Geography and Economy
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Mock Test – 1
Section – 1 (Geography MCQ)
1. Consider the
following statements;
1. Continent-making
movements are called Epeirogenic movements.
2. Mountain-making
movements are called orogenic movements.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
2. Which of the
following conditions does not favour the formation of a tropical cyclone?
(a) Temperature above
27°C
(b) Significant
vertical wind difference
(c) High humidity
levels
(d) Divergence in the
upper atmosphere
3. Consider the
following statements;
1. Prairies are
called Parklands.
2. Tropical
rainforests are known as Selva.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
4. Which one of the
following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?
(a) Syria
(b) Jordan
(c) Lebanon
(d) Israel
5. Which one of the
following is also known as Top Slip?
(a) Simlipal National
Park
(B) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
(C) Manjira Wildlife
Sanctuary
(d) Indira Gandhi
Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park
6. Consider the
following statements;
1. Visakhapatnam is
the deepest port of India.
2. Kochi is a natural
harbour.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
7. Consider the
following statements;
1. Assam shares a
border with Bhutan and Bangladesh.
2. West Bengal shares
a border with Bhutan and Nepal.
3. Mizoram shares a
border with Bangladesh and Myanmar.
Which of the
statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
8. Which of the
following pairs is incorrectly matched?
(a) Kosi: Consequent
River
(b) Narmada: Rift
Valley River
(c) Sutlej:
Antecedent River
(d) Ghaggar: River
with interior drainage
9. Consider the
following statements;
1. Groundnut is not
grown in kharif season.
2. Sesame is a kharif
crop in North India and Rabi crop in South India.
3. Cotton is not
grown in Rabi season.
Which of the
statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of these
10. In which one of
the following environment does one expect the presence of dispersed rural
settlements?
(a) Alluvial plains
of the Ganga
(b) Arid and
semi-arid regions of Rajasthan
(c) Lower valleys of
the Himalayas
(d) Forests and hills
in the North-East
11. In the context of
ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase
the marine productivity by bringing the?
1. Decomposer
micro-organisms to the surface.
2. Nutrients to the
surface.
3. bottom-dwelling
organisms to the surface.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 3
12. Which of the
following is called as the ‘lighthouse of the Mediterranean’?
(a) Mount Vesuvius
(b) Mount Fujiyama
(c) Mount Chimborazo
(d) Mount Stromboli
13. Consider the
following statements;
1. The winds which
blow between 30°N and 60°S latitudes throughout the year are known as Westerlies.
2. the most air
masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of
Westerlies.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. Consider the
following statements;
1. Namdapha National
Park is in Assam.
2. Kaimur Wildlife
Sanctuary is in Bihar.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
15. The type of fault
in which the rock blocks are displaced in opposite directions and one of the blocks
moves downwards is called?
(a) Normal fault
(b) Reverse fault
(c) Thrust fault
(d) Step fault
16. Consider the
following statements;
1. River Ken is a
left bank tributary of Ganga.
2. River Chenab is
the largest tributary of Indus.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
17. Consider the
following statements;
1. between the valley
of Narmada and Tapti lies Satpura.
2. Banas and its
tributaries lies to the East of Aravallis.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
18. Shallow ploughing
only to the depth need to ensure quick seed germination and leaving crop
residues and ground litter to protect the soil is?
(a) no-tillage
farming
(b) Minimum tillage
farming
(c) Contour cropping
(d) Gully reclamation
19. According to the
Demographic Transition Model;
1. Late expanding
stage has declining fertility and mortality rates.
2. Early expanding
stage has high fertility and declining mortality rates.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
20. Which one of the
following countries is the first country in the world to propose a carbon tax
for its people to address the global warming?
(a) Australia
(b) Germany
(c) Japan
(d) New Zealand
21. Consider the
following statements;
1. Cement industry is
not a weight losing industry.
2. Hindustan Aluminium
Corporation is located at Jaykaynagar.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
22. Which of the
following add/adds nitrogen to soil?
1. Excretion of urea
by animals.
