Clear UPSC IAS Prelims 2021 through 10000 Expected MCQs: Practice Solved Test 25

Clear UPSC IAS Prelims 2021 through 10000 MCQs: Most Probable Prelims Questions – New PDF Compilations of Important MCQs Also Available for Download. These questions will be highly useful for aspirants preparing as it covers both static and current topics. Clear UPSC IAS Prelims 2021 through 10000 Expected MCQs: Practice Solved Test 25.

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1. Consider the following statements:

  1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
  2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehavior’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
  3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
  4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 (a) 1 and 2

 (b) 3 only

 (c) 3 and 4 only

 (d) 1, 3 and 4

2. Consider the following statements about ‘National Company Law Appellate Tribunal’:

  1. It is an autonomous constitutional authority.
  2. NCLAT is the Appellate Tribunal to hear and dispose of appeals against any order passed by the Competition Commission of India (CCI).

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

 (a) 1 only

 (b) 2 only

 (c) Both 1 and 2

 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Consider the following statements about the ‘International Financial Services Centres Authority’:

  1. It is a statutory body established in 2020.
  2. It works under the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

 (a) 1 only

 (b) 2 only

 (c) Both1 and 2

 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. Consider the following statements:

  1. The ‘Ghar Tak Fibre’ scheme is launched by the Central government for digital transformation of villages.
  2. All services under the ‘Ghar Tak Fibre’ scheme will be provided by Common Service Centres (CSCs) in villages under the Make in India initiative.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

 (a) 1 only

 (b) 2 only

 (c) Both 1 and 2

 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Which of the following is/are the main factors that cause rural air pollution?

  1. Wildfire Smoke
  2. Pollen
  3. Dust Storms
  4. Residential burning of wood

Select the correct answer using the code below:

 (a) 1, 2 and 4

 (b) 2, 3 and 4

 (c) 1, 2 and 3

 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

6. Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Grand ICT Challenge’:

  1. It was launched by National Jal Jeevan Mission in partnership with Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY).
  2. The mission focuses on service delivery rather than mere creation of infrastructure.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

 (a) 1 only

 (b) 2 only

 (c) Both 1 and 2

 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. With reference to ‘Bharatmala Pariyojana’, consider the following statements:

  1. Bharatmala Project is the largest highways construction project in the country.
  2. All projects implemented under Bharatmala are to be technically, financially, and economically appraised by the Public Account Committee (PAC) of Parliament.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

 (a) 1 only

 (b) 2 only

 (c) Both 1 and 2

 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Consider the following statements about ‘Asafoetida, or heeng’:

  1. It thrives in dry and cold desert conditions.
  2. It is not cultivated in India.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

 (a) 1 only

 (b) 2 only

 (c) Both 1 and 2

 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. Fiji is an island country, located in the:

 (a) North Pacific Ocean

 (b) South Pacific Ocean

 (c) South Atlantic Ocean

 (d) North Atlantic Ocean

10. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Lushai are a mountain range in Nagaland.
  2. Mizoram borders with Manipur, Assam and Tripura.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

 (a) 1 only

 (b) 2 only

 (c) Both 1 and 2

 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q11. With reference to scope of writs of prohibition and certiorari, consider the following statements:

1. Writ of prohibition is available only against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities.

2. Writ of certiorari is available only against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities.

3. Prohibition is available during the pendency of the proceeding while certiorari can be issued only after the order has been made.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q12. With reference to powers of High Court andSupreme Court to issue writs, consider the following statements:

1. Writ jurisdiction of the Supreme court is wider than that of the High Court.

2. Both High Court and Supreme Court can issue writs for the purpose of enforcement of the Fundamental Rights.

3. As per the Supreme Court, to approach it directly under Article 32, it has to be shown as to why High Court had not been approached.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q13. With reference to the office of the President, consider the following statements:

1. The President holds office for a term of six years from the date on which he enters upon his office.

2. Constitution does not state any ground for the impeachment of the President.

3. The impeachment resolution needs to be passed by a majority of two-thirds of the members present and voting in both houses.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) None of the above

