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UPSC Prelims 2020 Batch 3: Complete Revision

UPSC Prelims 2020 Batch 3 : Complete Revision of Prelims through 6000+ MCQs will start on 27th January 2020. UPSC Prelims Exam 2020 GS Paper-1 Last Time Revision Notes and Practice Test / Question Bank. UPSC Prelims 2020 Revision

Highlights:

60 Days Online Revision Test Programme

45 Days Concept cum Revision Daily Test
17 Days Prelims Current Affairs Tests
Special Test on Economic Survey & Budget
Special Test on India Year Book & Mapping
Prelims Mock Test Series
Prelims Study Material

UPSC Prelims 2020 Batch 3: Complete Revision of Prelims through 6000+ MCQs

Programme Approach

UPSC Prelims is all about managing micro detailing of subjects & handling negative marking. As aspirants tend to get confused about what to study and how to study (i.e. up to what level/extent) for Civil Services Prelims, this programme has been designed to help students to cover whole syllabus effectively within a stipulated time and also have an assessment through test series.
This programme covers the complete syllabus including – History, Geography, Polity, Economy, Science, Environment and Current Affairs with the correct mix of Fundamental and Advance level of study to cover micro detailing of sub-topics & current developments.
44 Days Concept cum Revision tests for covering basic concepts. In each Test there will be a test of 100 questions (based on the topics given in schedule) followed by Class to cover basic aspects of each topic and approach to handle questions.
17 days Current Affairs Test covering last 2 years current topics/issues supplemented by notes.
Current Affairs Test will also include updates on Indian Year Book (IYB), PIB, Budget and Economic Survey.
Special Test on Mapping (World & Indian Geography).
Complete Prelims Study Material & Prelims Current Affairs Material will also be provided (It will cover Current Affairs of past 2 years). UPSC Prelims 2020 Revision

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

Test Plan

TEST	DATE	TOPIC	Sub Topics Cover
Test 1	27-Jan-2020	GOVERNANCE	 Working of Ministries and Department  Functions of Cabinet Secretariat  Functions of Central Secretariat  RTI  E-Governance  Citizen Charter  Governing Institutions
Test 2	28-Jan-2020	GOVERNANCE	 Schemes  Programmes  Policies  Vulnerable sector  Bills
Test 3	29-Jan-2020	GOVERNANCE	 Class Continue
Test 4	30-Jan-2020	GEOGRPAHY	 Climatology  Atmosphere  Inversion of Temp  Insolation & Heat Budget  Winds & Pressure Belts  Air Mass, Fronts Cyclones & Jet Stream  Precipitation  Climatic Zone
Test 5	31-Jan-2020	GEOGRPAHY	 Class Continue
Test 6	3-Feb-2020	GEOGRPAHY	 The origin of the Earth  The Evolution of the Earth  Geological History of the Earth  Earth  Origin of Life  Geological Time Scale  Interior of the Earth  Geology  Earthquakes  Volcano  Geomorphic Processes  Distribution of Continents & Oceans  Landforms and their Evolution  Landforms across the world
Test 7	4-Feb-2020	GEOGRPAHY	 Class Continue
Test 8	5-Feb-2020	GEOGRPAHY	 Oceanography  Hydrosphere  Submarine Relief Features  Temperature & Salinity  Waves, Ocean Currents  Marine Resources  Ocean Deposits & Corals
Test 9	6-Feb-2020	GEOGRPAHY	 Demography  Human Resource  Population growth  Demographic Transition  Settlements & Urbanization
Test 10	7-Feb-2020	GEOGRPAHY	 Soil  Vegetation resources  Basic terms related to Agriculture  Productivity of Crops and conditions for growth
Test 11	10-Feb-2020	GEOGRPAHY	 Mineral resource  Energy resources  Industry  Transport
Test 12	11-Feb-2020	ANCIANT HISTORY	 Pre Historic Cultures In India  Pastoral and Farming Communities  Indus Valley Civilization  Vedic Society  Pre Mauryan Period
Test 13	12-Feb-2020	ANCIANT HISTORY	 The Mauryan Empire  Post-Mauryan India  Growth of Jainism and Buddhism  Imperial Guptas  Harshavardhana  The Southern Dynasties
Test 14	13-Feb-2020	ANCIANT HISTORY	 Visual Art  Architecture in Ancient India  Indo-Islamic Architecture  Modern Architecture  Indian Paintings  Pottery Tradition in India
Test 15	14-Feb-2020	INDIAN CULTURE	 Music in India  Dances in India  Martial Arts in India  Indian Theatre  Indian Puppetry  Indian Cinema  Religions in India  Bhakti & Sufi Movements  Languages & Literature in India  Miscellaneous Topics
Test 16	17-Feb-2020	MEDIVAL HISTORY	 The Establishment of the North Indian Empire  Consolidation and Expansion of the Empire – Akbar  State and Government under Akbar  Akbar’s Religious Views  The Deccan and the Mughals (Upto 1657)  Foreign Policy of the Mughals  India in the First Half of the Seventeenth Century  Aurangzeb – Religious Policies, North India and the Rajputs  Climax and Crisis of the Mughal Empire the Marathas and the Deccan  Society-Structure and Growth  Economic Life-Patterns and Prospects  Religion, Fine Arts, Science and Technology  Northern India in the First Half of the Eighteenth Century  The Maratha Bid for Supremacy
Test 17	18-Feb-2020	MODERN HISTROY	 The Advent of Europeans In India  The English in Bengal from 1757 TO 1772  Impact of British Administration  The Revolt of 1857  Administrative Changes After 1857
Test 18	19-Feb-2020	MODERN HISTROY	 Social reforms in India  Development of Indian Press  Development of Education  Struggle by the Masses  Terrorist and Revolutionary Movements
Test 19	20-Feb-2020	MODERN HISTROY	 The Early Phase of the Freedom Struggle (1900-1915)  Middle Phase of the Freedom Struggle (1915-1930)  Closer to Freedom (1930-1947)
Test 20	21-Feb-2020	ENVIRONMENT	 Ecology  Ecological Community  Ecological Succession: Its types & Process  Ecosystem and its dynamics  Ecosystem: Functions, Properties and Dynamics  Biomagnification  Biogeochemical Cycles & its types  Biomes: Forest, Grassland, Mountain, and Desert Ecosystems  Aquatic Life Zones: Ocean, Rivers, Lakes, and Wetlands
Test 21	24-Feb-2020	ENVIRONMENT	 Biodiversity Basics  Keystone, Indicator, Invasive Species  Biodiversity distribution, uses & values  Biodiversity Hotspots  Ecoregion  Bio piracy  IUCN classification Scheme  Biodiversity Conservation  Ex-Situ & In-Situ  UNESCO (MAB)  Conventional Biological Diversity  Important Bird Areas
Test 22	25-Feb-2020	ENVIRONMENT	 Effect of Human Activities on Environment  Water Resource degradation  Water Cycle (Hydrological Cycle)  Minerals & Environmental Degradation  Mining and Environment  Impact of Mining  Deforestation  Strategies for Reducing Deforestation  Waste Management  Solid Waste  Hazardous Waste  e-Waste  Environmental Pollution  Air Pollution  Water Pollution  Thermal Pollution  Soil Pollution or Land Degradation  Noise Pollution  Solid Waste Management  Coastal ecosystem management  Mangroves  Estuaries  Coral Reefs  Steps for Coastal Ecosystem Management
Test 23	26-Feb-2020	ENVIRONMENT	 Environmental Impact Assessment  International Environmental Governance  Urbanization and climate  Pollution in metros and climate change  Urban Heat Island  Impact of agriculture on climate  Global Warming & Health  Ozone depletion and Human Health  Sustainable Development
Test 24	27-Feb-2020	ENVIRONMENT	 Environmental Laws  Environment related Institutions and Organizations  Pollution Control Boards  National Green Tribunal  Forest Survey of India  National Board for Wildlife  Schemes  Environment related Institutions and Organizations
Test 25	28-Feb-2020	POLITY	 Historical evolution and features  Preamble  Fundamental rights  DPSP
Test 26	2-Mar-2020	POLITY	 Fundamental duties  Citizenship  Panchayats  The Scheduled And Tribal Areas  Relations Between The Union And The States
Test 27	3-Mar-2020	POLITY	 Services  Tribunals  Elections  Special Provisions Relating To Certain Classes  Official language provisions  Emergency provisions  Amendments
Test 28	4-Mar-2020	POLITY	 Union and States  The President  Vice President  Prime Minister
Test 29	5-Mar-2020	POLITY	 Council of Ministers  Attorney General of India  Parliament  The Union Judiciary
Test 30	6-Mar-2020	POLITY	 Comptroller and Auditor-General of India  The Governor  CM  CoM
Test 31	7-Mar-2020	POLITY	 The Advocate-General for the State  State legislature
Test 32	8-Mar-2020	ECONOMY	 Basic concepts in Economics  Micro-economics  Macro-economics  Economic Growth  Major Growth Models  Harrod-Domar  Lewis Model  Rostow stages of growth  Balance Growth and Big-push model  Dependency theory  Sen’s Growth theory  Malthus’ limits on growth, etc  Basic Features of Indian Economy – 1  Agriculture  Economic Reforms
Test 33	11-Mar-2020	ECONOMY	 Money  New Monetary Aggregates  Monetary Policy  Monetary Policy Committee  Inflation  Types of Inflation  Effects of inflation  Measures taken by RBI  Banking
Test 34	12-Mar-2020	ECONOMY	 Class Continue
Test 35	13-Mar-2020	ECONOMY	 Indian Financial Market  Importance of Money Market  Types of Capital Market  Nature and functions of a stock exchange  Role of SEBI, IRDA  Government Budgeting/Deficits  Budget  Deficit Financing  Fiscal Policy – Revenue  Tax-Direct Tax, Indirect Tax  Methods of Taxation – Progressive, Regressive Proportional
Test 36	16-Mar-2020	ECONOMY	 Subsidies  Planning  Objectives of Planning – Major Objective of Planning  Planning History  Investment Models  Classification of Investment  FDI  Angel Investors and Start-ups  Investment Models  Mutual Funds
Test 37	17-Mar-2020	ECONOMY	 External Sector  Fixed Foreign Currency Market  Float Foreign Currency Market  Balance of Payments  Foreign Portfolio Investment  Exchange Market  International Organizations  Trade agreements
Test 38	18-Mar-2020	ECONOMY
Test 39	19-Mar-2020	ECONOMY
Test 40	20-Mar-2020	ECONOMY
Test 41	23-Mar-2020	SCIENCE AND TECH	 Mobile generations  Telecommunication technologies  Computer terminologies  Supercomputer  Government initiatives  Policies related to science and technology  Schemes and institutions
Test 42	24-Mar-2020	SCIENCE AND TECH	 Biotechnology terminologies  Applications of biotechnology  Biotechnology projects  Diseases  Vaccines
Test 43	25-Mar-2020	SCIENCE AND TECH	 Space organizations in India  Space terminologies  Types of satellites  Space programmes of India  Important space missions  Missile system  India’s Missile systems  UAVs  Submarines  Latest Defence Updations
Test 44	26-Mar-2020	SCIENCE AND TECH	 Technology related to Renewable Energy  Nuclear technology basics  India’s Nuclear programme  Nuclear institutions  Radiation technologies and applications
Test 45	27-Mar-2020	SCIENCE AND TECH	 Nanotechnology terminologies  Applications of nanotechnology  Robotics and its types  Applications of Robotics
Test 46	30-Mar-2020	GEOGRAPHY MAPPING	 Mapping (World Geography)
Test 47	31-Mar-2020	GEOGRAPHY MAPPING	 Mapping (Indian Geography)
Test 48	15 April, 2020	Polity & National Issues
Test 49	16 April, 2020	Polity & National Issues
Test 50	17 April, 2020	International Affairs
Test 51	20 April, 2020	Indian Economy
Test 52	21 April, 2020	Indian Economy
Test 53	22 April, 2020	Indian Economy
Test 54	23 April, 2020	Indian Culture
Test 55	24 April, 2020	Environment
Test 56	27 April, 2020	Environment
Test 57	28 April, 2020	Science & Technology
Test 58	29 April, 2020	Science & Technology
Test 59	30 April, 2020	Economic Survey
Test 60	1 May, 2020	Economic Survey
Test 61	4 May, 2020	Indian Budget
Test 62	5 May, 2020	Governance & India Year Book
Test 63	6 May, 2020	Governance & India Year Book
Test 64	7 May, 2020	Governance & India Year Book

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MYUPSC - UPSC IAS Prelims 2020 Test Series

MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 5

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upsc ias prelims exam 2020 test series, Civil Services Preliminary Examination Free solved Test.