2. Burning of coal by
man.
3. Death of
vegetation.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these
23. Consider the
following statements;
1. The desert proper
is known as Marusthali.
2. The shifting
sand-dunes are locally known as Durian.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
24. Which of the
following have short life cycle and may form a fairly dense stand after
rainfall?
(a) Perennials
(b) Ephemerals
(c) Succulents
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
25. In which of the
following types of age-sex pyramids, both birth and death rates are low and
declining?
(A) Progressive
(b) Regressive
(C) Stationary
(d) Intermediate
26. Brunt land
Commission is also known as
(a) The World
Commission on Environmental and Development
(b) The World
Commission on Reduction of Greenhouse Gases
(c) The World
Commission on Ozone Depletion
(d) The World
Commission on Protection of Spice
27. Volcanic activity
occurs in which of the following tectonic settings?
1. Sea floor
spreading 2. Subduction
3. Hotspot
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below
(A) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
28. Which one of the
following rivers has the highest replenishable groundwater resource in the
country?
(a) The Indus
(b) The Ganga
(c) The Brahmaputra
(d) The Godavari
29. Consider the
following statements;
1. Cork, Oak, Jarrah,
Karri, Cedar, Sequoia trees are found in tropical rainforest.
2. Quinine is
extracted from the bark of Cinchona trees.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
30. Which one of the
following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Vikramshila
Monastery: Uttar Pradesh
(b) Hemkund
Gurudwara: Himachal Pradesh
(c) Udayagiri Caves:
Maharashtra
(D) Amaravati
Buddhist Stupa: Andhra Pradesh
31. Which of the
following findings are evident for the climate change?
1. Carbon dioxide
concentration in the atmosphere now reached about 398 PPM that is highest in
last 65000 years.
2. Global surface
temperature increased about 0.6°C from the average temperature.
3. Arctic ice sheet
is declining at a rate of 11.5% per decade.
4. The global average
sea level has risen 4-8 inches over the past century.
5. 2000 to 2009 was
the warmest decade on record.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below;
(A) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) All of these
32. Economic density
is?
(a) Total number of
people per unit of land
(b) Agricultural
population per unit area of land
(c) Agricultural
population per unit area of cultivated land
(d) Ratio between the
requirements of population and the resources made available to it
33. Consider the following
statements;
1. Length of a
terrestrial mile is lesser than that of a nautical mile.
2. Harmattan is a
dusty land-wind of the East African coast.
3. Greece and Albania
form a part of the lberian Peninsula.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3
(d) All of these
34. Which one of the
following phenomenons happens when the sun shines vertically over the Tropic of
Capricorn in the Southern hemisphere?
(a) High pressure
develops over the North-Western India due to low temperatures
(b) Low pressure
develops over the North-Western India due to high temperatures
(c) No changes in
temperature and pressure occur in the North-Western India
(d) ‘Loo’ blows in
the North-Western India
35. Which one of the
following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on
the Earth?
(a) Hydrogen, Oxygen,
Sodium
(b) Carbon, Hydrogen,
Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen, Hydrogen,
Phosphorus
(d) Carbon, Hydrogen,
Potassium
36. Which of the
following signifies an elimination of thin fertile film of soil from large
area?
(a) Rill erosion
(b) Sheet erosion
(c) Gully erosion
(d) Slip erosion
37. Which one of the
following is not one of the missions in India’s National Action Plan on Climate
Change?
(a) National Mission on
Sustainable Agriculture
(b) National Water
Mission
(c) National Mission
on Sustainable Habitat
(d) National
Pollution Mission
38. Which of the
following is true about Coriolis force?
1. Occurs as a result
of Earth’s rotation from West to East.
2. Deflection of
wind/current occurs to the right in North hemisphere and left in South
hemisphere.
3. Coriolis effect is
maximum at the equator and minimum at poles.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below;
(A) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(C) All of these
(d) None of these
39. Through which one
of the following groups of countries does the equator pass?
