The following INSIGHTS IAS daily current affairs quiz for UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 will help in facing General Studies Paper – 1 of UPSC civil services preliminary exam. Questions will be both conceptual and factual. Current affairs form the bulk of UPSC IAS exam preparation. Solving daily questions based on current affairs will help you both understand issues and remember facts better. Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC IAS Exam. INSIGHTS IAS PRELIMS 2020 Daily Quiz.
MYUPSC.COM – UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test for Civil Services Examination, IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test Series for UPSC Prelims Aspirants. UPSC IAS Prelims Test 10 Solution free download. myupsc.com is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. INSIGHTS IAS PRELIMS 2020 Daily Quiz. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc. INSIGHTS IAS PRELIMS 2020
INSIGHTS IAS daily current affairs quiz for UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 will help in facing General Studies Paper – 1 of UPSC civil services preliminary exam. Questions will be both conceptual and factual. Current affairs form the bulk of UPSC IAS exam preparation. INSIGHTS IAS PRELIMS 2020 Daily Quiz.
The following INSIGHTS IAS daily current affairs quiz for UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 will help in facing General Studies Paper – 1 of UPSC civil services preliminary exam. Questions will be both conceptual and factual. Current affairs form the bulk of UPSC IAS exam preparation. Solving daily questions based on current affairs will help you both understand issues and remember facts better. Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC IAS Exam. INSIGHTS IAS PRELIMS 2020 Daily Quiz.
MYUPSC.COM – UPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test for Civil Services Examination, IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Test Series for UPSC Prelims Aspirants. UPSC IAS Prelims Test 10 Solution free download. myupsc.com is dedicated to preparation of Indian Administrative Services (UPSC) and Rajasthan Administrative Services (RPSC). The site intends to provide free study notes, knowledge or information related to IAS/RAS exams that can help to crack these Examinations. The Study Portal has also published its Ebooks/ PDF on various aspects & dimensions of World, India and Rajasthan. The vision of the Study Portal is to consolidate all the relevant information related to India and Rajasthan, regarding its History, Geography, Polity, Art-Culture, Heritage, Economy, Environment & Biodiversity and Current Affairs etc.
The following INSIGHTS IAS daily current affairs quiz for UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 will help in facing General Studies Paper – 1 of UPSC civil services preliminary exam. Questions will be both conceptual and factual. Current affairs form the bulk of UPSC IAS exam preparation. Solving daily questions based on current affairs will help you both understand issues and remember facts better. Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC IAS Exam. INSIGHTS IAS PRELIMS 2020 Daily Quiz.
The following INSIGHTS IAS daily current affairs quiz for UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 will help in facing General Studies Paper – 1 of UPSC civil services preliminary exam. Questions will be both conceptual and factual. Current affairs form the bulk of UPSC IAS exam preparation. Solving daily questions based on current affairs will help you both understand issues and remember facts better. Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC IAS Exam. INSIGHTS IAS PRELIMS 2020 Daily Quiz.
The following INSIGHTS IAS daily current affairs quiz for UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 will help in facing General Studies Paper – 1 of UPSC civil services preliminary exam. Questions will be both conceptual and factual. Current affairs form the bulk of UPSC IAS exam preparation. Solving daily questions based on current affairs will help you both understand issues and remember facts better. Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC IAS Exam. INSIGHTS IAS PRELIMS 2020 Daily Quiz.
Q1. Which of the following
adaptations is/are found in the mangrove plants?
1. Absence of stomata.
2. Turn their leaves to reduce
exposure to the sunlight.
3. Pneumatophores
4. Salt glands
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: c
Q2. Which of the following are
responsible for land degradation?
1. Overgrazing
2. Salination
3. Water-logging
4. Landslides
5. Practice of Jhum cultivation
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 4, 5
Answer: c
Q3. Consider the following
pairs.
Disease
Pollutant
1. Itai-itai disease Cadmium
2. Minamata disease Mercury
3. Blue Baby Syndrome Arsenic
Which of the above pairs is/are
correctly matched?
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: c
Q4. Which of the following
pyramids can be both upright and inverted?
1. Pyramid of Biomass
2. Pyramid of Numbers
3. Pyramid of Productivity
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: a
Q5. The increasing amount of
carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere,
because it absorbs
a) The water vapours of the air
and retains its heat
b) Infrared part of solar
radiation
c) The ultraviolet part of the
solar radiation
d) All the solar radiations
Answer: b
Q6. Which of the following
Ramsar site is manmade?
a) Deepor Beel
b) Wular Lake
c) Bhoj Wetland
d) Loktak Lake
Answer: c
Q7. Consider the following
statements about South Asian Nitrogen Hub.
1. The Indian government has
announced a research project, South Asian Nitrogen Hub.
2. The project aims to study
the impact of different forms of nitrogen pollution, particularly looking at
nitrogen in agriculture in eight countries of South Asia.
3. UNEP will partner with
different organisations from South Asia.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: b
Q8. With reference to food
chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:
1. A food chain illustrates the
order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
2. Food chains are found within
the population of a species.
3. A food chain illustrates the
numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2, 3
d) None
Answer: a
Q9. Consider the following
statements about Wildlife Protection Society of India.
1. It is an attached office to
the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
2. It protects endangered
species and their habitats through awareness, support, and training.
3. Collaborate with state
governments to monitor the illegal wildlife trade.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: c
Q10. Consider the following
statements about “ECOMARK” scheme.
1. It is a Scheme on Labelling
of Environment Friendly Products.
2. Provide an incentive for
manufacturers and importers to reduce adverse environmental impact of products.
3. Reward initiatives by
companies to reduce adverse environmental impact of their products.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: d
Q11. The composting process is
dependent on which of the following micro-organisms?
1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Virus
4. Actino bacteria
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: c
Q12. The Global Environment
Facility (GEF) serves as a financial mechanism for which of the following
conventions?
1. Convention on Biological
Diversity (CBD)
2. Convention on the
International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Flora and Fauna (CITES)
3. UN Convention to Combat
Desertification (UNCCD)
4. Montreal Protocol on
Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: b
Q13. Consider the following
statements.
1. Bioleaching is used
essentially for the recovery of copper, uranium and gold.
2. Bioaugmentation can be
involved in bioremediation.
3. Biosparging can be used to
reduce concentrations of petroleum constituents that are dissolved in
groundwater.
Which of the above statements
is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None
Answer: d
Q14. Consider the following
statements about Mammals of India (MAOI) initiative.
1. It is an online, peer-
reviewed, freely-accessible portal exclusively for mammals.
2. It is the initiative of
Ministry of Environment & Forests (MoEF).
3. It provides a facility to
the citizen to upload photographic observations about mammals.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: c
Q15. Consider the following
statements.
1. It is recognized as an Important
Bird Area by BirdLife International.
2. It was declared as a World
Heritage Site by UNESCO.
3. The forest region is home to
world’s largest population of Indian Rhinoceros.
4. It is also a Tiger Reserve.
The above statements are
related to which National Park?
3. William Bentinck Introduction of
English as official language
4. Dalhousie Introduction
of Subsidiary Alliance
Which of the above pairs are
correctly matched?
a) 2, 4
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3, 4
Answer: b)
Explaination:
Cornwallis – Europeanisation of
administrative machinery and Introduction of Civil services.
Wellesley – Introduction of
Subsidiary Alliance, 1798.
William Bentinck – Educational
reforms and introduction of English as the official language.
Dalhousie – Telegraph (4000
miles of telegraph lines to connect Calcutta with Bombay, Madras and Peshawar)
and postal (Post Office Act, 1854) reforms.
Q2. Consider the following
statements.
1. Charter Act of 1813 promoted
modern sciences in the country.
2. Macaulay’s Minute led to the
promotion of mass education.
3. Hunter Education Commission
report is considered as the ‘Magna Carta of English Education in India”.
Which of the above statements
is/are incorrect?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: c
Q3. Muhammad Ali Jinnah in
March 1929 gave fourteen points for safeguarding the rights and interests of
the Muslims. Which of the following were included in the fourteen points?
1. Federal Constitution with
residual powers to provinces.
2. One-third Muslim
representation in the central legislature.
3. Separation of Sindh from
Bombay.
4. Not separate electorates,
but joint electorates with reserved seats for Muslims.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3, 4
Answer: c
Q4. Which of the following
is/are correct about Pathshala under British India?
1. These were institutions
working on the principle of decentralized governance with minimum of rules
2. Wood’s Despatch was against
the system of Pathshala.
Select the correct answer sing
codes below.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a
Q5. The Lahore Session of the
Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because:
1. The Congress passed a
resolution demanding complete independence.
2. The rift between the
extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session.
3. A resolution was passed
rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) None
Answer: a
Q6. With reference to medieval
kingdoms of North-eastern India what was the position of paiks?
a) They were the patrons of
literature and arts.
b) They were mercenaries
recruited from other kingdoms.
c) They held large amount of
land and gold and donated it for public welfare.
d) They were forced to work for
the state.
Answer: d
Q7. Kornish in medieval history
refers to:
a) A kind of salutation.
b) A kind of revenue system.
c) A title given to the
courtier
d) A kind of crop brought to India
by the British.
Answer: a
Explaination:
Kornish was a form of
ceremonial salutation in which the courtier placed the palm of his right hand
against his forehead and bent his head. It suggested that the subject placed
his head – the seat of the senses and the mind – into the hand of humility,
presenting it to the royal assembly.
Q8. Which of the following
statements is/are correct about Iltutmish, the medieval ruler?
1. He founded the Ilbari
dynasty.
2. He introduced the Arabic
Coinage into India.
3. He introduced the Persian
festival of Nauroz.
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: c
Q9. Which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. Samudragupta was an ardent
follower of Vaishnavism.
2. He had very little interest in
music.
3. He patronized the great
Buddhist scholar Vasubandu.
Select the correct answer using
the codes below:
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: c
Q10. Consider the following
dynasties of Medieval India.