Q14. Arrange the following members in the decreasing order in the State Legislative

Councils:

1. Members elected by members of local bodies.

2. Members elected by graduates of three years standing and residing within the state.

3. Members nominated by the governor

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 3 – 2 –1

(b) 1– 3– 2

(c) 3 – 1– 2

(d) 2– 1– 3

Q15. With reference to immunities provided to the President, consider the following statements:

1. The President enjoys personal immunity from the legal liability for his official acts.

2. During his term of office, he is immune from civil proceedings, in respect of his personal acts.

3. Criminal proceedings can be instituted against him during his term of office in respect of his personal acts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 3 only

Q16. With reference to preventive detention, consider the following statements:

1. Constitution provides that the detenu should be afforded an opportunity to make a representation against the detention order at the earliest opportunity.

2. The detention of a person cannot exceed six months unless the arresting authority finds a sufficient cause for extended detention.

3. State and central governments share legislative power with regard to preventive detention.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q17. With reference to legislative relations between the centre and the states, consider the following statements:

1. In case of a conflict between a central and a state law on a subject in the concurrent list, the central law always prevails.

2. The power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects lies with states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q18. With reference to the qualifications required for appointment of a person as a District Judge, consider the following statements:

1. He should have been an advocate or a pleader for seven years.

2. He should be recommended by the High court for appointment.

3. He should already be in the service of the Central or the State government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q19. With reference to national emergency, consider the following statements:

1. The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.

2. The resolution disapproving the continuation of emergency must be passed by both the houses of the parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q20. With reference to Parliamentary Proceedings, consider the following statements:

1. A starred question requires a written answer and cannot be followed by supplementary questions.

2. An unstarred question requires an oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow.

3. Short Notice Questions needs oral answer at the notice of less than 10 days.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q21. With reference to soil organic matter, consider the following statements:

1. Bacteria constitute the highest biomass of soil organisms.

2. Mycorrhizal fungi colonize plant roots through a symbiotic relationship.

3. Free-living nematodes control the populations of harmful microorganisms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q22. With reference to crop residue management, consider the following statements:

1. Crop residue increases infiltration and soil moisture content.

2. It helps in carbon sequestration.

3. One of its drawback is accelerated erosion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q23. Which of the following is correct about Trichoderma Viride (T.V.)?

1. It is a fungus which is used as a bio fungicide.

2. It helps in increasing the plant’s ability to resist drought.

3. It is used extensively for soil born diseases.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q24. Consider the following pairs:

Mangroves                 State

1. Coringa —              Andhra Pradesh

2. Dumas Ubharat — Gujarat

3. Subarnarekha — Telangana

4. Pichavaram —        Kerala

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Q25. With reference to Lepidoptera, consider the following statements:

1. This is a type of moss commonly found in Himalayan region.

2. Lepidoptera are known as potent ecological indicators.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q26. The suitability of the various irrigation methods, i.e. surface, sprinkler or drip irrigation, depends mainly on which of the following factors?

1. Soil type

2. Topographic features

3. Climatic conditions

4. Water quality

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q27. Which of the following improve/s Carbon (C) in soil?

1. Afforestation

2. Wetlands

3. Biochar

4. Carbon capture and storage

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Q28. With reference to Carb Fix project, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is launched by EU in order to curb carbon emission.

2. It is world’s first negative emissions carbon-capture plant.

3. In this method, CO2 is dissolved with water and the mixture is pumped into rock.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q29. Tecomella undulata is a tree species, locally known as Rohida. In which part of India you will find this tree?

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Karnataka

(c) Odisha

(d) West Bengal

Q30. With reference to the hope spots, consider the following statements:

1. These are areas of an ocean that needs special protection because of its wildlife and underwater habitats.

2. These regions are identified by World Wild Fund for Nature.

3. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are the hope spots from India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q31. Which of the following is/are the nonbiodegradable pollutants?