Practice Mock Test – 5

Q1. Which of the following adaptations is/are found in the mangrove plants?

1. Absence of stomata.

2. Turn their leaves to reduce exposure to the sunlight.

3. Pneumatophores

4. Salt glands

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 3, 4

c) 2, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Q2. Which of the following are responsible for land degradation?

1. Overgrazing

2. Salination

3. Water-logging

4. Landslides

5. Practice of Jhum cultivation

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 2, 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

d) 1, 2, 4, 5

Answer: c

Q3. Consider the following pairs.

Disease Pollutant

1. Itai-itai disease Cadmium

2. Minamata disease Mercury

3. Blue Baby Syndrome Arsenic

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

a) 1, 3

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 2

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q4. Which of the following pyramids can be both upright and inverted?

1. Pyramid of Biomass

2. Pyramid of Numbers

3. Pyramid of Productivity

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: a

Q5. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs

a) The water vapours of the air and retains its heat

b) Infrared part of solar radiation

c) The ultraviolet part of the solar radiation

d) All the solar radiations

Answer: b

Q6. Which of the following Ramsar site is manmade?

a) Deepor Beel

b) Wular Lake

c) Bhoj Wetland

d) Loktak Lake

Answer: c

Q7. Consider the following statements about South Asian Nitrogen Hub.

1. The Indian government has announced a research project, South Asian Nitrogen Hub.

2. The project aims to study the impact of different forms of nitrogen pollution, particularly looking at nitrogen in agriculture in eight countries of South Asia.

3. UNEP will partner with different organisations from South Asia.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2 only

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Q8. With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:

1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.

2. Food chains are found within the population of a species.

3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1, 2, 3

d) None

Answer: a

Q9. Consider the following statements about Wildlife Protection Society of India.

1. It is an attached office to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

2. It protects endangered species and their habitats through awareness, support, and training.

3. Collaborate with state governments to monitor the illegal wildlife trade.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q10. Consider the following statements about “ECOMARK” scheme.

1. It is a Scheme on Labelling of Environment Friendly Products.

2. Provide an incentive for manufacturers and importers to reduce adverse environmental impact of products.

3. Reward initiatives by companies to reduce adverse environmental impact of their products.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q11. The composting process is dependent on which of the following micro-organisms?

1. Bacteria

2. Fungi

3. Virus

4. Actino bacteria

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 2, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Q12. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as a financial mechanism for which of the following conventions?

1. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)

2. Convention on the International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Flora and Fauna (CITES)

3. UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)

4. Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 3

c) 1, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q13. Consider the following statements.

1. Bioleaching is used essentially for the recovery of copper, uranium and gold.

2. Bioaugmentation can be involved in bioremediation.

3. Biosparging can be used to reduce concentrations of petroleum constituents that are dissolved in groundwater.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) None

Answer: d

Q14. Consider the following statements about Mammals of India (MAOI) initiative.

1. It is an online, peer- reviewed, freely-accessible portal exclusively for mammals.

2. It is the initiative of Ministry of Environment & Forests (MoEF).

3. It provides a facility to the citizen to upload photographic observations about mammals.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q15. Consider the following statements.

1. It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International.

2. It was declared as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.

3. The forest region is home to world’s largest population of Indian Rhinoceros.

4. It is also a Tiger Reserve.

The above statements are related to which National Park?

a) Manas National Park

b) Nameri National Park

c) Orang National Park

d) Kaziranga National Park

Answer: d

MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 4

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Practice Mock Test – 4

Q1. Consider the following pairs.

Governor-General Events in their Rule

1. Cornwallis Introduction of Civil services

2. Wellesley Telegraph and postal reforms

3. William Bentinck Introduction of English as official language

4. Dalhousie Introduction of Subsidiary Alliance

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 2, 4

b) 1, 3

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: b)

Explaination:

Cornwallis – Europeanisation of administrative machinery and Introduction of Civil services.

Wellesley – Introduction of Subsidiary Alliance, 1798.

William Bentinck – Educational reforms and introduction of English as the official language.

Dalhousie – Telegraph (4000 miles of telegraph lines to connect Calcutta with Bombay, Madras and Peshawar) and postal (Post Office Act, 1854) reforms.

Q2. Consider the following statements.

1. Charter Act of 1813 promoted modern sciences in the country.

2. Macaulay’s Minute led to the promotion of mass education.

3. Hunter Education Commission report is considered as the ‘Magna Carta of English Education in India”.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q3. Muhammad Ali Jinnah in March 1929 gave fourteen points for safeguarding the rights and interests of the Muslims. Which of the following were included in the fourteen points?

1. Federal Constitution with residual powers to provinces.

2. One-third Muslim representation in the central legislature.

3. Separation of Sindh from Bombay.

4. Not separate electorates, but joint electorates with reserved seats for Muslims.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2, 4

b) 1, 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Q4. Which of the following is/are correct about Pathshala under British India?

1. These were institutions working on the principle of decentralized governance with minimum of rules

2. Wood’s Despatch was against the system of Pathshala.

Select the correct answer sing codes below.

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: a

Q5. The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because:

1. The Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence.

2. The rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session.

3. A resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) None

Answer: a

Q6. With reference to medieval kingdoms of North-eastern India what was the position of paiks?

a) They were the patrons of literature and arts.

b) They were mercenaries recruited from other kingdoms.

c) They held large amount of land and gold and donated it for public welfare.

d) They were forced to work for the state.

Answer: d

Q7. Kornish in medieval history refers to:

a) A kind of salutation.

b) A kind of revenue system.

c) A title given to the courtier

d) A kind of crop brought to India by the British.

Answer: a

Explaination:

Kornish was a form of ceremonial salutation in which the courtier placed the palm of his right hand against his forehead and bent his head. It suggested that the subject placed his head – the seat of the senses and the mind – into the hand of humility, presenting it to the royal assembly.

Q8. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Iltutmish, the medieval ruler?

1. He founded the Ilbari dynasty.

2. He introduced the Arabic Coinage into India.

3. He introduced the Persian festival of Nauroz.

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 3

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 2

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q9. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Samudragupta was an ardent follower of Vaishnavism.

2. He had very little interest in music.

3. He patronized the great Buddhist scholar Vasubandu.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q10. Consider the following dynasties of Medieval India.

1. Rajput

2. Lodi

3. Tughluq

4. Sayyid

The correct chronological order in which they appeared in India is?

a) 3, 1, 2, 4

b) 3, 1, 4, 2

c) 1, 3, 2, 4

d) 1, 3, 4, 2

Answer: d

Q11. Which of the following provisions are related to the Charter Act of 1813?

a) It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body.

b) It introduced for the first time, local representation in the Central Legislative Council.

c) For the first time explicitly defined the constitutional position of the British territories in India.

d) It separated for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor- General’s council.

Answer: c

Explaination:

Statement a – Charter Act of 1833

Statement b and d – Charter Act of 1853

Q12. Which of the following statement is correct regarding Hunter Education Commission?

a) Government of India must assume responsibility for education of the masses.

b) Indian learning was inferior to European learning.

c) For improving university education, improving secondary education was a necessary.

d) Primary education should be imparted through vernacular.

Answer: d

Q13. By the time Gandhiji arrived in India

1. Indian National Congress (INC) was already established in India

2. He had already forged a technique of non-violent Satyagraha in South Africa

3. The first Swadeshi movement had already been waged

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q14. The partition of Bengal by Lord Curzon intended to

1. Curb Bengali influence

2. Divide people on the basis of religion

3. Achieve administration convenience

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q15. Which of the following Indian activist, thinker and social reformer was famously known as Lokhitwadi?

a) Mahadev Govind Ranade

b) Akshay Kumar Dutt

c) Gopal Hari Deshmukh

d) Jyotiba Phule

Answer: C

Q16. The Sangam texts mention prominently the ports of

1. Musiri

2. Tondi

3. Korkai

4. Podouke (Arikamedu)

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 2, 4

b) 1, 3

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q17. He was a follower of Jainism in the early part of his career and converted to Saivism later. He is hailed as ‘Vichitra chitta’ who constructed a temple for Brahma, Vishnu and Siva without the use of bricks, timber, metal and mortar. Who is the ruler?

a) Rajaraja Chola 1

b) Kadambas of Banavasi

c) Harihara 1

d) Mahendravarman I

Answer: d

Q18. Why did Buddhism start declining in India in the early medieval times?

1. Vaishnavism, Shaivism and other Hindu traditions became increasingly popular, and

Brahmins developed a new relationship with the state

2. The Kings of Gupta dynasty were strongly opposed to Buddhism.

Select the correct code:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: a

Q19. Consider the following statements.

1. Most of the Ashoka’s inscriptions were in Pali language.

2. Arikamedu is a coastal settlement known for it being a site for unloading goods from distant lands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q20. Consider the following statements about Chalukyas

1. The Chalukya administration was highly decentralized.

2. They developed the Dravidian style in the building of structural temples.

3. Their cave temples are found in Ajanta, Ellora and Nasik.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 3 only

c) 1, 3

d) 2 only

Answer: a

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 3

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Practice Mock Test – 3

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. Jaimini Brahmana speaks collectively on dance only.

2. In Hindustani music, Dhrupad is the pure music without distraction of words.

3. There was no evidence of musical instruments found at the sites of Indus valley civilization.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 2 only

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2

Answer: b

Q2. Consider the following with reference to Central Indian paintings.

1. They take inspiration from Puranas and Indian folk-lore.

2. Vaishnavism, Saivism and Sakti exercised tremendous influence on these paintings.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: c

Q3. Consider the following statements with reference to Sangam Literature

1. Sangam literature dealt both with personal lives such as love and relationships as well as ethics, heroism, values and social customs.

2. Only men were allowed to compose Sangam literature.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q4. Consider the following statements

1. According to this philosophy, Vedas are eternal and possess all knowledge.

2. Religion means the fulfilment of duties prescribed by the Vedas.

3. This philosophy encompasses the Nyaya-Vaisheshika systems and emphasizes the concept of valid knowledge.

The above statements are related to?

a) Mimamsa School

b) Vedanta School

c) Yoga School

d) Samkhya School

Answer: a

Q5. Consider the following about Kalighat paintings which originated in Bengal.