1. Rajput
2. Lodi
3. Tughluq
4. Sayyid
The correct chronological order
in which they appeared in India is?
a) 3, 1, 2, 4
b) 3, 1, 4, 2
c) 1, 3, 2, 4
d) 1, 3, 4, 2
Answer: d
Q11. Which of the following
provisions are related to the Charter Act of 1813?
a) It ended the activities of
the East India Company as a commercial body.
b) It introduced for the first
time, local representation in the Central Legislative Council.
c) For the first time
explicitly defined the constitutional position of the British territories in
India.
d) It separated for the first
time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor- General’s
council.
Answer: c
Explaination:
Statement a – Charter Act of
1833
Statement b and d – Charter Act
of 1853
Q12. Which of the following
statement is correct regarding Hunter Education Commission?
a) Government of India must
assume responsibility for education of the masses.
b) Indian learning was inferior
to European learning.
c) For improving university
education, improving secondary education was a necessary.
d) Primary education should be
imparted through vernacular.
Answer: d
Q13. By the time Gandhiji
arrived in India
1. Indian National Congress
(INC) was already established in India
2. He had already forged a
technique of non-violent Satyagraha in South Africa
3. The first Swadeshi movement
had already been waged
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: d
Q14. The partition of Bengal by
Lord Curzon intended to
1. Curb Bengali influence
2. Divide people on the basis
of religion
3. Achieve administration
convenience
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: d
Q15. Which of the following
Indian activist, thinker and social reformer was famously known as Lokhitwadi?
a) Mahadev Govind Ranade
b) Akshay Kumar Dutt
c) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer: C
Q16. The Sangam texts mention
prominently the ports of
1. Musiri
2. Tondi
3. Korkai
4. Podouke (Arikamedu)
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 2, 4
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3, 4
Answer: b
Q17. He was a follower of
Jainism in the early part of his career and converted to Saivism later. He is
hailed as ‘Vichitra chitta’ who constructed a temple for Brahma, Vishnu and
Siva without the use of bricks, timber, metal and mortar. Who is the ruler?
a) Rajaraja Chola 1
b) Kadambas of Banavasi
c) Harihara 1
d) Mahendravarman I
Answer: d
Q18. Why did Buddhism start
declining in India in the early medieval times?
1. Vaishnavism, Shaivism and
other Hindu traditions became increasingly popular, and
Brahmins developed a new
relationship with the state
2. The Kings of Gupta dynasty
were strongly opposed to Buddhism.
Select the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer: a
Q19. Consider the following
statements.
1. Most of the Ashoka’s
inscriptions were in Pali language.
2. Arikamedu is a coastal
settlement known for it being a site for unloading goods from distant lands.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer: b
Q20. Consider the following
statements about Chalukyas
1. The Chalukya administration
was highly decentralized.
2. They developed the Dravidian
style in the building of structural temples.
3. Their cave temples are found
in Ajanta, Ellora and Nasik.
Which of the above statements
is/are incorrect?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3 only
c) 1, 3
d) 2 only
Answer: a
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
1. Jaimini Brahmana speaks
collectively on dance only.
2. In Hindustani music, Dhrupad
is the pure music without distraction of words.
3. There was no evidence of
musical instruments found at the sites of Indus valley civilization.
Which of the above statements
is/are incorrect?
a) 2 only
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2
Answer: b
Q2. Consider the following with
reference to Central Indian paintings.
1. They take inspiration from
Puranas and Indian folk-lore.
2. Vaishnavism, Saivism and
Sakti exercised tremendous influence on these paintings.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer: c
Q3. Consider the following
statements with reference to Sangam Literature
1. Sangam literature dealt both
with personal lives such as love and relationships as well as ethics, heroism,
values and social customs.
2. Only men were allowed to
compose Sangam literature.
Which of the above statements
is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer: b
Q4. Consider the following
statements
1. According to this
philosophy, Vedas are eternal and possess all knowledge.
2. Religion means the
fulfilment of duties prescribed by the Vedas.
3. This philosophy encompasses
the Nyaya-Vaisheshika systems and emphasizes the concept of valid knowledge.
The above statements are
related to?
a) Mimamsa School
b) Vedanta School
c) Yoga School
d) Samkhya School
Answer: a
Q5. Consider the following
about Kalighat paintings which originated in Bengal.
1. The school produced
paintings that were irreproducible by lithography.
2. The school restricted itself
to the depiction of natural, nationalistic and secular themes.
Which of the above is/are
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Answer: d
Q6. Which of the following
is/are famous for Sun temples?
1. Arasavalli
2. Amarakantak
3. Omkareshwar
Select the correct answer using
the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
Q7. With reference to the
history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements
regarding Samkhya School.
1. Samkhya does not accept the
theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.
2. Samkhya holds that it is the
self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or
agent.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer: b
Explaination: The Samkhya
School denies the existence of God. However, rebirth and transmigration of soul
are inherent in the Samkhya School. Liberation results from the disappearance
of the limitations of self-awareness.
Q8. With reference to Giddha,
Ghoomar and Garba, consider the following statements:
1. All three dances are
primarily performed by women only
2. All three are folk dances
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer: b
Q9. Which of the following are
correctly matched?
Reform
movement: Region of influence
1. Sri Narayana Dharma
Paripalana Sabha: Karnataka
2. Sarin Sabha: Punjab
3. Paramhansa Mandali: Madhya
Pradesh
4. Kayastha Sabha: Uttar
Pradesh
Select from the codes below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: b
Q10. Which of these is NOT one
of the eight components of Yoga as described by Patanjali?
a) Yamas
b) Niyama
c) Asana
d) Mulahara
Answer: d
Q11. MANIYARO a variety of folk
dance is of which state?
a) Assam
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Gujarat
d) Manipur
Answer: c
Q12. Consider the following
statements about National School of Drama.
1. It was set up by the Sangeet
Natak Akademi as one of its constituent units in 1959.
2. It is fully financed by the
Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
3. The School has two
performing wings – the Repertory Company and Theatre-in- Education Company.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: d
Q13. Consider the following
pairs:
Classical
Dance Feature
1. Bharatanatyam Fire Dance
2. Kuchipudi Lasya and Tandava
elements
3. Odissi Mobile Sculpture
4. Mohiniattam Tandava aspect
is dominant
Which of the above is correctly
matched?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: b
Q14. Which of the following
temples have ‘Nagara Style of Architecture’?
1. Sun Temple at Konark
2. Lingaraja Temple at
Bhubaneswar
3. Vishwanath Temple at
Khajuraho
4. Doddabasappa temple at
Dambal
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: c
Q15. Consider the following
pairs.
Temple
Country
1. Prambanan Temple Indonesia
2. Angkoar Vat Cambodia
3. Pashupatinath Temple Sri Lanka
4. Munneswaram Temple Nepal
Which of the above are
correctly matched?
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3, 4
Answer: b
Explaination:
Pashupatinath Temple – Nepal
Munneswaram Temple – Sri Lanka
Q16. The prominent construction
works undertaken during Akbar’s reign are:
1. Agra Fort
2. Ibadat Khana
3. Buland Darwaza
Select the correct code:
a) 2 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: d
Q17. Consider the following
statements about Kalbelia.
1. Folk dance performed by the
women of the Kalbelia community of Gujarat.
2. ‘Been’ is the popular
musical instrument of this dance form.
3. The UNESCO has inscribed
Kalbelia folk songs and dances in the Representative List of the Intangible
Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: b
Explaination:
Kalbelia is a sensuous folk
dance performed by the women of the Kalbelia community of Rajasthan. The
costumes and dance movement are similar to that of the serpents. ‘Been’ (wind instrument
played by snake charmers) is the popular musical instrument of this dance form.
The UNESCO has inscribed
Kalbelia folk songs and dances in the Representative List of the Intangible
Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2010.
Q18. With reference to Giddha,
Gangore and Jhumar, consider the following statements:
1. All three dances are
primarily performed by women only
2. All three are folk dances
Select the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer: b
Q19. Which of the following is
the earliest treatise on mathematics?
a) Aryabhattiya
b) Brahmasputa Siddhantika
c) Siddhanta Shiromani
d) Sulvasutra
Answer: d
Q20. Consider the following
statements.
1. This Veda is also known as
Brahma Veda
2. It is mostly concerned with
peace and prosperity of the human society
3. It focuses on treatment of
several ailments
The above statements refer to
a) Rig Veda
b) Sama Veda
c) Atharva Veda
d) Yajur Veda
Answer: c
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Q1. Consider the following statements
about Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD).
1. The western Indian Ocean
becomes alternately warmer and then colder than the eastern part of the ocean.
2. A study has demonstrated a
significant correlation between the IOD and drought in the southern half of Australia.
3. IOD can either aggravate or
weaken the impact of El Nino on Indian monsoon.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: d
Q2. Consider the following
statements about anticyclone?
1. It is an area of high
pressure.
2. The wind direction is
Anticlockwise in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer: a
Q3. The most prominent feature
in the oceans, forming an almost continuous mountain range, is the
a) Seamount
b) Deep ocean trench
c) Abyssal plain
d) Mid-ocean ridge
Answer: d
Q4. Qatar is bordered by which
of the following countries.
1. United Arab Emirates
2. Bahrain
3. Saudi Arabia
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2
Answer: c)
Explaination:
Qatar has one land border. The
country borders Saudi Arabia to the south.
Q5. The California Ocean
current, which flows along the west coast of North America, is a
a) Cold current, flowing north
b) Cold current, flowing south
c) Warm current, flowing south
d) Warm current, flowing north
Answer: b
Explaination:
The California Current is a
Pacific Ocean current that moves southward along the western coast of North
America, beginning off southern British Columbia and ending off southern Baja California
Peninsula. It is considered an Eastern boundary current due to the influence of
the North American coastline on its course. It is also one of five major
coastal currents affiliated with strong upwelling zones, the others being the
Humboldt Current, the Canary Current, the Benguela Current, and the Somali
Current. The California Current is part of the North Pacific Gyre, a large
swirling current that occupies the northern basin of the Pacific.
