Management
  Coastal ecosystem management
  Mangroves
  Estuaries
  Coral Reefs
  Steps for Coastal Ecosystem Management
Test 23 05-March-2020 ENVIRONMENT   Environmental Impact Assessment   International Environmental Governance
  Urbanization and climate
  Pollution in metros and climate change
  Urban Heat Island
  Impact of agriculture on climate
  Global Warming & Health
  Ozone depletion and Human Health   Sustainable Development
Test 24 06-March-2020 ENVIRONMENT   Environmental Laws
  Environment related Institutions and Organizations
  Pollution Control Boards
  National Green Tribunal
  Forest Survey of India
  National Board for Wildlife
  Schemes
  Environment related Institutions and Organizations
Test 25 07-March-2020 POLITY   Historical evolution and features   Preamble
  Fundamental rights
  DPSP
Test 26 8-Mar-2020 POLITY   Fundamental duties
  Citizenship
  Panchayats
  The Scheduled And Tribal Areas
  Relations Between The Union And The States
Test 27 9-Mar-2020 POLITY   Services
  Tribunals
  Elections
  Special Provisions Relating To Certain Classes
  Official language provisions
  Emergency provisions
  Amendments
Test 28 10-Mar-2020 POLITY   Union and States
  The President
  Vice President
  Prime Minister
Test 29 11-Mar-2020 POLITY   Council of Ministers
  Attorney General of India
  Parliament
  The Union Judiciary
Test 30 12-Mar-2020 POLITY   Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
  The Governor
  CM
  CoM
Test 31 13-Mar-2020 POLITY   The Advocate-General for the State   State legislature
Test 32 14-Mar-2020 ECONOMY   Basic concepts in Economics
  Micro-economics
  Macro-economics
  Economic Growth
  Major Growth Models
  Harrod-Domar
  Lewis Model
  Rostow stages of growth
  Balance Growth and Big-push model   Dependency theory
  Sen’s Growth theory
  Malthus’ limits on growth, etc
  Basic Features of Indian Economy – 1   Agriculture
  Economic Reforms
Test 33 15-Mar-2020 ECONOMY   Money
  New Monetary Aggregates
  Monetary Policy
  Monetary Policy Committee
  Inflation
  Types of Inflation
  Effects of inflation
  Measures taken by RBI
  Banking
Test 34 16-Mar-2020 ECONOMY   Full length
Test 35 17-Mar-2020 ECONOMY   Indian Financial Market
  Importance of Money Market
  Types of Capital Market
  Nature and functions of a stock exchange
  Role of SEBI, IRDA
  Government Budgeting/Deficits
  Budget
  Deficit Financing
  Fiscal Policy – Revenue
  Tax-Direct Tax, Indirect Tax
  Methods of Taxation – Progressive, Regressive Proportional
Test 36 18-Mar-2020 ECONOMY   Subsidies
  Planning
  Objectives of Planning – Major Objective of Planning
  Planning History
  Investment Models
  Classification of Investment
  FDI
  Angel Investors and Start-ups
  Investment Models
  Mutual Funds
Test 37 19-Mar-2020 ECONOMY   External Sector
  Fixed Foreign Currency Market
  Float Foreign Currency Market
  Balance of Payments
  Foreign Portfolio Investment
  Exchange Market
  International Organizations
  Trade agreements
Test 38 20-Mar-2020 ECONOMY Full length
Test 39 21-Mar-2020 ECONOMY Full length
Test 40 22-Mar-2020 ECONOMY Full length
Test 41 23-Mar-2020 SCIENCE AND TECH   Mobile generations
  Telecommunication technologies
  Computer terminologies
  Supercomputer
  Government initiatives
  Policies related to science and technology
  Schemes and institutions
Test 42 24-Mar-2020 SCIENCE AND TECH   Biotechnology terminologies
  Applications of biotechnology
  Biotechnology projects
  Diseases
  Vaccines
Test 43 25-Mar-2020 SCIENCE AND TECH   Space organizations in India
  Space terminologies
  Types of satellites
  Space programmes of India
  Important space missions
  Missile system
  India’s Missile systems
  UAVs
  Submarines
  Latest Defence Updations
Test 44 26-Mar-2020 SCIENCE AND TECH   Technology related to Renewable Energy
  Nuclear technology basics
  India’s Nuclear programme
  Nuclear institutions
  Radiation technologies and applications
Test 45 27-Mar-2020 SCIENCE AND TECH   Nanotechnology terminologies
  Applications of nanotechnology
  Robotics and its types
  Applications of Robotics
Test 46 30-Mar-2020 GEOGRAPHY MAPPING   Mapping (World Geography)
Test 47 31-Mar-2020 GEOGRAPHY MAPPING   Mapping (Indian Geography)
Test 48 5 April, 2020 Polity & National Issues  
Test 49 6 April, 2020 Polity & National Issues
Test 50 7 April, 2020 International Affairs
Test 51 8 April, 2020 Indian Economy
Test 52 9 April, 2020 Indian Economy
Test 53 10 April, 2020 Indian Economy
Test 54 11 April, 2020 Indian Culture
Test 55 12 April, 2020 Environment  
Test 56 13 April, 2020 Environment
Test 57 14 April, 2020 Science & Technology
Test 58 15 April, 2020 Science & Technology
Test 59 16 April, 2020 Economic Survey  
Test 60 17 Apr, 2020 Economic Survey  
Test 61 18 Apr, 2020 Indian Budget  
Test 62 19 Apr, 2020 Governance & India Year Book  
Test 63 20 Apr, 2020 Governance & India Year Book  
Test 64 21 Apr, 2020 Governance & India Year Book  

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Some Important Study Notes for UPSC Exam 2020

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(Batch-2)MOCK TEST SERIES FOR UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2020

MYUPSC UPSC Prelims 2020 Test Series

TEST SERIES AVAILABLE ONLY IN ENGLISH

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There are Full Length 60 Very High Quality Tests that match very UPSC standard (acknowledged by hundreds of toppers every year).

  1. These 60 Tests are structured in such a way as to help you start from scratch and gradually gain advanced knowledge through self study using standard textbooks and multiple revisions.
  2. First 10 Tests are based on all Important NCERT Textbooks (New NCERTs).
  3. There will be full length REVISION TEST after every 5 Tests. This helps in timetaly revision of every important topic you have read, including current affairs, before you move on to new topics.
  4. Every Test will cover Current Affairs comprehensively from May 1, 2019. This helps you read and revise current affairs from the beginning.
  5. All tests will cover previous year question papers of UPSC civil services. NDA, CDS, IES, CAPF exams. This feature helps you understand the expectations of UPSC and prepare accordingly.
  6. Every test will cover 10 percent of previous test’s syllabus. This is to let you not forget what you have read for first test and thereafter. Helps you revise previous tests before the next test.
  7. There will be section-wise analysis of your performance in each test. This helps you know where you need to put extra efforts to prepare well for your weakest areas.
  8. Unlimited access to previous tests in the form of PDFs.

This test series will seriously prepare you to tackle actual exam with full confidence.

MYUPSC – UPSC CSP (2020) Test series will strategically provide its students with an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically designed revision plans covering the entire static and current portions (multiple times). With the help of guidance, we aim to make sure that our students are exam ready, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

  1. Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs
  2. Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
  3. Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
  4. Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
  5. All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

Performance Analysis of aspirants, Section wise analysis, Difficulty Analysis, All India Rank, comparison with toppers, Integrated Score Card, Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction

UPSC (CSE Prelims) IAS Test Series 2020 Schedule Batch – 2

IAS Test Series 2020   Date
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 11 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 24 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 38 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 412 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 516 December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 620  December 2019
IAS Prelims 2020 Test 724 December 2019
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  4. Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
  5. All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

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MYUPSC – UPSC CSP (2020) Test series will strategically provide its students with an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically designed revision plans covering the entire static and current portions (multiple times). With the help of guidance, we aim to make sure that our students are exam ready, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

  1. Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs
  2. Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests
  3. Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers
  4. Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions
  5. All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

Performance Analysis of aspirants, Section wise analysis, Difficulty Analysis, All India Rank, comparison with toppers, Integrated Score Card, Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction

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MYUPSC – UPSC CSP (2020) Test series will strategically provide its students with an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically designed revision plans covering the entire static and current portions (multiple times). With the help of guidance, we aim to make sure that our students are exam ready, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

Unique Features of MYUPSC Prelims Test Series

Comprehensive coverage of entire syllabus of UPSC CSP exam through UPSC standard MCQs

Sectional Tests have been designed in a manner that students can cover each subject comprehensively in sufficient time and can evaluate his/her performance through our tests

Strictly adhering to UPSC pattern, the nature of questions ranges from factual to conceptual, proportionally dividing in each of the Test Papers

Options of MCQs have also been arranged in such a manner that elimination tactics can be applied by students while solving questions

All tests will be conducted in same manner as in real examination hall which helps in better time management and prepare students to solve MCQs correctly under exam pressure

Performance Analysis of aspirants, Section wise analysis, Difficulty Analysis, All India Rank, comparison with toppers, Integrated Score Card, Analysis of Mock Test papers based on difficulty level & nature of questions etc. will be provided to students. It will help in evaluating their performance and course correction

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 8

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Practice Mock Test – 8

1. Which of the following banks has been listed as a Domestic Systemically Important Banks (DSIBs) by the Reserve bank of India?

(a) Punjab National Bank

(b) Bank of Baroda

(c) HDFC Bank

(d) IndusInd Bank

2. The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution had launched negotiable warehousing receipts (NWR) in electronic format.

Consider the following in this regard:

1. The depositors are bailee against commodities deposited in warehouses for which documents are issued by warehouses.

2. NWRs can be traded, sold, swapped and used as collateral to support borrowing or loans from banks.

3. It is an important step towards doubling farmers’ income by 2022.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

3. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding The National Agricultural Higher Education Project?

1. The project has been formulated by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare in partnership with the World Bank.

2. Project Management and Learning is an important component of the project.

3. The project has been launched with 50:50 cost sharing basis with the World Bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

4. Bharat 22 is the second ETF (Exchange Traded Fund launched by the Government of India. Consider the following in this regard:

1. ETF’s are more liquid than mutual funds as they can be sold quickly on stock exchanges.

2. Bharat 22 comprises of 22 stocks and is managed by SBI Blue-chip Fund.

3. It gives highest sector wise weightage to energy.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

5. Which of the following are the features of the Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP)?

1. Uniform license

2. An open acreage policy

3. Profit sharing model

4. Marketing and pricing freedom

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) Only 1, 2 and 4

(c) Only 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

6. Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY):

1. It is a pension scheme launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

2. It is operated by Life Insurance Company in collaboration with the National Insurance Company (NIC).

3. The scheme also offers loan up to 75% of the purchase price after 3 policy years.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

7. Consider the following statements regarding the Jute-ICARE project:

1. It has been launched by the Ministry of Textiles to double the income of jute farmers.

2. A microbial consortium called SONA has been developed by the National Jute Board under Jute-ICARE project.

3. Retting is a process in which jute is placed in liquid so as to promote tightening of the fibres in the woody tissue.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

8. Administered Price Mechanism (APM) for petrol and diesel was dismantled by the government in 2017. Consider the following statements:

1. In dynamic fuel pricing, the oil retailers fortnightly revise the retail selling prices of petrol and diesel.

2. In India, the dynamic fuel pricing has been introduced for fixing the petrol prices only.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding the Innovate in India (i3) project?

1. I3 is a flagship program of the Government of India under the National Biopharma Mission.

2. It has been launched by the Union Ministry of Science & Technology in collaboration with World Bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. Consider the following statements regarding the Hill Area Development Programme (HADP):

1. The scheme aims to ensure equitable development of every area, tribe and every section in the North Eastern Region.

2. It has been launched by The Ministry for Development of North Eastern Region.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

11. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the National Policy on Marine Fisheries?

