Indian Polity & Constitution Quiz Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) Pdf

Indian Polity & Constitution Quiz Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) Pdf: GENERAL STUDIES OBJECTIVE GK & GS [UPSC/STATES/ SSC] & CURRENT AFFAIRS [MCQS]: Welcome to MYUPSC. MYUPSC is India’s top website for GK (General Knowledge), General Studies, Current Affairs and Aptitude for UPSC, STATE PSC, SSC, Banking / IBPS, IAS, NTSE, CLAT, Railways, NDA, CDS, Judiciary, UPPSC, RPSC, GPSC, MPSC, MPPSC, CGPSC, MPSC, APSC, APPSC, TPSC, TNPSC, KPSC and other states civil services / government job recruitment examinations of India.

Read More: History Question Bank For UPSC | State PSC| Civil Services Preliminary Examination

Indian Polity & Constitution Quiz Multiple Choice Questions

General Knowledge Questions is one of the basic topics asked in each & every exams. Basic General Knowledge will help you in scoring good marks in all the competitive exams. Taking GK Quiz every month will be helpful. So, read the General Knowledge questions and answers and increase your Gk Quotient. The General Knowledge MCQs on current affairs will help you get good scores in UPSC, SSC or any other exams.

Read More: Polity Question Bank For UPSC | State PSC| Civil Services Preliminary Examination

Read More: NCERT General Studies Compilations For Civil Services Examination 2023 Pdf Download

Indian Polity & Constitution Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following states is not included in the sixth schedule of Indian Constitution?

[A] Meghalaya
[B] Tripura
[C] Mizoram
[D] Manipur

Answer: D [Manipur]

Notes:
Sixth Schedule of Indian Constitution consists of provisions for administration of Tribal Area in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram & Arunachal Pradesh. District or the Regional Councils in these states may after its first constitution make rules with the approval of the Governor.

2.How many members can be nominated by the president to the Rajya Sabha & Lok Sabha Respectively?

[A] 12 & 0
[B] 10 & 2
[C] 10 & 0
[D] 12 & 6

Answer: A [12 & 0]

Notes:
President nominates 12 members in Rajya Sabha for six-years term for their contributions towards arts, literature, sciences, and social services. This right has been bestowed upon the President according to the Fourth Schedule (Articles 4(1) and 80(2)) of the Constitution of India. Prior to 2020, President used to nominate two members of Anglo-Indian Community to Lok Sabha under article 331. This provision has now been abolished.

3.What is the upper limit of election expense in a parliamentary constituency?

[A] 10 lakhs
[B] 25 lakhs
[C] 70 lakhs
[D] 1 cr

Answer: C [70 lakhs]

Notes:
As per the current norms, the maximum limit of election expenses per candidate is as follows:
Lok Sabha Constituencies

  • 70 Lakh for all States except Arunachal Pradesh, Goa and Sikkim.
  • 54 Lakh for Arunachal Pradesh, Goa and Sikkim = 54.00 Lakhs
  • 70 Lakh for NCT of Delhi
  • 54 Lakh for other Union Territories.

Assembly Constituencies

  • 28 Lakh for bigger states and NCT of Delhi
  • 20 Lakh for smaller states and UTs.

4.The Amindivi islands consist of five islands of which of the Union Territory ?

[A] Andaman & Nicobar
[B] Lakshadweep
[C] Pondicherry
[D] Daman & Diu

Answer: B [Lakshadweep]

Notes:
The Aminidivi subgroup of islands consists of Amini, Keltan, Chetlat, Kadamat, Bitra, and Perumal Par islands. It is one of the three island subgroups in Lakshadweep and is separated by Laccadive Islands subgroup roughly by the 11th parallel north.

Read MoreWorld Geography Question Bank For UPSC | State PSC| Civil Services Preliminary Examination

5.Which among the following Union Territory had a Judicial Commissioner’s Court?

[A] Pondicherry
[B] Andaman & Nicobar Islands
[C] Daman & Diu
[D] Lakshadweep

Answer: C [Daman & Diu]

Notes:
Before Goa, Daman and Diu became part of India, a Tribunal the Relacao was highest court in these territories. In 1963, this Tribunal the Relacao was abolished and a court of judicial commissioner was established under Goa Daman and Diu (Judicial Commissioner’s Court) Regulation 1963. The Judicial Commissioner’s Court was the highest court of appeal and revision for the Union Territory. In 1981, the parliament passed High Court of Bombay (Extension of Jurisdiction to Goa Daman and Diu) Act, 1981 act to extend the Jurisdiction of High Court at Bombay to Union Territory of Goa, Daman and Diu and abolish the then existing court of Judicial Commissioner.