Q6. Which of the following port
is known as “Queen of Arabian Sea”?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru port
b) Marmagao port
c) Kochi port
d) New Mangalore port
Answer: c
Explaination:
Kochi is a major port city on
the south-west coast of India bordering the Laccadive Sea. Called the Queen of
the Arabian Sea, Kochi was an important spice trading centre on the west coast
of India from the 14th century onward.
Q7. Which of the following
factors affect Ocean Salinity?
1. Evaporation
2. Wind
3. Influx of river water
4. Ocean currents
5. Precipitation
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 3, 5
b) 1, 2, 3, 5
c) 1, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Answer: d
Q8. December and January are
the coldest months in the northern plain. The reasons for the excessive cold in
north India are:
1. far away from the sea.
2. Snowfall in the nearby
Himalayan ranges
3. Cold winds coming from
Taklamakan Desert and Plateau of Tibet.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: a
Explaination:
There are three main reasons
for the excessive cold in north India during this season:
(i) States like Punjab, Haryana
and Rajasthan being far away from the moderating influence of sea experience
continental climate.
(ii) The snowfall in the nearby
Himalayan ranges creates cold wave situation; and
(iii) Around February, the cold
winds coming from the Caspian Sea and Turkmenistan bring cold wave along with
frost and fog over the north-western parts of India.
Q9. Consider the following
statements about Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ).
1. ITCZ is also known as
doldrums
2. ITCZ is an area encircling
the Earth near the Equator, where the northeast and southeast trade winds
converge
3. ITCZ has no effect on
tropical cyclone formation
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: a
Q10. Which of the following
explains why one side of a mountain usually has more precipitation than the
other side?
a) Temperatures are higher on
one side of a mountain than on the other
b) The atmosphere gets denser
as elevation increases
c) The land on one side is more
green and lush than the other
d) Mountains force air to rise,
and air cools and releases moisture as it rises
Answer: d
Q11. Consider the following
statements about Inflation Indexed Bond (IIB)
1. It is a bond issued by the
Government and the corporate sector.
2. There are no special tax
concessions for these bonds.
3. They are eligible to be kept
as part of Statutory Liquidity Ratio requirements of banks.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: b
Q12. Consider the following
statements about Peer to peer (P2P) lending.
1. It is a form of crowd
funding used to raise unsecured loans which are re-paid with interest.
2. Only individuals can borrow
money.
3. RBI enabled P2P entities as
Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC).
4. Minimum net worth
requirement for these platforms is kept at Rs. 5 Cr.
Which of the above statements
is/are incorrect?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 2, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
Answer: c
Q13. Under Statutory Liquidity
Ratio (SLR) all Scheduled Commercial Banks in India must maintain an amount in
which of the following forms?
1. Cash
2. Gold
3. Treasury-Bills of the
Government of India
4. Corporate Bonds
5. State Development Loans
(SDLs)
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 3, 5
c) 1, 2, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Answer: b
Q14. Buoyancy of tax refers to?
a) Relationship between the
changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in Inflation.
b) Relationship between the
changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in GDP.
c) Relationship between the
changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in Investment.
d) Relationship between the
changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in demand.
Answer: b
Q15. Which of the following
developments may not likely reduce the fiscal deficit?
1. Increasing Foreign Direct
Investment (FDI)
2. Providing budgetary support
to public sector enterprises
3. Waiving off farm loans.
4. Austerity measures should be
adopted.
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 4
b) 2, 3
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: b
Q16. Consider the following
statements about Reserve Bank of India.
1. The bank was set up based on
the recommendations of the Hilton–Young Commission.
2. Performs merchant banking function
for the central and the state governments; also acts as their banker.
3. Manages the Foreign Exchange
Management Act, 1999.
4. Issues and exchanges or
destroys currency and coins not fit for circulation.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: d
Q17. Consider the following
statements about Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF).
1. Government of India created
the RIDF in NABARD.
2. The eligible activities are
classified into Agriculture and related sector, Social sector and rural
connectivity.
3. Panchayat Raj Institutions,
Self Help Groups (SHGs) and NGOs are also eligible to receive funds.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: d
Q18. Consider the following
statements about ‘Fiat Money’.
1. It is a currency that a
government has declared to be legal tender.
2. It is backed by a physical
commodity.
3. Its value increases during
hyperinflation.
Which of the above statements
is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: b
Q19. Consider the following
statements about fugitive economic offender.
1. It is an individual who has
committed some specified offence(s) involving an amount of one hundred crore
rupees or more and has absconded from India.
2. He is declared so by a
‘Special Court’ set up under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
3. The property of a fugitive
economic offender, resulting from the proceeds of crime, including benami
property, can be confiscated once he is declared so by the Court.
4. Properties abroad are not
liable for confiscation.
Which of the above statements
is/are incorrect?
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 4
c) 2 only
d) 1, 3, 4
Answer: b
Q20. Consider the following
statements about Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI).
1. It is a measure of change in
retail prices of food products consumed by a defined population group in a
given area
2. It is released by Central
Statistics Office (CSO) for three categories -rural, urban and combined.
3. Cereals and products constitute
more than 50 percent weight within CFPI.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: a
Q21. Which of the following
statement about ‘White Label ATMs’ is correct?
a) These ATMs are set up, owned
and operated by Non-bank entities.
b) These ATMs are set up, owned
and operated by the sponsor bank whose brand is used on the ATM. c) ATMs owned
by a service provider, but cash management and connectivity to banking networks
is provided by a sponsor bank whose brand is used on the ATM. d) These are ATMs
operated abroad to withdraw Indian currency.
Answer: a
Q22. Sunil Mehta Committee is
related to
a) To prepare a blueprint for
doubling farmers’ income by 2022.
b) Drafting New Direct Tax
Legislation.
c) Examine the setting up of an
Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) for faster resolution of stressed assets.
d) Resolving raising fuel
prices in India.
Answer: c
Explaination:
Sunil Mehta Committee was
constituted to examine the setting up of an Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC)
and/or Asset Management Company (AMC) for faster resolution of stressed assets.
Q23. Which of the following
factors can lead to Demand-pull inflation?
1. Strong consumer demand
2. Increase in money supply
3. When prices go up
4. Technological innovation
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: b
Q24. A country can reduce its
current account deficit by
1. Improving domestic
companies’ global competitiveness
2. Decreasing the value of its
exports relative to the value of imports
3. Placing restrictions on
imports, such as tariffs or quotas
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: c
Q25. Consider the following
statements:
1. India’s tax-GDP ratio is
very low compared to other developing countries or emerging markets
2. Lower tax-GDP ratio can be
addressed by mobilising greater tax revenues
Select the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer: b
Q26. APMCs are intended to be
responsible for:
1. Providing market-led
extension services to farmers.
2. Ensuring payment for
agricultural produce sold by farmers on the same day.
3. Setup public private
partnership in the management of agricultural markets.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: d
Q27. In India, Alternative
Investment Funds (AIFs) include:
1. Mutual funds
2. Venture Capital Fund
3. Private equity funds
4. Infrastructure funds
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: b
Q28. Which of the following
statements about Monetary Policy Framework Agreement is correct?
a) It is an agreement between
Government and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on the maximum tolerable inflation
rate that RBI should target to achieve price stability.
b) It is an agreement between
Government and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on the minimum inflation rate that
RBI should target to achieve growth.
c) It is an agreement between
Banks and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ensure that the changes in the
Interest rates are passed on to the customers.
d) Both b and c
Answer: a
Q29. With reference to the
Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC), consider the following
statements:
1. It is headed by the Governor
of RBI
2. It will monitor macro prudential
supervision of the economy, including the functioning of large financial
conglomerates.
3. It will focus on financial
literacy and financial inclusion.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: c
Q30. Consider the following
statements about National Anti-profiteering Authority (NAA).
1. It is headed by the Finance
Minister.
2. The Authority’s core
function is to ensure that the benefits of the reduction in GST rates are
passed on to the ultimate consumers.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer: b
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Q1. With reference to
Right to Constitutional Remedies guaranteed under Article 32, consider the
following statements:
1. The Supreme Court
has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the constitution.
2. Fundamental rights
and other statutory rights can be enforced under Article 32.
3. The Supreme Court
has both executive and original jurisdiction in case of enforcement of
Fundamental Rights.
4. Article 32 cannot be
invoked to determine the constitutionality of an executive order or legislation
unless it directly infringes on any Fundamental Rights.
Which of the above
statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: b)
Q2. Which of the statements
about State Human Rights Commission is correct?
a) State Human Rights
Commission is a constitutional body
b) If any case is
already being inquired by the National Human Rights Commission then the State
Human Rights Commission does not inquire into that case, whereas if the case is
being inquired by any other statutory commission then the State Human Rights
Commission can inquire into that case.
c) To review the
constitutional and other legal safeguards for the protection of human rights.
d) The chairperson and
members of State Human Rights Commission are appointed by the President.
Answer: c)
Q3. Consider the
following about Secretary of the panchayat
1. Secretary of the
panchayat is elected by the Gram Panchayat from amongst its members.
2. Secretary of the
panchayat is responsible for calling the meeting of the Gram Sabha and Gram
Panchayat and keeping a record of the proceedings.
Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Answer: b)
Explaination:
Gram panchayat has a
Secretary who is also the secretary of the Gram Sabah. This person is not an
elected person but is appointed by the state government, to oversee panchayat
activities. He is responsible for calling the meetings of the Gram Sabha and Gram
Panchayat and keeps a record of the proceedings.
Q4. Which of the
following are the compulsory provisions of the 73rd Constitutional amendment
act?
1. Reservation of
one-third seats for women in panchayats at all the three levels.
2. Granting powers and authority
to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of
self-government.
3. Granting financial
powers to the panchayats to levy collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls
and fees.