(a) Brazil, Zambia
and Malaysia
(b) Columbia, Kenya
and Indonesia
(c) Brazil, Sudan and
Malaysia
(d) Venezuela,
Ethiopia and Indonesia
40. Consider the following
statements;
1. Air borne plants
that form symbiotic relationships with host plants is called epiphytes.
2. Low lying broad
leaved plants is called as Forbes.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
41. In the context of
CO2 emission and global warming, what is the name of a market driven device
under the UNFCC that allows developing countries to get funds/ incentives from
the developed countries to adopt better technologies to reduce greenhouse gas emissions?
(a) Carbon Footprint
(b) Carbon Credit
Rating
(c) Clean Development
Mechanism
(d) Emission
Reduction Norm
42. Consider the
following statements;
1. Thein Dam Project
provides drinking water to Delhi.
2 The purpose of
Damodar Project is both flood control and irrigation.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
43. Which one of the
following facts was not considered by those while discussing the concept of sea
floor spreading?
(a) Volcanic activity
along the mid-oceanic ridges
(b) Stripes of normal
and reverse magnetic field observed in the rocks of ocean floor
(c) Distribution of
fossils in different continents
(d) Age of rocks from
the ocean floor
44. If there were no
Himalayan ranges, what would have been the most likely geographical impact on
India?
1. Much of the
country would experience the cold waves from Siberia.
2. Indo-Gangetic
plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvial soils.
3. The pattern of
monsoon would be different from what it is at present.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
45. In India, which
type of forest among the following occupies the largest area?
(A) Montane wet
temperate forest
(b) Sub-tropical dry
evergreen forest
(c) Tropical moist
deciduous forest
(d) Tropical wet
evergreen forest
46. Ecotone is?
(a) Mixed ecosystem
(b) Borders of
ecosystem
(c) Transitional
region between ecosystems
(d) Core of ecosystem
47. Which of the
following substances are found in the beach sands of many parts of Kerala?
1. Ilmenite
2. Zircon
3. Sillimanite
4. Tungsten
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below
(A) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
48. Most of the
winter precipitation of lowlands in the middle latitudes is of?
(a) Cyclonic origin
(b) Convectional
origin
(c) Orographic origin
(d) Monsoonal origin
49. The ‘Red Data
Books’ published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and
Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of?
1. Endemic plant and
animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.
2. threatened plant
and animal species.
3. Protected sites
for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 3
(b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 3
50. If a tropical
rainforest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical
deciduous forest. This is because
(a) The soil of
rainforest is deficient in nutrients
(b) Propagules of the
trees in a rainforest have poor viability
(c) The rainforest
species are slow growing
(d) Exotic species
invade the fertile soil of rainforest
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Section – 2: Practice Test – 1 (Economy MCQ)
1. Which of the
following statement(s) is true about HDI?
1. Since 2010, UNDP
began using the new method of calculating HDI.
2. It is based on
life expectancy, per capita income mean years of schooling and expected years
of schooling.
3. HDI is the
arithmetic mean of the Life Expectancy Index, Education Index and Income Index.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All of these
2. Deficit financing
leads to inflation in general, but it can be checked if?
(a) Government
expenditure leads to increase in aggregate supply in ratio of aggregate demand
(b) Only aggregate
demand is increased
(c) All the
expenditure is devoted to the payment of national debt
(d) All of the above
3. Name the bank
announced to be set-up in the budget for regulating and refinancing all
Micro-Finance Institutions (MFI) which are in the business of lending to
micro/small business entities engaged in manufacturing, trading and services
activities?
(a) Micro Bank
(b) MUDRA Bank
(c) SIDBI Bank
(d) Micro-Finance
Bank
4. Which of the
following are the main causes of slow rate of growth of per capita income in
India?
1. High level of
fiscal deficits.
2. High capital
output ratio.
3. High rate of
household savings.
4. High rate of
growth of population.
5. High rate of
capital formation.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 5
5. Which of the
following statements are true regarding the TRIPS agreement of the WTO?
1. TRIPS are related
to protecting the intellectual property rights.