1. The school produced paintings that were irreproducible by lithography.

2. The school restricted itself to the depiction of natural, nationalistic and secular themes.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Answer: d

Q6. Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?

1. Arasavalli

2. Amarakantak

3. Omkareshwar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a

Q7. With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements regarding Samkhya School.

1. Samkhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.

2. Samkhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Explaination: The Samkhya School denies the existence of God. However, rebirth and transmigration of soul are inherent in the Samkhya School.  Liberation results from the disappearance of the limitations of self-awareness.

Q8. With reference to Giddha, Ghoomar and Garba, consider the following statements:

1. All three dances are primarily performed by women only

2. All three are folk dances

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q9. Which of the following are correctly matched?

Reform movement: Region of influence

1. Sri Narayana Dharma Paripalana Sabha: Karnataka

2. Sarin Sabha: Punjab

3. Paramhansa Mandali: Madhya Pradesh

4. Kayastha Sabha: Uttar Pradesh

Select from the codes below

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: b

Q10. Which of these is NOT one of the eight components of Yoga as described by Patanjali?

a) Yamas

b) Niyama

c) Asana

d) Mulahara

Answer: d

Q11. MANIYARO a variety of folk dance is of which state?

a) Assam

b) Andhra Pradesh

c) Gujarat

d) Manipur

Answer: c

Q12. Consider the following statements about National School of Drama.

1. It was set up by the Sangeet Natak Akademi as one of its constituent units in 1959.

2. It is fully financed by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.

3. The School has two performing wings – the Repertory Company and Theatre-in- Education Company.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q13. Consider the following pairs:

Classical Dance Feature

1. Bharatanatyam Fire Dance

2. Kuchipudi Lasya and Tandava elements

3. Odissi Mobile Sculpture

4. Mohiniattam Tandava aspect is dominant

Which of the above is correctly matched?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 2, 3

c) 1, 2, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q14. Which of the following temples have ‘Nagara Style of Architecture’?

1. Sun Temple at Konark

2. Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar

3. Vishwanath Temple at Khajuraho

4. Doddabasappa temple at Dambal

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Q15. Consider the following pairs.

Temple Country

1. Prambanan Temple Indonesia

2. Angkoar Vat Cambodia

3. Pashupatinath Temple Sri Lanka

4. Munneswaram Temple Nepal

Which of the above are correctly matched?

a) 1, 3

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Explaination:

Pashupatinath Temple – Nepal

Munneswaram Temple – Sri Lanka

Q16. The prominent construction works undertaken during Akbar’s reign are:

1. Agra Fort

2. Ibadat Khana

3. Buland Darwaza

Select the correct code:

a) 2 only

b) 1, 2

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q17. Consider the following statements about Kalbelia.

1. Folk dance performed by the women of the Kalbelia community of Gujarat.

2. ‘Been’ is the popular musical instrument of this dance form.

3. The UNESCO has inscribed Kalbelia folk songs and dances in the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Explaination:

Kalbelia is a sensuous folk dance performed by the women of the Kalbelia community of Rajasthan. The costumes and dance movement are similar to that of the serpents. ‘Been’ (wind instrument played by snake charmers) is the popular musical instrument of this dance form.

The UNESCO has inscribed Kalbelia folk songs and dances in the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2010.

Q18. With reference to Giddha, Gangore and Jhumar, consider the following statements:

1. All three dances are primarily performed by women only

2. All three are folk dances

Select the correct code:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q19. Which of the following is the earliest treatise on mathematics?

a) Aryabhattiya

b) Brahmasputa Siddhantika

c) Siddhanta Shiromani

d) Sulvasutra

Answer: d

Q20. Consider the following statements.

1. This Veda is also known as Brahma Veda

2. It is mostly concerned with peace and prosperity of the human society

3. It focuses on treatment of several ailments

The above statements refer to

a) Rig Veda

b) Sama Veda

c) Atharva Veda

d) Yajur Veda

Answer: c

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 2

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Practice Mock Test – 2

Q1. Consider the following statements about Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD).

1. The western Indian Ocean becomes alternately warmer and then colder than the eastern part of the ocean.

2. A study has demonstrated a significant correlation between the IOD and drought in the southern half of Australia.

3. IOD can either aggravate or weaken the impact of El Nino on Indian monsoon.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q2. Consider the following statements about anticyclone?

1. It is an area of high pressure.

2. The wind direction is Anticlockwise in the Northern Hemisphere.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: a

Q3. The most prominent feature in the oceans, forming an almost continuous mountain range, is the

a) Seamount

b) Deep ocean trench

c) Abyssal plain

d) Mid-ocean ridge

Answer: d

Q4. Qatar is bordered by which of the following countries.

1. United Arab Emirates

2. Bahrain

3. Saudi Arabia

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 3

b) 2, 3

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2

Answer: c)

Explaination:

Qatar has one land border. The country borders Saudi Arabia to the south.

Q5. The California Ocean current, which flows along the west coast of North America, is a

a) Cold current, flowing north

b) Cold current, flowing south

c) Warm current, flowing south

d) Warm current, flowing north

Answer: b

Explaination:

The California Current is a Pacific Ocean current that moves southward along the western coast of North America, beginning off southern British Columbia and ending off southern Baja California Peninsula. It is considered an Eastern boundary current due to the influence of the North American coastline on its course. It is also one of five major coastal currents affiliated with strong upwelling zones, the others being the Humboldt Current, the Canary Current, the Benguela Current, and the Somali Current. The California Current is part of the North Pacific Gyre, a large swirling current that occupies the northern basin of the Pacific.

Q6. Which of the following port is known as “Queen of Arabian Sea”?

a) Jawaharlal Nehru port

b) Marmagao port

c) Kochi port

d) New Mangalore port

Answer: c

Explaination:

Kochi is a major port city on the south-west coast of India bordering the Laccadive Sea. Called the Queen of the Arabian Sea, Kochi was an important spice trading centre on the west coast of India from the 14th century onward.

Q7. Which of the following factors affect Ocean Salinity?

1. Evaporation

2. Wind

3. Influx of river water

4. Ocean currents

5. Precipitation

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 3, 5

b) 1, 2, 3, 5

c) 1, 3, 4, 5

d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Answer: d

Q8. December and January are the coldest months in the northern plain. The reasons for the excessive cold in north India are:

1. far away from the sea.

2. Snowfall in the nearby Himalayan ranges

3. Cold winds coming from Taklamakan Desert and Plateau of Tibet.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: a

Explaination:

There are three main reasons for the excessive cold in north India during this season:

(i) States like Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan being far away from the moderating influence of sea experience continental climate.

(ii) The snowfall in the nearby Himalayan ranges creates cold wave situation; and

(iii) Around February, the cold winds coming from the Caspian Sea and Turkmenistan bring cold wave along with frost and fog over the north-western parts of India.

Q9. Consider the following statements about Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ).

1. ITCZ is also known as doldrums

2. ITCZ is an area encircling the Earth near the Equator, where the northeast and southeast trade winds converge

3. ITCZ has no effect on tropical cyclone formation

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: a

Q10. Which of the following explains why one side of a mountain usually has more precipitation than the other side?

a) Temperatures are higher on one side of a mountain than on the other

b) The atmosphere gets denser as elevation increases

c) The land on one side is more green and lush than the other

d) Mountains force air to rise, and air cools and releases moisture as it rises

Answer: d

Q11. Consider the following statements about Inflation Indexed Bond (IIB)

1. It is a bond issued by the Government and the corporate sector.

2. There are no special tax concessions for these bonds.

3. They are eligible to be kept as part of Statutory Liquidity Ratio requirements of banks.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Q12. Consider the following statements about Peer to peer (P2P) lending.

1. It is a form of crowd funding used to raise unsecured loans which are re-paid with interest.

2. Only individuals can borrow money.

3. RBI enabled P2P entities as Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC).

4. Minimum net worth requirement for these platforms is kept at Rs. 5 Cr.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 2, 3

c) 2, 4

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Q13. Under Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) all Scheduled Commercial Banks in India must maintain an amount in which of the following forms?

1. Cash

2. Gold

3. Treasury-Bills of the Government of India

4. Corporate Bonds

5. State Development Loans (SDLs)

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 2, 3, 5

c) 1, 2, 5

d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Answer: b

Q14. Buoyancy of tax refers to?

a) Relationship between the changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in Inflation.

b) Relationship between the changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in GDP.

c) Relationship between the changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in Investment.

d) Relationship between the changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in demand.

Answer: b

Q15. Which of the following developments may not likely reduce the fiscal deficit?

1. Increasing Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)

2. Providing budgetary support to public sector enterprises

3. Waiving off farm loans.

4. Austerity measures should be adopted.

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 4

b) 2, 3

c) 2, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Q16. Consider the following statements about Reserve Bank of India.

1. The bank was set up based on the recommendations of the Hilton–Young Commission.

2. Performs merchant banking function for the central and the state governments; also acts as their banker.

3. Manages the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.

4. Issues and exchanges or destroys currency and coins not fit for circulation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 2, 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: d

Q17. Consider the following statements about Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF).

1. Government of India created the RIDF in NABARD.

2. The eligible activities are classified into Agriculture and related sector, Social sector and rural connectivity.

3. Panchayat Raj Institutions, Self Help Groups (SHGs) and NGOs are also eligible to receive funds.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q18. Consider the following statements about ‘Fiat Money’.

1. It is a currency that a government has declared to be legal tender.

2. It is backed by a physical commodity.

3. Its value increases during hyperinflation.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Q19. Consider the following statements about fugitive economic offender.

1. It is an individual who has committed some specified offence(s) involving an amount of one hundred crore rupees or more and has absconded from India.

2. He is declared so by a ‘Special Court’ set up under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.

3. The property of a fugitive economic offender, resulting from the proceeds of crime, including benami property, can be confiscated once he is declared so by the Court.

4. Properties abroad are not liable for confiscation.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 3

b) 2, 4

c) 2 only

d) 1, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q20. Consider the following statements about Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI).

1. It is a measure of change in retail prices of food products consumed by a defined population group in a given area

2. It is released by Central Statistics Office (CSO) for three categories -rural, urban and combined.

3. Cereals and products constitute more than 50 percent weight within CFPI.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: a

Q21. Which of the following statement about ‘White Label ATMs’ is correct?

a) These ATMs are set up, owned and operated by Non-bank entities.

b) These ATMs are set up, owned and operated by the sponsor bank whose brand is used on the ATM. c) ATMs owned by a service provider, but cash management and connectivity to banking networks is provided by a sponsor bank whose brand is used on the ATM. d) These are ATMs operated abroad to withdraw Indian currency.

Answer: a

Q22. Sunil Mehta Committee is related to

a) To prepare a blueprint for doubling farmers’ income by 2022.

b) Drafting New Direct Tax Legislation.

c) Examine the setting up of an Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) for faster resolution of stressed assets.

d) Resolving raising fuel prices in India.

Answer: c

Explaination:

Sunil Mehta Committee was constituted to examine the setting up of an Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) and/or Asset Management Company (AMC) for faster resolution of stressed assets.

Q23. Which of the following factors can lead to Demand-pull inflation?