1. The policy is in line with the FAO’s Code of Conduct for Responsible Fisheries on conservation, development and management of fisheries.

2. The Policy has proposed chip-based smart registration cards for fishermen and their fishing vessels.

3. It focuses on Species-specific and area specific management plans with spatial and temporal measures for sustainable utilization of resources.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. With respect to information utilities

(IU), consider the following:

1. It maintains information of all financial contracts in a demat format.

2. National E-Governance Services Limited (NeSL) is India’s first Information Utility.

Which of the above statements is /are Incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Which of the following committees has recommended an overhaul of corporate governance norms for listed firms?

(a) Bimal Julka Committee

(b) Vasudev Committee

(c) Tarapore Committee

(d) Uday Kotak Committee

14. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Peer-to Peer lending (P2P)?

1. Peer-to Peer lending allows a business to sell its invoices at a discount to a pool of individual or institutional investors for cash.

2. P2P platforms are now treated as non banking financial companies (NBFCs) and thus regulated by Securities and Exchange Board of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15. With reference to ‘Non Banking Financial Company (NBFC), consider the following statements:

1. NBFC is engaged in loans and advances, industrial activity, the sale, purchase or construction of immovable property.

2. NBFC is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 of India.

3. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched the Ombudsman Scheme for Non Banking Financial Companies (NBFC).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

16. Various activities to promote best practices and enhance agriculture income being undertaken under Krishi Kalyan Abhiyan are

1. Distribution of Soil Health Cards to all farmers

2. Artificial insemination saturation

3. Demonstration programmes on Micro-irrigation

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

17. ‘Project Sashakt ‘has been launched is

(a) Personality development programme through social (or community) service

(b) Comprehensive medical care facilities to Central Government employees and their family members.

(c) One-time cash incentive to pregnant women for institutional/home births through skilled assistance.

(d) A scheme that aims to strengthen the credit capacity, credit culture and credit portfolio of public sector banks.

18. India’s first ‘freight village’ will be developed by

(a) The Inland Waterways Authority of India

(b) The National Highways Authority of India

(c) The State government of Gujarat

(d) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural

Development

19. With reference to the Municipal Bonds in India, which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

1. The market for municipal bonds in India is almost non-existent unlike US and many developing countries.

2. Thiruvananthapuram Municipal Corporation was the first urban local body in India to issue tax-free municipal bonds.

3. RBI has mandated guarantee from the State Government or Central Government for issuing such bond.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 (a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

20. With reference to special economic zone (SEZ) in India, consider the following statements:

1. India’s SEZ Policy was implemented from 1991.

2. The Baba Kalyani led committee was constituted to study the existing SEZ policy of India.

3. There is absence of clear exit mechanism for the SEZ developers in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Q. 1 (c)

Q. 2 (b)

Q. 3 (c)

Q. 4 (a)

Q. 5 (b)

Q. 6 (a)

Q. 7 (a)

Q. 8 (d)

Q. 9 (c)

Q. 10 (c)

Q. 11 (d)

Q. 12 (d)

Q. 13 (d)

Q. 14 (d)

Q. 15 (b)

Q. 16 (d)

Q. 17 (d)

Q. 18 (a)

Q. 19 (c)

Q. 20 (c)

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 7

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Practice Mock Test – 7

Q1. Consider the following about ‘RAILMADAD’:

1. It is a mobile App to register complaints by passengers through mobile phone/web.

2. It relays real time feedback to passengers on the status of redressal of their complaints which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. Consider the following about ‘Renewal Energy Dialogue’:

1. This dialogue is organised by Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW).

2. It offers a platform for engaged deliberations on the role of different stakeholders in advancing renewable energy deployment, balancing both domestic priorities and international mitigation ambitions and commitments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q3. Consider the following about ‘Mission Solar Charkha’:

1. It is an initiative of The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).

2. Its main objective is to leverage low-cost, innovative technologies and processes for sustenance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q4. In which of the following locations Strategic Oil Reserves have not been established?

a) Visakhapatnam

b) Mangalore

c) Padur

d) Ambala

Q5. Which of the following state government has launched ‘Surya Shakti Kisan Scheme’?

a) Uttar Pradesh

b) Gujarat

c) Madhya Pradesh

d) Rajasthan

Q6. Consider the following statements about ‘UDYAM SANGAM’:

1. It is organised by The Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

2. The purpose of the Conclave is to encourage dialogue and partnership among various stakeholders of the MSME ecosystem and for promoting innovation and knowledge sharing on MSME related issues.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q7. Consider the following statements about ‘Unorganised Worker Identification Number’:

1. It is an initiative of The Ministry of

Corporate Affairs under Unorganized Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008

2. It will improve unorganised workers’ access to all social security schemes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q8. Consider the following about ‘Water Productivity Mapping of Major Indian Crops Report’:

1. The report is released by Niti Aayog.

2. The report presents for the first time, maps on the water productivity of ten major Indian crops across cultivating districts and states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q9. Consider the following about ‘Zero Budget Natural Farming’:

1. ‘Zero Budgets’ farming promises to end a reliance on loans and drastically cut production costs, ending the debt cycle for desperate farmers.

2. Under this initiative there is no use of chemicals.

3. The movement first evolved in Karnataka.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 3 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 only

d) All of the above

Q10. With reference to ‘Financial stability report’, consider the following statements:

1. It is released by the Ministry of Finance.

2. It reflects the overall assessment of the stability of India’s financial system and its resilience to risks emanating from global and domestic factors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q11. With reference to ‘Prompt Corrective

Action (PCA) Framework’, consider the following statements:

1. It is a set of guidelines by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to private companies for improving their financial condition.

2. It is a framework for improving the financial condition of the scheduled commercial banks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q12. What is/are possible factor for depreciation of rupees?

a) Rise in international crude oil prices.

b) Tightening of U.S. monetary policy

c) Both a and b

d) None of the above

Q13. With reference to ‘Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016’, consider the following statements:

1. It deals primarily with insolvency issues in the banking sector.

2. Timeline for Insolvency resolution process is 2 years under IBC, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q14. With reference to ‘Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)’, consider the following statements:

1. It is a subsidiary of Life Insurance Corporation.

2. It provides insurance to deposits up to 10 lakhs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q15. ‘Compact2025’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to

a) It is an initiative for ending hunger and under nutrition by 2025.

b) It is an initiative for increasing forest cover up to 30 percent all over the world by 2025.

c) It is an initiative for the elimination of gender inequality by 2025.

d) It is an initiative for increasing primary health coverage by 2025.

Q16. With reference to ‘Consumer Confidence Survey’, consider the following statements:

1. It is released by the Central Statistics Office (CSO)

2. This Survey is being used by the Reserve Bank as one of the important inputs for monetary Policy formulation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q17.With reference to ‘Liberalized Remittance Scheme (LRS)’, consider the following statements:

1. It was launched by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

2. Regulations for the scheme are provided under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q18) ‘MADAD (Mobile Application for Desired Assistance During travel)’, recently in the news is related to

a) Monitoring the Non-performing assets

(NPA) of banks

b) Monitoring dropout rate in primary schools

c) Promotion of girl education in India.

d) Expedite and streamline passenger grievance redressal

Q19. With reference to ‘Monetary Policy

Committee’, consider the following statements:

1. The committee was created in 2016 to bring transparency and accountability in fixing India’s Fiscal Policy.

2. All members of the committee are nominated by the Government of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q20. Consider the following Statements about Advance Pricing Agreement:

1. It is an agreement between the taxpayer and the tax authority regarding transfer pricing in the future.

2. The agreement will be binding on both the taxpayer and the tax authorities.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q21. Which of the following sequence is correct about share capital in Regional Rural Banks?

a) Union Government>Sponsor Bank>State Government

b) Sponsor Bank>State Government>Union Government

c) Union Government>State Government>Sponsor Bank

d) State Government>Sponsor Bank>Union Government

Answer

Q1.  C

Q2.  C

Q3.  B

Q4.  D

Q5.  B

Q6.  B

Q7.  B

Q8.  B

Q9.  D

Q10.  B

Q11.  B

Q12.  C

Q13.  D

Q14.  D

Q15.  A

Q16.  B

Q17.  D

Q18).  D

Q19.  D

Q20.  C

Q21.  A

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 6

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Practice Mock Test – 6

Q1. Which of the following is the best description of the term ‘Asian Premium’ often seen in news?

a) It is the money which developed countries agreed to give to the poor countries of Asia to avoid climate change.

b) Extra charges being collected by OPEC countries from Asian countries when selling oil in comparison to Western countries.

c) The total amount of investments Asian

Countries received from World Bank in the last decade.

d) The extra amount of FDI Asian Countries received in last few years due to their population and lack of development.

Q2. Consider the following about ‘Compact 2025’:

1. It is an initiative for ending hunger and under nutrition by 2025.

2. It has been started by Food Corporation of India (FCI).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q3. ‘Consumer Confidence Survey’ often seen in the news is released by:

a) NITI Aayog

b) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

c) The Reserve Bank of India

d) Ministry of Consumer Affairs

Q4 Consider the following about ‘Directorate of Revenue Intelligence’:

1. It is the apex anti-money laundering agency of India.

2. It works under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs, Ministry of Finance, and Government of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q5. Consider the following about ‘Export

Promotion Council for Handicrafts’:

1. It is a non-profit organisation established under the Companies Act in the year 1986- 87.

2. It is an apex body of handicrafts exporters for promotion of exports of Handicrafts from country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q6. ‘Generalised System of Preferences’, often seen in the news is:

a) A preferential tariff system extended by developed countries to developing countries.

b) Non-discriminatory trade policy commitment offered by one country to another on a reciprocal basis.

c) A preferential tariff system extended by India to African countries.

d) A generalized system of mapping consumer preferences

Q7. Consider the following about ‘Global Real Estate Transparency Index’:

1. The survey is released by United Nations Human Settlement Programme.

2. In the latest edition (2018) of index, India has moved up one place due to improvement in market fundamentals, policy reforms, and liberalisation of FDI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q8. Which of the following best describes ‘Liberalised Remittance Scheme’ of RBI?

a) All resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2, 50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.

b) All non-resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2, 50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.

c) All resident individuals, excluding minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2, 50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.

d) All foreigners are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2, 50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.

Q9. Which of the following is the best description of the term ‘Mathew Effect’ sometimes seen in news?

a) A social phenomenon wherein people who already possess high economic or social status continue to do so over time

b) A social phenomenon wherein people who possess high economic or social status suddenly lose that status.

c) A social phenomenon wherein people who possess low economic or social status improve their status over time

d) Convergence of income between the poor and the rich.

Q10. Which of the following best describes ‘No-Fly List’?

a) It is a list prepared by the government, of people who are prohibited to travel through airways.

b) It is a list prepared by the government, of aircrafts which are prohibited from flying.

c) It is a list prepared by the government, of zones where private aircrafts are prohibited from entering.

d) It is a list prepared by the government of types of drones which are prohibited from flying near government premises.

Answer

Q1.  B

Q2.  A

Q3.  C

Q4.  B

Q5.  C

Q6.  A

Q7.  B

Q8.  A

Q9.  A

Q 10.  A

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UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 5

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Practice Mock Test – 5

Q1. Which of the following adaptations is/are found in the mangrove plants?

1. Absence of stomata.

2. Turn their leaves to reduce exposure to the sunlight.

3. Pneumatophores

4. Salt glands

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 3, 4

c) 2, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Q2. Which of the following are responsible for land degradation?

1. Overgrazing

2. Salination

3. Water-logging

4. Landslides

5. Practice of Jhum cultivation

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 2, 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

d) 1, 2, 4, 5

Answer: c

Q3. Consider the following pairs.

Disease                       Pollutant

1. Itai-itai disease                  Cadmium

2. Minamata disease                         Mercury

3. Blue Baby Syndrome                    Arsenic

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

a) 1, 3

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 2

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q4. Which of the following pyramids can be both upright and inverted?