1. Lead

2. Copper

3. Zinc

4. Ammonia

5. Cadmium

6. Chromium

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 4 and 6 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only

Q32. With reference to Green House Gases (GHGs), consider the following statements:

1. Greenhouse Gases Observing Satellite has been launched by JAXA.

2. The Global Warming Potential for methane includes indirect effects of tropospheric ozone production and stratospheric water vapour production.

3. Water vapour and ozone are primary greenhouse gases in the Earth’s atmosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q33. With reference to wetlands in India, consider the following statements:

1. Bhoj Wetland is an all natural wetland.

2. Renuka Wetland is area wise smallest wetland of India.

3. Vembanad Kol Wetland is largest freshwater lake of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Q34. With reference to Bamboo, consider the following statements:

1. In Kashmir region Bamboo does not grow naturally.

2. It is good soil binder and plays an important role in soil and water conservation.

3. It is the fastest growing canopy, releasing 75 per cent more oxygen than trees.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q35. With reference to recently proposed Green Wall project, consider the following statements:

1. It has been proposed along the lines of the Great Green Wall Initiative of China.

2. The green belt will help in restoring degraded land along the Aravali hill range.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q36. With reference to Seemai tree recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. The seemai karuvelam tree sucks a good quantity of water.

2. It is an invasive species.

3. This tree is restricted to areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q37. Recently, Ecologist Dhrubajyoti Ghosh, a UN Global 500 laureate and the first Indian recipient of the prestigious Luc Hoffmann award, passed away. He is credited with the discovery of the uniqueness of East Kolkata Wetlands. Which of the following is the subject of this uniqueness?

(a) Largest most recent formed wetland of India.

(b) Broadest continental shelf area of all Indian wetlands.

(c) Deposits of conglomerates of high economic value are present here.

(d) Organic sewage management system in this wetland.

Q38. With reference to Heritage Heroes Award, consider the following statements:

1. It is given by United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO).

2. Bibhuti Lahkar has become the first Asian to be awarded the prestigious Heritage Heroes Award.

3. It recognise the outstanding efforts of people in the field of conservation of natural World Heritage sites.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q39. With reference to PachaChedi (Neurocalyxcalycinus) plant recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It has anti inflamatory properties.

2. It is endemic to Karnataka.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q40. The Living Planet Report is published by which of the following?

(a) World Wide Fund for Nature

(b) World Bank

(c) IUCN

(d) UNESCO

Q41. With reference to Electoral Bonds, consider the following statements.

1. These can be bought by the companies and not individuals.

2. These can be used to donate money to any political Party in India.

3. These remain in the custody of the Election Commission until they are redeemed by the concerned political party.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q42. With reference to Vaigai Valley Civilisation, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. This civilisation was found during the excavations at site Keeladi in Tamil nadu.

2. It has been described by Tamil poets belonging to the Sangam period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q43. The Global Innovation Index is published by which of the following organisation?

(a) World Intellectual Property Organisation

(b) World Bank

(c) International Monetary Fund

(d) World Economic Forum

Q44. Which of the following is/are Snow Leopard range countries that have signed the Bishkek declaration for conservation of Snow leopards?

1. India

2. China

3. Mongolia

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q45. With reference to Ease of Doing Business, in which of the following areas India has shown progress?

1. Starting the business

2. Construction permits

3. Enforcing contracts

4. Resolving insolvency

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q46. India has strategic petroleum reserve sites in which of the following places?

1. Padur

2. Mangalore

3. Vishakhapatnam

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q47. The Special Data Dissemination Standard often seen in news, is launched by?

(a) World Bank

(b) International Monetary Fund

(c) Asian Development Bank

(d) World Trade Organisation

Q48. With reference to Green crackers, consider the following statements:

1. They have zero emission of the Particulate Matter (PM).

2. The manufacturing licenses for the Green Crackers is issues by Central Pollution Control Board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q49. With reference to Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB), consider the following statements:

1. SGBs are government securities, issued by Reserve Bank on behalf of Government of India.

2. Investors are assured of the market value of gold at the time of maturity and periodical interest.

3 The bond is open to investment for individuals, trusts and corporations from all over the world

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q50. Which of the following refers to Accretion Disc, often seen in the news?