1. Strong consumer demand

2. Increase in money supply

3. When prices go up

4. Technological innovation

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 2, 4

c) 1, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q24. A country can reduce its current account deficit by

1. Improving domestic companies’ global competitiveness

2. Decreasing the value of its exports relative to the value of imports

3. Placing restrictions on imports, such as tariffs or quotas

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q25. Consider the following statements:

1. India’s tax-GDP ratio is very low compared to other developing countries or emerging markets

2. Lower tax-GDP ratio can be addressed by mobilising greater tax revenues

Select the correct code:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

Q26. APMCs are intended to be responsible for:

1. Providing market-led extension services to farmers.

2. Ensuring payment for agricultural produce sold by farmers on the same day.

3. Setup public private partnership in the management of agricultural markets.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q27. In India, Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) include:

1. Mutual funds

2. Venture Capital Fund

3. Private equity funds

4. Infrastructure funds

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 2, 3, 4

c) 1, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Q28. Which of the following statements about Monetary Policy Framework Agreement is correct?

a) It is an agreement between Government and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on the maximum tolerable inflation rate that RBI should target to achieve price stability.

b) It is an agreement between Government and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on the minimum inflation rate that RBI should target to achieve growth.

c) It is an agreement between Banks and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ensure that the changes in the Interest rates are passed on to the customers.

d) Both b and c

Answer: a

Q29. With reference to the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC), consider the following statements:

1. It is headed by the Governor of RBI

2. It will monitor macro prudential supervision of the economy, including the functioning of large financial conglomerates.

3. It will focus on financial literacy and financial inclusion.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q30. Consider the following statements about National Anti-profiteering Authority (NAA).

1. It is headed by the Finance Minister.

2. The Authority’s core function is to ensure that the benefits of the reduction in GST rates are passed on to the ultimate consumers.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: b

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MYUPSC IAS Prelims Exam 2020 Mock Test – 1

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Practice Set – 1

Q1. With reference to Right to Constitutional Remedies guaranteed under Article 32, consider the following statements:

1. The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the constitution.

2. Fundamental rights and other statutory rights can be enforced under Article 32.

3. The Supreme Court has both executive and original jurisdiction in case of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

4. Article 32 cannot be invoked to determine the constitutionality of an executive order or legislation unless it directly infringes on any Fundamental Rights.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 and 4

b) 2 and 3

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: b)

Q2. Which of the statements about State Human Rights Commission is correct?

a) State Human Rights Commission is a constitutional body

b) If any case is already being inquired by the National Human Rights Commission then the State Human Rights Commission does not inquire into that case, whereas if the case is being inquired by any other statutory commission then the State Human Rights Commission can inquire into that case.

c) To review the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the protection of human rights.

d) The chairperson and members of State Human Rights Commission are appointed by the President.

Answer: c)

Q3. Consider the following about Secretary of the panchayat

1. Secretary of the panchayat is elected by the Gram Panchayat from amongst its members.

2. Secretary of the panchayat is responsible for calling the meeting of the Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat and keeping a record of the proceedings.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Answer: b)

Explaination:

Gram panchayat has a Secretary who is also the secretary of the Gram Sabah. This person is not an elected person but is appointed by the state government, to oversee panchayat activities. He is responsible for calling the meetings of the Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat and keeps a record of the proceedings.

Q4. Which of the following are the compulsory provisions of the 73rd Constitutional amendment act?

1. Reservation of one-third seats for women in panchayats at all the three levels.

2. Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-government.

3. Granting financial powers to the panchayats to levy collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.

4. Fixing tenure of 5 years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six months in the event of suppression of any panchayat.

a) 1 and 2

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 1 and 4

Answer: d

Q5. A parliamentary committee means a committee that:

1. Is appointed or elected by the House

2. Works under the direction of the Speaker / Chairman

3. Presents its report to the President

4. It has a secretariat provided by the Cabinet secretary

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: a

Explaination:

A parliamentary committee means a committee that:

1. Is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker / Chairman1

2. Works under the direction of the Speaker / Chairman

3. Presents its report to the House or to the Speaker / Chairman

4. It has a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha

Q6. Which of the following is/are not the federal features of the Indian Constitution?

1. The Constitution is written and not easily amendable.

2. Equal representation of all states in Rajya Sabha

3. State governments derive authority from the Centre.

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b)

Explaination:

The division of powers established by the Constitution as well as the supremacy of the Constitution can be maintained only if the method of its amendment is rigid. Hence, the Constitution is rigid to the extent that those provisions which are concerned with the federal structure. State governments derive their authority from the constitution, not the Centre.

The states are given representation in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the membership varies from 1 to 31.

Q7. Consider the following about National Human Rights Commission.

1. It is a constitutional authority.

2. The Commission is independent of the government.

3. There is no fee to approach the NHRC.

4. Its recommendations are binding on the courts but not government.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 4

b) 1, 2, 4

c) 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: c)

Explaination:

The commission has been established by law as autonomous of the government, and not by the constitution.

The NHRC cannot by itself punish the guilty. That is the responsibility of courts. The NHRC is there to make independent and credible inquiry into any case of violation of human rights.

Thus, its recommendations are not binding on neither the courts not the government. Any citizen of India can write a letter to the NHRC to complain against the violation of human rights. There is no fee or any formal procedure to approach the NHRC.

Q8. “It shall be the endeavour of every state and every local authority within the state to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.” This is a

1. Forms part of Fundamental rights under Part III of the Constitution

2. Provision made under an Act of Parliament

3. Justiciable in courts if not implemented by the Government of India

Select the correct code:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) None

Answer: d)

Q9. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the

a) Contingency Fund of India

b) Consolidated Fund of India

c) Consolidated Fund of the State

d) Contingency Fund of the State

Answer: c)

Explaination:

The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the HC are charged to the Consolidated Fund of the state but their pensions are payable as Charged Expenditure /Art 112(3).

Q10. Which of these constitutional bodies are functionally autonomous from the government?

1. State Public Service Commissions

2. Election Commission of India

3. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Q11. Under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution, which of the following comes under the definition of State?

1. Government and Parliament of India

2. ONGC and any private agency working for Aadhaar registration

3. District boards and improvement trusts

Select the correct code:

a) 1only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

Answer: d

Explaination:

The term ‘State’ has been used in different provisions concerning the fundamental rights.

Hence, Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State includes the following:

(a) Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union government.

(b) Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state government.

(d) All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc. According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the ‘State ‘under Article 12.

Q12. With reference to the procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368, consider the following statements.

1. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only in either House of Parliament.

2. The bill can be introduced only by a minister and not by a private member.

3. Prior permission of the president is not required for the introduction of the bill.

4. The ratification by the state legislature is not required.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 3

b) 2, 4

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 2, 3, 4

Answer: b

Explaination:

The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution is laid down in Article 368:

1. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.

2. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.

3. The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.

4. Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.

5. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.

6. After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.

7. The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.

8. After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act.

Q13. Which of the following comes outside the scope of Article 368?

1. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.

2. Rules of procedure in Parliament.

3. Supreme Court and high courts.

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 3

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 2

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Explaination:

A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These include: Elections to Parliament and state legislatures and Rules of procedure in Parliament.

The provisions related to Supreme Court and high courts can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.

Q14. Consider the following statements about State Legislature.

1. The Constitution does not provide for the abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.

2. The governor can nominate two members from the Anglo-Indian community, if the community is not adequately represented in the assembly.

3. The actual strength of a council is fixed by the governor.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Explaination:

The Constitution provides for the abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.

Accordingly, the Parliament can abolish a legislative council (where it already exists) or create it (where it does not exist), if the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect.

The governor can nominate one member from the Anglo-Indian community, if the community is not adequately represented in the assembly.

Though the Constitution has fixed the maximum and the minimum limits, the actual strength of a Council is fixed by Parliament.

Q15. Special provisions for marginalized classes in the constitution are related to

1. Educational Grants

2. Appointment of Commissions to investigate their socio-economic condition

3. Reservation in Legislatures and local bodies

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Explaination:

The Constitution makes special provisions for the scheduled castes (SCs), the scheduled tribes (STs), the backward classes (BCs) and the Anglo-Indians. These special provisions are contained in Part XVI of the Constitution from Articles 330 to 342. They are related to the following:

1. Reservation in Legislatures

2. Special Representation in Legislatures

3. Reservation in Services and Posts

4. Educational Grants

5. Appointment of National Commissions

6. Appointment of Commissions of Investigation

Q16. The value of secularism can be found in which of the following parts of the constitution?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy

2. Fundamental Duties

3. Preamble

4. Fundamental Rights

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 3, 4

c) 2, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: d

Q17. Which of the following is the competent authority to change the name of any State of India?

a) Governor of the State

b) Concerned State Legislature

c) Union Home Minister

d) Parliament

Answer: d

Explaination:

The Constitution authorizes the Parliament to form new states or alter the areas, boundaries or names of the existing states without their consent.

Q18. A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:

1. Quorum in Parliament.

2. Rules of procedure in Parliament

3. Election of the President and its manner

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2 only

c) 1, 3

d) None

Answer: a

Q19. If the Union Parliament wishes to move a matter from Concurrent List to the Union List, which of these follows?

a) The Rajya Sabha must initiate a constitutional amendment bill.

b) The President must consult the Governors of a majority of States and act according to their advice.

c) The Cabinet must pass an executive fiat to this effect.

d) It must obtain the consent of all State Legislatures for the same.

Answer: a

Explaination:

Moving a matter from the Concurrent List to Union List needs an amendment to the constitution

Q20. Which of the following were the suggestions made by Swaran Singh Committee to be included as Fundamental Duties?

1. Duty to pay taxes

2. Family Planning

3. Casting vote

Select from the codes below

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above

Answer: a

Q21. Consider the following statements about Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions

1. The committee classifies bills and allocates time for discussion on bills and resolutions introduced by private members.

2. This is a special committee of the Lok sabha only.

3. In Lok sabha it is chaired by the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: d

Explaination:

This committee classifies bills and allocates time for the discussion on bills and resolutions introduced by private members (other than ministers). This is a special committee of the Lok Sabha and consists of 15 members including the Deputy Speaker as its chairman. The Rajya Sabha does not have any such committee. The same function in the Rajya Sabha is performed by the Business Advisory Committee of that House.

Q22. Consider the following statements about Motion of Thanks.

1. It is addressed by the Leader of the House.

2. The motion is put to vote in both the houses of the parliament.

3. It is addressed at the beginning of every new session of the Parliament.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: c

Q23. When a MP has voted against his political party in the Parliament, which among the following authorities will decide on his disqualification pertaining to anti defection law?

a) Parliamentary Committee on Anti defection

b) President of India

c) Election Commission of India

d) Presiding Officer of that House of the Parliament

Answer: d

Explaination:

Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the House.

Q24. Which of these is/are Constitutional bodies?

1. Central Vigilance Commission

2. National Commission for STs

3. National Human Rights Commission

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2 only

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Answer: b

Explaination:

The Constitutional Bodies include:

Election Commission
Union Public Service Commission
State Public Service Commission
Finance Commission
National Commission for SCs
National Commission for STs
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Attorney General of India
Advocate General of the State

Q25. The Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution deal with the oath or affirmations for:

1. Members of Parliament

2. Members of State Legislative Council

3. The Judges of High Courts

4. Attorney General of India

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: c

Explaination:

Third Schedule: Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for-

1. The Union ministers

2. The candidates for election to the Parliament

3. The members of Parliament

4. The judges of the Supreme Court

5. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

6. The state ministers

7. The candidates for election to the state legislature

8. The members of the state legislature

9. The judges of the High Courts

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UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 27

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1. Consider the following statements regarding PM Rozgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY):

1) PMRPY is a scheme to incentivise employers registered with the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) for job creation by the Government paying the full contribution of employers to the Employee Pension Scheme (EPS) and Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF) .