1. Pyramid of Biomass

2. Pyramid of Numbers

3. Pyramid of Productivity

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: a

Q5. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs

a) The water vapours of the air and retains its heat

b) Infrared part of solar radiation

c) The ultraviolet part of the solar radiation

d) All the solar radiations

Answer: b

Q6. Which of the following Ramsar site is manmade?

a) Deepor Beel

b) Wular Lake

c) Bhoj Wetland

d) Loktak Lake

Answer: c

Q7. Consider the following statements about South Asian Nitrogen Hub.

1. The Indian government has announced a research project, South Asian Nitrogen Hub.

2. The project aims to study the impact of different forms of nitrogen pollution, particularly looking at nitrogen in agriculture in eight countries of South Asia.

3. UNEP will partner with different organisations from South Asia.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2 only

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Q8. With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:

1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.

2. Food chains are found within the population of a species.

3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1, 2, 3

d) None

Answer: a

Q9. Consider the following statements about Wildlife Protection Society of India.

1. It is an attached office to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

2. It protects endangered species and their habitats through awareness, support, and training.

3. Collaborate with state governments to monitor the illegal wildlife trade.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q10. Consider the following statements about “ECOMARK” scheme.

1. It is a Scheme on Labelling of Environment Friendly Products.

2. Provide an incentive for manufacturers and importers to reduce adverse environmental impact of products.

3. Reward initiatives by companies to reduce adverse environmental impact of their products.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q11. The composting process is dependent on which of the following micro-organisms?

1. Bacteria

2. Fungi

3. Virus

4. Actino bacteria

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 2, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Q12. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as a financial mechanism for which of the following conventions?

1. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)

2. Convention on the International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Flora and Fauna (CITES)

3. UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)

4. Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 3

c) 1, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q13. Consider the following statements.

1. Bioleaching is used essentially for the recovery of copper, uranium and gold.

2. Bioaugmentation can be involved in bioremediation.

3. Biosparging can be used to reduce concentrations of petroleum constituents that are dissolved in groundwater.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) None

Answer: d

Q14. Consider the following statements about Mammals of India (MAOI) initiative.

1. It is an online, peer- reviewed, freely-accessible portal exclusively for mammals.

2. It is the initiative of Ministry of Environment & Forests (MoEF).

3. It provides a facility to the citizen to upload photographic observations about mammals.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q15. Consider the following statements.

1. It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International.

2. It was declared as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.

3. The forest region is home to world’s largest population of Indian Rhinoceros.

4. It is also a Tiger Reserve.

The above statements are related to which National Park?

a) Manas National Park

b) Nameri National Park

c) Orang National Park

d) Kaziranga National Park

Answer: d

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Practice Mock Test – 3

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. Jaimini Brahmana speaks collectively on dance only.

2. In Hindustani music, Dhrupad is the pure music without distraction of words.

3. There was no evidence of musical instruments found at the sites of Indus valley civilization.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 2 only

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2

Answer: b

Q2. Consider the following with reference to Central Indian paintings.

1. They take inspiration from Puranas and Indian folk-lore.

2. Vaishnavism, Saivism and Sakti exercised tremendous influence on these paintings.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: c

Q3. Consider the following statements with reference to Sangam Literature

1. Sangam literature dealt both with personal lives such as love and relationships as well as ethics, heroism, values and social customs.

2. Only men were allowed to compose Sangam literature.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q4. Consider the following statements

1. According to this philosophy, Vedas are eternal and possess all knowledge.

2. Religion means the fulfilment of duties prescribed by the Vedas.

3. This philosophy encompasses the Nyaya-Vaisheshika systems and emphasizes the concept of valid knowledge.

The above statements are related to?

a) Mimamsa School

b) Vedanta School

c) Yoga School

d) Samkhya School

Answer: a

Q5. Consider the following about Kalighat paintings which originated in Bengal.

1. The school produced paintings that were irreproducible by lithography.

2. The school restricted itself to the depiction of natural, nationalistic and secular themes.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Answer: d

Q6. Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?

1. Arasavalli

2. Amarakantak

3. Omkareshwar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a

Q7. With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements regarding Samkhya School.

1. Samkhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.

2. Samkhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Explaination: The Samkhya School denies the existence of God. However, rebirth and transmigration of soul are inherent in the Samkhya School.  Liberation results from the disappearance of the limitations of self-awareness.

Q8. With reference to Giddha, Ghoomar and Garba, consider the following statements:

1. All three dances are primarily performed by women only

2. All three are folk dances

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q9. Which of the following are correctly matched?

Reform movement: Region of influence

1. Sri Narayana Dharma Paripalana Sabha: Karnataka

2. Sarin Sabha: Punjab

3. Paramhansa Mandali: Madhya Pradesh

4. Kayastha Sabha: Uttar Pradesh

Select from the codes below

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: b

Q10. Which of these is NOT one of the eight components of Yoga as described by Patanjali?

a) Yamas

b) Niyama

c) Asana

d) Mulahara

Answer: d

Q11. MANIYARO a variety of folk dance is of which state?

a) Assam

b) Andhra Pradesh

c) Gujarat

d) Manipur

Answer: c

Q12. Consider the following statements about National School of Drama.

1. It was set up by the Sangeet Natak Akademi as one of its constituent units in 1959.

2. It is fully financed by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.

3. The School has two performing wings – the Repertory Company and Theatre-in- Education Company.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q13. Consider the following pairs:

Classical Dance Feature

1. Bharatanatyam Fire Dance

2. Kuchipudi Lasya and Tandava elements

3. Odissi Mobile Sculpture

4. Mohiniattam Tandava aspect is dominant

Which of the above is correctly matched?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 2, 3

c) 1, 2, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q14. Which of the following temples have ‘Nagara Style of Architecture’?

1. Sun Temple at Konark

2. Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar

3. Vishwanath Temple at Khajuraho

4. Doddabasappa temple at Dambal

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Q15. Consider the following pairs.

     Temple                                          Country

1. Prambanan Temple                      Indonesia

2. Angkoar Vat                                   Cambodia

3. Pashupatinath Temple                 Sri Lanka

4. Munneswaram Temple                Nepal

Which of the above are correctly matched?

a) 1, 3

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Explaination:

Pashupatinath Temple – Nepal

Munneswaram Temple – Sri Lanka

Q16. The prominent construction works undertaken during Akbar’s reign are:

1. Agra Fort

2. Ibadat Khana

3. Buland Darwaza

Select the correct code:

a) 2 only

b) 1, 2

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q17. Consider the following statements about Kalbelia.

1. Folk dance performed by the women of the Kalbelia community of Gujarat.

2. ‘Been’ is the popular musical instrument of this dance form.

3. The UNESCO has inscribed Kalbelia folk songs and dances in the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Explaination:

Kalbelia is a sensuous folk dance performed by the women of the Kalbelia community of Rajasthan. The costumes and dance movement are similar to that of the serpents. ‘Been’ (wind instrument played by snake charmers) is the popular musical instrument of this dance form.

The UNESCO has inscribed Kalbelia folk songs and dances in the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2010.

Q18. With reference to Giddha, Gangore and Jhumar, consider the following statements:

1. All three dances are primarily performed by women only

2. All three are folk dances

Select the correct code:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q19. Which of the following is the earliest treatise on mathematics?

a) Aryabhattiya

b) Brahmasputa Siddhantika

c) Siddhanta Shiromani

d) Sulvasutra

Answer: d

Q20. Consider the following statements.

1. This Veda is also known as Brahma Veda

2. It is mostly concerned with peace and prosperity of the human society

3. It focuses on treatment of several ailments

The above statements refer to

a) Rig Veda

b) Sama Veda

c) Atharva Veda

d) Yajur Veda

Answer: c

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 26

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 26

1. Consider the following statements:

1) As per the ASSOCHAM and E&Y report published in 2018, the domestic organic market was valued at Rs. 2500 crores including Rs. 1500 crores in organised retail and Rs. 1000 crores by farmers’ direct market.

2) Government of India has been promoting organic farming under two dedicated schemes namely Mission Organic Value Chain Development North Eastern Region (MOVCDNER) and Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) since 2015.

3) Third party certification of organic farming is promoted by Agriculture Processed Food and Export Development Authority (APEDA) under Ministry of Agriculture.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of vitamins and their corresponding deficiency diseases:

1) Riboflavin: Pellagra

2) Thiamine: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

3) Panthothenic acid: Beri-Beri

4) Biotin: Dermatitis

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) 2 & 4 only

3. Which of the following statements regarding the Nutrient Based Subsidy policy are not true?

1) Under the NBS Policy, the Government announces a fixed rate of subsidy (in Rs. per Kg basis), on each nutrient of subsidized P&K fertilizers, namely Nitrogen (N), Phosphate (P) & Potash (K) only.

2) The difference between the delivered cost of fertilizers at farm gate and net market realization by the urea units is given as subsidy to the urea manufacturer / importer by the Government.

3) The amount of gross fertilizer subsidy paid in 2018-2019 has been lesser than that paid in 2017-2018, due to promotion of organic fertilizers.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Consider the following statements regarding prevalence of anemia in pregnant women & the remedial measures taken by government to prevent the condition:

1) According to National Family Health Survey (NFHS)–IV (2015-16), the prevalence of anemia among women aged 15 to 49 years is 73%.

2) Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) has been launched to focus on conducting special ANC check up on 9th of every month with the help of Medical officers to detect and treat cases of anemia.

3) Health management information system & Mother Child tracking system is being implemented for reporting and tracking the cases of anaemic and severely anaemic pregnant women.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Which of the following cities forms the headquarters of financial action task force (FATF) organisation?

a) Moscow

b) Geneva

c) New York

d) Paris

Answer:

1(a)

2(d)

3(c)

4(b)

5(d)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 24

1. Consider the following statements:

1) The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has plans to stop funding coal-fired power plants except in selected countries where the bank considers the alternatives to be limited.

2) The ADB’s new energy policy is being reviewed in line with the Paris Agreement and the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals, and will be released by the end of 2020.

3) India has achieved the fastest growth in the Asia-Pacific economies comprised of 45 countries, according to the Asian Development Bank (ADB).

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of missile defence systems and their corresponding nations:

1) Arrow missile system: Israel

2) PAAMS: UK

3) A-135 anti ballistic missile: U.S

4) AWACS: Russia

5) AAD (Advanced air defence): India

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 3, 4 & 5 only

c) 1, 2 & 5 only

d) 2, 4 & 5 only

3. The Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister today released a detailed note titled GDP estimation in India- Perspectives and Facts.

Which of the following statements regarding the same are true?

1) The new methodology that uses 2011-12 as the base year includes two major improvements, a) Incorporation of MCA21 database, and b) Incorporation of the Recommendations of System of National Accounts (SNA), 2008.

2) This change was in line with other countries that have changed their methodologies in line with SNA 2008 and revised their respective GDP figures.

3) As of today India’s GDP estimation methodology is at par with its global standing as a responsible, transparent and well-managed economy.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding data usage in smartphones India as per the ‘Ericsson Mobility Report’ are true?

1) India has the highest average data usage per smartphone, reaching 9.8 GB per month at the end of 2018, according to a new study.

2) Increased numbers of LTE subscriptions, attractive data plans being offered by service providers, and young people’s changing video viewing habits have driven monthly usage growth.