(a) Material, such as gas, dust around a black hole.

(b) The lowermost vertebrae of the spinal cord that accumulates calcium.

(c) A newly discovered asteroid that is shaped like a plate.

(d) The rings of Jupiter that are increasing in size over time.

Q51. Which of the following is/are the objectives of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972?

1. Prohibition of hunting

2. Establishment of protected areas

3. Management of zoos

4. Regulation and control of trade in parts and products derived from wildlife

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q52. With reference to the colours produced by metal salts used in fireworks, consider the following pairs:

Colour             Metal Salt

1. Red —         Strontium Carbonate

2. Orange —   Calcium Chloride

3. Green —      Barium Chloride

4. Purple —     Chromium Carbonate

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q53. With reference to UN Convention to Combat Desertification, consider the following statements:

1. It is the outcome of United Nations’ 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro.

2. It is legally binding on parties.

3. Currently India has taken over the presidency of Conference of Parties of the convention.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q54. Delhi declaration recently seen in the news, refers to which of the following?

(a) Achieve land degradation neutrality.

(b) Eliminate global hunger by 2030.

(c) Minimize release of gases having high global warming potential.

(d) International protection agreement for refugees.

Q55. With reference to the National Resource Efficiency Authority (NREA), consider the following statements:

1. It draws its power from Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

2. It has a core working group in the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q56. Consider the following environmental acts in independent India:

1. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act

2. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act

3. The Environment Protection Act

4. The Wildlife Protection Act

Which of the given code is chronologically correct order of the given acts?

(a) 4-2-1-3

(b) 4-1-2-3

(c) 2-3-1-4

(d) 2-1-3-4

Q57. With reference to Dead Zone, often seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It refers to that zone in the ocean or river or lake where light cannot reach.

2. It is also known as Hy poxic zone.

3. The Arabian Sea is the largest and thickest dead zone in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q58. Which of the following countries form the BASIC group?

1. Brazil

2. Australia

3. India

4. China

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q59. With reference to Umbrella Group, consider the following statements:

1. It is a coalition of Parties which formed following the adoption of the Kyoto Protocol.

2. India is not a party to this coalition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q60. With reference to Operation Blizzard, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It was conducted jointly by India and China in Arunachal Pradesh.

2. It was to save 22 foreign nationals struck during a strong blizzard in the hills.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q61. With reference to National Green Tribunal, consider the following statements:

1. It is a specialised judicial body.

2. It is an executive body formed after the recommendations of Supreme Court.

3. It is headed by the Chairperson and has at least ten but not more than twenty judicial members.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q62. Consider the following pairs:

Tiger Reserve              State

1. Namdapha —                     Arunachal Pradesh

2. Indravati —                         Karnataka

3. Melghat —                         Chattisgarh

4. Manas —                           Assam

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Q63. Which of the following is an Invasive tree with reference to Shola grasslands in Western Ghats?

1. Wattle trees

2. Eucalyptus trees

3. Pine trees

4. Palm trees

Select the correct option using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q64. With reference to Saryu River, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It flows in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand.

2. It ends at Pancheswar, where it meets with famous Mahakali river.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q65. Mercury poisoning has dangerous and sometimes irreversible effects and while unborn babies are most vulnerable, anyone can suffer. Which of the following are probable sources of mercury intake?

1. Dental amalgam

2. Fish consumption

3. Cosmetics

4. Coal burning

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q66. Clean Seas Campaign is an initiative of which of the following?

(a) United Nations Development Programme

(b) UN Environment Programme

(c) Greenpeace

(d) Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development

Q67. With reference to water footprint, consider the following statements:

1. Green water footprint is water from precipitation that is stored in the root zone of the soil and evaporated, transpired or incorporated by plants.

2. Grey water footprint is water that has been sourced from surface or groundwater resources and is either evaporated, incorporated into a product or taken from one body of water and returned to another, or returned at a different time.