6.The Upper House of Egypt parliament is known as:

[A] Shura Council
[B] Majilis Al-Sha’ab
[C] Dewan Rakyat
[D] Majlis al-Nuwaab

Answer: A [Shura Council]

7.The decision of an inferior court or tribunal can be quashed when there is an error of law, by issuing a writ of which of the following nature?

[A] Mandamus
[B] Prohibition
[C] Certiorari
[D] None of them

Answer: C [Certiorari]

Notes:
Certiorari is kind of prerogative writ which orders the removal of a suit from an inferior court to a higher court. A writ to Certiorari and Prohibition are sought together so that the inferior court or tribunal operates within its jurisdiction and does not usurp jurisdiction. Like Prohibition, a writ of Certiorari is opposite that of Mandamus which directs a judicial or administrative body to perform its duty and a writ of Certiorari is issued against only judicial or quasi-judicial authorities.

By a writ of Certiorari a decision of an inferior court or tribunal is quashed when there is an error of law, or the subject matter is beyond the jurisdiction of the body or it assumes jurisdiction on the basis of a wrong decision or the inferior court or tribunal has violated the principles of natural justice. In these cases the High Court can issue a writ of Certiorari and quash a decision of the inferior court or tribunal and the Supreme Court can issue this writ of Certiorari if some fundamental rights have been infringed upon in such cases.

8.Which part of the Constitution is described as the ‘Magna Carta’ of India?

[A] Part I
[B] Part II
[C] Part III
[D] Part IV

Answer: C [Part III]

Notes:
The Part III of the Constitution of India is described as the Magna Carta of India. The Fundamental Rights which are found in Indian Constitution are more elaborate than those found in the Constitution of any other country of the world.

9.The Directive Principles of State Policy has been adopted from the Constitution of which country?

[A] Canada
[B] South Africa
[C] Australia
[D] Ireland

Answer: D [Ireland]

Notes:
The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India have been borrowed from the Irish Constitution of 1937. The Ireland has copied it from the Spanish constitution. They are covered from Article 36 to 51.

10.Who called the parliamentary system as ‘cabinet system’?

[A] Lord Morely
[B] Ivor Jennings
[C] Sir William Vernor Harcourt
[D] H.J. Laski

Answer: B [Ivor Jennings]

Notes:
It was Ivor Jennings who called the parliamentary system as ‘cabinet system’ because the cabinet is the nucleus of power in a parliamentary system. Ivor Jennings was a British Lawyer and an academician.

11.Which article protects a person’s right to travel abroad under Indian Constitution?

[A] Article 15
[B] Article 21
[C] Article 19
[D] None of the above

Answer: B [Article 21]

Notes:
Supreme Court in the case of Menaka Gandhi Vs. Union of India in 1978 held that right to travel abroad is a Fundamental Right and it is secured under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.

Read More: Indian Geography Question Bank For UPSC | State PSC | Civil Services Preliminary Examination

12.Which Part and Article deals with amendment to the Constitution of India?

[A] Part XX, Article 368
[B] Part XXI, Article 369
[C] Part XXII, Article 393
[D] None of the above

Answer: A [Part XX, Article 368]

Notes:
The powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure is enumerated in Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution. It states that the Parliament may amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down for the purpose.

13.Who called the parliamentary system as ‘cabinet system’?

[A] Lord Morely
[B] Ivor Jennings
[C] Sir William Vernor Harcourt
[D] H.J. Laski

Answer: B [Ivor Jennings]

Notes:
It was Ivor Jennings who called the parliamentary system as ‘cabinet system’ because the cabinet is the nucleus of power in a parliamentary system. Ivor Jennings was a British Lawyer and an academician.

14.In which case the Supreme Court characterised federalism as its ‘basic feature’ of the Constitution of India?

[A] Keshvananda Bharti case
[B] Bommai case
[C] LIC of India case
[D] Minerva Mills case

Answer: B [Bommai case]

Notes:
In the S.R. Bommai case of the year 1994, the Supreme Court of India  laid down that the Indian Constitution is federal and characterised federalism as its ‘basic feature’. It recognized that the states have an independent constitutional existence.

Read More: Economy Question Bank For UPSC | State PSC | Civil Services Preliminary Examination

15.Which of the following does not form a part of the electoral college of the President?