2) The PMRPY Scheme is targeted for employees earning wages more than Rs 15,000/- per month. Thus, new employees earning wages less than Rs 15,000/- per month will not be eligible.

3) All establishment availing benefits under PMRPY scheme should be registered with EPFO under EPF Act 1952 and have a valid LIN.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of recent places in news and the corresponding country:

1) Khyber Pakhtunkhwa: Afganishtan

2) Baramchal: Bangladesh

3) Oyigbo: Nigeria

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

3. Consider the following statements:

1) Antibiotic-resistant infections are a threat to global public health, food safety and an economic burden.

2) Plant-based foods can transmit antibiotic resistance to the microbes living in our gut.

3) Spread of antibiotic-resistant superbugs from plants to humans is similar to outbreaks of diarrheal illnesses caused immediately after eating contaminated vegetables

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding ‘side pocketing’ in market economy stands true?

1) Side pocketing is a framework that allows mutual funds to segregate the bad assets in a separate portfolio within their debt schemes.

2) As per the rule, if a debt instrument is downgraded to default rating by credit rating agencies, then the fund house has the option to create a side pocket so that good assets can be ring fenced.

3) Market regulator SEBI has said that side pocket should not be looked upon as a sign of encouraging undue credit risks as any misuse of the option would be considered serious and stringent action can be taken.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. When the CJI writes to the President and the PM for removal of a High Court judge, which of the following offices/persons appoints a three-judge inquiry committee in consultation with the CJI to look into the allegations?

a) President

b) Prime minister

c) Rajya Sabha chairman

d) Lok Sabha chairman

Answer:

1(c)

2(b)

3(a)

4(d)

5(c)

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 26

1. Consider the following statements:

1) As per the ASSOCHAM and E&Y report published in 2018, the domestic organic market was valued at Rs. 2500 crores including Rs. 1500 crores in organised retail and Rs. 1000 crores by farmers’ direct market.

2) Government of India has been promoting organic farming under two dedicated schemes namely Mission Organic Value Chain Development North Eastern Region (MOVCDNER) and Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) since 2015.

3) Third party certification of organic farming is promoted by Agriculture Processed Food and Export Development Authority (APEDA) under Ministry of Agriculture.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of vitamins and their corresponding deficiency diseases:

1) Riboflavin: Pellagra

2) Thiamine: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

3) Panthothenic acid: Beri-Beri

4) Biotin: Dermatitis

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) 2 & 4 only

3. Which of the following statements regarding the Nutrient Based Subsidy policy are not true?

1) Under the NBS Policy, the Government announces a fixed rate of subsidy (in Rs. per Kg basis), on each nutrient of subsidized P&K fertilizers, namely Nitrogen (N), Phosphate (P) & Potash (K) only.

2) The difference between the delivered cost of fertilizers at farm gate and net market realization by the urea units is given as subsidy to the urea manufacturer / importer by the Government.

3) The amount of gross fertilizer subsidy paid in 2018-2019 has been lesser than that paid in 2017-2018, due to promotion of organic fertilizers.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Consider the following statements regarding prevalence of anemia in pregnant women & the remedial measures taken by government to prevent the condition:

1) According to National Family Health Survey (NFHS)–IV (2015-16), the prevalence of anemia among women aged 15 to 49 years is 73%.

2) Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) has been launched to focus on conducting special ANC check up on 9th of every month with the help of Medical officers to detect and treat cases of anemia.

3) Health management information system & Mother Child tracking system is being implemented for reporting and tracking the cases of anaemic and severely anaemic pregnant women.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Which of the following cities forms the headquarters of financial action task force (FATF) organisation?

a) Moscow

b) Geneva

c) New York

d) Paris

Answer:

1(a)

2(d)

3(c)

4(b)

5(d)

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UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 25

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 25

Q1. An MoU was signed between Dr.Ambedkar International Centre (DAIC), Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and Dalit Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industry (DICCI) to empower SC and ST Communities through research on Dalit Entrepreneurship

Which of the following statements regarding the same are true?

1) DICCI brings together all Dalit entrepreneurs under one umbrella and acts as a one-stop Resource Centre for existing and aspiring Dalit entrepreneurs and promotes entrepreneurship among Dalits as a solution to their socio-economic problems.

2) DAIC through this collaboration will try to find out how far the SC and ST communities have engaged themselves in starting and establishing their own businesses.

3) The data will be used to identify the reason why the spirit of entrepreneurship has not been infused among Dalit youth to develop business leadership for empowering them to walk in step with the world.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of Himalayan Rivers and their corresponding tributaries:

1) Ganga: Tamsa

2) Brahmaputra: Tons

3) Yamuna: Tawa

4) Ravi: Saho

5) Satluj: Baspa

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 2 & 4 only

c) all of the above

d) 1, 4& 5 only

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding vaccinations:

1) Vaccines protect billions of people around the world. They have completely got rid of one disease – smallpox – and are bringing the world close to eliminating others, such as polio.

2) But some other diseases, such as measles, are making a resurgence and experts say people avoiding vaccines, fuelled by fear and misinformation, is one of the main causes.

3) As per surveys people in richer countries have a higher trust in vaccines.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements:

1) LTE (Long Term Evolution) is a standard for 3G wireless broadband technology that offers increased network capacity and speed to mobile device users.

2) LTE offers higher peak data transfer rates of up to 100 Mbps downstream and 30 Mbps upstream. It also provides reduced latency, scalable bandwidth capacity and backward-compatibility with existing GSM and UMTS technology.

Which of the above statements are not true ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 & 2

d) None

5. “Asian development outlook” is a publication released by which of the following institutions?

a) World Bank

b) Asian development Bank (ADB)

c) Asian infrastructure and investment bank (AIIB)

d) BRICS Bank

Answer:

1 – (d)

2- (d)

3- (a)

4- (a)

5- (b)

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UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 24

1. Consider the following statements:

1) The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has plans to stop funding coal-fired power plants except in selected countries where the bank considers the alternatives to be limited.

2) The ADB’s new energy policy is being reviewed in line with the Paris Agreement and the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals, and will be released by the end of 2020.

3) India has achieved the fastest growth in the Asia-Pacific economies comprised of 45 countries, according to the Asian Development Bank (ADB).

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of missile defence systems and their corresponding nations:

1) Arrow missile system: Israel

2) PAAMS: UK

3) A-135 anti ballistic missile: U.S

4) AWACS: Russia

5) AAD (Advanced air defence): India

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 3, 4 & 5 only

c) 1, 2 & 5 only

d) 2, 4 & 5 only

3. The Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister today released a detailed note titled GDP estimation in India- Perspectives and Facts.

Which of the following statements regarding the same are true?

1) The new methodology that uses 2011-12 as the base year includes two major improvements, a) Incorporation of MCA21 database, and b) Incorporation of the Recommendations of System of National Accounts (SNA), 2008.

2) This change was in line with other countries that have changed their methodologies in line with SNA 2008 and revised their respective GDP figures.

3) As of today India’s GDP estimation methodology is at par with its global standing as a responsible, transparent and well-managed economy.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding data usage in smartphones India as per the ‘Ericsson Mobility Report’ are true?

1) India has the highest average data usage per smartphone, reaching 9.8 GB per month at the end of 2018, according to a new study.

2) Increased numbers of LTE subscriptions, attractive data plans being offered by service providers, and young people’s changing video viewing habits have driven monthly usage growth.

3) LTE would remain the most dominant access technology in the region up to 2024, even as 5G subscriptions are expected to grow during this period.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Guthis are socio-economic institutions (trusts), both public and private, that fund their obligations from incomes from cultivated or leased land assets. Depending on their obligations, Guthis fulfil religious, public service or social roles and could either involve members from a common lineage, or several

Large scale protest against the controversial “Guthi Bill” has being taking place in which of the following countries recently?

a) Srilanka

b) Myanmar

c) Nepal

d) Bangladesh

Answer:

1 – (a) 2 – (c) 3 – (d) 4 – (d) 5 – (c)

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UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 23

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 23

1. Which of the following adaptations is/are found in desert animals?

Long legs for avoiding excessive heat from sand
Nocturnal in habit
Aestivation during summer months

Select the correct answer code:

a) 2 only

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2

Solution: b

2. Which of the following Ramsar site is manmade?

a) Deepor Beel

b) Harike Wetland

c) Bhoj Wetland

d) Loktak Lake

Solution: c

3. Consider the following statements regarding Great Indian Bustard:

Great Indian Bustard is considered the flagship grassland species, representing the health of the grassland ecology.
It is one of the heaviest flying birds.
In India, Gujarat is home to a greater number of Great Indian Bustard.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 3

d) 2, 3

Solution: b

4. Consider the following statements regarding Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).

It is an International agreement between governments that is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
CITES is legally binding on state parties to the convention, which are obliged to adopt their own domestic legislation to implement its goals.
CITES was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted at a meeting of members of IUCN.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: d

5. Consider the following statements:

It is located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River.
It is the only stronghold of rhinoceros on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River.
It is also known as ‘Mini Kaziranga National Park’.

The above statements refer to.

a) Manas National Park

b) Nameri National Park

c) Orang National Park

d) Dibru-Saikhowa National Park

Solution: c

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UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 22

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 22

1. Consider the following statements regarding Buddhism:

Buddha laid great emphasis on the law of karma.
Buddha rejected the existence of god and emphasized on Ahimsa.
Buddhism was more a religious revolution than social revolution.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1 only

Solution: d

2. Consider the following statements regarding Buddhism:

The membership for Sangha was open to all persons without any caste restrictions.

Buddhism made rapid progress in North India only after the death of Buddha.

Asoka spread Buddhism into West Asia and Ceylon.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: b

3. Which of the following statements are correct regarding civil rebellions and tribal uprisings from 1757 to 1900?

These uprisings drew a large number of participants but were localised and isolated.
They mostly arose out of national grievances.
The leadership was semi-feudal in character, backward-looking and traditional in outlook.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 3

d) 2, 3

Solution: c

4. Kuka Revolt of Punjab is aimed at?

a) Achieve justice for the martyrs of Punjab in the 1857 Revolt

b) Freeing the Gurudwaras (Sikh temples) from the control of ignorant and corrupt Mahants

c) Making Sikh land independent from British control

d) Reforming the Sikh religion by removing all the abuses, superstitions and ill-practices

Solution: d

5. Who among the following suggested the winding up of the Indian National Congress after India attained independence?

a) C. Rajagopalachari

b) Acharya Kripalani

c) Mahatma Gandhi

d) Jayaprakash Narain

Solution: c

Mahatma Gandhi suggested the winding up of the Indian National Congress after India attained Independence.

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 21

1. Which of the following are the major Buddhist pilgrimage sites in India?

Mahabodhi temple.
Shravanabelagola
Nagapattinam
Sittannavasala Caves

Select the correct answer code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3, 4

d) 1, 3, 4

Solution: b

Sittannavasala Caves in Tamil Nadu and Shravanabelagola in Karnataka are Jain pilgrimage sites in India.

2. Which of the following are the features of Indo-Islamic architecture?

Indo-Islamic architecture used human and animal figures.
The architecture of this period heavily used the principles of Geometry.
An important feature of the architecture during this period was the use of water in the premises of the constructions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: c

3. Which of the following are the features of trabeate style of architecture?

Minars were present on the four corners of the mosques.
Stone was the primary component of all constructions.