3. Blue water footprint is the amount of fresh water required to assimilate pollutants to meet specific water quality standards.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q68. Global Environment Outlook Report, recently seen in the news, is released by which of the following?

(a) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

(b) World Meteorological Organization (WMO)

(c) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

(d) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

Q69. With reference to PARIVESH, consider the following statements:

1. It is an environmental single window hub for Environment, Forest, Wild life and CRZ clearances.

2. Under this, clearance can be obtained from Central authorities only.

3. It is designed, developed and hosted by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Indian Polity and Governance; Revision of Test-7 and CA (M1)

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Q70. With reference to the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands, consider the following statements:

1. The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) provides administrative services to the Ramsar Convention.

2. The Convention was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971.

3. It is a legally binding treaty.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q71. Which of the following Directive Principle of State Policy were added to the constitution by the way of amendment of the constitution?

1. Secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice and shall provide free legal aid.

2. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children.

3. Minimise the inequalities in income and endeavour to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities.

4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Q72. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. Constitution of India was adopted on 26th October, 1949.

2. All provisions of the constitution came into force on 26th January, 1950.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q73. Which of the following provisions of the Indian constitution are justiciable in nature?

1. Fundamental Rights.

2. Directive Principles Of State Policy.

3. Fundamental duties.

4. Constitutional Rights outside Part III of the constitution.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q74. Which among the following is/are the federal features of Indian Constitution?

1. Dual government with Union at the centre and the States at the periphery

2. Supremacy of the Constitution

3. Single Citizenship

4. Authority of the judiciary.

5. Integrated Judiciary

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q75. Consider the following states and arrange them in chronological order of establishment

1. Punjab

2. Sikkim

3. Goa

4. Nagaland

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 3 – 2 –1 – 4

(b) 1– 3– 4– 2

(c) 3 – 1– 2 – 4

(d) 4– 1– 2 – 3

Q76. With reference to procedure for reorganisation of states in India, consider the following statements:

1. No such bill can be introduced in the parliament except on the recommendation of the President.

2. It is necessary to ascertain the views of the concerned state legistature with reference to reorganisation.

3. In case of a union territory with legislature, reference needs to be made to the concerned legislature to ascertain its views.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q77. Consider the following pairs of constitutional features and the constitutions they were borrowed from:

1. French — Principles of Constitution Liberty, Equality and Fraternity

2. British — Power of Judicial Constitution Review and independence of the judiciary

3. Irish — Directive Constitution Principles of State Policy

4. United States — Procedure Constitution established by law

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q78. Which of the following Fundamental Rights under the Indian constitution is/are conferred to the citizens but denied to the aliens?

1. Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.

2. Equality before law.

3. Right to freedom of speech and expression.

4. Cultural and educational rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q79. Under which of the following ways of acquiring citizenship, can the government confer citizenship to a person who has rendered distinguished service to the science, philosophy, art, literature, world peace or human progress by waiving of the necessary conditions?

(a) Citizenship by Registration

(b) Citizenship by Naturalisation

(c) CItizenship by Descent

(d) Citizenship by Renunciation

Q80. Which of the following rights have been declared as a part of Protection of Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21?

1. Right to privacy

2. Right to good health

3. Right to travel abroad.

4. Right to legal aid

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Q81. Consider the following pairs regarding the pardoning powers of the President:

1. Reprieve — Change a punishment due to special circumstances

2. Respite — Temporary suspension of the punishment

3. Commute — Change a punishment to one of a different type

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q82. With reference to Constituent Assembly of India, consider the following statements:

1. Each province and princely state were to be allotted seats in proportion to their respective population.

2. Representatives of each community  were to be nominated by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly

3. Constituent Assembly was to be a partly elected and partly nominated body.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q83. Which of the following words were added to the preamble of Indian constitution through amendment of the constitution?

1. Socialist

2. Secular

3. Integrity

4. Fraternity

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q84. Which of the following is/are classified under the Right to Freedom of Religion in the Indian constitution?

1. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion.