[A] The elected members of both the Houses of Parliament
[B] The elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states
[C] The elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry
[D] The nominated members of either House of Parliament

Answer: D [The nominated members of either House of Parliament]

Notes:
The electoral college of President consists of: (1) the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament; (2) the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states; and  (3) the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry. The nominated members does not form a part of electoral college.

16.Who inquires into all the doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President?

[A] The Prime Minister
[B] The Attorney General
[C] The Supreme Court
[D] The High Court

Answer: C [The Supreme Court]

Notes:
All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court. The decision of the Supreme Court is final.

17.Who can pass a resolution for the removal of Vice President of India?

[A] Council of States
[B] Lok Sabha
[C] Cabinet
[D] Council of Ministers

Answer: A [Council of States]

Notes:
The Vice-President of India can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Rajya Sabha and agreed to by the Lok Sabha, that is, the resolution should be passed in the Rajya Sabha by an effective majority and in the Lok Sabha by a simple majority.

18.What the minimum age for a person seeking election to the Lok Sabha?

[A] 18 years
[B] 20 years
[C] 25 years
[D] 35 years

Answer: C [25 years]

Notes:
The minimum age of a person seeking election to the Lok Sabha (House of People)  according to Artcle 84 (1) (b) is not less than 25 years of age. And for Rajya Sabha it is not less than 30 years of age.

19.Which amendment made the president bound by the advice of the cabinet?

[A] 40th
[B] 41st
[C] 42nd
[D] 43rd

Answer: C [42nd]

Notes:
The 42nd amendment to the Constitution of India in year 1976 made the president bound by the advice of the cabinet. The 42nd amendment is also referred to as the ‘Mini Constitution’.

Read MoreEnvironment and Ecology Question Bank For UPSC | State PSC | Civil Services Preliminary Examination

20.When was the first Public Accounts Committee set up?

[A] 1921
[B] 1931
[C] 1949
[D] 1955

Answer: A [1921]

Notes:
Public Accounts Committee committee was set up for the first time in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 and has since been in existence. All parties get due representation in it.

21.What is the maximum age until which a Supreme Court judge can hold office?

[A] 60 years
[B] 62 years
[C] 65 years
[D] 70 years

Answer: C [65 years]

Notes:
A judge of Supreme Court of India holds office until he attains the age of 65 years. Any questions and confusions regarding his age is to be determined by such authority and in such manner as provided by the Parliament of India.

22.Which article declares laws that are inconsistent with Fundamental Rights null and void?

[A] Article 143
[B] Article 13
[C] Article 336
[D] Article 131

Answer: B [Article 13]

Notes:
As per Article 13, all the laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights are to be null and void. The provisions of Article 13 explicitly confer the power of judicial review on the judiciary.

23.Which of the following comes under the territory of India?

[A] States
[B] Union Territories
[C] Any other area for the time being included in the territory of India
[D] All of the above

Answer: D [All of the above]

Notes:
The Parliament is empowered to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. The territory of India refers to the states, the union territories, and any other area for the time being included in the territory of India.

24.Who has the power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects?

[A] The President
[B] The Parliament
[C] The Prime Minister
[D] The Vice President

Answer: B [The Parliament]

Notes:
The Parliament has the power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects (i.e., the matters  which are not enumerated in any of the three lists). The residuary power of legislation includes the power to levy residuary taxes.

25.Who was appointed as the Chairman of six-member Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) in 1966?

[A] Jawaharlal Nehru
[B] H.C. Mathur
[C] V. Shankar
[D] Morarji Desai

Answer: D [Morarji Desai]

Notes:
A six-member Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) in 1966 under the chairmanship of Morarji Desai (followed by K Hanumanthayya) was appointed by Central Government. It was to the examine the various issues in Centre-state relations.

Read More: General Science Question Bank For UPSC | State PSC | Civil Services Preliminary Examination

26.Who establishes inter-state council?

[A] The Parliament
[B] The Vice President
[C] The President
[D] The Prime Minister

Answer: C [The President]

Notes:
The President under Article 263 establishes the Inter-State Council to effect coordination between the states and between Centre and states. The President can establish such a council if at any time it appears to him that the public interest would be served by its establishment.

27.Who is the common chairman of the five zonal councils?

[A] Union Home Minister
[B] Prime Minister
[C] President
[D] Governor

Answer: A [Union Home Minister]

Notes:
The home minister of Central government of India is the common chairman of the five zonal councils. While each chief minister acts as a vice-chairman of the council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time.

