UPHESC Assistant Professor Exam 2021 Entomology Test 1

UP government is providing an opportunity for those candidates who are looking forward to teaching as their career. The online applications will be accepted by 26th March 2021.Bookmark this page and stay tuned with us for every latest update for UPHESC Assistant Professor Jobs 2021. UPHESC Assistant Professor Vacancy 2021 announced for 2003 Assistant Professor Post which includes 2002 posts of Assistant Acharya in 47 subjects and 01 post of Assistant Acharya Geoscience of Advertisement No. -46. The application form for UPHESC Assistant Professor 2021 began on 27 February 2021 and the last date to apply online is 12 April 2021.


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General Studies (25 Practice Test) in English for UPHESC Assistant Professor Exam 2021

General Studies (20 Practice Test) in Hindi for UPHESC Assistant Professor Exam 2021

Important Point: Those aspirants/students joined this programme will get the answer key / detailed solution on the same day of test in the evening (between 8 PM to 10 PM). ignore if you have already joined.

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Q1. Which of the following statements is true about Entomology?

(a) The study of Birds

(b) The study of Insects

(c) The study of Microbes

(d) The study of parasitic worms

Q2.Which of the following is the main characteristic features of an Insect?

(a) Pair of antennae

(b) Three pairs of legs

(c) Pair of wings

(d) All of the above

Q3.Which of the following is called the resting and inactive stage in the insect life cycle?

(a) The Egg stage

(b) The Larva stage

(c) The pupa stage

(d) The Adult stage

Q4.Which of the following is not a natural predator of BPH?

(a) Bugs

(b) Red ants

(c) Spiders

(d) All of the above

Q5.Insects, which feed on one type of food, is called _____.

(a) Polyphagous

(b) Monophagus

(c) Entomophagy

(d) None of the above

Q6.Insects are classified into the phylum_____.

(a) Nematoda

(b) Mollusca

(c) Arthropoda

(d) Platyhelminthes

Q7.Which of the following insects is the carrier of grassy stunt pathogenic virus?

(a) Red ants

(b) Pink ants

(c) Leafhoppers

(d) All of the above

Q8.Which of the following statements is true for Entomophagy?

(a) Refers to eating birds

(b) Refers to eating insects

(c) Refers to eating fishes

(d) None of the above

Q9.The total number of abdominal legs in the larval stage of the mustard sawfly is ______.

(a) 2 pairs

(b) 4 pairs

(c) 6 pairs

(d) 8 pairs

Q10.Which of the following statements is true about the holometabolous insects?

(a) These insects undergo complete metamorphosis

(b) These insects undergo incomplete metamorphosis

(c) Both A and B

(d) None of the above

.Aphid, small, sap-sucking insects are examples of _________.

(a) Oviparous

(b) Viviparous

(c) Paedogenesis

(d) Parthenogenesis

Q12.Which of the following structures is not the part of the insects head capsule?

(a) Vertex

(b) Antennae

(c) Pronotum

(d) Tentorium

Q13.Odontotermes obesus is the scientific name of which of the following insects?

(a) Termite

(b) Cutworm

(c) Red ant

(d) Shoot borer

Q14.The process of killing pupa without changing the cocoon shell layer is called_______.

(a) Denier

(b) Dupion

(c) Hatching

(d) Stifling

Q15.Which of the following is true about the immature scale insects?

(a) Sliders

(b) Crawlers

(c) Gliders

(d) None of the above

Q16. The excreta of the earthworm is called ______.

(a) Vermi-manure

(b) Vermicast

(c) Vermicompost

(d) All of the above

Q17.What is the middle part of an insect body present between the head and the abdomen called?

(a) Thorax

(b) Head

(c) Abdomen

(d) None of the above

Q18.Which of the following statements is true about why spiders are not classified into insects?

(a) Spiders are venomous

(b) Spiders have eight legs

(c) Spiders have 2 division in their bodies

(d) All of the above

Q19.Which of the following statements is true about the Anatomy of a cockroach?

(a) A pair of testes are present in the 2nd segment

(b) A pair of ovaries are present in the 4th segment

(c) The thorax of a cockroach is divided into 6 segments

(d) The abdomen region of a cockroach is divided into 10 segments

Q20.Insects breathe through ________.