4. Fixing tenure of 5
years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six
months in the event of suppression of any panchayat.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 4
Answer: d
Q5. A parliamentary
committee means a committee that:
1. Is appointed or
elected by the House
2. Works under the
direction of the Speaker / Chairman
3. Presents its report
to the President
4. It has a secretariat
provided by the Cabinet secretary
Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3, 4
Answer: a
Explaination:
A parliamentary
committee means a committee that:
1. Is appointed or
elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker / Chairman1
2. Works under the
direction of the Speaker / Chairman
3. Presents its report
to the House or to the Speaker / Chairman
4. It has a secretariat
provided by the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha
Q6. Which of the
following is/are not the federal features of the Indian Constitution?
1. The Constitution is
written and not easily amendable.
2. Equal representation
of all states in Rajya Sabha
3. State governments
derive authority from the Centre.
Select the correct
code:
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: b)
Explaination:
The division of powers
established by the Constitution as well as the supremacy of the Constitution
can be maintained only if the method of its amendment is rigid. Hence, the
Constitution is rigid to the extent that those provisions which are concerned
with the federal structure. State governments derive their authority from the
constitution, not the Centre.
The states are given
representation in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the
membership varies from 1 to 31.
Q7. Consider the
following about National Human Rights Commission.
1. It is a
constitutional authority.
2. The Commission is
independent of the government.
3. There is no fee to
approach the NHRC.
4. Its recommendations
are binding on the courts but not government.
Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 4
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 2, 3
d) 2, 3, 4
Answer: c)
Explaination:
The commission has been
established by law as autonomous of the government, and not by the
constitution.
The NHRC cannot by
itself punish the guilty. That is the responsibility of courts. The NHRC is
there to make independent and credible inquiry into any case of violation of
human rights.
Thus, its
recommendations are not binding on neither the courts not the government. Any
citizen of India can write a letter to the NHRC to complain against the
violation of human rights. There is no fee or any formal procedure to approach
the NHRC.
Q8. “It shall be the
endeavour of every state and every local authority within the state to provide
adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage
of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.” This is a
1. Forms part of
Fundamental rights under Part III of the Constitution
2. Provision made under
an Act of Parliament
3. Justiciable in
courts if not implemented by the Government of India
Select the correct
code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) None
Answer: d)
Q9. The salaries and
allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the
a) Contingency Fund of
India
b) Consolidated Fund of
India
c) Consolidated Fund of
the State
d) Contingency Fund of
the State
Answer: c)
Explaination:
The salaries and
allowances of the Judges of the HC are charged to the Consolidated Fund of the
state but their pensions are payable as Charged Expenditure /Art 112(3).
Q10. Which of these
constitutional bodies are functionally autonomous from the government?
1. State Public Service
Commissions
2. Election Commission
of India
3. Comptroller and
Auditor-General of India
Select the correct
code:
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: d
Q11. Under Article 12
of the Indian Constitution, which of the following comes under the definition
of State?
1. Government and
Parliament of India
2. ONGC and any private
agency working for Aadhaar registration
3. District boards and
improvement trusts
Select the correct
code:
a) 1only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Answer: d
Explaination:
The term ‘State’ has
been used in different provisions concerning the fundamental rights.
Hence, Article 12 has
defined the term for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State
includes the following:
(a) Government and
Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union
government.
(b) Government and
legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state
government.
(c) All local
authorities that is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement
trusts, etc.
(d) All other
authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC,
SAIL, etc. According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency
working as an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the ‘State
‘under Article 12.
Q12. With reference to
the procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article
368, consider the following statements.
1. An amendment of the
Constitution can be initiated only in either House of Parliament.
2. The bill can be
introduced only by a minister and not by a private member.
3. Prior permission of
the president is not required for the introduction of the bill.
4. The ratification by
the state legislature is not required.
Which of the above
statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3, 4
Answer: b
Explaination:
The procedure for the
amendment of the Constitution is laid down in Article 368:
1. An amendment of the
Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the
purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
2. The bill can be
introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require
prior permission of the president.
3. The bill must be
passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more
than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of
two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
4. Each House must pass
the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is
no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of
deliberation and passage of the bill.
5. If the bill seeks to
amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by
the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a
majority of the members of the House present and voting.
6. After duly passed by
both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where
necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.
7. The president must
give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor
return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
8. After the
president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act.
Q13. Which of the
following comes outside the scope of Article 368?
1. Elections to
Parliament and state legislatures.
2. Rules of procedure
in Parliament.
3. Supreme Court and
high courts.
Select the correct
code:
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: c
Explaination:
A number of provisions
in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of
Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These include: Elections to
Parliament and state legislatures and Rules of procedure in Parliament.
The provisions related
to Supreme Court and high courts can be amended by a special majority of the
Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a
simple majority.
Q14. Consider the
following statements about State Legislature.
1. The Constitution
does not provide for the abolition or creation of legislative councils in
states.
2. The governor can
nominate two members from the Anglo-Indian community, if the community is not
adequately represented in the assembly.
3. The actual strength
of a council is fixed by the governor.
Which of the above
statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: d
Explaination:
The Constitution
provides for the abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
Accordingly, the
Parliament can abolish a legislative council (where it already exists) or
create it (where it does not exist), if the legislative assembly of the
concerned state passes a resolution to that effect.
The governor can
nominate one member from the Anglo-Indian community, if the community is not
adequately represented in the assembly.
Though the Constitution
has fixed the maximum and the minimum limits, the actual strength of a Council
is fixed by Parliament.
Q15. Special provisions
for marginalized classes in the constitution are related to
1. Educational Grants
2. Appointment of
Commissions to investigate their socio-economic condition
3. Reservation in
Legislatures and local bodies
Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: d
Explaination:
The Constitution makes
special provisions for the scheduled castes (SCs), the scheduled tribes (STs),
the backward classes (BCs) and the Anglo-Indians. These special provisions are
contained in Part XVI of the Constitution from Articles 330 to 342. They are
related to the following:
1. Reservation in
Legislatures
2. Special
Representation in Legislatures
3. Reservation in
Services and Posts
4. Educational Grants
5. Appointment of National
Commissions
6. Appointment of
Commissions of Investigation
Q16. The value of
secularism can be found in which of the following parts of the constitution?
1. Directive Principles
of State Policy
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Preamble
4. Fundamental Rights
Select the correct
code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: d
Q17. Which of the
following is the competent authority to change the name of any State of India?
a) Governor of the
State
b) Concerned State
Legislature
c) Union Home Minister
d) Parliament
Answer: d
Explaination:
The Constitution
authorizes the Parliament to form new states or alter the areas, boundaries or
names of the existing states without their consent.
Q18. A number of
provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two
Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions
include:
1. Quorum in
Parliament.
2. Rules of procedure
in Parliament
3. Election of the
President and its manner
Select the correct
code:
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 1, 3
d) None
Answer: a
Q19. If the Union
Parliament wishes to move a matter from Concurrent List to the Union List,
which of these follows?
a) The Rajya Sabha must
initiate a constitutional amendment bill.
b) The President must
consult the Governors of a majority of States and act according to their
advice.
c) The Cabinet must
pass an executive fiat to this effect.
d) It must obtain the
consent of all State Legislatures for the same.
Answer: a
Explaination:
Moving a matter from
the Concurrent List to Union List needs an amendment to the constitution
Q20. Which of the
following were the suggestions made by Swaran Singh Committee to be included as
Fundamental Duties?
1. Duty to pay taxes
2. Family Planning
3. Casting vote
Select from the codes below
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Answer: a
Q21. Consider the
following statements about Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions
1. The committee
classifies bills and allocates time for discussion on bills and resolutions
introduced by private members.
2. This is a special
committee of the Lok sabha only.
3. In Lok sabha it is
chaired by the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: d
Explaination:
This committee
classifies bills and allocates time for the discussion on bills and resolutions
introduced by private members (other than ministers). This is a special
committee of the Lok Sabha and consists of 15 members including the Deputy Speaker
as its chairman. The Rajya Sabha does not have any such committee. The same
function in the Rajya Sabha is performed by the Business Advisory Committee of
that House.
Q22. Consider the
following statements about Motion of Thanks.
1. It is addressed by
the Leader of the House.
2. The motion is put to
vote in both the houses of the parliament.
3. It is addressed at
the beginning of every new session of the Parliament.
Which of the above
statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: c
Q23. When a MP has
voted against his political party in the Parliament, which among the following
authorities will decide on his disqualification pertaining to anti defection
law?
a) Parliamentary
Committee on Anti defection
b) President of India
c) Election Commission
of India
d) Presiding Officer of
that House of the Parliament
Answer: d
Explaination:
Any question regarding
disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding
officer of the House.
Q24. Which of these is/are
Constitutional bodies?
1. Central Vigilance
Commission
2. National Commission
for STs
3. National Human
Rights Commission
Select the correct
code:
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: b
Explaination:
The Constitutional
Bodies include:
Election Commission
Union Public Service Commission
State Public Service Commission
Finance Commission
National Commission for SCs
National Commission for STs
Special Officer for Linguistic
Minorities
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Attorney General of India
Advocate General of the State
Q25. The Third Schedule
of the Indian Constitution deal with the oath or affirmations for:
1. Members of
Parliament
2. Members of State
Legislative Council
3. The Judges of High
Courts
4. Attorney General of
India
Select the correct
code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: c
Explaination:
Third Schedule:
Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for-
1. The Union ministers
2. The candidates for
election to the Parliament
3. The members of
Parliament
4. The judges of the
Supreme Court
5. The Comptroller and
Auditor-General of India
6. The state ministers
7. The candidates for
election to the state legislature
8. The members of the
state legislature
9. The judges of the High Courts
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
1. Consider the following
statements regarding PM Rozgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY):
1) PMRPY is a scheme to
incentivise employers registered with the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation
(EPFO) for job creation by the Government paying the full contribution of
employers to the Employee Pension Scheme (EPS) and Employees’ Provident Fund
(EPF) .
2) The PMRPY Scheme is targeted
for employees earning wages more than Rs 15,000/- per month. Thus, new
employees earning wages less than Rs 15,000/- per month will not be eligible.