2. Developing
countries were supposed to pass TRIPS Complaint National Legislation by 2005.
While for developed countries the time limit was till 1995.
Select the correct answer
using the codes given below
(a) Only 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Consider the
following statements regarding the OPEC
1. At present, OPEC
has total 14 members’ countries.
2. The objective of
OPEC was to control production and price of petroleum so as to safeguard the
interests of oil exporting countries.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. Consider the
following regarding the functions of WTO
1. To provide
facilities for implementation, administration and operation of multilateral
agreements of the World Trade.
2. To provide a
platform to member countries to decide future strategies related to trade and
tariff.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. Consider the
following statements;
1. Geographical
indication is granted to a community or group or an institution that represents
the interests of the world.
2. It is given to a
product for a specific period of time (10 years in India).
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. The GST Bill
comprises –
1. The CGST Bill –
The Central Goods and Services Tax Bill, 2017
2. The IGST Bill –
The Integrated Goods and Services Tax Bill, 2017
3. The UTGST Bill-
The Union Territory Goods and Services Tax Bill, 2017
4. The Compensation
Bill – The Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to the States) Bill, 2017
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below
(a)Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
10. After a gap of
over 20 years, ` 1 note has been released in the country on 6th March, 2015 by Finance
Secretary Rajiv Mehrishi. The new ` 1 note bears the signature of
(A) Finance Minister
(B) RBI Governor
(C) Finance Secretary
(d) Home Secretary
11. The capital
account convertibility of the Indian Rupee implies
(a) That the Indian
Rupee can be exchanged by the authorised dealers for travel
(b) That the Indian
Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trade in goods
and services
(c) That the Indian
Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trading
financial assets
(d) None of the above
12. World Bank
provides long-run capital to member countries for economic reconstruction and
development.
World Bank provides
capital mainly for the following purposes
1. To rehabilitate
war ruined economics.
2. To finance
productive efforts according to peacetime requirements.
3. To develop
resources and production facilities in underdeveloped countries.
Which of the
statement(s) given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and
3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
13. Consider the
following statements
1. Ministerial
conference is the highest decision-making body of the WTO, which usually meets
once every 2 years.
2. Its headquarters
is in Geneva.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. Consider the
following statement(s) regarding the International Monetary fund
1. IMF is controlled
and managed by a Board of Governors.
2. Each Governor has
the right of 250 votes on the basis of membership and one additional vote for
each SDR 1 lakh quota.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. Consider the
following statements
1. General agreement
on trade in services is a treaty of the
World Trade
Organisation (WTO) that entered into force in
January, 1995.
2. All members of the
WTO are signatories to the general agreement on trade in services.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
16. IMF was established
to meet which of the following objectives?
1. Promoting
International Monetary Co-operation.
2. Expanding
International Trade.
3. Lessening the
disequilibrium in balance of trade.
4. Avoiding
competitive exchange depreciations.
Select the correct answer
using the codes given below
(a) 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
17. Consider the
following statements about ‘Mega Food Park’
1. To provide good
infrastructure facilities for food processing industries.
2. To increase processing
perishable items and reduce wastage.
3. To provide
emerging and eco friendly food processing technology to entrepreneurs.
Which of the
statement(s) given above are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these
18. Which one of the
following is related with the Baltic Dry index?
(a) An assessment of
the price of moving the major raw materials by sea
(b) An index showing
the rising and falling prices of shares and equities in the Baltic region
(c) An assessment
showing the prices of the crude oil produced in the Baltic region
(d) None of the above
19. Which one of the
following items has the highest share of India in the world exports?
(a) Coffee, Tea,
Mate, Spices etc
(b) Pearls, Precious
stones, Metals, Coins etc
(c) Lac, Gums,
Resins, Vegetable Saps and extracts etc
(d) Vegetable
Plaiting Materials, Vegetable Products etc
20. The fair and
remuneration price of sugarcane is approved by the
(a) Cabinet Committee
on Economic Affairs
(b) Commission for
Agricultural Costs and Prices
(c) Directorate of
Marketing and Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture
(d) Agricultural
Produce Market Committee
21. Which one of the
following factors is taken account to calculate the Balance of Payment (BOP),
of a country?