Select the correct answer code:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Solution: b

4. Consider the following statements:

The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from Chandogya Upanishad
The Words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ were originally inscribed on the Lion Capital of Ashoka around 250 BCE.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Solution: d

5. With reference to the ‘Sugam Sangeet’, consider the following statements

It is the genre of devotional music, which brings classical and folk together.
Bhajan, Shabad and Qawwali are different forms of Sugam Sangeet.
Tevaram is sung in the praise of Lord Vishnu.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: b

Tevaram denotes the first seven volumes of the Tirumurai, the twelve-volume collection of Lord Shiva devotional poetry.

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Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 20

1. Union Cabinet has approved the Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill 2019 to replace Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Ordinance 2019.

Which of the following statements regarding the same are true?

1) This will enable UIDAI to have a more robust mechanism to serve the public interest and restrain the misuse of Aadhar.

2) After the amendment, all individuals will be compelled to provide proof of possession of Aadhaar number to undergo authentication for the purpose of establishing his identity.

3) For the convenience of the general public in the opening of bank accounts, the proposed amendments will allow the use of Aadhaar number for authentication on a voluntary basis as an acceptable KYC document.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of bilateral military exercises conducted by India with the corresponding nations:

1) Mitra Shakti: Srilanka

2) Al Nagah: Israel

3) Maitree: Bangladesh

4) Ajeya Warrior: United Kingdom

5) Surya Kiran : Nepal

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 1, 4 & 5 only

c) 2 & 4 only

d) all of the above

Q3. Consider the following statements:

1) The impact of Climate Change on farmers, especially small and marginal ones is high in any part of the country. If the affected areas are flood-prone and drought-prone, the impact is enormous.

2) National Institute of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj (NIRDPR) has launched a training programme of Sustainable Livelihoods and Adaptation to Climate Change (SLACC) to help Rural Poor Farm Holds adapt to Climate Change and sustain their livelihoods.

3) Total 638 drought and flood-prone villages all over India will be covered as pilot basis under this first of its kind initiative.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)’s indigenously developed Hypersonic Technology Demonstrator Vehicle (HSTDV) are true?

1) Through the HSTDV project the idea was to demonstrate the performance of a scram-jet engine at an altitude of 15 km to 20 km, is on.

2) It can be used for launching satellites at low cost. It will also be available for long-range cruise missiles of the future.

3) In scram-jet technology, combustion of fuel takes place in a chamber in the missile at hypersonic speeds whereas in a ramjet engine air is collected from the surrounding atmosphere during the flight at supersonic speeds.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. 19th Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Summit is all set to begin in Bishkek from today. Bishkek is the capital city of which of the following countries?

a) Kazakhstan

b) Kyrgyzstan

c) Uzbekistan

d) Turkmenistan

Answer:

1(c), 2(b), 3(a), 4(a), 5(b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 19

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 19

1. Consider the following statements regarding the newly introduced e-governance initiatives launched for the welfare of ST’s:

1) Ministry of Tribal Affairs has developed online portals namely DBT Tribal and NGO Grants Online Application & Tracking System for bringing in greater e-Governance in implementation of welfare schemes for STs.

2) In NGO portal, there are 2 main modules for Pre-Matric & Post-Matric Scholarship. Data sharing module is mainly meant for sharing beneficiary-data by States & in Communication module, the States have facility to upload documents, raise query for faster release of funds.

3) The DBT tribal portal, developed for implementing scheme of Aid to Voluntary Organizations working for the welfare of STs, has been fully revamped & redesigned with simplified Application form, Inspection Report and Fund Processing module.

Which of the above statements are not true ?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q2. Which of the following are classified as non communicable diseases?

1) Cancer

2) Osteoporosis

3) Chronic Lung disease

4) Diabetes

5) Alzheimer’s

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 3, 4 & 5 only

c) all of the above

d) None of the above

Q3. Which of the following statements regarding child labour legislation in India & abroad are true?

1) The government has enacted the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016 which came into force with effect from September 01, 2016. Now the employment of a Child below 14 years is completely prohibited in any occupation or processes.

2) The census 2011 shows an increase in Child Labour to 1.26 crore as compared to 1.01 crore in 2001.

3) The Theme of World Day against Child Labour for the year 2019 is ‘Children shouldn’t Work in Fields, but on Dreams’ which focuses on the importance of ending child labour and calls for evolving strategies to end child labour.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. The Cabinet Committee on Security headed by Prime Minister has cleared the setting up of the Defence Space Research Agency. Which of the following statements regarding the same are true?

1) The agency has been entrusted with the task of creating space warfare weapon systems and technologies.

2) The agency would be provided with a team of scientists which would be working in close coordination with the ISRO.

3) It would be providing the research and development support to the Defence Space Agency (DSA) which comprises members of the three services.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q5. External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar will flag off the first batch of yatris of Kailash Mansarovar Yatra from New Delhi. The route is possible only through which of the following passes in India?

a) Nathu la Pass

b) Diphu Pass

c) Khardung la Pass

d) Shipki la Pass

Answer:

1(b), 2(c), 3(c), 4(c), 5(a)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 18

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 18

1. India has called upon the G-20 countries to urgently fix the issue of taxing profits made by digital economy companies in countries where they do not have significant physical presence. Which of the following statements with respect to the above context are true?

1) The aim is to bring offshore companies with significant economic presence in India into the tax net to address the shortcomings in taxing the digital economy.

2) Offshore digital companies such as Facebook, Google and Netflix have little presence in India, taxing their profits is not possible.

3) This prompted the government to roll out equalization levy as a tax deducted at source on payments made to them by Indian firms with effect from April 2018.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q2. Which of the following countries constitutes the Nordic countries?

1) Iceland

2) Russia

3) Norway

4) Georgia

5) Denmark

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 3, 4 & 5 only

c) 1, 3 & 5 only

d) all of the above

Q3. Which of the following statements regarding the National cyclone risk mitigation project (NCRMP) are true?

1) The Government of India has initiated the National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project (NCRMP) with a view to address cyclone risks in the country.

2) The overall objective of the Project is to undertake suitable structural and non-structural measures to mitigate the effects of cyclones in the coastal states and UTs of India.

3) National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) under the aegis of Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) will implement the Project in coordination with participating State Governments and the National Institute for Disaster Management (NIDM).

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the ethical concepts of adoption of Artificial Intelligence:

1) AI has several positive applications, but the capability of AI systems to learn from experience and to perform autonomously for humans makes AI the most disruptive and self-transformative technology of the 21st century.

2) Given the importance of intention in India’s criminal law jurisprudence, it is essential to establish the legal personality of AI (which means AI will have a bundle of rights and obligations), and whether any sort of intention can be attributed to it.

3) Germany has come up with ethical rules for autonomous vehicles stipulating that human life should always have priority over property or animal life.

Which of the above statements stands true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q5. India is set to adopt the “Osaka summit declaration” in near future. The declaration pertains to which of the following?

a) To adopt the climate change resolutions put forwarded in Paris summit.

b) Deliberations on trade, investment and digital economy.

c) For the conservation of archaeological sites in the routes of swadesh Darshan scheme.

d) To promote artificial intelligence in the banking as well as insurance sectors.

Answer:

1(a), 2(c), 3(d), 4(d), 5(b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 17

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 17

1. Consider the following statements regarding the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI):

1) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) is the national professional accounting body of India. It was established as a statutory body under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 enacted by the Parliament.

2) It recommends the accounting standards to be followed by companies in India to National Advisory Committee on Accounting Standards (NACAS) and sets the accounting standards to be followed by other types of organisations.

3) It works closely with the Government of India, Reserve Bank of India and the Securities and Exchange Board of India in formulating and enforcing such standards.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following palaces/forts in India and their corresponding locations:

1) Victoria memorial: Mumbai

2) Neermahal Palace: Tripura

3) Fort.St.george: Kolkata

4) Kumbhalgarh Fort: Rajsamand

5) Lalgarh palace: Bikaner

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 2, 4 & 5 only

c) 1, 3 & 5 only

d) all of the above

3. Scientists have created high-resolution maps of points around the globe where groundwater meets the oceans, which of the following statements regarding the study are true?

1) The study found that in some parts of the world, groundwater could be polluting oceans and lakes with nutrients and other chemicals.

2) Groundwater can carry higher concentrations of nitrates a key contributor of the types of harmful algal blooms as well as high concentrations of mercury.

3) Most of the water that gets to lakes and oceans comes from ground water sources carrying minerals and, in some cases, pollutants, to surface bodies of water.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) All the of above

4. Which of the following statements regarding the recently published UNICEF report on child marriage are true?

1) The study reveals that child marriage among boys is prevalent across a range of countries around the world, spanning sub-Saharan Africa, Latin America and the Caribbean, South Asia, and East Asia and the Pacific.

2) According to the data, the India has the highest prevalence of child marriage among males (28%), followed by Nicaragua (19%) and Madagascar (13%).

3) Early marriage brings early fatherhood, and with it added pressure to provide for a family, cutting short education and job opportunities.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Which of the following countries of the Indian subcontinent recently passed a law legalizing homosexuality?

a) Srilanka

b) Nepal

c) Bhutan

d) Myanmar

Answer:

1(d), 2(b), 3(a), 4(c), 5(c)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 16

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 16

1. Consider the following statements regarding food safety:

1) An estimated 600 million cases of foodborne diseases occur annually worldwide.

2) Unsafe food is a threat to human health and economies, disproportionately affecting vulnerable and marginalized people, especially women and children, populations affected by conflict and migrants.

3) World Food Safety Day adopted by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations is aimed at imposing non tariff barriers to protect local foods/agri products.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Consider the following pairs of space missions and their respective countries/space agencies:

1) Sputnik -1: Russia

2) Long March -1: China

3) Giotto: European space agency

4) Explorer 1: Japan

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 4 only

c) 2 & 3 only

d) 1 & 4 only

3. Which of the following statements air quality and BS emission standards are true?

1) India is among those nine countries where the forest cover has increased by one percent.

2) Vehicular pollution which is 28 to 30 per cent of air pollution is expected to be reduced drastically after implementation of Bharat Stage (BS)-6 emission norms from next year.

3) However in 2014 in the National Capital the number of poor air quality days was 300 and it increased to 326 days in 2018.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding RBI’s regulation of leverage ratio in the banking sector stands true?

1) The leverage ratio was introduced for banks post the financial crisis of 2008, as one of the underlying features of the crisis was the build-up of excessive on- and off-balance sheet leverage in the banking system.

2) The central bank has mandated leverage ratio of 3.5% for all the banks except for the domestic systemically important banks (D-SIBs), which will have a 4% ratio.

3) The Reserve Bank of India’s decision to bring leverage ratio for banks is in line with Basel-III standards.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Which of the following countries recently organised the “Gandhi cycle rally for peace” to mark the 150th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi?

a) India

b) China

c) Saudi Arabia

d) Australia

Answer:

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 15

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 15

1. Consider the following statements regarding air pollution:

1) While poor air quality days which was 246 in the year 2014 have now come down below 200, the number of moderate to good air quality days have increased from just 108 in 2016 to 159 in 2018.

2) To combat air pollution, Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change has launched the National Clean Air programme (NCAP) which is a mid-term 5 Year Action Plan with targets of 20-30% reduction of PM 2.5 and PM 10 concentration in 102 cities.