3) All establishment availing
benefits under PMRPY scheme should be registered with EPFO under EPF Act 1952
and have a valid LIN.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
2. Consider the following pairs
of recent places in news and the corresponding country:
1) Khyber Pakhtunkhwa:
Afganishtan
2) Baramchal: Bangladesh
3) Oyigbo: Nigeria
Which of the above pairs are
correctly matched?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
3. Consider the following
statements:
1) Antibiotic-resistant
infections are a threat to global public health, food safety and an economic
burden.
2) Plant-based foods can
transmit antibiotic resistance to the microbes living in our gut.
3) Spread of
antibiotic-resistant superbugs from plants to humans is similar to outbreaks of
diarrheal illnesses caused immediately after eating contaminated vegetables
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
4. Which of the following
statements regarding ‘side pocketing’ in market economy stands true?
1) Side pocketing is a
framework that allows mutual funds to segregate the bad assets in a separate
portfolio within their debt schemes.
2) As per the rule, if a debt
instrument is downgraded to default rating by credit rating agencies, then the
fund house has the option to create a side pocket so that good assets can be
ring fenced.
3) Market regulator SEBI has
said that side pocket should not be looked upon as a sign of encouraging undue
credit risks as any misuse of the option would be considered serious and
stringent action can be taken.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
5. When the CJI writes to the
President and the PM for removal of a High Court judge, which of the following
offices/persons appoints a three-judge inquiry committee in consultation with
the CJI to look into the allegations?
a) President
b) Prime minister
c) Rajya Sabha chairman
d) Lok Sabha chairman
Answer:
1(c)
2(b)
3(a)
4(d)
5(c)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 26
1. Consider the following statements:
1) As per the ASSOCHAM and
E&Y report published in 2018, the domestic organic market was valued at Rs.
2500 crores including Rs. 1500 crores in organised retail and Rs. 1000 crores
by farmers’ direct market.
2) Government of India has been
promoting organic farming under two dedicated schemes namely Mission Organic
Value Chain Development North Eastern Region (MOVCDNER) and Paramparagat Krishi
Vikas Yojana (PKVY) since 2015.
3) Third party certification of
organic farming is promoted by Agriculture Processed Food and Export
Development Authority (APEDA) under Ministry of Agriculture.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
2. Consider the following pairs
of vitamins and their corresponding deficiency diseases:
1) Riboflavin: Pellagra
2) Thiamine: Wernicke-Korsakoff
syndrome
3) Panthothenic acid: Beri-Beri
4) Biotin: Dermatitis
Which of the above pairs are
correctly matched?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) 2 & 4 only
3. Which of the following
statements regarding the Nutrient Based Subsidy policy are not true?
1) Under the NBS Policy, the
Government announces a fixed rate of subsidy (in Rs. per Kg basis), on each
nutrient of subsidized P&K fertilizers, namely Nitrogen (N), Phosphate (P)
& Potash (K) only.
2) The difference between the
delivered cost of fertilizers at farm gate and net market realization by the
urea units is given as subsidy to the urea manufacturer / importer by the
Government.
3) The amount of gross fertilizer
subsidy paid in 2018-2019 has been lesser than that paid in 2017-2018, due to
promotion of organic fertilizers.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
4. Consider the following
statements regarding prevalence of anemia in pregnant women & the remedial
measures taken by government to prevent the condition:
1) According to National Family
Health Survey (NFHS)–IV (2015-16), the prevalence of anemia among women aged 15
to 49 years is 73%.
2) Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva
Abhiyan (PMSMA) has been launched to focus on conducting special ANC check up
on 9th of every month with the help of Medical officers to detect and treat
cases of anemia.
3) Health management
information system & Mother Child tracking system is being implemented for
reporting and tracking the cases of anaemic and severely anaemic pregnant
women.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
5. Which of the following
cities forms the headquarters of financial action task force (FATF) organisation?
a) Moscow
b) Geneva
c) New York
d) Paris
Answer:
1(a)
2(d)
3(c)
4(b)
5(d)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 25
Q1. An MoU was signed between
Dr.Ambedkar International Centre (DAIC), Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment and Dalit Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industry (DICCI) to
empower SC and ST Communities through research on Dalit Entrepreneurship
Which of the following
statements regarding the same are true?
1) DICCI brings together all
Dalit entrepreneurs under one umbrella and acts as a one-stop Resource Centre
for existing and aspiring Dalit entrepreneurs and promotes entrepreneurship
among Dalits as a solution to their socio-economic problems.
2) DAIC through this
collaboration will try to find out how far the SC and ST communities have
engaged themselves in starting and establishing their own businesses.
3) The data will be used to
identify the reason why the spirit of entrepreneurship has not been infused
among Dalit youth to develop business leadership for empowering them to walk in
step with the world.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
2. Consider the following pairs
of Himalayan Rivers and their corresponding tributaries:
1) Ganga: Tamsa
2) Brahmaputra: Tons
3) Yamuna: Tawa
4) Ravi: Saho
5) Satluj: Baspa
Which of the following pairs
are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 & 3 only
b) 2 & 4 only
c) all of the above
d) 1, 4& 5 only
Q3. Consider the following
statements regarding vaccinations:
1) Vaccines protect billions of
people around the world. They have completely got rid of one disease – smallpox
– and are bringing the world close to eliminating others, such as polio.
2) But some other diseases,
such as measles, are making a resurgence and experts say people avoiding
vaccines, fuelled by fear and misinformation, is one of the main causes.
3) As per surveys people in
richer countries have a higher trust in vaccines.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q4. Consider the following statements:
1) LTE (Long Term Evolution) is
a standard for 3G wireless broadband technology that offers increased network
capacity and speed to mobile device users.
2) LTE offers higher peak data
transfer rates of up to 100 Mbps downstream and 30 Mbps upstream. It also
provides reduced latency, scalable bandwidth capacity and backward-compatibility
with existing GSM and UMTS technology.
Which of the above statements
are not true ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) None
5. “Asian development outlook”
is a publication released by which of the following institutions?
a) World Bank
b) Asian development Bank (ADB)
c) Asian infrastructure and
investment bank (AIIB)
d) BRICS Bank
Answer:
1 – (d)
2- (d)
3- (a)
4- (a)
5- (b)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 24
1. Consider the following statements:
1) The Asian Development Bank
(ADB) has plans to stop funding coal-fired power plants except in selected
countries where the bank considers the alternatives to be limited.
2) The ADB’s new energy policy
is being reviewed in line with the Paris Agreement and the United Nations
Sustainable Development Goals, and will be released by the end of 2020.
3) India has achieved the
fastest growth in the Asia-Pacific economies comprised of 45 countries,
according to the Asian Development Bank (ADB).
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
2. Consider the following pairs
of missile defence systems and their corresponding nations:
1) Arrow missile system: Israel
2) PAAMS: UK
3) A-135 anti ballistic missile:
U.S
4) AWACS: Russia
5) AAD (Advanced air defence):
India
Which of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
a) 1, 2 & 3 only
b) 3, 4 & 5 only
c) 1, 2 & 5 only
d) 2, 4 & 5 only
3. The Economic Advisory
Council to the Prime Minister today released a detailed note titled GDP
estimation in India- Perspectives and Facts.
Which of the following
statements regarding the same are true?
1) The new methodology that
uses 2011-12 as the base year includes two major improvements, a) Incorporation
of MCA21 database, and b) Incorporation of the Recommendations of System of
National Accounts (SNA), 2008.
2) This change was in line with
other countries that have changed their methodologies in line with SNA 2008 and
revised their respective GDP figures.
3) As of today India’s GDP
estimation methodology is at par with its global standing as a responsible,
transparent and well-managed economy.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
4. Which of the following
statements regarding data usage in smartphones India as per the ‘Ericsson
Mobility Report’ are true?
1) India has the highest
average data usage per smartphone, reaching 9.8 GB per month at the end of
2018, according to a new study.
2) Increased numbers of LTE
subscriptions, attractive data plans being offered by service providers, and
young people’s changing video viewing habits have driven monthly usage growth.
3) LTE would remain the most
dominant access technology in the region up to 2024, even as 5G subscriptions
are expected to grow during this period.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
5. Guthis are socio-economic
institutions (trusts), both public and private, that fund their obligations
from incomes from cultivated or leased land assets. Depending on their
obligations, Guthis fulfil religious, public service or social roles and could
either involve members from a common lineage, or several
Large scale protest against the
controversial “Guthi Bill” has being taking place in which of the following
countries recently?
a) Srilanka
b) Myanmar
c) Nepal
d) Bangladesh
Answer:
1 – (a) 2 – (c) 3 – (d) 4 – (d) 5 – (c)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 20
1. Union Cabinet has approved
the Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill 2019 to replace Aadhaar and Other
Laws (Amendment) Ordinance 2019.
Which of the following
statements regarding the same are true?
1) This will enable UIDAI to
have a more robust mechanism to serve the public interest and restrain the
misuse of Aadhar.
2) After the amendment, all
individuals will be compelled to provide proof of possession of Aadhaar number
to undergo authentication for the purpose of establishing his identity.
3) For the convenience of the
general public in the opening of bank accounts, the proposed amendments will
allow the use of Aadhaar number for authentication on a voluntary basis as an
acceptable KYC document.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
2. Consider the following pairs
of bilateral military exercises conducted by India with the corresponding nations:
1) Mitra Shakti: Srilanka
2) Al Nagah: Israel
3) Maitree: Bangladesh
4) Ajeya Warrior: United
Kingdom
5) Surya Kiran : Nepal
Which of the above pairs are
correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 & 3 only
b) 1, 4 & 5 only
c) 2 & 4 only
d) all of the above
Q3. Consider the following statements:
1) The impact of Climate Change
on farmers, especially small and marginal ones is high in any part of the
country. If the affected areas are flood-prone and drought-prone, the impact is
enormous.
2) National Institute of Rural
Development and Panchayati Raj (NIRDPR) has launched a training programme of
Sustainable Livelihoods and Adaptation to Climate Change (SLACC) to help Rural
Poor Farm Holds adapt to Climate Change and sustain their livelihoods.