(a) Gills

(b) Nostrils

(c) Spiracles

(d) None of the above

Q21.  11-Hexudecenal is sex pheromone of:

A. Heliothis armigera     

B. Spodoptera litura

C. Trichoplusia nigra       

D. None of the above

Q22. When a hectare of ground crop is completely covered by spraying less than 60 litres of liquid, is termed a:

A. Low volume spray     

B. Medium volume spray

C. Very low volume spray            

D. High volume spray

Q23.  7-Dodecenyl acetate is sex pheromone of:

A. Dacus cucurbitae       

B. Heliothis armigera

C. Dacus dorsalis              

D. None of the above

Q24.  A better of pect management depends upon:

A. The use of resistant variety   

B. Interlacing the known control methods

C. Proper agronomic practices   

D. Use of pesticides

Q25.  A minimum period of _______ years is to be given before assessing the effectiveness of an important bio-control agent:

A. 2       

B. 3

C. 4        

D. 5

Q26.  A notorious weed, Lantana camara is controlled by:

A. Lantana bug 

B. Shoot fly

C. Cochnial insect            

D. None of them

Q27.  A typical ‘Hopper burn’ in rice is caused by feeding of:

A. Aphids            

B. Gundhi bug

C. Brown plant hopper 

D. Mites

Q28.  Alter aria blight in mustard can be controlled by:

A. Treating seed with hot water               

B. Soil treatment with alderin

C. Bordeaux mixture     

D. None of these

Q29.  Ammonium carbonate is mixed with aluminum phosphine because:

A. It releases ammonia gas alarming the operator            

B. It releases CO2 which is fire extinguisher

C. It gives cooling effect               

D. All of the above

Q30.  Amongst the following insects which one is monophagous?

A. Spodoptera litura      

B. Spilosoma oblicua

C. Bombyx mori               

D. Bemicia tabaci

Q31.  Aphelinus mali has been a successful parasite in controlling:

A. Tobacco caterpiller    

B. Apple wolly aphis

C. Maize stem borer      

D. Sugarcane top borer

Q32.  Archnids and insects contain malpighian tubules as organs of:

A. Respiration   

B. Excretion

C. Digestion       

D. Secretion

Q33.  Alxillary sclerites are absent in:

A. Lepidoptera 

B. Coleoptera

C. Odonata        

D. Distyoptera

Q34.  Bacillus thurigiensis was reported by Berliner from:

A. Tribolium       

B. Heliothis

C. Ephestia         

D. Spodoptera

Q35.  Bacillus thuringiensis is most effective at pH:

A. 3 to 6               

B. 9 to 10

C. 11 to 14          

D. All of the above

Q36.  Wingless hexapod with 6 abdominal segments:

A. Diplura           

B. hysanura

C. Collembolad 

D. Protura

Q37.  Basic unit of classification is known:

A. Species          

B. Genus

C. Family             

D. Order

Q38.  Berlese’s theory was proposed to explain the orign of:

A. Egg stage       

B. Larval stage

C. Pupal stage   

D. Abdult stage

Q39. Bio-types of brown plant hopper are of:

A. 2 types           

B. 3 types

C. 4 types           

D. 5 types

Q40. Black scale insect of citrus is controlled by:

A. Metaphycus loundsbury        

B. Rodolia cardinalis

C. Both of them               

D. None of them

Q41. Blood-porphyrinuria is due to accumulation of porphyrin in the :

A. Prothoracic glands     

B. Labial glands

C. Salivary glands             

D. Lachrymal glands

Q42.  Whorl application of granular insecticide provides effective control measure against:

A. Spotted bollworm     

B. Maize stem borer

C. Stem borer paddy     

D. Mango stem borer

Q43. Burgundy mixture contains:

A. Copper sulphate and lime      

B. Copper sulphate, sodium carbonate and water

C. Copper suolphate, gypsum and water

D. None of these

Q44. By radioactive carbon method the age of the fossil can be determined upto:

A. 10,000 years 

B. 15,000 years

C. 20,000 years 

D. 25,000 years

Q45. By the introduction of chlorine in 3 position of methyl parathion aromatic radical, the insecticide obtained is:

A. Ethyl parathion           

B. Malathion

C. Chlorthion     

D. Fenitrothion

Q46.  Cane killing weed (Striga sp.) in sugarcane is:

A. A wed             

B. A pest

C. A disease       

D. None of these

Q47. Carbon disulphide control:

A. Nematodes  

B. Fusarium

C. Virus

D. All of these

Q48. Classification of phylum mollusca is based on:

A. Locomotory organs   

B. Respiratory organs

C. Digestive organs         

D. Reproductive organs

Q49. Cotton Jassid can be controlled by:


B. Aldrex

C. Copper Sulphide        

D. Hone of these

Q50.  Cotton stainer is:

A. Pectinophora              

B. Ephinophora

C. Ephestia         

D. Dytiscus

Q51.  Crushing of food in insects is done by:

A. Rectal papilla               

B. Green cells

C. Proventriculus             

D. Crop

Q52.  Crustacean posses the following distinguishing characters. Choose the odd one:

A. One pair of antennae              

B. Minimum five pairs of legs

C. Cephalothroax and abdomen

D. Cowpes

Q53. Cut worm is a pest of:

A. Arhar              

B. Cowpes

C. Maize              

D. Gram

Q54. DDT inhibits the enzyme which plays important role in the formation of effshell in birds is:

A. DD Tase         

B. Carbonic anhydrase

C. Carboxyesterase        

D. None of the above

Q55. DDT is toxic to insect pests by:

A. Contact          

B. Ingestion

C. Both (a) and (b)          

D. Inhalation

Q56. Who is often referred to as the ‘Father of Animal Classification’?

A. Aristotle        

B. Carolus Linnaeus

C. Wallace          

D. Hugo de Varies

Q57. White grub battles emerge from soil In between:

A. 7.0 – 8.0 p.m.

B. 8.0 – 9.0 p.m.

C. 4.0 – 5.0 a.m.

D. 6.0 – 7.0 p.m.

Q58. Diflubenzuron is it derivative of:

A. Difloro compounds   

B. Dithiophosphoric acid

C. Urea

D. Phosphonic acid

Q59.  Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine and Storage started in:

A. 1940

B. 1946

C. 1950 


Q60.  During the process of sclerotization which of the following is oxidised in the haemocytes:

A. Arginine         

B. Glycene

C. Tyrosine         

D. Alanine

Q61. Economic threshold level is always:

A. Lower than economic injury level (EIL)             

B. Equal to EIL

C. More than EIL              

D. Reached when severe damage is done

Q62.  White ear-head in paddy is caused by:

A. Gall fly            

B. Green leafhopper

C. Yellow stem borer     

D. Stink bug

Q63. Which type of special reproduction is found in aphid?

A. Polyembryong            

B. Pedogenesis

C. Parthenogenesis        

D. Viviparity

Q64. Factor on which penetration of insecticide through insect cuticle does not depend:

A. Thickness of the cuticle           

B. Chemical nature of the cuticle

C. Components of the cuticle    

D. Nature of the carriers and solvents

Q65. Feeding in insects can be checked by the use of:

A. Hormone      

B. Pheromone

C. Freeding deterrent   

D. Antibiosis

Q66. First insect-fossil was found in:

A. England          

B. Scotland

C. Russia             


Q67.  Which term is used for the movement of coax towards the body?

A. Protraction   

B. Promotion

C. Adduction     

D. Abduction

Q68.  For the fumigation of rat burrows the fumigant required is:

A. EDCT mixture              

B. Methyl bromide

C. Aluminium phosphide

D. Chloropicrin

Q69.  Fore-gut is lined internally by:

A. Peritrophic membrane            

B. Epithelial membrane

C. Intima             

D. Taenidia

Q70.  Fossil records indicate that insect evolved during:

A. Cambrian period        

B. Devonian period

C. Silurian period             

D. Precambrian period

Q71. Fully recovered patient may develop full-grown symptoms of poisoning as long as a month after the initial poisoning in the case of:



C. Aldrin              

D. Heptachlor

Q72.  Give the name of a family of order Hymenoptera which include crop pests:

A. Tenthredinidae          

B. Ichneumonidae

C. Braconidae   

D. Apidae

Q73.  Giving complete coverage to one-hectare crop more than 250 liters of liquid is called:

A. Low volume spray     

B. Very low volume spray

C. Medium volume spray            

D. High volume spray

Q74. Giving complete coverage to one hectare of crop by spraying 60 to 250 litres of liiquids, is known as:

A. Low volume spray     

B. Very low volume spray

C. Medium volume spray            

D. High volume spray

Q75. Glycerophosphate shuttle is found in:

A. Sense organs               

B. Fat dobies

C. Flight muscles              

D. Pharyngeal muscles

Q76.  Gram pod border feeds or the following crop:

A. Gram              

B. Variety of crops

C. Tomato          

D. Cotton

Q77. Grassy cut worm of groundnut can be controlled by:

A. Aldrin              

B. Endrin

C. Lime sulphur

D. None of these

Q78. Green Commandos is:

A. Heterohobditis           

B. Steinemama

C. Neoplectana

D. Howardula

Q79. Green house, white fly can be controlled by:

A. Apanteles erionotae

B. Encarsia formosa

C. Both of them               

D. None of them

Q80. Gughia weevil is a pest of:

A. Paddy             

B. Wheat

C. Jowar              

D. Maize

Q81.  Hamulate type of wing couping appartus is found in:

A. Grasshohopper          

B. Butterfly

C. Bug  

D. Honey

Q82. Heart, muscles and aorta are derived from:

A. Ectoderm      

B. Mesoderm

C. Endoderm     

D. All of the above

Q83.  Herioglyphus nigrorepletus is the scientific name of:

A. Rice grasshopper       

B. Gundhi bug

C. Pink stem borer          

D. Termite

Q84. Honey been queen produces _____ thousand eggs per day:


B. 2-3


D. 5.0?5.5

Q85. Horizontal resistance is also known as:

A. Non-specific

B. General

C. Polygenic       

D. All of the above

Q86. If equilibrium population level of a crop damaging insect is above the economic injury level, it is a:

A. Potential pest             

B. Not a pest

C. Sporadic pest

D. Regular pest

Q87. If one gram of a pesticide formulation containing 50% active ingredient is mixed with 1 litre of water, what will ingredient in the spray fluid?

A. 0.5 ppm         

B. 5.0 ppm

C. 50 ppm           

D. 500 ppm

Q88. In aphids cornnicals are projected from the forsum of:

A. 5th abdominal segment          

B. 6th abdominal segment

C. 7th abdominal segment          

D. 8th abdominal segment

Q89.  In binomial nomenclature different classes possessing common characters are indluded in a/an:

A. Sub class        

B. Order

C. Super class    

D. Phylum

Q90.  In case of rotary type of duster the air current is developed by:

A. Bellows          

B. Fans

C. Self-propelling jacket               

D. Self-propelling blades

Q91.  In grasshopper, the number of spiracles is:

A. 8 pairs             

B. 10 pairs

C. 6 pairs             

D. 12 pairs

Q92. In honey bees, when the larvae are fed on regular diet of pollen and honey, which cast is produced:

A. Queen            

B. Drones

C. Workers         

D. All of the above

Q93.  In Hymenoptera the first abdominal segment, which is fused with the metathorax, is called:

A. Cornical          

B. Epiproct

C. Propodium   

D. Gaster

Q94. Hopper burn’ appears in:

A. Wheat            

B. Sugarcane

C. Sorghum        

D. Rice

Q95.  In leucerne resistance to spotted aphid is associated with:

A. Low sinigrin in leaves               

B. High silica contents in leaves

C. High MBAO contents in leaves             

D. High saponin in leaves

Q96.  In order to be most effective control measures aimed at killing an insect-pest should be directed to attack:

A. Egg   

B. Pupae

C. Grub

D. Adult

Q97.  In organophosphate insecticide poisoning the muscarinic effects result in:

A. Anorexia       

B. Nausea

C. Bradycardia  

D. All of the above

Q98.  In physiological considerations the resistance to in insecticides may be developed due to:

A. Conversion of toxicant to non-toxic metabolites         

B. Excretion of toxicant

C. Storage of the toxicant            

D. All of the above

Q99.  In siphoning type of mouth parts proboscis is composed of:

A. Galeae           

B. Lacinia

C. Mentum        

D. Labial palp

Q100.  In solid cone nozzle the solid cone of liquid is formed due to:

A. Bigger size of the organic plate            

B. Bigger size of the organic plate

C. Central hole of swirl plate      

D. Small size of the strainer

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