(A) Current account
(b) Changes in the
foreign exchange reserves
(c) Errors and
omissions (d) All of these
22. Which one of the
following international organisations offers political risk insurance
guarantees to help investors to protect foreign direct investments made in
developing countries against political risk?
(a) IDA
(b) IFC
(c) IMF
(d) MIGA
23. Examine the
following statements in the context of the Base Rate system of interest rates
1. Corporate entities
were able to get loans at interest rates lower than PLR while it is not possible
with Base Rate.
2. Monetary policy is
transmitted better through Base Rate system.
3. Base Rate is
applicable only to loans given after 1st July, 2010.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 2
(d) All of these
24. Consider the
following statements
1. Regional Rural
banks were set-up in 1975, under an Act of Parliament to exclusively cater to
the credit needs of rural population.
2. The sponsor banks
have the largest share in the equality of Regional Rural banks.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
25. Which of these
statements is true regarding the Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) of IMF?
1. The SDRs are equivalent
to a currency and represent a claim on the IMF.
2. The value of SDRs
in terms of its component currencies is fixed annually.
3. The basket of
currencies of SDRs which presently consist of US Dollar, Euro, the Chinese
renminbi, Pound and Yen is revised every 5 years.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 3
(b) Only 1
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) All of these
26. Which of the
following statements are true regarding Hedge Funds?
1. Hedge funds are
open to only select group of investors.
2. Hedge funds have
been allowed to function in India recently after registering with SEBI.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
27. Consider the
following statements;
1. NABARD is the
nodal agency for implementing the schemes in respect of co-operative credit and
RRBs.
2. NABARD was the
nodal agency for implementing the agricultural debt waiver and Debt Relief
Scheme, 2008.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) neither
1 nor 2
28. Which of the
following statements is true regarding the Agreement on Agriculture of the WTO?
1. Green box, blue
box and amber box refer to domestic subsidies in agriculture.
2. There is no limit
on green box subsidies for both developing and developed economies.
3. In the long-run,
the agreement on agriculture is expected to benefit the developing countries.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) All of these
29. Which State
Government launched ‘Bhagya shree’ scheme in place of the Sukanya scheme which
caters to girls from Below Poverty Line (BPL) families?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Kerala
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Haryana
30. Which of the
following are the objectives of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and
Prices (CACP)?
1. To stabilise
agricultural prices.
2. To ensure
meaningful real income levels to the farmers.
3. To protect the
interest of the consumers by providing essential agricultural commodities at
reasonable rate through PDS.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below
(A) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of the above
31. Which of these
statements is true regarding the lending provisions of the IMF?
1. IMF lends to only
member countries.
2. IMF lends only to
help with Balance of Payments (BoP) problems.
3. IMF lending is
also possible for specific projects relating to economic restructuring of an
economy.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below
(A) 1 and 3
(b) Only 1
(c) 1 and 2
(d) Only 3
32. Which of the
following statements is true regarding a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC)?
1. NBFC cannot accept
demand deposits.
2. For a NBFC
financial assets must be 50% more than its total assets.
3. Normal banks do
all of the activities normally done by an NBFC.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below
(a)Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All of these
33. The Competition
Commission of India (CCI) wants the rules tightened to bring a larger number of
Mergers and Acquisitions (M and As) under its scrutiny. In this context,
consider the following statements about CCI
1. Competition
Commission of India (CCI) was established with effect from14th October, 2003.
2. The goal is to curtail
the monopoly tendencies and foster the competition among public sector
enterprises.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
34. Which of the
following statements is true regarding the innovation index measure?
1. It is developed by
INSEAD, France.
2. Japan is the top
country in this index.
3. The National
Innovation Council (NIC) was formed to foster innovation in India especially in
the area of growth.
Select the correct answer
using the codes given below;
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of the above
35. Examine these
statements in the context of the financial instruments known as futures.