3) Total 638 drought and
flood-prone villages all over India will be covered as pilot basis under this
first of its kind initiative.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
4. Which of the following
statements regarding the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)’s
indigenously developed Hypersonic Technology Demonstrator Vehicle (HSTDV) are true?
1) Through the HSTDV project
the idea was to demonstrate the performance of a scram-jet engine at an
altitude of 15 km to 20 km, is on.
2) It can be used for launching
satellites at low cost. It will also be available for long-range cruise
missiles of the future.
3) In scram-jet technology, combustion
of fuel takes place in a chamber in the missile at hypersonic speeds whereas in
a ramjet engine air is collected from the surrounding atmosphere during the
flight at supersonic speeds.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
5. 19th Shanghai Cooperation Organization
(SCO) Summit is all set to begin in Bishkek from today. Bishkek is the capital
city of which of the following countries?
a) Kazakhstan
b) Kyrgyzstan
c) Uzbekistan
d) Turkmenistan
Answer:
1(c), 2(b), 3(a), 4(a), 5(b)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 19
1. Consider the following statements regarding the newly introduced e-governance initiatives launched for the welfare of ST’s:
1) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
has developed online portals namely DBT Tribal and NGO Grants Online
Application & Tracking System for bringing in greater e-Governance in
implementation of welfare schemes for STs.
2) In NGO portal, there are 2
main modules for Pre-Matric & Post-Matric Scholarship. Data sharing module
is mainly meant for sharing beneficiary-data by States & in Communication
module, the States have facility to upload documents, raise query for faster
release of funds.
3) The DBT tribal portal,
developed for implementing scheme of Aid to Voluntary Organizations working for
the welfare of STs, has been fully revamped & redesigned with simplified
Application form, Inspection Report and Fund Processing module.
Which of the above statements
are not true ?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q2. Which of the following are
classified as non communicable diseases?
1) Cancer
2) Osteoporosis
3) Chronic Lung disease
4) Diabetes
5) Alzheimer’s
a) 1, 2 & 3 only
b) 3, 4 & 5 only
c) all of the above
d) None of the above
Q3. Which of the following
statements regarding child labour legislation in India & abroad are true?
1) The government has enacted
the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016 which came
into force with effect from September 01, 2016. Now the employment of a Child
below 14 years is completely prohibited in any occupation or processes.
2) The census 2011 shows an
increase in Child Labour to 1.26 crore as compared to 1.01 crore in 2001.
3) The Theme of World Day
against Child Labour for the year 2019 is ‘Children shouldn’t Work in Fields,
but on Dreams’ which focuses on the importance of ending child labour and calls
for evolving strategies to end child labour.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q4. The Cabinet Committee on
Security headed by Prime Minister has cleared the setting up of the Defence
Space Research Agency. Which of the following statements regarding the same are
true?
1) The agency has been
entrusted with the task of creating space warfare weapon systems and
technologies.
2) The agency would be provided
with a team of scientists which would be working in close coordination with the
ISRO.
3) It would be providing the
research and development support to the Defence Space Agency (DSA) which
comprises members of the three services.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q5. External Affairs Minister S
Jaishankar will flag off the first batch of yatris of Kailash Mansarovar Yatra
from New Delhi. The route is possible only through which of the following
passes in India?
a) Nathu la Pass
b) Diphu Pass
c) Khardung la Pass
d) Shipki la Pass
Answer:
1(b), 2(c), 3(c), 4(c), 5(a)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 18
1. India has called upon the G-20 countries to urgently fix the issue of taxing profits made by digital economy companies in countries where they do not have significant physical presence. Which of the following statements with respect to the above context are true?
1) The aim is to bring offshore
companies with significant economic presence in India into the tax net to
address the shortcomings in taxing the digital economy.
2) Offshore digital companies
such as Facebook, Google and Netflix have little presence in India, taxing
their profits is not possible.
3) This prompted the government
to roll out equalization levy as a tax deducted at source on payments made to
them by Indian firms with effect from April 2018.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q2. Which of the following
countries constitutes the Nordic countries?
1) Iceland
2) Russia
3) Norway
4) Georgia
5) Denmark
a) 1, 2 & 3 only
b) 3, 4 & 5 only
c) 1, 3 & 5 only
d) all of the above
Q3. Which of the following
statements regarding the National cyclone risk mitigation project (NCRMP) are true?
1) The Government of India has
initiated the National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project (NCRMP) with a view to
address cyclone risks in the country.
2) The overall objective of the
Project is to undertake suitable structural and non-structural measures to
mitigate the effects of cyclones in the coastal states and UTs of India.
3) National Disaster Management
Authority (NDMA) under the aegis of Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) will
implement the Project in coordination with participating State Governments and
the National Institute for Disaster Management (NIDM).
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q4. Consider the following statements
regarding the ethical concepts of adoption of Artificial Intelligence:
1) AI has several positive
applications, but the capability of AI systems to learn from experience and to
perform autonomously for humans makes AI the most disruptive and self-transformative
technology of the 21st century.
2) Given the importance of
intention in India’s criminal law jurisprudence, it is essential to establish
the legal personality of AI (which means AI will have a bundle of rights and
obligations), and whether any sort of intention can be attributed to it.
3) Germany has come up with
ethical rules for autonomous vehicles stipulating that human life should always
have priority over property or animal life.
Which of the above statements
stands true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q5. India is set to adopt the
“Osaka summit declaration” in near future. The declaration pertains to which of
the following?
a) To adopt the climate change
resolutions put forwarded in Paris summit.
b) Deliberations on trade,
investment and digital economy.
c) For the conservation of
archaeological sites in the routes of swadesh Darshan scheme.
d) To promote artificial
intelligence in the banking as well as insurance sectors.
Answer:
1(a), 2(c), 3(d), 4(d), 5(b)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 17
1. Consider the following
statements regarding the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI):
1) The Institute of Chartered
Accountants of India (ICAI) is the national professional accounting body of
India. It was established as a statutory body under the Chartered Accountants
Act, 1949 enacted by the Parliament.
2) It recommends the accounting
standards to be followed by companies in India to National Advisory Committee on
Accounting Standards (NACAS) and sets the accounting standards to be followed
by other types of organisations.
3) It works closely with the
Government of India, Reserve Bank of India and the Securities and Exchange
Board of India in formulating and enforcing such standards.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
2. Consider the following
palaces/forts in India and their corresponding locations:
1) Victoria memorial: Mumbai
2) Neermahal Palace: Tripura
3) Fort.St.george: Kolkata
4) Kumbhalgarh Fort: Rajsamand
5) Lalgarh palace: Bikaner
Which of the above pairs are
correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 & 3 only
b) 2, 4 & 5 only
c) 1, 3 & 5 only
d) all of the above
3. Scientists have created
high-resolution maps of points around the globe where groundwater meets the
oceans, which of the following statements regarding the study are true?
1) The study found that in some
parts of the world, groundwater could be polluting oceans and lakes with
nutrients and other chemicals.
2) Groundwater can carry higher
concentrations of nitrates a key contributor of the types of harmful algal
blooms as well as high concentrations of mercury.
3) Most of the water that gets
to lakes and oceans comes from ground water sources carrying minerals and, in
some cases, pollutants, to surface bodies of water.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) All the of above
4. Which of the following
statements regarding the recently published UNICEF report on child marriage are
true?
1) The study reveals that child
marriage among boys is prevalent across a range of countries around the world,
spanning sub-Saharan Africa, Latin America and the Caribbean, South Asia, and
East Asia and the Pacific.
2) According to the data, the
India has the highest prevalence of child marriage among males (28%), followed
by Nicaragua (19%) and Madagascar (13%).
3) Early marriage brings early
fatherhood, and with it added pressure to provide for a family, cutting short
education and job opportunities.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
5. Which of the following
countries of the Indian subcontinent recently passed a law legalizing homosexuality?
a) Srilanka
b) Nepal
c) Bhutan
d) Myanmar
Answer:
1(d), 2(b), 3(a), 4(c), 5(c)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 16
1. Consider the following statements regarding food safety:
1) An estimated 600 million
cases of foodborne diseases occur annually worldwide.
2) Unsafe food is a threat to
human health and economies, disproportionately affecting vulnerable and
marginalized people, especially women and children, populations affected by
conflict and migrants.
3) World Food Safety Day
adopted by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations is aimed
at imposing non tariff barriers to protect local foods/agri products.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
2. Consider the following pairs
of space missions and their respective countries/space agencies:
1) Sputnik -1: Russia
2) Long March -1: China
3) Giotto: European space
agency
4) Explorer 1: Japan
Which of the above pairs are
correctly matched?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 4 only
c) 2 & 3 only
d) 1 & 4 only
3. Which of the following
statements air quality and BS emission standards are true?
1) India is among those nine
countries where the forest cover has increased by one percent.
2) Vehicular pollution which is
28 to 30 per cent of air pollution is expected to be reduced drastically after
implementation of Bharat Stage (BS)-6 emission norms from next year.
3) However in 2014 in the
National Capital the number of poor air quality days was 300 and it increased
to 326 days in 2018.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
4. Which of the following
statements regarding RBI’s regulation of leverage ratio in the banking sector
stands true?
1) The leverage ratio was
introduced for banks post the financial crisis of 2008, as one of the
underlying features of the crisis was the build-up of excessive on- and
off-balance sheet leverage in the banking system.
2) The central bank has
mandated leverage ratio of 3.5% for all the banks except for the domestic
systemically important banks (D-SIBs), which will have a 4% ratio.
3) The Reserve Bank of India’s
decision to bring leverage ratio for banks is in line with Basel-III standards.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
5. Which of the following countries
recently organised the “Gandhi cycle rally for peace” to mark the 150th birth
anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi?
a) India
b) China
c) Saudi Arabia
d) Australia
Answer:
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 15
1. Consider the following statements regarding air pollution:
1) While poor air quality days
which was 246 in the year 2014 have now come down below 200, the number of
moderate to good air quality days have increased from just 108 in 2016 to 159
in 2018.
