UPSC IAS Prelims 2023 important questions from the Indian Polity section are given here. The mentioned questions are compiled after analysis of the past years of previous papers and are important for the preparation of UPSC IAS 2023 Prelims (Indian Polity section).
UPSC IAS Prelims exam is to be held on May 28, 2023. Candidates preparing for the exam will find the set of previous year question papers of very crucial for their preparation. In the article, get 43 questions on Indian Polity for UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2023 Preparation.
Some of the observations which will be beneficial for the aspirants of UPSC IAS Prelims 2023:
- The Exam pattern of UPSC IAS Prelims doesn’t have any fixed ratio of questions from any of the subjects. Hence, it is advised to practice all the topics well
- Under Indian Polity, Constitutional rights, amendments, Judicial laws, Parliamentary structure are some of the topics which must be given special attention
Indian Polity and Governance for Civil Services
Indian Polity and Governance for Civil Services 2023 – Pdf Download
UPSC IAS Prelims 2023: Questions Based on Polity Paper
Q1- for election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
(a) Anyone residing in India.
(b) A resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) Any citizen of India.
Ans- C (any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency).
Q2- Consider the following statements:
- In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
- According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans- (d) neither 1 nor 2
Q3- Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right
Ans- C (Constitutional Right)
Q4– Consider the following statements:
- The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
- Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
- Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Ans- (d) 2 and 3 Only
Q5- in India, Judicial Review implies
(a) The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
(b) The power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
(c) The power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
(d) The power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.
Ans- (a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders
Q6- Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?
- Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
- Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
- Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2and 3
Ans- (b) 1 and 3 Only
Q7- Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
- Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
- Abolition of untouchability
- Protection of the interests of minorities
- Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans- C (1 and 4 Only)
Q8- Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
Ans– C (A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people)
Q9- Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
(c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Ans- (d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Q10- Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
- A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
- They are correlative to legal duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q11- Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
(a) Liberty of thought
(b) Economic liberty
(c) Liberty of expression
(d) Liberty of belief
Ans- (b) Economic Liberty
Q12- Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
(b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
(c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
(d) a band of dedicated party workers.
Ans- (a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women
Q13- The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
(a) the executive and legislature work independently.
(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.
Ans: c ( the executive remains responsible to the legislature)
Q14- In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.
Ans- (a) Rights are correlatives with duties.
Q15- The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) The Fundamental Duties
Ans- (a) The Preamble
Q 16- The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through
- Adjournment motion
- Question hour
- Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans- (d) 1,2 and 3
Q17- With reference to the Parliament of India, 4 consider the following statements:
- A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
- Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q18- One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of
(a) Privileges
(b) Restraints
(c) Competition
(d) Ideology
Ans- (a) Privileges
Q19- Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon
- legislative function.
- executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
UPSC IAS Prelims 2021: Questions Based on Polity From 2018 Paper
Q1- Consider the following statements :
- In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans- (b) 2 only
Q2- Consider the following statements:
- The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on
it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans- (a) 1 Only
Q3- If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.
Ans- (b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament
Q4- Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India ?
- Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans- (a) 1 and 2 Only
Q5- Which among the following events happened earliest?
(a) Swami Dayanand established AryaSamaj.
(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.
Ans- (b) Dinabandhu Mitra Wrote Neeldarpan
Q6- With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the Ilouse whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conrerred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
Ans- (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
Q7- Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
Ans: C- Article 21 and freedoms guaranteed in Part III
Q8- With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
- The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the following statements given above is/are Correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Or 2
Ans- C- Both 1 and 2
Q9- In the federation established by The Government on India Act of 1935. Residuary Power was given to the
(a) Federal Legislature
(b) Governor General
(c) Provincial Legislature
(d) Provincial Governors
Ans- (b) Governor General
Q10- Consider the following statements:
- The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly Shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans- (a) 1 Only
Q 11- Which one of the following reflects the nicest, appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
(a) if there are more laws, there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
Ans- (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
Q 12- Consider the following statements:
- No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans- C- Both 1 and 2
Q 13- Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law” ?
- Limitation of powers
2. Equality before law
3. People’s responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans- C- 1, 2 and 4 only.
UPSC IAS Prelims 2021: Questions Based on Polity from 2019 Paper
Q1- Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Answer- (C) Sarkaria Commission.
Q2. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
- No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
- An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans– (d) Neither 1 and 2
Q3- In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully.
Ans- (b) Absence of restraint.
Q4- Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:
- PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
- A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
- There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
- Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans- (c) 1,2 and 4
Q5- With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
(c) In the event of the grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
Ans- (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by-laws made by the parliament.
Q6- With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:
- The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
- When a State Legislature does’ not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans- (a) 1 Only
Q7- Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29
Ans- (b) Article 19.
Q8- Consider the following statements:
- The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
- The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans- (b) 2 Only
Q9- Consider the following statements:
- The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
- The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
- The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
- If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans- (c) 3 and 4 only
Q10- The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai
Ans- (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
Q11- Consider the following statements:
- The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
- The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
- The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a) 1 and 2 Only