1. Futures are
agreements between two parties to buy or sell shares at a future date.
2. Options are a
class of futures where there is a right, but not the obligation to buy or sell
at a future date.
3. Forwards are a
particular class of futures.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 3
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 2
(d) All of these
36. Which one of the
following is likely to the most inflationary, in its effect?
(a) Repayment of
public debt
(b) Borrowing from
the public to finance a budget deficit
(c) Borrowing from
banks to finance a budget deficit
(d) Creating new
money to finance a budget deficit
37. Consider the
following statements regarding Reserve Bank of India;
1. It is a banker to
the Central Government.
2. It formulates and
administers monetary policy.
3. It acts as an
agent of the government in respect of India.
4. It handles the
borrowing programme of Government of India.
Which of the
statement(s) given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
38. Consider the
following regarding World Trade organisation
1. The Uruguay round
of GATT (1986-93) gave birth to WTO.
2. WTO was officially
constituted as a permanent body on 1st January, 1995 as an effective
formal organisation.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
39. Under the WTO
agreement, Agreement on Agriculture (AoA), developing countries won over with
some concessional features and flexibilities. Its three pillars are?
1. Domestic support
2. Export subsidies
3. Market access
4. Non-tariff
barriers
Which of the
statement(s) given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
40. Consider the
following regarding WTO
1. WTO negotiations
proceed not by consensus of all members, but by a process of informal
negotiations between small groups.
2. Such negotiations
are often called green room.
Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
41. Personal Income
Tax limit was not changed in Union Budget 2016-17. What is the present Personal
I-T exemption limit?
(a) 2.5 lakh
(b) 2.75 lakh
(c) 3 lakh
(d) 5 lakh
42. Which one of the following
items has gained the highest growth rate in the import composition of the Indian
economy in the last decade?
(a) Pearls, precious
and semiprecious stones
(b) Gold and silver
(c) Oil-cake and
other solid residues
(d) None of the above
43. Consider the
following regarding the objectives of WTO
1. To improve the
standard of living of people in member countries.
2. To ensure full
employment and increase in effective demand.
3. To enlarge
production and trade of goods and services.
Which of the
statement(s) given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these
44. The Indian
banking system consists of?
1. 26 public sector
banks
2. 20 private sector
banks
3. 43 foreign banks
4. 56 regional rural
banks
5. 1589 urban
cooperative banks
6. 93550 rural
cooperative banks
Select the correct
option from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) All of these
45. Hawala
transactions relate to payments
(a) Received in rupees
against overseas currencies and vice versa without going through the official channels
(b) Received for sale
or transfer of shares without going through the established stock exchanges
(c) Received as commission
for services rendered to overseas investors, buyers or sellers in assisting them
to get over the red tape and in getting preferential treatment
(d) Made to political
parties or to individuals for meeting election expenses
46. The Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) cancelled the certificate of registration of the 26 Non- Banking
Financial Companies (NBFCs) including?
(a) Mathura Financial
Services Limited
(b) SJ Finance &
Consultants Private Limited
(c) Modern Vintrade
Private Limited
(d) All of the above
47. The main cause of
cyclical unemployment is that?
(a) Firms engage in
race, gender and sex discrimination in their hiring practices
(b) Some individuals
do not have marketable job skills
(c) The level of
overall economic activity fluctuates
(d) Workers often
voluntarily quit a job look for a better job
48. If the Cash
Reserve ratio is lowered by the RBI, its impact upon credit creation will be to?
(a) Decrease it
(b) Increase it
(c) No impact
(d) None of these
49. Which of the
following is true about money market in India?
1. the most active
segment of money market is overight call market.
2. The money market
instruments have maturity of less than 1 year.
3. The money market
instruments in India are regulated by RBI and SBI.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below
(A) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of the above
50. With regard to
proposed GST, which of the following is correct?
1. Taxes on items containing
alcohol and petroleum product are kept out of GST.
2. Entertainment tax,
luxury tax and taxes on gambling are part of GST.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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