3) LTE would remain the most dominant access technology in the region up to 2024, even as 5G subscriptions are expected to grow during this period.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Guthis are socio-economic institutions (trusts), both public and private, that fund their obligations from incomes from cultivated or leased land assets. Depending on their obligations, Guthis fulfil religious, public service or social roles and could either involve members from a common lineage, or several

Large scale protest against the controversial “Guthi Bill” has being taking place in which of the following countries recently?

a) Srilanka

b) Myanmar

c) Nepal

d) Bangladesh

Answer:

1 – (a) 2 – (c) 3 – (d) 4 – (d) 5 – (c)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 23

1. Which of the following adaptations is/are found in desert animals?

  1. Long legs for avoiding excessive heat from sand
  2. Nocturnal in habit
  3. Aestivation during summer months

Select the correct answer code:

 a) 2 only

 b) 1, 2 and 3

 c) 1, 3

 d) 1, 2

Solution: b

2.  Which of the following Ramsar site is manmade?

 a) Deepor Beel

 b) Harike Wetland

 c) Bhoj Wetland

 d) Loktak Lake

Solution: c

3. Consider the following statements regarding Great Indian Bustard:

  1. Great Indian Bustard is considered the flagship grassland species, representing the health of the grassland ecology.
  2. It is one of the heaviest flying birds.
  3. In India, Gujarat is home to a greater number of Great Indian Bustard.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 only

 b) 1, 2

 c) 1, 3

 d) 2, 3

Solution: b

4.  Consider the following statements regarding Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).

  1. It is an International agreement between governments that is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  2. CITES is legally binding on state parties to the convention, which are obliged to adopt their own domestic legislation to implement its goals.
  3. CITES was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted at a meeting of members of IUCN.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1, 2

 b) 2, 3

 c) 1, 3

 d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: d

5.  Consider the following statements:

  1. It is located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River.
  2. It is the only stronghold of rhinoceros on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River.
  3. It is also known as ‘Mini Kaziranga National Park’.

The above statements refer to.

 a) Manas National Park

 b) Nameri National Park

 c) Orang National Park

 d) Dibru-Saikhowa National Park

Solution: c

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 19

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 19

1. Consider the following statements regarding the newly introduced e-governance initiatives launched for the welfare of ST’s:

1) Ministry of Tribal Affairs has developed online portals namely DBT Tribal and NGO Grants Online Application & Tracking System for bringing in greater e-Governance in implementation of welfare schemes for STs.

2) In NGO portal, there are 2 main modules for Pre-Matric & Post-Matric Scholarship. Data sharing module is mainly meant for sharing beneficiary-data by States & in Communication module, the States have facility to upload documents, raise query for faster release of funds.

3) The DBT tribal portal, developed for implementing scheme of Aid to Voluntary Organizations working for the welfare of STs, has been fully revamped & redesigned with simplified Application form, Inspection Report and Fund Processing module.

Which of the above statements are not true ?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q2. Which of the following are classified as non communicable diseases?

1) Cancer

2) Osteoporosis

3) Chronic Lung disease

4) Diabetes

5) Alzheimer’s

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 3, 4 & 5 only

c) all of the above

d) None of the above

Q3. Which of the following statements regarding child labour legislation in India & abroad are true?

1) The government has enacted the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016 which came into force with effect from September 01, 2016. Now the employment of a Child below 14 years is completely prohibited in any occupation or processes.

2) The census 2011 shows an increase in Child Labour to 1.26 crore as compared to 1.01 crore in 2001.

3) The Theme of World Day against Child Labour for the year 2019 is ‘Children shouldn’t Work in Fields, but on Dreams’ which focuses on the importance of ending child labour and calls for evolving strategies to end child labour.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. The Cabinet Committee on Security headed by Prime Minister has cleared the setting up of the Defence Space Research Agency. Which of the following statements regarding the same are true?

1) The agency has been entrusted with the task of creating space warfare weapon systems and technologies.

2) The agency would be provided with a team of scientists which would be working in close coordination with the ISRO.

3) It would be providing the research and development support to the Defence Space Agency (DSA) which comprises members of the three services.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q5. External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar will flag off the first batch of yatris of Kailash Mansarovar Yatra from New Delhi. The route is possible only through which of the following passes in India?

a) Nathu la Pass

b) Diphu Pass

c) Khardung la Pass

d) Shipki la Pass

Answer:

1(b), 2(c), 3(c), 4(c), 5(a)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 14

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 14

1. Consider the following statements with respect to the micro finance sector in India?

1) The Indian microfinance sector is expected to register a more than 30% year-on-year growth to Rs. 90,000 crore in 2018-19.

2) Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), cooperative societies and other large lenders have played an important role in providing refinance facility to MFIs.

3) The RBI formed Malegam committee aimed to address the primary customer complaints that led to the crisis, including coercive collection practices, usurious interest rates, and selling practices that resulted in over-indebtedness.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q2. Consider the following pairs of mineral resources in India and their corresponding locations:

1) Uranium, Mica: Karnataka

2) Limestone, Mica: Rajasthan

3) Bauxite, Manganese: Andhra Pradesh

4) Chromite, coal : Tamilnadu

5) Iron ore and clay: Goa

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2& 3 only

b) 1, 3 & 5 only

c) 2 & 5 only

d) 1 & 4 only

Q3. With respect to the recently released gender equality index report, which of the following statements are true ?

1) The index, covering 14 of the 17 SDGs, measures countries on 51 issues ranging from health, gender-based violence, climate change, decent work and others.

2) The overall index score and individual goal scores are based on a scale of 0-100. A score of zero reflects the achievement of gender equality in relation to the targets set for each indicator.

3) India ranks 95 out of 129 countries, below countries such as Ghana, Rwanda and Bhutan in the new gender equality index.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM):

1) GDM is defined as glucose intolerance with onset or first recognition during pregnancy, GDM simply represents relatively high glucose levels at one point in the life of a young woman.

2) Higher glucose transfer to the foetus, when the mother has high blood sugar, stimulates the foetal pancreatic cells to start secreting insulin earlier and in higher quantities.

3) It has become imperative that every pregnant woman be screened for high blood glucose even if no symptoms are exhibited in order to avoid GDM.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q5. Which of the following countries have launched the first arctic train named Zarengold which will travel from Saint Petersburg through Petrozavodsk, the historic town of Kem and Murmansk?

a) Germany

b) Russia

c) Norway

d) Denmark

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 12

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 12

1. Consider the following statements regarding copyright law in India:

1) Indian copyright law is at parity with the international standards as contained in TRIPS. The (Indian) Copyright Act, 1957 fully reflects the Berne Convention for Protection of Literary and Artistic Works.

2) In India, the registration of copyright is not mandatory as the registration is treated as mere recordal of a fact.

3) The registration does not create or confer any new right and is not a prerequisite for initiating action against infringement.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q2. Which of the following phenomenons are examples of convergent plate boundaries?

1) Subduction of the Nazca Plate beneath the South American Plate

2) Formation of the Aravallis.

3) Collision between the Australian Plate and the Pacific Plate.

4) Formation of New Zealand.

5) Collision between Eurasian plate and African plate

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 1, 3 & 4 only

c) 1, 3 & 5 only

d) 2 & 4 only

Q3. Which of the following statements regarding NSSO (National sample survey office) are true?

1) The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) is responsible for conduct of large scale sample surveys in diverse fields on All India basis under the ministry of HRD.

2) Besides these surveys, NSSO collects data on rural and urban prices and plays a significant role in the improvement of crop statistics through supervision of the area enumeration and crop estimation surveys of the State agencies.

3) It also maintains a frame of urban area units for use in sample surveys in urban areas.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements with respect to section 376E of IPC frequently seen in news:

1) Section 376E of IPC was included in the criminal law act as per recommendation by justice Verma committee which was constituted to enable quicker trials and harsher punishment for those accused of sexual assault.

2) As per the act, habitual offenders are punished with death penalty only if they have been convicted subsequently for section 376A.

3) The section 376E is a cognisable as well as non bailable offence under IPC.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q5. The recently launched initiative “Udchalo” serves which of the following purposes?

a) It was started by union aviation ministry to provide concession to senior citizens for using air travel.

b) It is a travel portal that caters for the personal travel of the military and paramilitary forces personnel by aggregating defence fares and getting exclusive discounts.

c) It is an online platform for bidding of air routes for both domestic as well as foreign players.

d) It is an initiative by HRD ministry to encourage pilot training amongst women army officers

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 9

upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 9

1. Consider the following statements regarding Generalized System of Preferences:

  1. It is designed to promote economic development by allowing duty free entry for thousands of products from 120 designated beneficiary countries/territories.
  2. In 2018, around $ 6.3 billion of Indian merchandise exports to the U.S. were covered by GSP.
  3. Recently, U.S. President issued a proclamation ending the trade benefits to India effective June 5, 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 (a) 1 only

 (b) 2 and 3 only

 (c) 3 only

 (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Consider the following statements regarding Directorate of Enforcement (ED):

  1. It is a multi-disciplinary organization mandated with the task of enforcing the provisions of two special fiscal laws – Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) and Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA).
  2. The origin of this Directorate goes back to 1st May, 1956, when an ‘Enforcement Unit’ was formed, in Department of Economic Affairs.
  3. At present, ED works under administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 (a) 1 and 3 only

 (b) 1 and 2 only

 (c) 2 and 3 only

 (d) 1 only

3. Consider the following statements regarding Kartarpur corridor:

  1. The corridor will link Dera Baba Nanak shrine in Gurdaspur in Punjab in India with Gurdwara Darbar Sahib at Kartarpur in Pakistan.
  2. The Kartarpur Gurdwara is located in Pakistan’s Narowal district across the Jhelum River.
  3. The corridor will be thrown open to pilgrims in November, 2019 to mark the 550th birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 (a) 1 only

 (b) 2 and 3 only

 (c) 1 and 3 only

 (d) 1, 2 and 3

4.  Consider the following statements regarding National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT):

  1. National Company Law Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body in India that adjudicates issues relating to Indian companies.
  2. Decisions of the tribunal may be appealed to the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal, the decisions of which may further be appealed to the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 (a) 1 only

 (b) 2 only

 (c) Both 1 and 2

 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

5.  Prestigious 2019 Scripps National Spelling Bee is held in which of the following?

 (a) United Kingdom

 (b) United States

 (c) Brazil

 (d) Germany

Solution: 1-d, 2- b, 3- c, 4- c, 5- b

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 1

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 1

1. Consider the following statements:

  1. Brahmanism emphasizes on the rites performed by, and the status of priestly class
  2. Brahmanism emerged from Vedanta principles

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 Only

 b) 2 Only

 c) Both 1 and 2

 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

2. Pratyakṣa (perception), Anumāna (inference) and śabda (Āptavacana, word/testimony of reliable sources) are accepted as the only reliable means of gaining knowledge in which of the following schools of the Hindu philosophy?

 a) Yoga

 b) Samkhya

 c) Nyaya

 d) Both b and c

Solution: d

3. which of the following schools of thought maintained that though events (dharmas) have only momentary existence, there is a transmigrating substratum of consciousness that contains within it seeds of goodness that are in every person?

 a) Sautrantika

 b) Sammitiya

 c) Vaisheshika

 d) None of the above

Solution: a

4. The major form of Buddhism practised in Tibet, China, Korea, and Japan is

 a) Theravada

 b) Vajrayana

 c) Mahayana

 d) Hinayana

Solution: c

5. With reference to Avalokitesvara, consider the following statements:

  1. Avalokitesvara is a divine and compassionate depiction of Jina in certain parts of coastal Karnataka
  2. Avalokitesvara is the earthly manifestation of the self-born eternal Amitabha (another name for Bahubali)

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 Only

 b) 2 Only

 c) Both 1 and 2

 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

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UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Practice Test 13

UPSC Examination Calendar 2020 – Important Dates

  1. Date of Notification for Civil Service Prelims and Indian Forest Service Prelims: February 12, 2020
  2. Last date to apply for Civil Service Prelims and Indian Forest Service Prelims: March 03, 2020
  3. Date of UPSC CSE Prelims 2020 and IFS Prelims 2020: May 31, 2020
  4. Date of UPSC CSE Mains 2020: September 18, 2020
  5. Date of UPSC IFS Mains 2020: November 22, 2020 (Only for Indian Forest Service Aspirants)

 

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UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test Series

 

Geography Practice Question

 

 

Q.1)     Consider the following.