3) It has been decided that each Panchayat will tie up with a leading academic institution in the State that would act as the technical partner at the State level for the programme.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Which of the following Indian cities lies in the tropic of cancer?

1) Jaipur

2) Ahmedabad

3) Kolkata

4) Shillong

5) Agartala

a)1,2& 3 only

b) 1, 3 & 5 only

c) 2 & 4 only

d) all of the above

3. With respect to the newly signed tax information exchange agreement (TIEA) between India and Marshall islands, which of the following statements are true?

1) The Agreement enables exchange of information, including banking and ownership information, between the two countries for tax purposes.

2) It is based on international standards of tax transparency and exchange of information and enables sharing of information on request.

3) The Agreement also provides for representatives of one country to undertake tax examinations in the other country.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding the newly introduced Swachh Survekshan 2020(SS 2020) league initiative by ministry of housing & urban affairs are true?

1) SS League 2020 has been introduced with the objective of sustaining the on ground performance of cities along with continuous monitoring of service level performance when it comes to cleanliness.

2) The performance of cities in SS League 2020 will be crucial to their ranking in SwachhSurvekshan 2020 due to the 25% weightage of the quarterly assessments to be included in the annual survey in January 2020.

3) While SS 2016 had seen Indore emerge as the cleanest city in India, Bengaluru has retained the title of the Cleanest City in the last three years.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Sudan has been suspended from the African Union (AU) amid growing fears that splits among the ruling military regime could lead to civil war and anarchy.

Which of the following places forms the headquarters of the African union?

a) Johannesburg, South Africa

b) Nairobi, Kenya

c) AdisAbaba, Ethiopia

d) Mogadishu, Somalia

Answer

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 14

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 14

1. Consider the following statements with respect to the micro finance sector in India?

1) The Indian microfinance sector is expected to register a more than 30% year-on-year growth to Rs. 90,000 crore in 2018-19.

2) Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), cooperative societies and other large lenders have played an important role in providing refinance facility to MFIs.

3) The RBI formed Malegam committee aimed to address the primary customer complaints that led to the crisis, including coercive collection practices, usurious interest rates, and selling practices that resulted in over-indebtedness.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q2. Consider the following pairs of mineral resources in India and their corresponding locations:

1) Uranium, Mica: Karnataka

2) Limestone, Mica: Rajasthan

3) Bauxite, Manganese: Andhra Pradesh

4) Chromite, coal : Tamilnadu

5) Iron ore and clay: Goa

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2& 3 only

b) 1, 3 & 5 only

c) 2 & 5 only

d) 1 & 4 only

Q3. With respect to the recently released gender equality index report, which of the following statements are true ?

1) The index, covering 14 of the 17 SDGs, measures countries on 51 issues ranging from health, gender-based violence, climate change, decent work and others.

2) The overall index score and individual goal scores are based on a scale of 0-100. A score of zero reflects the achievement of gender equality in relation to the targets set for each indicator.

3) India ranks 95 out of 129 countries, below countries such as Ghana, Rwanda and Bhutan in the new gender equality index.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM):

1) GDM is defined as glucose intolerance with onset or first recognition during pregnancy, GDM simply represents relatively high glucose levels at one point in the life of a young woman.

2) Higher glucose transfer to the foetus, when the mother has high blood sugar, stimulates the foetal pancreatic cells to start secreting insulin earlier and in higher quantities.

3) It has become imperative that every pregnant woman be screened for high blood glucose even if no symptoms are exhibited in order to avoid GDM.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q5. Which of the following countries have launched the first arctic train named Zarengold which will travel from Saint Petersburg through Petrozavodsk, the historic town of Kem and Murmansk?

a) Germany

b) Russia

c) Norway

d) Denmark

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 13

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 13

1. Consider the following statements regarding the newly released RBI report on “Benchmarking of India’s Payment Systems” :

1) While there has been robust growth in the volume of retail electronic transactions amid a strong regulatory framework, the country needs to enhance its payments acceptance infrastructure.

2) In 2018-19, the volume growth of retail electronic transactions was 95%, compared to 51% in the previous year, mainly due to to the steep growth in the use of the Unified Payments Interface (UPI).

3) The report also said that the level of credit card penetration in India was low when compared to advanced countries, where it was a preferred option for making payments.

Which of the following statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Which of the following Indian states are the major sugarcane producing states of India?

1) Andhra Pradesh

2) Assam

3) Tamilnadu

4) Gujarat

5) Maharashtra

a) 1,2& 3 only

b) 3,4 & 5 only

c) 1,4 & 5 only

d) all of the above

Q3. Which of the following statements regarding global food safety are true?

1) Food safety is an increasing threat to human health. Children under 5 years of age carry 40% of the food-borne disease burden with 1, 25,000 deaths every year

2) Access to sufficient amounts of safe and nutritious food is key to sustaining life and promoting good health. Food-borne diseases impede socio-economic development by straining health care systems and harming national economies, tourism and trade.

3) The first-ever World Food Safety Day was adopted by the World Health Assembly in 2019.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 &3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements regarding Nipah virus are true?

1) Nipah virus, which causes encephalitis and pneumonia, is lethal in about 70% of cases and can be caught from animals or transmitted between people.

2) The only current treatment for Nipah virus infection is a monoclonal antibody that is still experimental; it was tested during an outbreak in India last year.

3) However since Ebola and Nipah virus belongs to the same family the vaccine used for Ebola can be used successfully to counter Nipah.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. The “Global Economic Prospects “have been released by which of the following international institutions?

a) World economic forum

b) World Bank

c) World trade Organisation

d) UN General Assembly

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 12

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 12

1. Consider the following statements regarding copyright law in India:

1) Indian copyright law is at parity with the international standards as contained in TRIPS. The (Indian) Copyright Act, 1957 fully reflects the Berne Convention for Protection of Literary and Artistic Works.

2) In India, the registration of copyright is not mandatory as the registration is treated as mere recordal of a fact.

3) The registration does not create or confer any new right and is not a prerequisite for initiating action against infringement.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q2. Which of the following phenomenons are examples of convergent plate boundaries?

1) Subduction of the Nazca Plate beneath the South American Plate

2) Formation of the Aravallis.

3) Collision between the Australian Plate and the Pacific Plate.

4) Formation of New Zealand.

5) Collision between Eurasian plate and African plate

a) 1, 2 & 3 only

b) 1, 3 & 4 only

c) 1, 3 & 5 only

d) 2 & 4 only

Q3. Which of the following statements regarding NSSO (National sample survey office) are true?

1) The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) is responsible for conduct of large scale sample surveys in diverse fields on All India basis under the ministry of HRD.

2) Besides these surveys, NSSO collects data on rural and urban prices and plays a significant role in the improvement of crop statistics through supervision of the area enumeration and crop estimation surveys of the State agencies.

3) It also maintains a frame of urban area units for use in sample surveys in urban areas.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements with respect to section 376E of IPC frequently seen in news:

1) Section 376E of IPC was included in the criminal law act as per recommendation by justice Verma committee which was constituted to enable quicker trials and harsher punishment for those accused of sexual assault.

2) As per the act, habitual offenders are punished with death penalty only if they have been convicted subsequently for section 376A.

3) The section 376E is a cognisable as well as non bailable offence under IPC.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q5. The recently launched initiative “Udchalo” serves which of the following purposes?

a) It was started by union aviation ministry to provide concession to senior citizens for using air travel.

b) It is a travel portal that caters for the personal travel of the military and paramilitary forces personnel by aggregating defence fares and getting exclusive discounts.

c) It is an online platform for bidding of air routes for both domestic as well as foreign players.

d) It is an initiative by HRD ministry to encourage pilot training amongst women army officers

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 11

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 11

1. Which of the following statements regarding article 370 of Indian constitution are correct?

1) Article 370 in the part XXI of the constitution of India provides a special status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir and other tribal states of India.

2) Laws on Union and concurrent list will be made by centre only with the consent of state of J&K.

3) Dr BR Ambedkar who was the chairman of the drafting committee of the constitution assembly was against the incorporation of article 370 in the constitution.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

2. Which of the following are used as gene editing tools in biotechnology?

1) CRISPR-Cas9

2) TALENs

3) transposons

4) rAAV

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) all of the above

d) 2 & 4 only

3. Which of the following statements regarding the newly approved Agriculture Export Policy are true?

1) It is aimed at increasing India’s exports to $100 billion by 2032 from the current $37 billion.

2) The policy also aims to promote the export of novel, indigenous, organic, ethnic, traditional and non-traditional products.

3) The Mission target the establishment of 15 Technology Innovation Hubs (TIH), six Application Innovation Hubs (AIH) and four Technology Translation Research Parks (TTRP) also.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

4. Consider the following statements:

1) Rice blast, caused by a fungus Magnaportheoryzae, is one of the major diseases of the rice crop.

2) Fungicides are very expensive, harmful for the environment and inappropriate application can cause health issues.

3) The rapid changes in pathogen virulence pose a constant challenge to the success of existing blast-resistant rice varieties.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

5. Which of the following African countries recently banned the importation, production, sale and use of plastic bags in its territory?

a) Zimbabwe

b) Tanzania

c) Nigeria

d) Zambia

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 10

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 10

1. Consider the following statements with respect to the current economic prospects:

1) India’s GDP grew at 5.8% in the January-March 2019 quarter, dragging down the full year growth to a five-year low of 6.8%.

2) The slowdown in the economy was led by sluggish growth in construction, financial, real estate and professional services, and electricity, gas, water supply and other utility services.

3) The unemployment rate in the country rose to a 45-year high of 6.1% in 2017-18, as per official data.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q2. Which of the following art/cultural forms are included in the UNESCO’s List of Intangible Cultural Heritage list from India?

1) Ramleela

2) Ashokan edicts

3) Ajanta caves

4) Kalbelia dance

5) Kumbh mela

a) 1,2 & 3 only

b) 1,4 & 5 only

c) 3,4 & 5 only

d) all of the above

Q3. India will lose access to preferential trade terms with the U.S. under the latter’s Generalised System of Preferences (GSP) programme soon.

Which of the following statements regarding the same are true?

1) The Generalized System of Preference (GSP) is the largest and oldest US trade preference programme and is designed to promote economic development by allowing duty-free entry for thousands of products from designated beneficiary countries.

2) The GSP given by developed countries including the US is a violation of most favoured nation (MFN) status as per WTO norms.

3) India was the largest beneficiary of the program in 2017-2018.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q4. Which of the following statements regarding the newly submitted draft education policy stands true?

1) The policy draft recommends incorporation of Indian knowledge systems in the curriculum, constituting a National Education Commission and curbing arbitrary fees hikes by private schools.

2) The expert panel also proposed massive transformation in Teacher Education by moving all teacher preparation and education programmes into large multidisciplinary universities or colleges.