2) To combat air pollution,
Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change has launched the National
Clean Air programme (NCAP) which is a mid-term 5 Year Action Plan with targets
of 20-30% reduction of PM 2.5 and PM 10 concentration in 102 cities.
3) It has been decided that
each Panchayat will tie up with a leading academic institution in the State
that would act as the technical partner at the State level for the programme.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
2. Which of the following Indian cities lies in the tropic of cancer?
1) Jaipur
2) Ahmedabad
3) Kolkata
4) Shillong
5) Agartala
a)1,2& 3 only
b) 1, 3 & 5 only
c) 2 & 4 only
d) all of the above
3. With respect to the newly signed tax information exchange agreement (TIEA) between India and Marshall islands, which of the following statements are true?
1) The Agreement enables
exchange of information, including banking and ownership information, between
the two countries for tax purposes.
2) It is based on international
standards of tax transparency and exchange of information and enables sharing
of information on request.
3) The Agreement also provides
for representatives of one country to undertake tax examinations in the other
country.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
4. Which of the following statements regarding the newly introduced Swachh Survekshan 2020(SS 2020) league initiative by ministry of housing & urban affairs are true?
1) SS League 2020 has been
introduced with the objective of sustaining the on ground performance of cities
along with continuous monitoring of service level performance when it comes to
cleanliness.
2) The performance of cities in
SS League 2020 will be crucial to their ranking in SwachhSurvekshan 2020 due to
the 25% weightage of the quarterly assessments to be included in the annual
survey in January 2020.
3) While SS 2016 had seen
Indore emerge as the cleanest city in India, Bengaluru has retained the title
of the Cleanest City in the last three years.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
5. Sudan has been suspended from the African Union (AU) amid growing fears that splits among the ruling military regime could lead to civil war and anarchy.
Which of the following places
forms the headquarters of the African union?
a) Johannesburg, South Africa
b) Nairobi, Kenya
c) AdisAbaba, Ethiopia
d) Mogadishu, Somalia
Answer
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 14
1. Consider the following statements with respect to the micro finance sector in India?
1) The Indian microfinance
sector is expected to register a more than 30% year-on-year growth to Rs. 90,000
crore in 2018-19.
2) Commercial Banks, Regional
Rural Banks (RRBs), cooperative societies and other large lenders have played
an important role in providing refinance facility to MFIs.
3) The RBI formed Malegam committee
aimed to address the primary customer complaints that led to the crisis,
including coercive collection practices, usurious interest rates, and selling
practices that resulted in over-indebtedness.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q2. Consider the following
pairs of mineral resources in India and their corresponding locations:
1) Uranium, Mica: Karnataka
2) Limestone, Mica: Rajasthan
3) Bauxite, Manganese: Andhra
Pradesh
4) Chromite, coal : Tamilnadu
5) Iron ore and clay: Goa
Which of the above pairs are
correctly matched?
a) 1, 2& 3 only
b) 1, 3 & 5 only
c) 2 & 5 only
d) 1 & 4 only
Q3. With respect to the
recently released gender equality index report, which of the following
statements are true ?
1) The index, covering 14 of
the 17 SDGs, measures countries on 51 issues ranging from health, gender-based
violence, climate change, decent work and others.
2) The overall index score and
individual goal scores are based on a scale of 0-100. A score of zero reflects
the achievement of gender equality in relation to the targets set for each
indicator.
3) India ranks 95 out of 129
countries, below countries such as Ghana, Rwanda and Bhutan in the new gender
equality index.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q4. Consider the following
statements regarding Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM):
1) GDM is defined as glucose
intolerance with onset or first recognition during pregnancy, GDM simply
represents relatively high glucose levels at one point in the life of a young
woman.
2) Higher glucose transfer to
the foetus, when the mother has high blood sugar, stimulates the foetal
pancreatic cells to start secreting insulin earlier and in higher quantities.
3) It has become imperative that
every pregnant woman be screened for high blood glucose even if no symptoms are
exhibited in order to avoid GDM.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q5. Which of the following
countries have launched the first arctic train named Zarengold which will
travel from Saint Petersburg through Petrozavodsk, the historic town of Kem and
Murmansk?
a) Germany
b) Russia
c) Norway
d) Denmark
Answer:
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 13
1. Consider the following
statements regarding the newly released RBI report on “Benchmarking of India’s
Payment Systems” :
1) While there has been robust
growth in the volume of retail electronic transactions amid a strong regulatory
framework, the country needs to enhance its payments acceptance infrastructure.
2) In 2018-19, the volume
growth of retail electronic transactions was 95%, compared to 51% in the
previous year, mainly due to to the steep growth in the use of the Unified
Payments Interface (UPI).
3) The report also said that
the level of credit card penetration in India was low when compared to advanced
countries, where it was a preferred option for making payments.
Which of the following
statements are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
2. Which of the following
Indian states are the major sugarcane producing states of India?
1) Andhra Pradesh
2) Assam
3) Tamilnadu
4) Gujarat
5) Maharashtra
a) 1,2& 3 only
b) 3,4 & 5 only
c) 1,4 & 5 only
d) all of the above
Q3. Which of the following
statements regarding global food safety are true?
1) Food safety is an increasing
threat to human health. Children under 5 years of age carry 40% of the
food-borne disease burden with 1, 25,000 deaths every year
2) Access to sufficient amounts
of safe and nutritious food is key to sustaining life and promoting good
health. Food-borne diseases impede socio-economic development by straining
health care systems and harming national economies, tourism and trade.
3) The first-ever World Food
Safety Day was adopted by the World Health Assembly in 2019.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 &3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
4. Which of the following
statements regarding Nipah virus are true?
1) Nipah virus, which causes
encephalitis and pneumonia, is lethal in about 70% of cases and can be caught
from animals or transmitted between people.
2) The only current treatment
for Nipah virus infection is a monoclonal antibody that is still experimental;
it was tested during an outbreak in India last year.
3) However since Ebola and
Nipah virus belongs to the same family the vaccine used for Ebola can be used
successfully to counter Nipah.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
5. The “Global Economic
Prospects “have been released by which of the following international institutions?
a) World economic forum
b) World Bank
c) World trade Organisation
d) UN General Assembly
Answer:
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 12
1. Consider the following
statements regarding copyright law in India:
1) Indian copyright law is at
parity with the international standards as contained in TRIPS. The (Indian)
Copyright Act, 1957 fully reflects the Berne Convention for Protection of
Literary and Artistic Works.
2) In India, the registration
of copyright is not mandatory as the registration is treated as mere recordal
of a fact.
3) The registration does not
create or confer any new right and is not a prerequisite for initiating action
against infringement.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q2. Which of the following
phenomenons are examples of convergent plate boundaries?
1) Subduction of the Nazca
Plate beneath the South American Plate
2) Formation of the Aravallis.
3) Collision between the
Australian Plate and the Pacific Plate.
4) Formation of New Zealand.
5) Collision between Eurasian
plate and African plate
a) 1, 2 & 3 only
b) 1, 3 & 4 only
c) 1, 3 & 5 only
d) 2 & 4 only
Q3. Which of the following
statements regarding NSSO (National sample survey office) are true?
1) The National Sample Survey
Office (NSSO) is responsible for conduct of large scale sample surveys in
diverse fields on All India basis under the ministry of HRD.
2) Besides these surveys, NSSO
collects data on rural and urban prices and plays a significant role in the
improvement of crop statistics through supervision of the area enumeration and
crop estimation surveys of the State agencies.
3) It also maintains a frame of
urban area units for use in sample surveys in urban areas.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q4. Consider the following
statements with respect to section 376E of IPC frequently seen in news:
1) Section 376E of IPC was
included in the criminal law act as per recommendation by justice Verma
committee which was constituted to enable quicker trials and harsher punishment
for those accused of sexual assault.
2) As per the act, habitual
offenders are punished with death penalty only if they have been convicted
subsequently for section 376A.
3) The section 376E is a
cognisable as well as non bailable offence under IPC.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q5. The recently launched
initiative “Udchalo” serves which of the following purposes?
a) It was started by union
aviation ministry to provide concession to senior citizens for using air
travel.
b) It is a travel portal that
caters for the personal travel of the military and paramilitary forces
personnel by aggregating defence fares and getting exclusive discounts.
c) It is an online platform for
bidding of air routes for both domestic as well as foreign players.
d) It is an initiative by HRD ministry to encourage pilot training amongst women army officers
Answer:
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 11
1. Which of the following statements regarding article 370 of Indian constitution are correct?
1) Article 370 in the part XXI
of the constitution of India provides a special status to the state of Jammu
and Kashmir and other tribal states of India.
2) Laws on Union and concurrent
list will be made by centre only with the consent of state of J&K.
3) Dr BR Ambedkar who was the
chairman of the drafting committee of the constitution assembly was against the
incorporation of article 370 in the constitution.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
2. Which of the following are
used as gene editing tools in biotechnology?
1) CRISPR-Cas9
2) TALENs
3) transposons
4) rAAV
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) all of the above
d) 2 & 4 only
3. Which of the following
statements regarding the newly approved Agriculture Export Policy are true?
1) It is aimed at increasing
India’s exports to $100 billion by 2032 from the current $37 billion.
2) The policy also aims to
promote the export of novel, indigenous, organic, ethnic, traditional and
non-traditional products.
3) The Mission target the
establishment of 15 Technology Innovation Hubs (TIH), six Application
Innovation Hubs (AIH) and four Technology Translation Research Parks (TTRP)
also.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
4. Consider the following statements:
1) Rice blast, caused by a
fungus Magnaportheoryzae, is one of the major diseases of the rice crop.
2) Fungicides are very
expensive, harmful for the environment and inappropriate application can cause
health issues.
3) The rapid changes in
pathogen virulence pose a constant challenge to the success of existing
blast-resistant rice varieties.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
5. Which of the following
African countries recently banned the importation, production, sale and use of
plastic bags in its territory?
a) Zimbabwe
b) Tanzania
c) Nigeria
d) Zambia
Answer:
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 10
1. Consider the following statements with respect to the current economic prospects:
1) India’s GDP grew at 5.8% in
the January-March 2019 quarter, dragging down the full year growth to a
five-year low of 6.8%.