  1. Himalayas
  2. Peninsular Plateau
  3. North Indian Plains

 

Arrange the following in chronological order of their formations.

  1. a) 1-3-2
  2. b) 2-1-3
  3. c) 2-3-1
  4. d) 3-2-1

Solution (b)

 

Q.2) Consider the following statements about Northwestern Himalayas.

  1. The world-famous valley of Kashmir lies between the Karakoram Range and Ladakh Range.
  2. The Kashmir Himalayas are also famous for Karewa formations.
  3. Chenab in the valley of Kashmir is still in its youth stage and yet forms meanders.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 and 2 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) 1 and 3 only
  4. d) All the above.

Solution (b)

Q.3)     Tors, block mountains, rift valleys, spurs, bare rocky structures, series of hummocky hills and wall-like quartzite dykes are some of the important physiographic features of which of the following region?

  1. a) Purvanchal Hill Complex
  2. b) Peninsular plateau.
  3. c) North Indian Plains
  4. d) Indian Deserts

Solution (b)

Q.4)     Consider the following statements:

  1. The western coastal plains are an example of emergent coastal plain.
  2. The western coastal plains are narrow in the middle and get broader towards north and south.
  3. Because of its submerged nature, eastern coast has less number of ports and harbors.
  4. The lakes and the playas have brackish water which is the main source of obtaining salt in western coasts.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. a) 1 and 4 only
  2. b) 2 and 3 only
  3. c) 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. d) 2 and 4

Solution (d)

Q.5) Consider the following pairs:

Passes                        Connects

  1. Banihal                      Jammu and Srinagar
  2. Zoji La                         Srinagar and Leh
  3. Shipki La                Himachal Pradesh and Tibet
  4. Mana passes              Uttarakhand and Tibet

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) 1 and 3 only
  4. d) All the above

Solution (d)

Q.6) which of the following best defines Duars?

  1. a) The tract of land lying between two converging, or confluent, rivers.
  2. b) The alluvial floodplains in northeastern India that lies south of the outer foothills of the Himalayas and north of the Brahmaputra River basin.
  3. c) The land drained by the brackish water.
  4. d) The landscape all along the foothills of Shiwaliks.

Solution (b)

Q.7)     Consider the following Himalayan ranges.

1 Karakoram Range

  1. Phir Panjal range
  2. Ladakh range
  3. Zaskar range

Arrange the above ranges from North to South.

  1. a) 1-3-4-2
  2. b) 1-4-3-2
  3. c) 1-2-3-4
  4. d) 1-2-4-3

Solution (a)

 

Q.8)     Consider the following statements:

  1. The region is swampy and marshy.
  2. The underground streams re – emerge in this region.
  3. The region is conducive for the breeding of mosquitoes and flies.
  4. The forests in this region have been cleared and intensive agriculture is being practiced.

The above statements are true for which of the following regions?

  1. a) Bhabar
  2. b) Bhangar
  3. c) Khadar
  4. d) Tarai

Solution (d)

Q.9) Dandakaranya forest has been in news because of Naxalism.

Which of the following statements regarding Dandakaranya are correct?

  1. It is drained by the tributaries of Mahanadi and Godavari
  2. It has Abujhmar hills in the west and Eastern Ghats in the East.
  3. It prominently lies in the states of Jharkhand, Bihar and Madhya Pradesh.

Select the code from following:

  1. a) 1 and 2
  2. b) 2 and 3
  3. c) 1 and 3
  4. d) All of the above

Solution (a)

 

Q.10) which of the following statements regarding Meghalaya plateau are NOT correct?

  1. It is an extension of Himalayan range in North Easter India.
  2. It is filled with fertile alluvial soil deposited by Brahmaputra.
  3. It is separated from peninsular plateau by Garo – Rajmahal gap.

Select the code from below:

  1. a) 1 and 2
  2. b) 3 only
  3. c) 2 and 3
  4. d) All of the above

Solution (a)

Q.11)   which of the following Islands of India are Volcanic in character?

  1. Narcondam Island
  2. Barren Island
  3. Minicoy
  4. Majuli

Select the code from following:

  1. a) 1 and 2
  2. b) 2 and 3
  3. c) 2 only
  4. d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (a)

Q.12) which of the following mountain ranges is/are folding mountain ranges?

  1. Aravalis
  2. Himalayas
  3. Western Ghats
  4. Eastern Ghats

Select the code from following:

  1. a) 2 only
  2. b) 1 and 2
  3. c) 3 and 4
  4. d) 1,2 and 4

Solution (b)

Q.13) which of the following statements regarding Thar Desert are correct?

  1. It lies only in India and not in Pakistan.
  2. It is drained by river Luni.
  3. It doesn’t get rainfall because of the presence of Aravali hills parallel to the monsoon winds.

Select the code from following:

  1. a) 1 and 2
  2. b) 2 and 3
  3. c) 1 and 3
  4. d) All of the above

Solution (b)

 

Q.15) From the below identify the correct term which is collectively applied to all kinds of saline and alkaline soils in the plains of north India, particularly in Uttar Pradesh –

  1. a) Regolith
  2. b) Talus
  3. c) Usar
  4. d) Reh

Solution (c)

Q.16)   considers the following pairs and identifies the correct pair/s using the code given below:

            Plains: Associated region

  1. Malwa Plains: located in central India especially Madhya Pradesh
  2. Marusthali: covers sand-dune-covered eastern portion of the Great Indian (Thar) Desert in western Rajasthan state
  3. Utkal plains: coastal plains in the Odisha state

Code:

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 1 and 2 only
  3. c) 2 and 3 only
  4. d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (c)

 

Q.17) Consider the following statements:

  1. The Pamir, popularly known as the roof of the world is the connecting link between the Himalayas and the high ranges of the Central Asia.
  2. Maximum development of glaciers occurs in the Karakoram Range.
  3. Purvachal or the Eastern hills are part of the Himalayan mountain system having their general alignment from the north to the south direction

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 1 and 2 only
  3. c) 2 and 3 only
  4. d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

 

Q.18)   Consider the following ports. Which of the following is correct order as we traverse from south to north?

  1. a) Kochi – Mangalore – JNPT – Marmagao – Kandla
  2. b) Kochi – Mangalore – Marmagao – JNPT – Kandla
  3. c) Mangalore – Kochi – Marmagao – JNPT – Kandla
  4. d) Kochi – JNPT – Marmagao – Mangalore – Kandla

Solution (b)

 

Q.19) which of the statements given below is/are not true in regard to western coastal plain?

  1. a) It is a narrow belt.
  2. b) Eastern coastal plain receives comparatively low rainfall but the Western coastal plain receives heavy rainfall.
  3. c) West Coast Plain is infertile and agriculturally not prosperous except in the Malabar Coast.
  4. d) It is an example of emergent coastal plain.

Solution (d)

Western coastal plain is an example of submerged coastal plain (not emergent). It provides natural conditions for development of ports.

 

Q.20) which of the statements given below is/are correct about Terai region?

  1. Terai is an ill-drained, damp (marshy) and thickly forested narrow tract to the south of Bhabar running parallel to it.
  2. It is swampy lowland with silty soils.
  3. Terai soils are rich in phosphate and organic matter but are deficient in nitrogen. Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
  4. a) 1 only
  5. b) 1 and 2 only
  6. c) 2 and 3 only
  7. d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

 

Q.21) Consider the below statements with regard to Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats:

  1. The mean height of the Western Ghats is more than that of Eastern Ghats.
  2. The Eastern Ghats do not form a continuous chain like the Western Ghats.
  3. The Eastern Ghats average width is less than that of Western Ghats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 and 2 only
  2. b) 2 and 3 only
  3. c) 1, 2 and 3
  4. d) None

Solution (a)

 

Q.22) what type of drainage pattern the Ganga river system forms?

  1. a) Trellis pattern
  2. b) Dendric pattern
  3. c) Rectangular pattern
  4. d) Radial pattern

Solution (b)

 

Q.23)   Consider the following statements about Brahmaputra River:

  1. It flows eastwards parallel to the Himalayas.
  2. On reaching the Nanga Parbat, it takes a ‘U’ turn and enters India in Arunachal Pradesh through a gorge.
  3. The Brahmaputra has a braided channel in its entire length in Assam and forms many riverine islands.
  4. Teesta river is its right bank tributary.

Select the correct answers using the codes given below.

  1. a) 1 and 3 only
  2. b) 1, 3 and 4 only
  3. c) 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. d) All the above

Solution (b)

 

Q.24)   Consider the following statements about Mahadayi/Mandovi river:

  1. The famous Dudhsagar falls is located on this river.
  2. Kalasa and Banduri are its tributaries.
  3. It is the west flowing river.
  4. Mahadayi river water dispute is between Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.

Select the correct answers using the codes given below.

  1. a) 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. b) 1, 3 and 4 only
  3. c) 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. d) All the above

Solution (a)

 

Q.25)   Consider the following rivers and cities located on their banks.

Cities                River

  1. Cuttack             Mahanadi
  2. Agra                 Yamuna
  3. Jabalpur          Narmada
  4. Lucknow          Gomti

 

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. a) 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. b) 1, 3 and 4 only
  3. c) 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. d) All the above

Solution (d)

 

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Practice Test – 9

 

Q1. With reference to the ‘Maitree Exercise’, which of the following statements is/are true?

  1. It is a joint military exercise between Indian Army and Royal Bhutan Army.
  2. The exercise seeks to enhance the skills in joint counter insurgency and counter terrorist operations in rural and urban scenario.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Solution: B

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect: Exercise Maitree is a joint military exercise between Indian Army and Royal Thai Army.  It is a platoon level exercise which comprises of infantry component.

STATEMENT 2 is correct: The exercise emphasizes to hone the tactical and technical skills in joint counter insurgency and counter terrorist operations in rural and urban scenario under UN mandate. Due emphasis is laid on increasing interoperability between forces from both countries which is crucial for success of any joint operation. Approach: Military exercises are important from exam point of view.

 

Q2. Consider the following questions about ‘Exercise Pitch Black’:

  1. Pitch Black is a biennial multinational large force employment warfare exercise hosted by The Royal Australian Air Force.
  2. Indian Air Force participated for the first time with air assets in the exercise.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

EXERCISE PITCH BLACK

STATEMENT 1 is correct: Pitch Black is a biennial multinational large force employment warfare exercise hosted by The Royal Australian Air Force.

STATEMENT 2 is correct: Indian Air Force participated for the first time with air assets in the exercise.

Objective: to foster closer relationship between the participating friendly forces and to promote interoperability through exchange of knowledge and experience.

 

Q3. Consider the following questions about ‘Anti-tank Guided Missile HELINA’’:

  1. It is indigenously developed by DRDO.
  2. It is the helicopter launched version of NAG.
  3. It has a range of 70-80km.

Select the correct Answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 1 and 2 only
  3. c) 2 and 3 only
  4. d) All of the above

Solution: B

Anti-tank Guided Missile HELINA

STATEMENT 2 is correct: The Helicopter-Launched NAG (HELINA) missile is the helicopter launched version of the NAG Missile.

STATEMENT 1 is correct: It has been designed and developed indigenously by DRDO for Indian Army under Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).It works on “fire and forget” principle.

STATEMENT 3 is incorrect: It has a range of 7-8 km. The Missile is guided by an Infrared Imaging Seeker (IIR) along with integrated avionics.

 

Q4.Consider the following statement about ‘National Security Guard’

  1. It is an Indian Special Forces unit under the Ministry of Defence.
  2. The National Security Guard (NSG) was set up in 2001 after Indian Parliament attack as a Federal Contingency Deployment Force to tackle all facets of terrorism in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as it is an Indian Special Forces unit under the Ministry of Home Affairs and not under the Ministry of Defence. However, it is not categorized under the uniform nomenclature of Central Armed Police Forces. It has a Special Forces mandate, and its core operational capability is provided by the Special Action Group (SAG) which is drawn from the Indian Army.