2. Freedom of conscience and free profession of religion.

3. Right to establish educational institutions of their choice to religious minorities.

4. Right to establish institutions for religious and charitable purposes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Q85. With reference to a bill for the amendment to the constitution under Article 368, consider the following statements:

1. It can be introduced either by a minister or a private member.

2. It requires prior permission of President before introduction.

3. There is no provision for joint sitting of the two houses for resolving deadlock regarding the bill.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q86. With reference to preamble of the Indian constitution, consider the following statements:

1. It indicates the source of authority of the Constitution.

2. It is not justifiable in nature.

3. It is not considered a part of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q87. With reference to Directive Principle of State Policy, consider the following statements:

1. It provides for promoting international peace and security.

2. It provides for maintaining just and honourable relations between nations.

3. It seeks co-operation with other nations for mutual benefits.

4. It encourages settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q88. Which of the following is/are provided as reasonable restrictions to the freedom of speech and expression in the constitution:

1. Security of the State

2. Contempt of court

3. Defamation

4. Sedition

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Q89. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty as enshrined in the Constitution of India?

(a) To develop scientific temper

(b) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood.

(c) To abide by the Constitution

(d) To not criticize historical personalities.

Q90. With reference to laws enacted by Parliament on the subjects in the State List, consider the following statements:

1. Such laws enacted while a proclamation of national emergency is in operation continue indefinitely.

2. Such laws enacted after the resolution of Rajya Sabha continue to have effect on the expiration of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force.

3. Such law made when two or more states pass resolutions, can be amended or repealed only by the respective states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None of the above

Q91. “Gogabeel Community Reserve’, that was in news recently, is situated in which of the following states of India?

(a) Bihar

(b) Rajasthan

(c) Jharkhand

(d) Odisha

Q92. Which of the following subjects are listed under the Concurrent List of the 7th schedule of the constitution?

1. Forest

2. Education

3. Administration of justice

4. Wild animals and birds

5. Public order

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 4 and 5 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2,3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 4 only

Q93. Project SURE was recently launched, which of the following ministry is associated with the project?

(a) Union Textiles Ministry

(b) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)

(c) Ministry of Environment

(d) Ministry of Home Affairs

Q94. With reference to”Helium hydride” (HeH+), consider the following statements:

1. It is the lightest heteronuclear ion and is believed to be one of the first compounds formed in the Universe after the Big Bang.

2. HeH+ is a positively charged stable molecule and the strongest base known.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q95. With reference to The Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB), consider the following statements:

1. The Election Commission of India hosted the fourth General Assembly of A-WEB at Bengaluru.

2. It was established in 2013 in South Korea and its permanent secretariat is located at Seoul.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q96. With reference to the ‘Plan Bee’, consider the following statements:

1. Plan bee is a solution to fight colony collapse disorder.

2. It is developed by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in order to save “Bees” from getting extinct.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q97. Recently, the 6th World Congress on Rural and Agricultural Finance (WCRAF) was held. Consider the following statements in this regard:

1. The theme of the conference was “Rural and Agricultural Finance: Critical Input to achieve Inclusive and Sustainable Development”.

2. The World Congress is held every five years since the first Congress in Addis Ababa in 1989.

3. It was co-hosted by NABARD, Asia Pacific Rural and Agricultural Credit Association and Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q98. With reference to National Pension System (NPS), consider the following statements:

1. The maximum age limit to enroll into the scheme is 60 years.

2. Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) can enroll in the NPS at par with Non- Resident Indians.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q99. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding National Register of Citizens?

1. The National Register of Citizens is a list of all the normal residents of Assam, the only state with such a document.

2. It is governed by the Citizenship Act, 1955.

3. It will include persons, whose names appear in any of the electoral rolls upto the midnight of 24th March, 1971.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q100. What is/are common to the two historical places known as Ajanta and Mahabalipuram?

1. Both were built in the same period.

2. Both belong to the same religious denomination.

3. Both have rock-cut monuments.

Select the correct answer code:

 a) 1, 2

 b) 3 only

 c) 1, 3

 d) None of the statements given above is correct

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