28.In which case Supreme Court laid down propositions for imposition of President’s Rule in a state under Article 356?

[A] Keshvananda Bharti case
[B] Bommai case
[C] Minerva Mills case
[D] None of the above

Answer: B [Bommai case]

Notes:
In the S.R. Bommai case of 1994  the Supreme Court laid down various propositions on imposition of President’s Rule
in a state under Article 356 of the Constitution of India. It also laid down that the presidential proclamation imposing President’s Rule is subject to judicial review

29.Which of the following statements are correct regarding the appointments made by the Governor?

[A] Appoints an eminent personality to preside over its proceedings when the offices of Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are vacant
[B] Appoints a non-member of state legislature council to preside over its proceedings when offices of Chairman and Deputy Chairman are vacant
[C] Both of them
[D] None of them

Answer: D [None of them]

Notes:
The Governor is empowered to appoint any member of the state legislative assembly to preside over its proceedings when the offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are vacant. He can also appoint any member of the state legislature council to preside over its proceedings when the offices of both Chairman and Deputy Chairman are vacant.

30.Which of the following can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants?

[A] Legislative Assembly
[B] Legislative Council
[C] Both of the above
[D] None of the above

Answer: B [Legislative Council]

Notes:
The state legislative council can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants. Voting on demand for grants is the exclusive privilege of the assembly.

  • Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates

  • Subscribe to our YouTube Channel HERE to watch Motivational and New analysis videos

31.The members of which of the following can be appointed as ministers?
1. State Legislative Assembly
2. State Legislative Council
3. Panchayat
4. Municipality
Select the correct option from the codes given below:

[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1, 2 & 3
[D] All of the above

Answer: B [Only 1 & 2]

Notes:
The members of the state legislature i.e., either the legislative assembly or the legislative council are usually appointed as ministers. A person who is not a member of either House of the state legislature can also be appointed as a minister but only for six months within which he must become a member (either by election or by nomination) of either House of the state legislature, otherwise, he ceases to be a minister.

32.Who can can allow a ‘secret’ sitting of the House at the request of the leader of the state legislative assembly?

[A] Chief Minister
[B] Speaker
[C] Governor
[D] None of the above

Answer: B [Speaker]

Notes:
The speaker of the state legislative assembly can allow a ‘secret’ sitting of the House at the request of the leader of the House. He can also adjourns the assembly or suspends the meeting in the absence of a quorum.

33.A judge of High Court submits his resignation to?

[A] President
[B] Parliament
[C] Supreme Court
[D] State Legislature

Answer: A [President]

Notes:
A judge of High Court can resign from his office by writing to the president.  He can also be removed from his office by the President of India on the recommendation of the Parliament.

34.Which of the following does the appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in a state?

[A] Governor
[B] Governor of the state in consultation with the high court
[C] High Court
[D] Supreme Court

Answer: B [Governor of the state in consultation with the high court]

Notes:
The appointment, posting and promotion of judges of a district court in a state are made by the governor of the concerned  state in consultation with the high court of the state.

35.The pecuniary jurisdiction of the Permanent Lok Adalat shall be up to rupees?

[A] 10 lakh
[B] 20 lakh
[C] 25 lakh
[D] 30 lakh

Answer: A [10 lakh]

Notes:
The pecuniary jurisdiction of the Permanent Lok Adalat in a district shall be up to rupees ten lakhs. However, the Central Government is empowered to increase the said pecuniary jurisdiction from time to time.

36.Which committee recommended the establishment of a three-tier panchayati raj system?

[A] Study Team on Panchayati Raj Administration
[B] Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
[C] Ashok Mehta Committee
[D] G.V.K. Rao Committee

Answer: B [Balwant Rai Mehta Committee]

Notes:
The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee which was established in the year 1957 by the government of India recommended for the establishment of a three-tier panchayati raj system at the local level in India.

37.At which of the following levels the members of the Panchayati Raj are elected indirectly?

[A] Village level
[B] Intermediate level
[C] District level
[D] None of the above

Answer: D [None of the above]

Notes:
All the members of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels are elected directly by the people. Only the chairperson at the intermediate and district levels is elected indirectly by and from amongst the elected members thereof.

38.Which of the following UTs have a legislative assembly?

[A] Puducherry
[B] Delhi
[C] Jammu and Kashmir
[D] All of the above

Answer: D [All of the above]

Notes:
Puducherry, Delhi and Jammu and Kashmir have a legislative assembly and a council of ministers headed by a chief minister. The other six union territories do not have such institutions.