2) The slowdown in the economy
was led by sluggish growth in construction, financial, real estate and
professional services, and electricity, gas, water supply and other utility
services.
3) The unemployment rate in the
country rose to a 45-year high of 6.1% in 2017-18, as per official data.
Which of the above statements
are true?
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q2. Which of the following
art/cultural forms are included in the UNESCO’s List of Intangible Cultural
Heritage list from India?
1) Ramleela
2) Ashokan edicts
3) Ajanta caves
4) Kalbelia dance
5) Kumbh mela
a) 1,2 & 3 only
b) 1,4 & 5 only
c) 3,4 & 5 only
d) all of the above
Q3. India will lose access to
preferential trade terms with the U.S. under the latter’s Generalised System of
Preferences (GSP) programme soon.
Which of the following
statements regarding the same are true?
1) The Generalized System of
Preference (GSP) is the largest and oldest US trade preference programme and is
designed to promote economic development by allowing duty-free entry for
thousands of products from designated beneficiary countries.
2) The GSP given by developed
countries including the US is a violation of most favoured nation (MFN) status
as per WTO norms.
3) India was the largest
beneficiary of the program in 2017-2018.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q4. Which of the following
statements regarding the newly submitted draft education policy stands true?
1) The policy draft recommends
incorporation of Indian knowledge systems in the curriculum, constituting a
National Education Commission and curbing arbitrary fees hikes by private
schools.
2) The expert panel also
proposed massive transformation in Teacher Education by moving all teacher
preparation and education programmes into large multidisciplinary universities
or colleges.
3) The existing NEP was framed
in 1986 and revised in 2005, and the draft panel is headed by Dr.MS
Swaminathan.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) all of the above
Q5. Which one of the following
countries was not amongst those elected as the non permanent members of UN Security
Council recently?
a) Indonesia
b) Brazil
c) Germany
d) Belgium
Answer:
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b)
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 9
1. Consider the following statements regarding Generalized System of Preferences:
It is
designed to promote economic development by allowing duty free entry for
thousands of products from 120 designated beneficiary countries/territories.
In
2018, around $ 6.3 billion of Indian merchandise exports to the U.S. were
covered by GSP.
Recently,
U.S. President issued a proclamation ending the trade benefits to India
effective June 5, 2019.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Consider the following
statements regarding Directorate of Enforcement (ED):
It is a
multi-disciplinary organization mandated with the task of enforcing the
provisions of two special fiscal laws – Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
(FEMA) and Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA).
The
origin of this Directorate goes back to 1st May, 1956, when an ‘Enforcement
Unit’ was formed, in Department of Economic Affairs.
At
present, ED works under administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
3. Consider the following
statements regarding Kartarpur corridor:
The
corridor will link Dera Baba Nanak shrine in Gurdaspur in Punjab in India with
Gurdwara Darbar Sahib at Kartarpur in Pakistan.
The
Kartarpur Gurdwara is located in Pakistan’s Narowal district across the Jhelum
River.
The
corridor will be thrown open to pilgrims in November, 2019 to mark the 550th
birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Consider the following statements regarding
National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT):
National
Company Law Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body in India that adjudicates issues
relating to Indian companies.
Decisions
of the tribunal may be appealed to the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal,
the decisions of which may further be appealed to the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Prestigious 2019 Scripps National Spelling Bee
is held in which of the following?
(a) United Kingdom
(b) United States
(c) Brazil
(d) Germany
Solution: 1-d, 2- b, 3- c, 4- c, 5- b
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 8
1. Consider the following statements about Directive Principles:
They
have been derived from the Irish Constitution.
Similar
instructions to the State also existed in Government of India Act, 1935
The
explicit provision to minimise inequalities was not there in the original
Constitution.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2, 3
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3
2. Consider the following statements regarding Committee
on Public Accounts:
It is
constituted each year for examination of accounts showing the appropriation of
sums granted by Parliament for expenditure of Government of India.
The
Committee consists of 22 members comprising 15 members elected by Lok Sabha and
7 members elected by Rajya Sabha.
A
Minister is not eligible to be elected as a member of the Committee.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
3. Which of the following are true about
qualifications for a Supreme Court Judge?
A
naturalised citizen is eligible.
Should
be of age more than 35 years.
Should
have been a judge of High Court for 10 years.
Select the correct answer code
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
4. Article 110 of the Constitution deals
with the definition of money bills. It states that a bill is deemed to be a
money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with?
The
imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
The
regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government.
The
appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
5. Consider the following
statements regarding Delimitation of Constituencies.
In the
delimitation process, the number of seats allocated to different states in Lok
Sabha and the total number seats in a Legislative Assembly remains the same.
The
Delimitation Commission in India is a high-power body whose orders have the
force of law and cannot be called in question before any court.
The
first delimitation exercise in 1950-51 was carried out by the President with
the help of the Election Commission.
Which of the above statements
is/are?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 3 only
d) 2, 3
Solution: 1-d, 2-d, 3- a, 4- d, 5- a
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
1. Consider the following
statements regarding Soil Degradation.
Soil
degradation occurs when the nutritional status declines and depth of the soil
goes down due to erosion and misuse.
Once
the soil forming processes is complete, the erosional processes start and both
does not go simultaneously.
Wind
Erosion takes place mainly in the form of sheet and gully erosion.
Which of the above statements
is/are ?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a
2. Consider the following statements
regarding Soil Erosion:
Sheet
erosion takes place on level lands after a heavy shower and is harmful since it
removes the finer and more fertile top soil.
Gully
erosion is common on steep slopes which lead to level lands fit for
cultivation.
Which of the above statements
is/are?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Solution: a
3. the most prominent feature
in the oceans, forming an almost continuous mountain range, is the?
a) Seamount
b) Deep ocean trench
c) Abyssal plain
d) Mid-ocean ridge
Solution: d
4. The California Ocean
current, which flows along the west coast of North America, is a?
a) Cold current, flowing north
b) Cold current, flowing south
c) Warm current, flowing south
d) Warm current, flowing north
Solution: b
The California Current is a Pacific Ocean
current that moves southward along the western coast of North America,
beginning off southern British Columbia and ending off southern Baja California
Peninsula.
It is considered an Eastern boundary current due
to the influence of the North American coastline on its course.
It is also one of five major coastal currents
affiliated with strong upwelling zones, the others being the Humboldt Current,
the Canary Current, the Benguela Current, and the Somali Current.
The California Current is part of the North
Pacific Gyre, a large swirling current that occupies the northern basin of the
Pacific.
5. Through which of the groups of countries does
the Tropic of Cancer Passes?
a) India, Pakistan, Oman and Saudi Arabia
b) India, Pakistan, Iran and Iraq
c) India, Oman, UAE and Saudi Arabia
d) India, Oman, Yemen and Iran
Solution: c
Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 3
1. With reference to the Vedic
period, consider the following statements:
The end
of the Vedic period witnessed the rise of Mahajanapada
The
Vedic period preceded the Indus Valley Civilisation
Early
Vedic culture was tribal and pastoral
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 and 3 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All are correct
Solution: b
2. With reference to the Painted Grey Ware
culture (PGW), consider the following statements:
It is a
Bronze Age culture of the western Gangetic plain and the Ghaggar-Hakra valley
It is
associated with the rise of the great Mahajanapada states and of the Magadha
Empire.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d
3. The Indus Valley
Civilisation (IVC) was a?
a) Iron-age civilisation
b) Bronze-age civilisation
c) Copper-age civilisation
d) None of the above
Solution: b
4. Ganweriwala is spread over 80 hectares and
comparable in size with the largest sites of the Indus Valley Civilization,
such as Mohenjo-daro. It is located in
a) India
b) Afghanistan
c) Pakistan
d) Iran
Solution: c
5. Sramana movement is mainly
associated with which of the following?
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 2
1. Paryushana is the most
important annual holy events for which of the following?
a) Buddhists
b) Jains
c) Hindus
d) Parsis
Solution: b
2. Jain ethical code prescribes five fundamental
vows. Which of the following is/are not one of them?
Ahimsa
Satya
Aparigraha
Brahmacharya
Select the correct answer using
codes below:
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 3 Only
c) 4 Only
d) None of the above
Solution: d
3. With reference to Ajivikas (Ajivakas),
consider the following statements:
The
most important sects to arise at the time of the Buddha were the Ajivikas
They
emphasized the rule of fate (niyati)
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c
4. The oldest and smallest of the three sections of the Buddhist canonical Tipitaka (“Triple Basket”) and the one that regulates monastic life and the daily affairs of monks and nuns according to rules attributed to the Buddha is?
a) Vinaya Pitaka
b) Abhidhamma Pitaka
c) Sutta Pitaka
d) All of the above
Solution: a
5. The Samayasara and the Pravacanasara are
considered the bible of
Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 1
1. Consider the following
statements:
Brahmanism
emphasizes on the rites performed by, and the status of priestly class
Brahmanism
emerged from Vedanta principles
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a
2. Pratyakṣa (perception), Anumāna
(inference) and śabda (Āptavacana, word/testimony of reliable sources) are
accepted as the only reliable means of gaining knowledge in which of the
following schools of the Hindu philosophy?
a) Yoga
b) Samkhya
c) Nyaya
d) Both b and c
Solution: d
3. which of the following
schools of thought maintained that though events (dharmas) have only momentary
existence, there is a transmigrating substratum of consciousness that contains
within it seeds of goodness that are in every person?
a) Sautrantika
b) Sammitiya
c) Vaisheshika
d) None of the above
Solution: a
4. The major form of Buddhism
practised in Tibet, China, Korea, and Japan is
a) Theravada
b) Vajrayana
c) Mahayana
d) Hinayana
Solution: c
5. With reference to Avalokitesvara,
consider the following statements:
Avalokitesvara
is a divine and compassionate depiction of Jina in certain parts of coastal
Karnataka
Avalokitesvara
is the earthly manifestation of the self-born eternal Amitabha (another name
for Bahubali)