STATEMENT 2 is incorrect as it was raised in 1984, following Operation Blue Star and the assassination of Indira Gandhi, “for combating terrorist activities with a view to protecting states against internal disturbances. It was not established after Indian Parliament attack as a Federal Contingency Deployment Force to tackle all facets of terrorism in the country.

 

Q.5 Consider the following statement about ‘Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO)’

  1. It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  2. It works for enhancing self-reliance in Defence Systems and production of world class weapon systems

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as DRDO is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence.

It was formed in 1958 by the merger of Technical Development Establishment and the Directorate of Technical Development and Production with the Defence Science Organization.

STATEMENT 2 is correct as it works for enhancing self-reliance in Defence Systems and production of world class weapon systems.

 

Q6. Consider the following statements about Draft Defence Production Policy (DProP) 2018:

  1. It proposes to increase the foreign direct investment (FDI) cap in niche technology areas to 100% under the automatic route.
  2. It also hopes to transform India into a global leader in cyberspace and AI (artificial intelligence) technologies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as Draft Defence Production Policy (DProP) 2018 proposes to increase the foreign direct investment (FDI) cap in niche technology areas to 74% under the automatic route. Under a niche technology route, FDI was not raised to 100 %. India hopes to achieve a turnover of Rs1.7 trillion in defense goods and services by 2025. It has a goal of becoming an arms exporter to the tune of Rs. 35, 000 crore in defense goods and services by 2025.

STATEMENT 2 is correct it also hopes to transform India into a global leader in cyberspace and AI (artificial intelligence) technologies.

 

Q7.Consider the following statements about “grey” lists and “black” lists of Financial Action Task Force:

  1. Blacklisted countries are those that took weak measures to combat money laundering and terror Financing
  2. Grey Lists countries are those that are unwilling to fight money laundering and terrorist Financing

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

 

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as Blacklisted countries are those that are unwilling to fight money laundering and Terrorist Financing. Those who took weak measures are in the grey list and not in the blacklist.

STATEMENT 2 is incorrect as Grey Lists countries are those that took weak measures to combat money laundering and terror.

Information: The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 by the Ministers of its Member jurisdictions. The objectives of the FATF are to set standards and promote effective implementation of legal, regulatory and operational measures for combating money laundering, terrorist financing and other related threats to the integrity of the international financial system. The FATF is therefore a “policy-making body” which works to generate the necessary political will to bring about national legislative and regulatory reforms in these areas.

 

Q8. Consider the following statements about the Global Peace Index (GPI):

  1. The GPI is a report produced by the World Peace Forum.
  2. GPI measure global peace using three broad indicators like the level of societal safety and security, the extent of the ongoing domestic and international conflict and the degree of militarization

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as GPI is a report produced by the Australia based Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) and developed in consultation with an international panel of peace experts from peace institutes and think tanks with data collected and collated by the Economist Intelligence Unit.

STATEMENT 2 is correct as GPI measure global peace using three broad indicators like the level of societal safety and security, extent of the ongoing domestic and international conflict and the degree of militarization. India’s rank has marginally improved in “global peacefulness”, at a time when there is an overall decline of global peace owing to an escalation of violence in West Asia and North Africa.

 

Q9.’ Vidyalakshmi Portal’ has been launched for

  1. a) To provide students with single window electronic platform for scholarships and educational loans.
  2. b) To provide easy loans to farmers
  3. c) To provide easy loans to MSME
  4. d) To provide easy loan to unemployed

Solution: A

Vidya Lakshmi is a first of its kind portal for students seeking Education Loan. This portal has been developed under the guidance of Department of Financial Services, (Ministry of Finance), Department of Higher Education (Ministry of Human Resource Development) and Indian Banks Association (IBA).

The portal has been developed and maintained by NSDL e-Governance Infrastructure Limited. Students can view, apply and track the education loan applications to banks anytime, anywhere by accessing the portal. The portal also provides linkages to National Scholarship Portal.

 

Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Global Liveability Index’:

  1. It is released by Economist Intelligence Unit.
  2. It ranks 140 cities worldwide based on 30 qualitative and quantitative factors across five broad categories of Stability, Healthcare, Culture and environment, Education and Infrastructure.

Select the correct Answer using the codes given below:

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

STATEMENT 1 is correct: The Economist Intelligence Unit’s liveability rating quantifies the challenges that might be presented to an individual’s lifestyle in 140 cities worldwide.

STATEMENT 2 is correct: Each city is assigned a score for over 30 qualitative and quantitative factors across five broad categories of Stability, Healthcare, Culture and environment, Education and Infrastructure.

THE ECONOMIST INTELLIGENCE UNIT (EIU)

The Economist Intelligence Unit (The EIU) is the world leader in global business intelligence. We help businesses, the financial sector and governments to understand how the world is changing and how that creates opportunities to be seized and risks to be managed.

 

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1) Which of the following is not one among the four broad indicators used to rank countries under the Travel and Tourism Competitive Report which was released recently by the World Economic Forum?

a. Infrastructure

b. Enabling environment

c. Visa Requirements

d. Natural and cultural resources

Answer: c

2) Consider the following statements with respect to Eastern Economic Forum (EEF)

  1. It was established to support the economic development of eastern countries in the Asia-Pacific region.
  2. India participated in the 5th Eastern Economic Forum (EEF) that was held recently in Vladivostok, Russia.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b

  • The Eastern Economic Forum (EEF) was established in 2015, with the aim of supporting the economic development of Russia’s Far East, and to expand international cooperation in the Asia-Pacific region.
  • The ongoing EEF Summit at the Far Eastern Federal University is the fifth in its history.
  • Among the participants in the Summit are India, Malaysia, Japan, Australia, and South Korea.
  • Speaking at the Plenary Session of the 5th Eastern Economic Forum (EEF) in Vladivostok, Russia, Indian Prime Minister announced that India would extend a $1 billion line of credit towards the development of the Russian Far East.

3) Consider the following statements with respect to Nuakhai Festival

  1. It is a festival to celebrate the newly harvested food by the farmers.
  2. It will be celebrated especially in the western parts of Odisha.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

4) Mid-Monsoon 2019 Lightning Report was recently released by?

a. Indian Meteorological Department

b. World Meteorological Organisation

c. Centre for Science and Environment

d.  Jointly by A and B

Answer : a

Mid-Monsoon Lightning Report 2019 is a study jointly prepared by the Climate Resilient Observing System Promotion Council (CROPC), the India Meteorological Department, ministry of earth science and World Vision, a voluntary organization.

5) An ocean liner travelling from Vladivostok to Chennai in its shortest route would sail through which of the following?

  1. Sea of Japan
  2. Red Sea
  3. North Channel
  4. Strait of Malacca
  5. Gibraltar Strait

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a. 4 only

b.  1 and 4 only

c.  2, 3 and 5 only

d.  All except 3

Answer : b

During the Indian Prime Minister visit to Vladivostok recently, a Memorandum of Intent was signed to open a full-fledged maritime route between Russia’s eastern port city Vladivostok and Chennai on India’s eastern seaboard.

An ocean liner travelling from Vladivostok to Chennai would sail southward on the Sea of Japan past the Korean peninsula, Taiwan and the Philippines in the South China Sea, past Singapore and through the Strait of Malacca, to emerge into the Bay of Bengal and then cut across through the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago to Chennai.

6) Consider the following statements with respect to Mobile Science Exhibition (MSE) Programme

  1. It was launched in 1965 and celebrated Golden Jubilee in the year 2015.
  2. Mounted on a specially designed bus, a Mobile Science Exhibition carries a number of interactive exhibits related to everyday science.
  3. It was implemented by the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT).

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a.  2 only

b.  1 and 2 only

c.  2 and 3 only

d.  1, 2 and 3

Answer : b

The first Mobile Science Exhibition (MSE) on the theme ‘Our Familiar Electricity’ was inaugurated in 1965.

National Council of Science Museums (NCSM) functions under the Ministry of Culture is running this programme.

Mounted on a specially designed bus, a Mobile Science Exhibition carries a number of interactive exhibits related to everyday science.

The MSE or Museo-bus travels from school to school in rural areas and organize exhibitions there throughout the year.

Along with the exhibition, some other programmes like Sky Observation Programme through telescope, science films show, Science Demonstration Lectures etc. are also organized.

celebrated Golden Jubilee of Mobile Science Exhibition (MSE) program from 17th – 20th November 2015.

7) Consider the following statements with respect to Climate Resilient Observing Systems Promotion Council (CROPC)

  1. It has been formed as a non-profit organization under section 8 of Company Act 2013.
  2. It comes under the regulatory framework of Ministry of Science and Technology.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a.  1 only

b.  2 only

c.  Both 1 and 2

d.  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : a

  • Climate Resilient Observing-Systems Promotion Council (CROPC) has been formed as non-profit organization under section 8 of Company Act 2013 to act as an interface between Central Early warning agencies, line departments, state, Community, NGOs and other stakeholders.
  • CROPC under the regulatory framework of Indian Meteorological Department will function as Center for promotion of Climate Resilient Observing Systems and public notification system for various hazards due to Climate Change extremities.

8) Consider the following statements with respect to National Council of Science Museums (NCSM)

  1. It is primarily engaged in ‘Communicating Science to Empower People’ through its network of twenty-five Science Centres/Museums spread across India.
  2. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a.  1 only

b.  2 only

c.  Both 1 and 2

d.  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : c

National Council of Science Museums (NCSM), an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture, Govt. of India is primarily engaged in ‘Communicating Science to Empower People’ through its network of twenty-five Science Centres/Museums spread across India.

9) Consider the following statements with respect to Exercise TSENTR 2019

  1. It is a bilateral military exercise between India and Tajikistan.
  2. It aims at practicing the participating armies in the fight against the scourge of international terrorism thereby ensuring military security in the strategic central Asian region.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a.  1 only

b.  2 only

c.  Both 1 and 2

d.  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : b

Exercise TSENTR 2019 is part of the annual series of large scale exercises that form part of the Russian Armed Forces’ annual training cycle.

This year’s Exercise TSENTR 2019 will be conducted by Central Military Commission of Russia.

Apart from host Russia, military contingents from China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Pakistan and Uzbekistan will also take part in this mega event.

The exercise aims at evolving drills of the participating armies and practicing them in the fight against the scourge of international terrorism thereby ensuring military security in the strategic central Asian region.

India will be taking part with armies from Pakistan, China among others in the exercises being held by Russia set to be kicked off from September 9, 2019.

10 With respect to Lightning, consider the following statements

  1. It is a result of the difference in electrical charge between the top and bottom of a cloud.
  2. Most lightning occurs within the clouds.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b.  2 only

c.  Both 1 and 2

d.  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : c

  • Lightning is a very rapid and massive discharge of electricity in the atmosphere.
  • Some of it is directed towards the Earth.
  • It is a result of the difference in electrical charge between the top and bottom of a cloud.
  • The lightning-generating clouds are typically about 10-12 km in height, with their base about 1-2 km from the Earth’s surface.
  • The temperatures at the top range from -35°C to -45°C.
  • According to the Mid-Monsoon Lightning Report 2019, 65.55 lakh lightning strikes in India during this four-month period between April and July this year, of which 23.53 lakh (36 per cent) happened to be cloud-to-ground lightning, the kind that reaches the Earth.
  • The other 41.04 lakh (64 per cent) were in-cloud lightning, which remains confined to the clouds in which it was formed.

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We are providing here the Current Affairs Practice Question Bank for UPSC / State PSC Prelims Exams 2019-20 covered from The Hindu, Yojna, PIB, Indian Express and other Government sources.