39.Which article of the Constitution envisages a special system of administration for certain areas designated as ‘scheduled areas’ and ‘tribal areas’?

[A] Article 243
[B] Article 244
[C] Article 245
[D] Article 246

Answer: B [Article 244]

Notes:
The Article 244 in Part X of the Constitution of India envisages a special system of administration for certain areas which are designated as ‘scheduled areas’ and ‘tribal areas’.

40.How may ex-officio members are there in National Human Rights Commission?

[A] 5
[B] 6
[C] 7
[D] 8

Answer: C [7]

Notes:
In addition to full-time members, the National Human Rights commission also has seven ex-officio members–the chairpersons of the National Commission for Minorities, the National Commission for SCs, the National Commission for STs, the National Commission for Women, the National Commission for BCs and the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities.

41.What is the maximum term of the members of National Commission for Women?

[A] 1 year
[B] 3 years
[C] 5 years
[D] 6 years

Answer: B [3 years]

Notes:
The chairperson and every member of the National Commission for Women shall hold office for such period, not exceeding three years, as may be specified by the Central Government in this behalf.

42.The Attorney of India submits his resignation to which of the following?

[A] Chief Justice of India
[B] President
[C] Prime Minister
[D] Speaker

Answer: B [President]

Notes:
The Attorney General of India may quit his office by submitting his resignation to the president of India. Conventionally, he resigns when the
government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.

43.The Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO) was established by the Government of India in which year?

[A] 2015
[B] 2016
[C] 2017
[D] 2018

Answer: A [2015]

Notes:
The Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO) which was established by the Government of India in 2015 is an attached office of the NITI Aayog by merging the erstwhile Programme Evaluation Organization and the Independent Evaluation Office.

44.What is the maximum term of Central Vigilance Commissioner and other vigilance commissioners?

[A] 2 years
[B] 3 years
[C] 4 years
[D] 5 years

Answer: C [4 years]

Notes:
The Central Vigilance Commissioner and other vigilance commissioners hold office for a term of four years or until they attain the age of sixty five years, whichever is earlier.

45.Which of the following statements are correct about CBI’s association with Interpol?

[A] CBI acts as the National Central Bureau of Interpol
[B] Interpol Wing of the CBI coordinates requests for investigation originating from Indian law enforcement agencies
[C] Interpol Wing of the CBI coordinates requests for investigation from the member countries of the Interpol
[D] All of the above

Answer: D [All of the above]

Notes:
In India, CBI functions as the National Central Bureau of Interpol. Moreover, the Interpol Wing of the CBI coordinates requests for investigation-related activities with origins in the Indian law enforcement agencies and also from the member countries of the Interpol.

46.What is an Ombudsman in India called?

[A] Lokpal
[B] Lokayukta
[C] Both of them
[D] None of them

Answer: C [Both of them]

Notes:
The Ombudsman in India is called a Lokpal or a Lokayukta.

47.How many languages are specified in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

[A] 14
[B] 18
[C] 22
[D] 24

Answer: C [22]

Notes:
The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India specifies 22 languages. Originally it contained 14 languages. The Constitution of India imposes a duty upon the Centre to promote the spread and development of the Hindi language.

48.According to which section of IPC says if anyone commits any offence by accident or misfortune without malafide or without knowledge in performance of his legal duty in legal manner with proper care and caution is no offence?

[A] Section 79
[B] Section 80
[C] Section 81
[D] Section 82

Answer: B [Section 80]

Notes:
The section 80 of Indian Penal Code says that if any one commits any offence by accident or misfortune without malafide or without knowledge in performance of his legal duty in legal manner with proper care and caution is no offence

49.The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 was enacted to meet the obligations under which of the following conventions?

[A] Convention to Combat Desertification
[B] Climate Change Convention
[C] Convention on Biological Diversity
[D] None of the above

Answer: C [Convention on Biological Diversity]

Notes:
The Biological Diversity Act of 2002 was enacted by the Parliament of India to meet the obligations under Convention on Biological Diversity. It provides mechanism for equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of traditional biological resources and  knowledge.

50.The Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act was passed in which year?

[A] 1953
[B] 1954
[C] 1955
[D] 1956

Answer: D [1956]

Notes:
The Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act was enacted in the year 1956 by the Parliament of India as part of the Hindu Code Bills. It was enacted to enhance the Guardians and Wards Act of 1890, not serve as its replacement.

Leave a Reply