3) The existing NEP was framed in 1986 and revised in 2005, and the draft panel is headed by Dr.MS Swaminathan.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) all of the above

Q5. Which one of the following countries was not amongst those elected as the non permanent members of UN Security Council recently?

a) Indonesia

b) Brazil

c) Germany

d) Belgium

Answer:

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b)

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 9

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 9

1. Consider the following statements regarding Generalized System of Preferences:

It is designed to promote economic development by allowing duty free entry for thousands of products from 120 designated beneficiary countries/territories.
In 2018, around $ 6.3 billion of Indian merchandise exports to the U.S. were covered by GSP.
Recently, U.S. President issued a proclamation ending the trade benefits to India effective June 5, 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Consider the following statements regarding Directorate of Enforcement (ED):

It is a multi-disciplinary organization mandated with the task of enforcing the provisions of two special fiscal laws – Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) and Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA).
The origin of this Directorate goes back to 1st May, 1956, when an ‘Enforcement Unit’ was formed, in Department of Economic Affairs.
At present, ED works under administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 only

3. Consider the following statements regarding Kartarpur corridor:

The corridor will link Dera Baba Nanak shrine in Gurdaspur in Punjab in India with Gurdwara Darbar Sahib at Kartarpur in Pakistan.
The Kartarpur Gurdwara is located in Pakistan’s Narowal district across the Jhelum River.
The corridor will be thrown open to pilgrims in November, 2019 to mark the 550th birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

4. Consider the following statements regarding National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT):

National Company Law Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body in India that adjudicates issues relating to Indian companies.
Decisions of the tribunal may be appealed to the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal, the decisions of which may further be appealed to the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Prestigious 2019 Scripps National Spelling Bee is held in which of the following?

(a) United Kingdom

(b) United States

(d) Germany

Solution: 1-d, 2- b, 3- c, 4- c, 5- b

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 8

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 8

1. Consider the following statements about Directive Principles:

They have been derived from the Irish Constitution.
Similar instructions to the State also existed in Government of India Act, 1935
The explicit provision to minimise inequalities was not there in the original Constitution.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3

2. Consider the following statements regarding Committee on Public Accounts:

It is constituted each year for examination of accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by Parliament for expenditure of Government of India.
The Committee consists of 22 members comprising 15 members elected by Lok Sabha and 7 members elected by Rajya Sabha.
A Minister is not eligible to be elected as a member of the Committee.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1 only

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

3. Which of the following are true about qualifications for a Supreme Court Judge?

A naturalised citizen is eligible.
Should be of age more than 35 years.
Should have been a judge of High Court for 10 years.

Select the correct answer code

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 3

4. Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills. It states that a bill is deemed to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with?

The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government.
The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

5. Consider the following statements regarding Delimitation of Constituencies.

In the delimitation process, the number of seats allocated to different states in Lok Sabha and the total number seats in a Legislative Assembly remains the same.
The Delimitation Commission in India is a high-power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be called in question before any court.
The first delimitation exercise in 1950-51 was carried out by the President with the help of the Election Commission.

Which of the above statements is/are?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 3 only

d) 2, 3

Solution: 1-d, 2-d, 3- a, 4- d, 5- a

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 7

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 7

1. With reference to the Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD), consider the following statements:

The western Indian Ocean becomes alternately warmer and then colder than the eastern part of the ocean
A study has found that IOD results drought in the southern half of Australia

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Consider the following statements:

River Narmada runs through only three states
Kaveri River’s basin covers three states and a Union Territory

Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Which of the following ports is/are NOT located in the Bay of Bengal?

Mongla
Paradip
Mundra
Tuticorin
Chittagong

Select correct answer using codes below:

a) 1 and 3 Only

b) 1 Only

c) 3 Only

d) 1, 3 and 4 Only

4. With reference to the Brahmani River, consider the following statements:

The Brahmani is a major seasonal river in Telangana
Together with the rivers Mahanadi and Baitarani, it forms a large delta before emptying into the Bay of Bengal at Dhamra.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. With reference to the Chabahar Port, consider the following statements:

It is located on the Gulf of Oman
It is operated by India Ports Global Private Limited (IPGPL) along with its Iranian partner

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

Solution: 1-c, 2-c, 3-c, 4-b, 5-c

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 6

1. Consider the following statements regarding Soil Degradation.

Soil degradation occurs when the nutritional status declines and depth of the soil goes down due to erosion and misuse.
Once the soil forming processes is complete, the erosional processes start and both does not go simultaneously.
Wind Erosion takes place mainly in the form of sheet and gully erosion.

Which of the above statements is/are ?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: a

2. Consider the following statements regarding Soil Erosion:

Sheet erosion takes place on level lands after a heavy shower and is harmful since it removes the finer and more fertile top soil.
Gully erosion is common on steep slopes which lead to level lands fit for cultivation.

Which of the above statements is/are?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Solution: a

3. the most prominent feature in the oceans, forming an almost continuous mountain range, is the?

a) Seamount

b) Deep ocean trench

c) Abyssal plain

d) Mid-ocean ridge

Solution: d

4. The California Ocean current, which flows along the west coast of North America, is a?

a) Cold current, flowing north

b) Cold current, flowing south

c) Warm current, flowing south

d) Warm current, flowing north

Solution: b

The California Current is a Pacific Ocean current that moves southward along the western coast of North America, beginning off southern British Columbia and ending off southern Baja California Peninsula.
It is considered an Eastern boundary current due to the influence of the North American coastline on its course.
It is also one of five major coastal currents affiliated with strong upwelling zones, the others being the Humboldt Current, the Canary Current, the Benguela Current, and the Somali Current.
The California Current is part of the North Pacific Gyre, a large swirling current that occupies the northern basin of the Pacific.

5. Through which of the groups of countries does the Tropic of Cancer Passes?

a) India, Pakistan, Oman and Saudi Arabia

b) India, Pakistan, Iran and Iraq

c) India, Oman, UAE and Saudi Arabia

d) India, Oman, Yemen and Iran

Solution: c

Must Read Books for UPSC Civil Services Examination

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020 Complete Study Material GS Paper-1

UPSC IAS Mains General Studies Paper 1,2,3,4 Book PDF Download

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 5

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 5

1. Consider the following statements regarding Imported Inflation.

When the general price level rises in a country because of the rise in prices of imported commodities, inflation is termed as imported.
The weakening of the domestic currency may lead to imported inflation in the country.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Solution: c

2. Consider the following statements regarding Basel III:

Basel III is a global, voluntary regulatory framework on bank capital adequacy.
It was developed in response to the deficiencies in financial regulation revealed by the financial crisis of 2007–08.
It is intended to increase bank liquidity and bank leverage.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: a

3. Participatory Notes commonly known as P-Notes are one of the instruments of foreign investment. In this context, consider the following statements:

These are financial instruments used by overseas investors that are not registered with the SEBI to invest in Indian securities.
The investors enjoy the voting rights in relation to shares invested through the P – Notes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Solution: a

4. Consider the following statements about Regional Rural Banks (RRBs):

Regional Rural Banks were set up on the basis of the recommendations of Vijay Kelkar committee.
The larger shareholder of regional rural banks is the Central Government.
RRBs are under the ambit of priority sector lending on par with the commercial banks.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: b

5. With reference to World Trade Organization (WTO) affairs, which of the following best describes Special Safeguard Mechanism (SSM)?

a) Mechanism provided for the developed countries to raise tariffs to deal with cheap goods from the developing nations.

b) Mechanism to restrict the imports of disease infected agricultural products from other countries.

c) Mechanism to curb the imports of goods whose manufacturing process has violated International labour norms

d) A tool that will allow developing countries to raise tariffs temporarily to deal with import surges or price falls.

Solution: d

It is a tool that will allow developing countries to raise tariffs temporarily to deal with import surges or price falls.

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 4

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 4

1. With reference to Samkhya philosophy, consider the following statements:

Samkhya adopts a consistent dualism of matter (Prakriti) and the eternal spirit (Purusha)
Unlike many Western counterparts Samkhya is atheistic

Which of the above statements is/correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

2. With reference to Tirumurai, consider the following statements:

It is predominantly secular in nature
These are compendium of songs or hymns in praise of Vishnu

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

3. With reference to Sangam literature, consider the following statements:

Sangam literature deals with emotional and material topics such as love, war, governance, trade and bereavement
The greatest Tamil scholar, Thiruvalluvar, lived during the Sangam age

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

4. With reference to Tantra, consider the following statements:

Icons, puja and temple building were introduced into Hinduism by Tantra
In Buddhism, the Theravada tradition is known for its extensive tantra ideas and practices

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

5. With reference to the Gomateshwara Statue, consider the following statements:

It is dedicated to the Jain god Bahubali
It was constructed by Hoysala ruler Chavundaraya

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 3

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 3

1. With reference to the Vedic period, consider the following statements:

The end of the Vedic period witnessed the rise of Mahajanapada
The Vedic period preceded the Indus Valley Civilisation
Early Vedic culture was tribal and pastoral

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) All are correct

Solution: b

2. With reference to the Painted Grey Ware culture (PGW), consider the following statements:

It is a Bronze Age culture of the western Gangetic plain and the Ghaggar-Hakra valley
It is associated with the rise of the great Mahajanapada states and of the Magadha Empire.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

3. The Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) was a?

a) Iron-age civilisation

b) Bronze-age civilisation

c) Copper-age civilisation

d) None of the above

Solution: b

4. Ganweriwala is spread over 80 hectares and comparable in size with the largest sites of the Indus Valley Civilization, such as Mohenjo-daro. It is located in

a) India

b) Afghanistan

c) Pakistan

d) Iran

Solution: c

5. Sramana movement is mainly associated with which of the following?

a) Jainism

b) Buddhism

c) Ajivikas

d) All of the above

Solution: d

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 2

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 2

1. Paryushana is the most important annual holy events for which of the following?

a) Buddhists

b) Jains

c) Hindus

d) Parsis

Solution: b

2. Jain ethical code prescribes five fundamental vows. Which of the following is/are not one of them?

Ahimsa
Satya
Aparigraha
Brahmacharya

Select the correct answer using codes below:

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 3 Only

c) 4 Only

d) None of the above

Solution: d

3. With reference to Ajivikas (Ajivakas), consider the following statements:

The most important sects to arise at the time of the Buddha were the Ajivikas
They emphasized the rule of fate (niyati)

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

4. The oldest and smallest of the three sections of the Buddhist canonical Tipitaka (“Triple Basket”) and the one that regulates monastic life and the daily affairs of monks and nuns according to rules attributed to the Buddha is?

a) Vinaya Pitaka

b) Abhidhamma Pitaka

c) Sutta Pitaka

d) All of the above

Solution: a

5. The Samayasara and the Pravacanasara are considered the bible of

a) Shwetambaras

b) Digambara

c) Ajivaka

d) Charvaka

Solution: b

UPSC Prelims 2020: Daily Practice Test – 1

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2020: Practice Test – 1

1. Consider the following statements:

Brahmanism emphasizes on the rites performed by, and the status of priestly class
Brahmanism emerged from Vedanta principles

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

2. Pratyakṣa (perception), Anumāna (inference) and śabda (Āptavacana, word/testimony of reliable sources) are accepted as the only reliable means of gaining knowledge in which of the following schools of the Hindu philosophy?

a) Yoga

b) Samkhya

c) Nyaya

d) Both b and c

Solution: d

3. which of the following schools of thought maintained that though events (dharmas) have only momentary existence, there is a transmigrating substratum of consciousness that contains within it seeds of goodness that are in every person?

a) Sautrantika

b) Sammitiya

c) Vaisheshika

d) None of the above

Solution: a

4. The major form of Buddhism practised in Tibet, China, Korea, and Japan is

a) Theravada

b) Vajrayana

c) Mahayana

d) Hinayana

Solution: c

5. With reference to Avalokitesvara, consider the following statements:

Avalokitesvara is a divine and compassionate depiction of Jina in certain parts of coastal Karnataka
Avalokitesvara is the earthly manifestation of the self-born eternal Amitabha (another name for Bahubali)

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d