1. Consider the following statements about Electronic Nicotine Delivery Systems (ENDS) or e-cigarettes:

1. ENDS is a non-carcinogenic alternative for smoking.

2. E-cigarette use adversely affects the cardiovascular system, impairs respiratory immune cell function and airways in a way similar to cigarette smoking.

Select the correct answer using the given below code:

(a) 1 only                      (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2          (d) neither 1 nor 2

2. Consider the following statements about Jal Shakti Ministry:

1. Ministries of Water Resources and Drinking Water and Sanitation have been merged

2. Jal Shakti Ministry will encompass issues ranging from international and inter-State water disputes, the Namami Gange project etc.

Select the correct code:

(a) 1 only                  (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2      (d) neither 1 nor 2

3. Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM- KISAN):

1. It extends the ₹6000 per annum income support scheme to all land-owning farm families.

2. Cash transfer scheme under PM-KISAN can be substituted for subsidies and other institutional support systems.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 only                     (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2          (d) neither 1 nor 2

4. Consider the following statements about project called REPLAN (Reducing Plastic in Nature):

1. Under this project the waste plastic from nature is collected, de-structured and de- gradated and then mixed with paper pulp in a ratio of 80 is to 20.

2. It‘s an initiative of Ministry of Environment, forests and climate change.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 only                     (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2          (d) neither 1 nor 2

5. Consider the following statements about Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)

1. It is a statutory body.

2. It is an apex organisation under the Ministry of Rural development.

Which of the above-mentioned statements are correct?

(a) 1 only                      (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2          (d) neither 1 nor 2

6. Which of the following best describe the term “Bajada”?

(a) A large mass of subsurface intrusive igneous rock that has its origins from mantle magma.

(b) Zone in the Earth’s mantle that exhibits plastic properties

(c) A roughly circular depression in the ground caused by volcanic activity

(d) A Consecutive series of alluvial fans

7. Which of the following country has coastline with both Caspian Sea and Black Sea?

(a) Turkey

(b) Russia

(c) Iran

(d) Georgia

8. Democracy Index report is released by which of the following organization

(a) World Intellectual property organization

(b) The Economist Intelligence Unit

(c) UNESCO

(d) World Economic Forum

9. Which of the following is related to “Windhoek declaration”?

(a) Human Rights

(b) Freedom of Press

(c) Status of women in society

(d) None of these

10. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding earth quakes waves?

1. Propagation of S waves tells us about internal structure of core.

2. Primary (P) waves do not travel through liquid medium.

3. Primary waves (P-waves) are faster than S- waves.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1Only

Total Number of Questions-69 (July-2019)

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Half Yearly Current Affairs Question Bank: January – July 2019

Important for All Competitive Exams-1500+MCQ

Half Yearly MCQ Book: Current Affairs Solved Multiple Choice Question Bank from January – July 2019 for all competitive exams 2019. we have designed the questions for UPSC, State PSC, SSC, Banking and other exams.

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Indian Economy: UPSC Prelims Previous Year Solved Questions

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination Practice Solved Papers: We are providing here the Previous year solved questions of Indian Economy have been asked in Indian Administrative Services Preliminary exam, General Studies Paper-I. These Questions will help to understand the pattern and type of questions asked by UPSC. By Practice these MCQ, it will also help to boost both your preparation and score in actual exam.

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Previous Years Questions – Indian Polity

Geography Solved Questions asked in UPSC IAS Prelims Previous Exams

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  • Questions of the test series have been prepared from standard study materials such as The Hindu, NCERT, Standard Books, PIB, Annual Reports of the Government of India, Down to Earth etc.
  • You will also get our monthly current affairs study magazine free.
  • Objective questions will be based on the latest trends of the Civil Services Preliminary Examination conducted by the UPSC.
  • At the end of the programme you will be provided 10-Full length test covered whole syllabus, so that you can evaluate your complete preparation. 
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UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Practice Test-Current Affairs

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  1. Which of the following laws are the legacies of British rule in India?                                                      1. Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code

 

  1. Section 124-A of the Indian Penal Code

 

  1. Armed Forces Special Power Act

 

  1. Section 499 and 500 of the Indian Penal

 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)     1 and 3 only

(b)     2 and 4 only

(c)      1, 2 and 4 only

(d)     2 and 3 only

 

  1. Which of the following were the reasons for French decline in India?                                                    1. French army was no match for British army

 

  1. French monarchy had no stakes in the French company

 

  1. French were engaged in continental expansion in Europe

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)     1 and 2 only

(b)     2 and 3 only

(c)      1 only

(d)     All of these

 

  1. Consider the following with reference to “Coral reefs”.                                                                                   1. Coral reefs are symbiotic association of coral polyps and algae.

 

  1. Muddy waters are more suitable for the growth of coral reefs.

 

  1. Coral reefs are equivalent to marine of tropical rain forest.

 

  1. Lakshadweep islands are of coral origin.

Which of the statements given above is

/ are correct?

(a)     1 and 4 only

(b)     1,3 and 4 only

(c)      2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2,3 and 4

 

  1. With reference to the Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI), which of the following statements is/are not correct?                                                                                                              1. BCSBI defines the benchmarks for banking services in India.

 

  1. It oversees the Scheme of Banking Ombudsman.

 

  1. It is a statutory body under the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)     1 only

(b)     1 and 2 only

(c)      2 and 3 only

(d)     1, 2 and 3

 

  1. Which one of the following statements about the provisions of the Constitution

of India is correct?

 

(a)     Minorities can establish and administer educational institutions of their choice

(b)     Only linguistic, ethnic and religious minorities find mention under Article 30

(c)      Every religious denomination has unfettered right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.

(d)     An educational institution established by a religious minority loses its minority status on receiving financial aid from the Government.

 

  1. The Peshwa accepted the Subsidiary Alliance with the British via which among the following treaties?

(a)     Treaty of Purandhar

(b)     Treaty of Bassein

(c)      Treaty of Salbai

(d)     Treaty of Surji Arjunagaon

 

  1. Consider the following statements in the context of Peruvian current.                                                      1. It is cold current

 

  1. It is responsible for fishing productivity in Peruvian coast.

 

  1. It cases dryness in Atacama Desert.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct

(a)     1 and 2 only

(b)     2 and 3 only

(c)      1 and 3 Only

(d)     1, 2 and 3

 

  1. With reference to the fish production in India, consider the following statements.                             1. In terms of fish production, the inland fisheries sector contributes more than that of the marine sector.

 

  1. India’s marine fisheries production is more in Gujarat as compared to other States.

 

  1. In India is the second largest fish producing country in the World. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)     1 and 2 only

(b)     2 and 3 only

(c)      1, 2 and 3 only

(d)     None of the above statements are correct

 

  1. With reference to the Asia Pacific Trade Agreement (APTA), consider the following statements. 1. It is an initiative under the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UN ESCAP) for trade expansion among developing country members of the Asia Pacific Region.

 

  1. India and Pakistan are among the founding members of this Preferential Trade Agreement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

 

  1. Which among the following is correct with regards to the Constituent assembly of India?

(a)     Constituent assembly was democratically elected by the people of India.

(b)     The representatives of each community were elected by the members of that community itself.

(c)      Each province/princely states were allocated seats based on their geographical area.

(d)     Mahatma Gandhi was a member of the constituent assembly until he was assassinated in 1948.

 

  1. Who among the following signed the Treaty of Bassein in 1802 with the British East India Company?

(a)     Baji Rao II

(b)     Baji Rao I

(c)      Sultan Bahadur

(d)     None of the above

 

  1. Which of the following is not correct in the context of “Wildfires”?

(a)     These are controlled blazes fuelled by weather, wind, and dry underbrush etc.

(b)     They return nutrients to the soil

(c)      They act as a disinfectant.

(d)     They allow sunlight to reach the forest floor, enabling a new generation of seedlings to grow.

 

  1. In which of the following states, the indigenous beliefs “Donyi-Polo” and “Rangfra” are practiced?

(a)     Arunachal Pradesh

(b)     Mizoram

(c)      Manipur

(d)     Assam

 14. Which of the following functions were performed by the Constituent Assembly of India?                   

       1. Enactment of the ordinary laws

 

  1. Adoption of National Flag and National Anthem.

 

  1. Election of the First President of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)     1 and 2 only

(b)     1 and 3 only

(c)      2 and 3 only

(d)     1, 2 and 3

 

  1. In the tenure of which Governor-General an attempt was made for the first time to codify Hindu and Muslim customary laws?

(a)     Lord Cornwallis

(b)     Warren Hastings

(c)      William Bentinck

(d)     Charles Metcalfe

 

  1. Which of the following factors is / are responsible for tides formation?                                                  1. Earth’s gravitational pull

 

  1. Moon’s gravitational pull

 

  1. Sun’s gravitational pull

 

  1. Centrifugal force due to earth’s rotation

 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a)     2 and 3 only

(b)     1, 2 and 3 only

(c)      2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

  1. Consider the following statements regarding the Aral Sea                                                                              1. The Aral Sea was an endorheic lake

 

  1. It lies between Kazakhstan (Aktobe and Kyzylorda Regions) in the north and Uzbekistan (Karakalpakstan autonomous region) in the south. Which of the above given statements are incorrect?

 

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

 

  1. Consider the following statements about the Lokpal in India.                                                                    1. The institution of Lokpal was first recommended by the first Administrative Reforms Commission.                                                                                                                                                                    2. Under the Lokpal Act (2013), Jurisdiction of Lokpal includes Prime Minister, Ministers, and Members of Parliament.                                                                                                                                                3. As per the Lokpal Act of 2013, Lokpal can take Suo Motu actions against any public servant.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 and 3 only

(c)      1 and 2 only

(d)     1 and 3 only

 

  1. With reference to the recently launched “cVIGIL” mobile App, consider the following statements.                                                                                                                                                                         1. The App enables the employees of public sector undertakings to report any instances of corruption in their organization.

 

  1. The application was launched by the department of personnel and training. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

 

  1. Consider the following statements about the “Preamble” of the Indian Constitution                        1. It has been amended only once since its inception.

 

  1. It is not a part of the constitution. 3. It is justifiable in nature

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)     1 only

(b)     1 and 2 only

(c)      2 and 3 only

(d)     1, 2 and 3

 

  1. Which among the following was the first municipal corporation set up in India in the year 1687?

 

(a)     Madras Municipal Corporation

(b)     Bombay Municipal Corporation

(c)      Delhi Municipal Corporation

(d)     None of the above

 

  1. Which of the following statements is / are correct?                                                                                         1. Britain has no climate, only weather.

 

  1. Egypt has no weather, only climate. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 Only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

 

  1. With reference to the SAARC development fund (SDF), which of the following statements is/are correct?                                                                                                                                                                                  1. SDF was setup by the World Bank to accelerate economic growth, social progress and poverty alleviation in the SAARC region.

 

  1. The headquarters of the SDF is located at the Thimpu, Bhutan. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

 

  1. Consider the following statements with reference to citizens of India                                                        1. Citizens by birth as well as naturalized citizens are eligible for the office of the President of India.

 

  1. Recent ruling of Standing up for National anthem in cinema halls is applicable to all persons including foreigners.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

 

  1. Consider the following policies followed by the Governor Generals for the expansion of their dominions and consolidation of their rule during the 3 stages of the process of the growth of British Paramountcy in India:                                                                                                                                  1. Subordinate Isolation

 

  1. Policy of Ring Fence

 

  1. Policy of Subordinate Union Which of the following is the correct sequence of their adoption in the course of the establishment of British rule in India?

(a) 1 – 3 – 2

(b) 2 – 1 – 3

(c) 1 – 2 – 3

(d) 3 – 2 – 1

 

  1. Sargasso Sea is associated with which of the following ocean?

(a)     Indian ocean

(b)     Atlantic Ocean

(c)      Pacific Ocean

(d)     Arctic ocean

 

  1. Which of the following combines to form the Antarctic Sea?                                                                          1. Ross sea

 

  1. Weddel sea

 

  1. Tasman Sea

 

Choose the correct option using the codes given below:

(a)     1 and 2 only

(b)     1 and 3 only

(c)      2 and 3 only

(d)     All the above

 

  1. Consider the following statements.                                                                                                                     The election to the office of Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya sabha should be held within six months of the vacancy.

 

  1. As per the conventions of the Rajyasabha, the position of the Deputy Chairperson always goes to the members of the opposition parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)     1 only

(b)     2 only

(c)      Both 1 and 2

(d)     Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

  

Answer:

1.C ,2.B ,3.B ,4.C ,5.A ,6.B ,7.A ,8.C ,9.A ,10.B ,11.A ,12.A ,13.A ,14.D ,15.B ,16.C ,17.D ,18.C ,19.D ,20.A ,21.A ,22.C ,23.B ,24.A ,25.B ,26.B ,27.D ,28.D

Test Series: UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020

UPSC IAS Preliminary Examination Test Series 2020 (Weekly)

  • This is a one year test series package for aspiring to become an IAS, IFS, IPS and other services under central government.
  • Under this test series programme, you will be provided 100 objective questions of latest standard for UPSC Civil Services Examination for General Studies Paper-I.
  • General Study Prelims questions with detailed explanation will be sent to your e-mail in PDF format (weekly).
  • These 100 questions for preliminary examination will comprise from all sections of the General Studies -I paper (NCERT (6-12th), Current Affairs, Indian History, Geography, Indian polity, Economy, Art and Culture, Environment and Ecology, Government Schemes and Programmes, Science and Technology etc.)
  • Questions of the test series have been prepared from standard study materials such as The Hindu, NCERT, Standard Books, PIB, Annual Reports of the Government of India, Down to Earth etc.
  • You will also get our monthly current affairs study magazine free.
  • Objective questions will be based on the latest trends of the Civil Services Preliminary Examination conducted by the UPSC.
  • At the end of the programme you will be provided 10-Full length test covered whole syllabus, so that you can evaluate your complete preparation. 
  • A small investment from your side can have significant impact on your result. With this timetable you don’t have to plan by yourself and can save hundreds of hours. Completion of syllabus is a must to succeed in this exam. Our test series will help you here very much.
  • Don’t think about pricing too much. If you think you have paid or paying good amount, extract maximum from the test series. Do justice to the price you have paid. From our end, we will do justice to the price you have paid.
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Total Fee: Rs. 2400/-

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General Studies Practice Test-1

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UPSC CSE IAS prelims and State PSC Exams Daily Practice Questions

1. Which of the following organization has recently, tested its Crew Escape System?

(a)        NASA

(b)       ISRO

(c)        DRDO

(d)       Air India

2. Consider the following statements regarding Untouchability

1. The constitution doesn’t define untouchability and it also doesn’t prescribe any punitive punishment

2. Manual scavenging is considered as a form of untouchability and is banned by Manual Scavenging Act, 2013 which provides a blanket ban on the employment of manual scavengers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)        1 only

(b)       2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)       Neither 1 nor 2

3. Consider the following statements:

1. The French were the last to come to India in search of trade opportunities.

2. The Portuguese were the first European community to discover a direct sea route to India.

3. Queen Elizabeth I was a share holder of the British East India Company.

Which of the statements given above is/are are correct?

(a)        1 and 2 only

(b)       2 and 3 only

(c)        1 and 3 only

(d)       All of the above

4.         Consider the Following statements:

1. Rotation of the earth is responsible for holding its atmosphere.

2. Atmosphere rotates along with earth’s rotation

3. Humidity in atmosphere increases from equator towards poles.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a)        1 and 2 Only

(b)       2 only

(c)        2 and 3 only

5. Which of the Mobile App launched by Ministry of Coal to prevent illegal coal mining?

(a)        Khan Prahari

(b)       Coal Bachao

(c)        Khan Helpline

(d)       Koyla Bachao

6. If a new state is to be created which of the following schedules should definitely be altered?

(a)        First

(b)       Second

(c)        Third

(d)       Eighth

7. Who was the Governor General of India at the time of formation of the Indian National Congress?

(a)        Lord Lytton

(b)       Lord Dufferin

(c)        Lord Elgin

(d)       Lord Minto

8. Which of the following can be tapped for electricity generation?

1.         Tidal waves

2.         Volcanoes

3.         Hot springs

4.         Earth Quakes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)        1 and 3 only

(b)       1, 2 and 3 Only

(c)        1, 2 and 4 Only

(d)         1, 2, 3 and 4

9.         Consider the following statements

1.         Africa is the second largest continent after Asia and is ten times the size of India

2.         Also called as The Dark Continent

3.         It is the only continent that crosses the Tropic of Cancer, Equator and Tropic of Capricorn.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a)        1 and 2 only

(b)       2 and 3 only

(c)        1 only

(d)       1 and 3 only

10. Which committee was constituted by the Union Government to upgrade norms for state & district level economic data collection?

(a)        Susheel Kumar Committee

(b)       Ravindra H Dholakia Committee

(c)        Bimal Jalan Committee

(d)       S Kashyap Committee

11. Which among the following sites of Mumbai has recently been inducted into the UNESCO World Heritage Site list?

(a)        Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai

(b)       The Imperial Tower

(c)        1905 Prince’s Triumphal Arch Clock Tower, Mumbai

(d)       Global Vipassana Pagoda

12. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Article 15 of the Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners.

2. Article 16 of the Constitution of India is available to the citizens of India only.

3. Article 21 of the Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners alike within the territory of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)        1 only

(b)       2 and 3 only

(c)        3 only

(d)       1, 2 and 3

13. Which of the following statements is incorrect about “Drain of Wealth” theory in context of Indian freedom struggle?

(a)        The Drain of Wealth theory was systemically initiated by Dadabhai Naoroji.

(b)       Through this theory Naoroji sought to prove that Britain was draining money out of India.

(c)        Drain of Wealth included “Home Charges”.

(d)       All the statements are correct.

14. Which one of the following statements is / are not correct with respect to core of the earth?

1.         it’s made up of high-density materials mostly like nickel and iron

2.         Solid state of the inner core is because of the incumbent pressure.

3.         High temperature of inner core is responsible for the magnetic sphere of the earth.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)        3 Only

(b)       2 and 3 only

(c)        1 and 2 only

(d)       1, 2 and 3

15. Which state government has launched a “happiness curriculum” for school students?

(a)        Delhi

(b)       Rajasthan

(c)        Haryana

(d)       Uttar Pradesh

16. Consider the following statements regarding Article 368 of Indian Constitution

1. If an Indian territory is to be ceded to a foreign nation then it requires a formal amendment process under Article 368

2. The settlement of boundary disputes also requires a formal amendment process under Article 368.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)        1 only

(b)       2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)       Neither 1 nor 2

17.       Who among the following is known as “The Father of the Indian Renaissance”?

(a)        Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

(b)       Swami Vivekananda

(c)        Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(d)       Swami Dayanand Saraswati

18.       Which of the following is not a “Second order relief” feature?

(a)        Himalayas

(b)       Mid Atlantic Ridge

(c)        Grand Canyon

(d)       Great African Rift valley

19.       Consider the following statements

1. Africa is separated from Eurasia at three different points, Strait of Gibraltar, Suez Canal and strait of Bab-el- Mandel.

2. It joins Asia by the narrow Isthmus of Suez

Which of the above given statements is/are incorrect?

(a)        Both 1 and 2

(b)       1 only

(c)        2 only

(d)       none

20. Which ministry has launched India Smart Cities Fellowship (ISCF) and Internship (ISCI)?

(a)        Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

(b)       Ministry for Development of North Eastern Region

(c)        Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

(d)       Ministry of environment

21. Which of the following countries have been put in to the grey list of Financial action task force (FATF) ?

(a)        Iran

(b)       Syria

(c)        Pakistan

(d)       Afghanistan

22. Consider the following statements with regards to “Right to Education Act”

1.         “The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act” is an Act enacted by the Parliament of India and ratified by the states of India

2.         It describes the modalities of the importance of free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 under Article 21A of the Indian Constitution.

3.         It mandates unaided schools with the exception of Minority educational schools to reserve 25% of their seats for children from weaker sections and disadvantaged groups.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)        1 only

(b)       1 and 2 only

(c)        2 and 3 only

(d)       1, 2 and 3

23. Consider the following statements about Permanent Settlement System.

  1. Permanent Settlement System was introduced by Lord Wellesley in 1793.
  2. It was introduced on the recommendations of Sir John Shore. Which of the statements given above is/are are correct?

(a)        1 only

(b)       2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)       Neither 1 nor 2

24. Consider the following layers with reference to atmosphere of the sun

1.         Photosphere

2.         Chromo sphere

3.         Corona

Arrange the layers of atmosphere given below in order from surface towards core of the sun.

(a) 3 – 2 – 1

(b) 1 – 2 – 3

(c) 2 – 1 – 3

(d) 1 – 3 – 2

25. In the first ever India’s inter-state relocation, a tiger was shifted between which two states?

(a)        Uttarakhand & Madhya Pradesh

(b)       Madhya Pradesh & Uttar Pradesh

(c)        Madhya Pradesh & Odisha

(d)       Gujarat & Maharashtra

26. Which of the following agencies come under the definition of “State” mentioned in the Article 12 of the Indian constitution?

1.         Local bodies

2.         Public sector banks

3.         National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)

4.         Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)        1 and 2 only

(b)       1, 2 and 4 only

(c)        1, 2 and 3 only

(d)        1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer Key:

1.B ,2.A ,3.D ,4.B ,5.A ,6.A ,7.B ,8.B ,9.B ,10.B ,11.A ,12.B ,13.C ,14.A ,15.A ,16.A ,17.C ,18.C ,19.D ,20.C ,21.C ,22.C ,23.B ,24.A ,25.C

India and Tropic of Cancer

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Key Points:

Tropic of Cancer is an imaginary line, at an angle of 23.50 degrees north from the Equator that passes through the middle of India. If you run this imaginary line around Earth (Yes, Flat-Earthlings, the Earth is spherical), it passes through 17 countries, India being one of them. The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight states in India: Gujarat (Jasdan), Rajasthan (Kalinjarh), Madhya Pradesh (Shajapur), Chhattisgarh (Sonhat), Jharkhand (Lohardaga), West Bengal (Krishnanagar), Tripura (Udaipur) and Mizoram (Champhai).

Mahi River is the only river in India that cuts the Tropic of Cancer twice, first in Madhya Pradesh from where it flows towards Rajasthan and enters Gujarat where it cuts for the second time. If you are the adventurous type and was looking for something different, following the Tropic of Cancer line across India would definitely qualify as something different. Follow the river all through Dhar and Jhabua in Madhya Pradesh, follow it some more as it enter Banswara in Rajasthan (you are on the Tropic of Cancer here!) and then follow the river back as it passes through Panchmahal in Gujarat and finally joins Arabian Sea at the mouth of Gulf of Khambhat. While you are still in Gujarat, head to Jasdan. The city is known for its beautiful handicrafts and diamond polishing. Looks like sun brought bling with it. Don’t forget, Tropic of Cancer passes through this city.

Udaipur in Tripura is the city nearest to the Tropic of Cancer. Tripura, even though it falls under northeastern part of India, is a hot place. The city is famous for its Tripura Sundari Temple and was an erstwhile capital of the Maharajas of Tripura. Speaking of hot places in the northeast, Mizoram gives a good competition to the rest of country’s hot places. And no wonder why. Champhai falls on the Indo-Myanmar border, and also the Tropic of Cancer. The town is important for the aforementioned reason and upon reaching there, you will be glad you visited. The town is a pretty one (pretty hot too).

The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through
      a) India
      b) Pakistan
      c) Bangladesh
      d) Myanmar

Ans-b

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